Download BI 200 – Final Exam

BI 200 – Final Exam A
Fall 2004
Name
Disclaimer
Consider each question, and answer each in the appropriate format (i.e., multiple choice).
You may qualify your answer if you have reservations. If your comments have merit,
you may receive partial or full credit.
Multiple choice. 2 points each
1. The bacterium E. coli is about how long?
a. 2 m
b. 0.02 m
c. 0.002 mm
d. 200 m
2. Which of the following are made up of eukaryotic cells?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Bacteria and Algae
Archaea and Fungi
Protozoa and Metazoa
Bacteria and Archaea
Protozoa and Viruses
3. Which of the following is not a protozoan?
a. Saccharomyces
b. Paramecium
c. Amoeba
d. all of the above are not protozoa
e. none of the above are protozoa
4. The bacteria in the image are best
described as
a. cocci
b. spirochaetes
c. dinoflagellates
d. bacilli
e. psedopods
5. The synthesis of protein is carried out by ______________ and is referred to as
_______________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
RNA polymerase; Translation
Ribosomes; Transcription
Reverse Transcriptase; Translation
DNA polymerase; Replication
Ribosomes; Translation
6. Beijerinck is credited with developing which technique to study lithotrophic bacteria
a. enrichment technique
b. aseptic technique
c. genome sequencing
d. pure culture technique
e. polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
7. Discovery of the cause of Anthrax is credited to
a. Pasteur
b. Koch
c. Winogradsky
d. Lister
e. Fleming
8. Which of the 10 chemical structures
represents an ester? Put a circle around
the structure.
Given the structure of the side chain of
the amino acid leucine:
CH3
- CH2-CH
CH3
9. Would the side chain be
a. polar and hydrophobic
b. non-polar and hydrophobic
c. polar and hydrophilic
d. non-polar and hydrophilic
10. The progenote or universal ancestor would have which of the following traits
a. be a virus
b. be a prokaryote
c. be a psychrophile
d. be an obligate aerobe
e. be a little green man with antennae
11. Banded iron formations or “red beds” containing Fe3+ indicate the presence of
_________ in the atmosphere. They probably began to form __________ years ago.
a. insects; 3.5 billion
b. sunlight; 1.9 billion
c. oxygen; 900 million 1.4 billion; eukaryotes
d. land plants; 60 million
e. methane; 6,000
12. Phospholipids of bacteria differ from those in eukaryotic membranes because
bacterial membranes have ring structures called ______________ rather than
_______________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
tetrapyroles; porphoryn
esters; isoprenes
isoprene sub-units; ether
hopanoids; sterols
none of the above, they have identical phospholipids
13. Lactose enters the cell with the help of a permease protein that simultaneously allows
the entry of a proton. This is an example of
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
an antiporter
Primary active transport
a symporter
Group translocation
a uniporter
14. Which structure below occurs in the phospholipid monolayer of some thermophilic
archaea? Mark the correct letter
a. glycerol diether
b. diglycerol tetraether
15. Cell walls of fungi are made of a polymer called _________________ which is
composed of _________________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
cellulose;  1->4 linked glucose
chitin;  1->4 linked N-acetylglucosamine
peptidoglycan;  1->4 linked N-acetylglucosamine and muramic acid
the S-layer; proteins
none of the above, algae don’t have cell walls.
16. In the gram-negative cell envelope, which is the correct order of constituents as you
move from the inside of the cell (cytoplasm) to the outside?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
porin, peptidoglycan, lipoprotein, outer membrane, lipopolysaccharide
cytoplasmic membrane, peptidoglycan, lipoprotein, outer membrane, periplasm
cytoplasmic membrane, porin, peptidoglycan, lipoteichoic acid, outer membrane
porin, peptidoglycan, lipoprotein, outer membrane, periplasm
cytoplasmic membrane, peptidoglycan, lipoprotein, outer membrane,
lipopolysaccharide
17. Would the structure on the left be
part of
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. either DNA or RNA
18. How many genes in the E. coli chromosome?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
4
4,000
4.5 x 106
none, DNA is usually single stranded in prokaryotes
none, prokaryotes have plasmids, but not chromosomes
19. Which of the following is generally true about DNA in eukaryotes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
DNA is supercoiled around histone proteins
DNA is single stranded
There is one copy of each chromosome
Chromosomes are usually circular rather than linear
There are usually more chromosomes than plasmids
20. Endospores
a. are phase bright
b. can germinate to form vegetative cells
c. contain diaminopimelic acid and Ca2+ ions
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
21. The bright spots in the lithotrophic bacterium Beggiatoa are most likely which
prokaryotic cell feature?
a. carboxysomes
b. sulfur granules
c. RuBisCo enzymes
d. any of the above
e. none of the above
22. Which of the following protein structures would be found on the outside of archaea
lacking pseudomurein and some bacteria?
a. silicon dioxide frustule
b. cilia
c. S-Layer
d. Lipopolysachharide
23. Microtubules are part of the structure of all of the following, except:
a. cilia
b. eukaryotic flagella
c. prokaryotic flagella
d. cytoskeleton
e. spindle apparatus
24. The chloroplast is organized into highly folded inner membranes called
_____________ and an internal space called the ____________.
a. christae; matrix
b. thylakoids; stroma
c. chlorosomes; cytoplasm
d. nitrosomonas; periplasm
e. mitochondria; hydrogenosome
25. Which of the following is not correct regarding Hydrogenosomes?
a. They occur in some anaerobic protozoa
b. They are probably related to the bacterium Paracoccus
c. Hydrogen is a byproduct of their metabolism
d. all of the above correct
e. none of a-c are correct
26. In chemical reactions that support the growth of microorganisms
a. ΔG > 0
b. ΔG = 0
c. ΔG < 0
d. ΔG is irrelevant
27. Which of the following is true about glycoysis and fermentation?
a. ATP are formed by substrate phosphorylation
b. cytochrome and succinyl-CoA are high energy intermeidates
c. it is also called the Z-scheme
d. water is the electron donor for ETP
e. oxygen gas is the electron acceptor
28. Which of the following is true about the reduction of pyruvate to ethanol and CO2 by
yeast?
a. NAD+ is regenerated from NADH
b. the key enzyme is lactate dehydrogenase
c. ATP is produced by electron transport phosphorylation
d. ATP is produced by substrate level phosphorylation
e. none of the above is correct
29. Which of the following is true about the Krebs (TCA) cycle?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
oxygen is consumed
oxygen is produced
ATP is produced by electron transport phosphorylation
ATP is produced by substrate level phosphorylation
none of the above is correct
30. Which of the following is not true about electron transport phosphorylation in
aerobic respiration?
a. a proton gradient, H+, is formed
b. ubiquinone is involved
c. ATP is produced by ATPase
d. oxygen is produced
e. none of the above, all are true
31. Which enzyme would be unique in the fermentation of glucose to lactic acid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
-galactosidase
lactase
alcohol dehydrogenase
aldolase
lactate dehydrogenase
32. Which bacterium would carry out the fermentation of glucose to lactic acid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Saccharomyces
Escherichia
Zymomonas
Streptococcus
Methanosarcina
33. Which of the following organisms grows by transferring electrons from acetic acid to
Fe3+ (ferric iron)? It is an obligate anaerobe, and produces Fe2+ (ferrous iron) as end
product.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Gallionella
Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
Rusticyanin
Geobacter
Leptothrix
34. The unique enzyme in substrate oxidation for Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
APS
nitrite oxidase
ammonium monooxygenase
rusticyanin
nitrite reductase
35. Methanogens
a. have a large separation between the electron donating couple and accepting couple
b. fluoresce under ultraviolet light due to chlorophyll
c. are obligate anaerobes
d. are not widely distributed in nature
e. can be found in cows, but not termites
36. Denitrification
a. is carried out by Nitrosomonas
b. is an example of lithotrophy
c. depletes nitrogen from the soil
d. is associated with acid mine drainage
37. The purple pigment associated with Halobacterium is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
phycobillin
bacteriochlorophyll a
bacteriorhodopsin
-carotene
chlorophyll g
38. Anoxygenic photosynthesis
a. is also called non-cyclic photosynthesis
b. is carried out by cyanobacteria (among others)
c. involves central chlorophyll molecules P680 of photosystem II
d. evolved before aerobic respiration and oxygenic photosynthesis
39. Which of the following is a purple non-sulfur phototrophic bacterium?
a. Volvox
b. Oscillatoria
c. Halobacterium
d. Rhodospirillum
e. Clostridium
40. Carbon fixation occurs in the ______________ of chloroplasts, while nitrogen
fixation occurs in special cyanobacterial cells called __________________.
a. carboxysomes; akinetes
b. chlorosomes; grana
c. matrix; auxotrophs
d. stroma; heterocysts
e. endospores; phycobillisomes
41. All of the following are features of gene expression in eukaryotes, except
a. Intron excision during RNA processing of the primary transcript
b. Translation at the endoplasmic reticulum
c. Tanscription of polycistronic mRNA from operons
d. 5’ capping and 3’ polyadenylation of mature mRNA
42. Treatment for Anthrax includes ciprofloxin which inhibits the enzyme that
introduces supercoiling in bacteria. This enzyme is
a. Histone
b. Topoisomerase I
c. Topoisomerase II (gyrase)
d. Nuclease
e. RecA
43. A piece of double stranded DNA has 14% Adenine bases. Which of the following
would not be true?
a. there would be 36% cytosine in the DNA
b. there would be 14% uracil in the DNA
c. there would be 36% guanine in the DNA
d. none of the above, all are true in the DNA
44. The inability to ferment lactose is an example of
a. a visible phenotypic marker
b. a differential phenotypic marker
c. a selectable phenotypic marker
45. An individual able to synthesize the amino acid tryptophan is an example of
_______and their phenotype would be _____.
a. a phototroph; trpE
b. a prototroph; Trp+
c. an autotroph; RX7
d. an auxotroph; Trp46. The exchange of homologous DNA molecules in general recombination requires all
of the following, except:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
RecA protein
single stranded binding protein
strand invasion
pili
high levels of DNA homology
47. Which of the following is not a means of gene exchange among bacteria?
a. transcription
b. transformation
c. conjugation
d. transduction
48. Which of the following is not true about transformation?
a. Viruses are not involved.
b. The process is not sensitive to the enzyme DNase.
c. DNA can be transferred between species.
d. The donor cell must be lysed before transfer can take place.
49. Genes on plasmids may be responsible for all of the following except:
a. expression of a virulence factor
b. synthesis of ribosome protein
c. synthesis of pili
d. transfer of drug resistance
e. degradation of pollutants
50. In conjugation genes on plasmids are transferred in matings between:
a. two F- strains
b. F+ and F- cells
c. two F+ strains
d. a and b
e. b and c
BONUS
51. Viruses may be as small as
a. 0.02 nm
b. 0.02 m
c. 0.02 mm
d. 0.02 inches
52. When lysogenized the bacterial host
a. is immune to further infection
b. may produce additional toxins as with diptheria and scarlet fever
c. can reproduce indefinitely
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
53. When an animal virus leaves its host cell and takes some membrane with it, its
structure is referred to as
a. helical
b. prion
c. enveloped
d. complex
54. The type of infection caused by the HIV is best characterized as
a. Lytic
b. Tumerogenic
c. Persistent
d. Latent
BI 200 Final Exam Topics
1. Size of E. coli
2. 7 types of microorganisms – eukaryotes, prokaryotes, and viruses
3. Representatives of protozoa
4. Representative shapes of bacteria
5. Central dogma of biology – DNA replication, transcription, and translation
6. History of microbiology – enrichment, pure culture, and aseptic technique
7. Diseases discovered by Pasteur, Koch, Winogradsky, Lister, etc.
8. Recognizing ethers, carboxyls, ethers, hydroxyls, and amines
9. Hydrophobic nature of polar amino acids
10. Early Earth’s conditions and the universal ancestor
11. Time of events in Earth’s history
12. Phospholipid structure – archaea, bacteria, and eukaryotes
13. Transport mechanisms of glucose lactose and maltose
14. Structure of thermophilic archean membranes
15. Cell wall materials – cellulose, chitin, peptidoglycans, S-layers, etc.
16. Gram-negative cell envelopes – porins, periplasm, LPS, etc.
17. Differences between DNA and RNA
18. DNA in prokaryotes – genome size
19. DNA in eukaryotes – chromosome structure
20. Endospores
21. Internal prokaryotic features – carboxysomes, sulfur granules, Rubisco
22. External prokaryotic features – pili, capsules, flagella, fimbriae, S-layers
23. Microtubules
24. Structure of chloroplasts/mitochondria
25. Hydrogensomes
26. Energy changes during chemical reactions (the Energy diagram)
27. Glycolysis, oxygen and ATP production (ETP, SLP)
28. Reduction of pyruvate to ethanol
29. TCA cycle, oxygen and ATP production (ETP, SLP)
30. Aerobic respiration, oxygen and ATP production (ETP, SLP)
31. Enzymes of lactic acid and ethanol fermentation
32. Organisms of lactic acid and ethanol fermentation
33. Iron-reducing organisms
34. Enzymes of chemolithotrophic substrate oxidation
35. Methanogens
36. Denitrification
37. Photosynthesis in archaea
38. Anoxygenic/Oxygenic photosynthesis - general properties
39. Anoxygenic/Oxygenic photosynthesis - organisms
40. Carbon and nitrogen fixation in photosynthetic organisms
41. Contrast of genetics in prokaryotes and eukaryotes (Fig. 7.2)
42. Supercoiling in prokaryotes
43. Percent base composition of DNA and RNA – complementarity
44. Visible, differential, and selectable markers
45. Selectable mutants unable to synthesize growth factors and their designation
46. Requirements for homologous recombination
47. Mechanisms of gene exchange in bacteria
48. Features of transformation
49. Genes found on plasmids
50. Conjugation
BONUS
51. The size of viruses
52. Phage conversion and properties of lysogenized cells
53. Structure of animal viruses
54. 4 outcomes or courses of animal viral infections