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TEST-QUESTIONS TO MODULE CONTROL 2 (LEVEL 1) MEDICAL 1. The alternative forms of a gene are called A. Homozygous B. Heterozygous C. Genotypic D. Alleles E. Loci 2. Trait which appears in the F1 generation in crosses between true-breeding strains is defined as A. Dominant B. Recessive C. Monohybrid D. Genotypic E. Phenotypic 3. A child inherits alternative alleles from the parents such genotype is called A. Heterozygous B. Homozygous C. Parental D. Monohybrid E. Genotypic 4. The physical appearance of an organism's genes is its A. environment B. genotype C. phenotype D. genetic code E. number of chromosomes 5. By crossing Aa × Aa, what is the ratio of phenotypes in the offspring produced? Assume complete dominance for the trait. A. 100% dominance B. 100% recessive C. 75% dominant: 25% recessive D. 50% dominant: 50% recessive E. 25% dominant: 75% recessive 6. The law of segregation states that A. Each individual carries a single copy of each "factor." B. Pairs of factors fuse during the gametes formation. C. Pairs of factors separate during the gametes formation. D. The sex chromosomes of males and females differ. E. There is an independent assortment of non-homologous chromosomes during meiosis 7. Assuming complete dominance, the offspring of the cross AA×Aa will show a phenotypic ratio: A. 3:1 B. 1:1 C. 1:2:1 D. 9:3:3:1 E. none of the above, they will all have the same phenotype 8. The 9:3:3:1 ratio is a ratio of A. phenotypes in a test cross B. phenotypes in a monohybrid cross C. phenotypes in a dihybrid cross D. genotypes in a monohybrid cross E. genotypes in a dihybrid cross 9. In crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote individuals, the chance of getting a recessive phenotype in the next generation is: A. 25 percent B. 50 percent C. 75 percent D. 100 percent E. 0 percent 10. A dominant allele is defined as: A. an allele that is lethal to individuals that carry it B. an allele that phenotype is shown only when it is in the homozygous condition C. an allele that phenotype is shown only when it is in the heterozygous condition D. an allele that phenotype is shown in both the homozygous and heterozygous condition E. an allele that phenotype is shown even when it is absent from the genome 11. How many different kinds of gametes may be produced by an organism with the genotype RrYY? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 1 12. A cross between two diheterozygous (AaBb) parents produces offspring with an expected phenotypic ratio (assume complete dominance) A. 3 : 1 B. 1 : 2 : 1 C. 1 : 2 : 3 : 9 D. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 E. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 13. G.Mendel explained his dihybrid cross results by assuming that two traits A. are inherited independently of each other B. are linked together C. influence each other during gamete formation D. are always heterozygous E. were part of the sex chromosomes 14. Segregation of alleles occurs during A. mitosis B. meiosis I C. meiosis II D. fertilization E. pollination 15. Suppose two AaBb individuals are mated. What fraction of the offspring will be homozygous recessive for the both traits? A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 1/8 D. 1/16 E. 1/32 16. Determine the genotypes of parents, if the observed ratio of their offspring is 1 : 1 : 1 : 1. A. AaBb × aabb B. AaBB × aaBb C. AaBb × Aabb D. AaBb × AaBb E. Aabb × aaBb 17. The Punnett square was used by Mendel to A. record the results of his test crosses B. develop the idea of the dihybrid cross C. disprove pangenesis D. predict the probabilities of different allele combinations E. none of the above 18. How many different types of gamete can be formed by organism with genotype AaBbCCDdEE? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 E. 16 19. The exact position of gene alleles of a gene on a chromosome is known as a A. locus B. linkage point C. centromere D. translocation E. site 20. Genes interaction is the relationship between A. region of DNA molecule B. region of RNA molecule C. parts of chromosomes D. molecules of enzymes E. ribosomes and m-RNA. 21. A test cross is used to A. demonstrate whether two genes are linked B. show whether inheritance is polygenic or Mendelian C. determine whether a trait is sex-linked or autosomal D. test whether an organism expressing the dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous E. find out whether the trait is characterized by incomplete dominance 22. Determine genotypes of parents, if the observed ratio of their offspring is 1 : 2. A. AaBb × aabb B. AA × aa C. Aa × Aa D. aaBB × aaBB E. aaBb × aabb 23. Phenomenon, in which a single gene produces multiple phenotypic effects, is called A. Heterosis B. Pleiotropy C. Codominance D. Overdominance E. Incomplete dominance 24. The type of inheritance in which both heterozygotes and dominant homozygotes have the same phenotype is A. complete dominance B. incomplete dominance C. overdominance D. codominance E. none of the above 2 25. Blue-eyed woman with blood type AB is Rhnegative. What is her genotype? A. bbIAIBRR B. BbIAIBRr C. bbIAirr D. bbIAIBRr E. bbIAIBrr 26. Inheritance of ABO blood types illustrates A. superdominance B. incomplete dominance C. multiple allelism D. pleiotropy E. compementation 27. A kind of gene interaction, when dominant allele in heterozygous condition shows its action more intensively than in homozygous condition is A. complete dominance B. incomplete dominance C. superdominance D. codominance E. relative dominance 28. Blood type MN blood is an example of A. codominance B. complete dominance C. incomplete dominance D. blending of alleles E. monogenic traits 29. In a population expressing 5 different alleles for a particular gene, how many alleles may be present in each organism in the population? A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2 E. 1 30. A example of multiple alleles is the inheritance of A. Color of hair B. Shape of nose C. Blood types in system ABO D. Ability to synthesize interferon E. Pigmentation of skin 31. If father has blood type A (heterozygous) and mother has blood type AB, what is the probability that child will have blood type B? A. 1 B. 0 C. ¼ D. ½ E. ¾ 32. An example of primary pleiotropy is A. Phenylketonuria B. Sickle-cell anemia C. Marfan's syndrome D. Galactosaemia E. none of the above 33. An example of secondary pleiotropy is A. Phenylketonuria B. Hartnup disease C. Marfan's syndrome D. Osteogenesis imperfecta E. none of the above 34. Alleles at one locus modify or prevent the expression of alleles at another. The preceding is a definition for A. epistasis B. pleiotropy C. recombinant DNA D. selective breeding E. gene therapy 35. A kind of gene interaction in which the manifestation of a character is determined by presence of two dominant nonallelic genes is A. complementation B. codominance C. incomplete dominance D. complete dominance E. superdominance 36. The frequency with which a gene exhibits its effect is called A. Penetrance B. Codominance C. Pleiotropy D. Polygenic inheritance E. Expressivity 37. Variation in allelic expression is called A. Codominance B. Pleiotropy C. Expressivity D. Polygenic inheritance E. Penetrance 38. Human beings have A. 48 linkage groups B. 46 linkage groups C. 45 linkage groups 3 D. 23 linkage groups E. 22 linkage groups 39. T.H. Morgan formulated: A. the law of segregation B. the law of unit characters C. the law of dominance D. the chromosome theory of heredity E. Murphy’s law 40. Crossing-over is a process of: A. duplication of DNA B. producing new alleles C. gene recombination D. nondisjunction E. transcribing RNA 41. A centimorgan is unit of distance between any two A. Linkage groups B. Chromatids C. Allelic genes D. Nonallelic genes E. Linked genes 42. In a testcross, an animal with genotype AaBb were mated with one of a doubly recessive genotype: aabb. The offspring include: 442 AaBb, 458 aabb, 46 Aabb, and 54 aaBb. What could you say about the gene location? A. The genes are on separate chromosomes. B. The genes A and B are linked and are 5 units apart. C. The genes A and B are linked and 10 units apart. D. The genes A and B are linked and are 20 units apart. E. The genes A and B are linked and are 2.5 units apart. 43. In humans, a number of autosomes is A. 22 B. 44 C. 23 D. 46 E. 48 44. A linkage group A. is a chromosome region in which crossing over cannot occur. B. can occur only on a heterochromosome C. represents all genes that are located on the same chromosome. D. is a collection of genes that never produce recombinant gametes. E. can occur only on an autosome. 45. When a sufficient number of mutant genes are analyzed, a number of linkage groups equals a A. number of sex chromosomes. B. number of autosomes. C. diploid chromosome number. D. size of the largest chromosome in centimorgans. E. haploid number. 46. In humans, sex is determined in at moment of A. formation of zygote B. maturation of eggs C. maturation of spermatozoans D. formation of sex glands E. activation of Y- chromosome genes responsible for the sex differentiation. 47. How many genes does a child receive from its father? A. 100 % B. 75 % C. 50 % D. 25 % E. 0 % 48. Homologous chromosomes similar in both sexes are called A. Autosomes B. Androsomes C. Centrosomes D. Heterosomes E. Lysosomes 49. In a family, the father and son are haemophiliacs, the mother is healthy. Determine the genotypes of parents. A. XHXH and XHY B. XHY and XhXh C. XHXh and XhY D. XHY and XHXh E. AaBb and aabb 50. Which of the following disorders does not an example of X-linked inheritance? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Haemophilia A D. Haemophilia B E. Daltonism 51. Which one of these is sex-linked trait? A. Arachnodactyly B. Phenylketonuria 4 C. Albinism D. Anophthalmia E. Colour blindness 52. A haemophiliac man (who suffers from haemophilia) is married to healthy homozygous woman. What is the probability that their son will be haemophiliac? A. 100% B. 75% C. 50% D. 25% E. 0% 53. From which parent(s) did a male with redgreen color blindness inherit the defective allele? A. only his mother B. only his father C. the mother or father, but not both D. both the mother and the father E. it is impossible to determine with certainly using only the given information 54. Why are traits controlled by sex-linked recessive genes more often expressed in males? A. Males inherit these genes from their fathers. B. Males are always homozygous for these genes. C. All male offspring of a female carrier get the gene. D. The male has only one gene for the trait. E. Males get more doses of the recessive gene than do females. 55. The condition when organism has single copy of gene (e.g., one allele in male genotype) is called A. homozygous B. heterozygous C. hemizygous D. sex-linked E. autosomal 56. Example of holandric trait is A. large eyes B. wide nose C. thick lips D. hairy ears E. curly hair 57. If husband and wife have normal vision, but fathers of both were colourblind, the probability of their first daughter to be colourblind is A. B. C. D. E. 0%. 25% 50% 75% 100% 58. Breast development in mammals is typically only seen in females and the trait is inherited on the autosomes. This is an example of a A. Y-linked trait B. X-linked trait C. sex-influenced trait D. sex-limited trait E. none of the above 59. Example of multifactorial disorder is A. phenylketonuria B. diabetes C. albinism D. sickle-cell anaemia E. galactosaemia. 60. Leber's hereditary optic atrophy is caused by a mutation in: A. chromosome 3 B. chromosome 12 C. chromosome 15 D. chromosome 19 E. mitochondrial DNA. 61. Marfan syndrome is caused by mutations in the gene which encodes A. Collagen B. Histone C. Elastin D. Fibrillin E. Tubulin 62. Single point mutations can still cause dysfunctional proteins. For example, substitution mutation causes the production of abnormal hemoglobin in sickle-cell anemia. In the mutant hemoglobin A. glutamic acid is substituted by valine B. valine is substituted by glutamate C. glutamine is substituted by valine D. alanine is substituted by valine E. phenylalanine is substituted by glycine 63. The mode of inheritance shown by glucose6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is: A. autosomal dominant B. autosomal recessive C. X-linked dominant 5 D. X-linked recessive E. Y-linked 64. In a pedigree chart, which is correct? A. circles = males; squares = females B. a line between a circle and a square represents a mating C. a double line between a circle and a square represents the second marriage D. a carrier with a normal phenotype is represented by a black circle or square. E. all the above are correct 65. A genetics specialist analyzed the genealogy of a family and found that both males and females may have the illness, not across all the generations, and that healthy parents may have affected children. What is the mode of inheritance in this illness? A. Y-linked B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked dominant E. X-linked recessive 66. Both sickle-cell anemia and hemophilia A. provide resistance to malaria infection B. are seen in homozygous dominant individuals C. are caused by genes coding for defective protein D. are extremely common throughout the world E. are sex-linked traites 67. In child's blood, high content of galactose and low glucose concentration are presents. There are cataract, mental deficiency, adipose degeneration of liver in patient. What disease is it? A. Galactosemia B. Steroid diabetes C. Lactosemia D. Diabetes mellitus E. Fructosemia 68. In what disease is sphingomyelinase a defective enzyme? A. Tay-Sachs disease B. favism C. acatalasia D. talassemia E. Niemann-Pick disease 69. Which of the following is an example of disorder of metal metabolism? A. B. C. D. E. albinism hepatolenticular degeneration amaurotic familial idiocy cystinuria galactosemia. 70. Which of the following is an example of disorder of copper transport, resulting in copper accumulation and toxicity to the liver and brain? A. Brachydactyly B. Daltonism C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Tay-Sachs disease E. Wilson's disease. 71. In some cases, the уellow-green colored ring (the 'Kayser-Fleischer ring') in the periphery of a patient’s cornea occurs to represent copper deposits. This gene disorder is A. Brachydactyly B. Daltonism C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Tay-Sachs disease E. Wilson's disease. 72. Which of the following is an example of disorder of lipid metabolism? A. Wilson`s disease B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Haemophilia D. Diabetes E. Galactosaemia 73. An example of multifactorial disorder is A. Albinism B. Alkaptonuria C. Sickle-cell anaemia D. Diabetes E. Galactosaemia 74. Which is associated with the deficiency of factor VIII in the blood? A. male pattern baldness B. sickle-cell disease C. color blindness D. hemophilia E. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 75. Consanguinity shows a strong association with which pattern of inheritance? A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked dominant D. X-linked recessive 6 E. Y-linked 76. Phenylketonuria is said to be a recessive inherited disease because A. the fraction of babies with the disease falls in successive generations. B. the disease is not observed in individuals with one mutant gene and one normal one. C. It results in lipid accumulation. D. myelin recedes from axons, causing failure of action potential transmission. E. the condition only appears following meiotic recombination. 77. Which of the following is an example of disorder of mucopolysaccharidoses metabolism? A. Phenylketonuria B. Wilson`s disease C. Hurler`s syndrome D. Favism E. Sickle-cell anaemia 78. Which of the following is an example of monosomy? A. 46, XX B. 46, XY C. 47, XXX D. 69, XYY E. 45, X0 79. Which of the following karyotypes is not compatible with survival to birth? A. 47,XY,+13 B. 47,XX,+18 C. 47,XY,+21 D. 45,X0 E. 45,Y0 82. Which of the following is a Klinefelter syndrome’s karyotype? A. 47,XXX B. 47,XYY C. 47,XXY D. 45,Y0 E. 45,X0 83. Which of the following karyotypes corresponds to Down syndrome? A. 47,XY,+13 B. 47,XX,+18 C. 47,XY,+21 D. 47,XXY E. 45,Y0 84. Jacob's syndrome is a rare chromosomal disorder that is caused by A. presence of a single Y chromosome in male karyotype B. presence of a single X chromosome in female karyotype C. one extra Y chromosome in male karyotype D. one extra X chromosome in male karyotype E. one extra X chromosome in female karyotype 85. A karyotype of a patient with Turner`s syndrome is A. 47, XY, +18 B. 47, XY, +13 C. 45, X0 D. 47, XX, +21 E. 47, XXY. 80. Which type of mutation is a cause of Cri du chat syndrome? A. inversion B. insertion C. translocation D. deletion E. duplication 86. An individual has rounded face, broad forehead, a Mongolian type of eyelid fold, flattened nose bridge, permanently open mouth, projecting lower lip, protruding tongue, short neck, flat hands, and stubby fingers. What disease can be diagnosed in the patient? A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Supermale C. Alkaptonuria D. Down’s syndrome E. Turner's syndrome 81. The Cri du chat syndrome is caused by a deletion of which chromosome? A. 4 B. 5 C. 7 D. 15 E. 21 87. Which of these karyotypes corresponds to Patau's syndrome? A. trisomy 13 B. trisomy 18 C. trisomy 21 D. trisomy X E. monosomy X 7 88. Karyotyping can be used to diagnose which of the following genetic disorders? A. Down syndrome B. Phenylketonuria C. Marfan's syndrome D. Cystic fibrosis E. Hemophilia 89. An environmentally induced, nonhereditary variation in an organism, closely resembling a genetically determined trait is A. mutation B. genocopy C. phenocopy D. morphosis E. multiple alleles 90. The three natural processes that form the basis evolution are A. adaptation, natural selection, and inheritance B. predation, genetic variation, and natural selection C. mutation, genetic variation, and adaptation D. fossils, natural selection, and adaptation E. genetic variation, inheritance, and natural selection 91. Which refers to the mutation where a chromosome becomes reoriented 180° of normal position? A. inversion B. translocation C. deletion D. duplication E. monosomy 92. Point out a number of Barr bodies in cells of female patient with Edward`s syndrome: A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 93. The failure of chromosomes to separate is A. synaptonemal complex B. recombination C. crossing over D. nondisjunction E. nondisjointment 94. A method used for diagnosis of Klinefelter`s syndrome is: A. Chromatography B. C. D. E. Genealogical method Twins method Population method Detection of sex chromatin. 95. A woman who was sick with rubella during the pregnancy gave birth to a deaf child with hare lip and cleft palate. This congenital defect is phenocopy of: A. Down's syndrome B. Edward's syndrome C. Patau's syndrome D. Klinefelter`s syndrome E. Cri du chat syndrome 96. Cytogenetic analysis is used to diagnose A. Sickle-cell anaemia B. Phenylketonuria C. Turner`s syndrome D. Marfan’s syndrome E. Hemophilia 97. The ridge patterns on hands and feet are completed A. About the 13th week of gestation B. About the 16th week of gestation C. Not long before birth. D. During first month of life E. To 3 years 98. In patient with Down`s syndrome the atd angle is A. 108° B. 81° C. 66° D. 48° E. 42° 99. A single transverse crease on palm, called simian crease, is revealed in patient with A. Klinefelter’s syndrome B. Jacob’s syndrome C. Marfan’s syndrome D. Down`s syndrome E. Patau’s syndrome 100. If both parents are affected with the same autosomal recessive disorder then the probability that each of their children will be affected equals A. 1 in 4 B. 1 in 2 C. 2 in 3 D. 3 in 4 E. 1 8 101. Phenylkertonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive disease in which affected individuals lack the enzyme necessary to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. What is the probability of having a child who is a carrier (and does not manifest the disease) if one parent is a carrier and the other parent carries no alleles for the disease? A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 100% 102. Chorionic villus sampling uses what tissue to analyze the fetal cells and provide karyotyping? A. fetal blood tissue B. cells floating in the amniotic fluid C. a small biopsy from the embryo itself but it readily heals D. membrane tissue from the embryo side of the placenta E. membrane tissue from the mother's side of the placenta 103. The diet as method for managing genetic disease is used in A. Haemophilia B. phenylketonuria C. daltonism D. achondroplasia E. sickle-cell anaemia 104.A population is defined as A. members of the same genus B. members of the same species C. members of the same genus, living in the same area, that have the potential to interbreed D. members of the same species, living in the same area, that have the potential to interbreed E. interbreeding members of the same species 105.In the Hardy-Weinberg formulas, the frequency of the dominant allele in the population is designated as A. p B. q C. p2 D. q2 E. 2pq 106. In the Hardy-Weinberg formulas, the frequency of heterozygous individuals in the population is designated as A. p B. q C. p2 D. q2 E. 2pq 107. The percentage of the homozygous recessive individuals in the population is 36%. Calculate the frequency of the recessive allele in given population. A. 0.06 B. 0.36 C. 0.60 D. 0.64 E. 0.86 108. The gene frequencies in this population are p = 0.6 and q = 0.4. Calculate the percentage of heterozygous individuals in given population. A. 4 % B. 6 % C. 24 % D. 48 % E. 64 % 109. The only way that new alleles are created is A. Natural selection B. Genetic drift C. Nonrandom mating D. Migration E. Mutation 110. The exchange of genes between populations, which are usually of the same species, is called A. Recombination B. Gene pool C. Gene drift D. Gene flow E. Gene adaptation 111. Generally occurred mutations are A. Recessive B. Dominant C. Harmful D. Beneficial E. Somatic 112. Everything is true about ideal population, except: A. infinitely large population size B. presence of gene drift 9 C. D. E. absence of mutations, migrations, natural selection presence of panmixia gender ratio in population is 1:1 113. Mutation is the essential prerequisite for the evolution of life. Evolutionary significance of mutations is that they A. ensure reproductive isolation of populations B. maintain gene drift C. generate genetic variation D. ensure survival and adaptability of a species E. maintain of genes constancy in population 119. A number of chromosomes in primary spermatocytes is A. The same as in spermatogonia B. Half of that in spermatogonia C. The same as in secondary spermatocyte D. Half of that in secondary spermatocyte. E. The same as in spermatid 120. An immature male gamete that is formed from a spermatocyte is called A. Spermatid B. Spermatozoon C. Spermagonium D. Sperm cell E. Germ cell 114.How many sperm cells come from a single spermatogonia by meiosis? A. One B. Two C. Four D. Several hundred E. Millions. 121. What occurs in parthenogenesis? A. artificial fertilization occurs B. egg is fertilized by a sperm C. egg undergoes cleavage without fertilization D. egg undergoes cleavage after fertilization E. sperm dies before fertilization. 115. How many ova come from single oogonia by meiosis? A. One B. Two C. Four D. Several hundred E. Millions. 122. In spermatogenesis, correct sequence of cell stages is A. spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatozoa B. spermatocytes, spermatogonia, spermatids, spermatozoa C. spermatogonia, spermatids, spermatocytes, spermatozoa D. spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatogonia, spermatozoa E. spermatids, spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatozoa. 116.Mitochondria of a sperm are in its A. Middle B. Head C. Acrosome D. Centriole E. Tail. 117.Ploidy in a secondary spermatocyte cells is A. n B. 2 n C. 3 n D. 4 n E. 2 n -1. 118.An exchange of chromosome segments between maternal and paternal chromatids during meiosis is called A. Linkage B. Conjugation C. Duplication D. Crossing-over E. Maturation. 123. Acrosome function is A. to contact and penetrate the egg B. to provide energy for the movement of the sperm C. to carry genetic information D. in the first cleavage of the zygote E. in the second cleavage of the zygote. 124. What cells repeatedly divide mitotically during the spermatogenesis? A. Spermatids B. Primary spermatocytes C. Secondary spermatocytes D. Spermatogonia E. Spermatozoa 125. What cells divide meiotically during the spermatogenesis? 10 A. B. C. D. E. Spermatids Spermatocytes Spermatogonia Sperm cell Germ cell 126.The cellular organelle from which an acrosome is derived is the: A. Golgi complex B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Nucleolus D. Centrosome E. Peroxisome 127.The process resulting in production of female gamete is called A. Fertilization B. Menstruation C. Oogenesis D. Spermatogenesis E. Diakinesis 128. Release of the oocytes from ovarian follicles is called A. Ovulation B. Menstruation C. Maturation D. Oogenesis E. Ovum activation 129.In in A. B. C. D. E. spermatozoon the centrioles are localized Head Tail Neck Perivitelline space Acrosome 130.Physiological changes of spermatozoa in the female reproductive tract before being capable of penetrating the ovum is A. Acrosome reaction B. Cortical reaction C. Capacitation D. Integration E. Fusion 131. Period of spermatogenesis including both meiotic divisions is called A. Multiplication B. Growth C. Maturation D. Formation E. Integration 132. In humans the fertilization usually occurs in A. Vagina B. Uterus C. Ovaries D. Fallopian tubes E. Cervix 133. The following statements are true about meiosis, except: A. Occurs only in reproductive (sex) cells B. Four daughter cells are produced C. Consists of two sub-divisions D. Daughter cells have identical chromosomes to parent cell E. Chromosome number reduces to half 134. The early stage of oogenesis occurs in A. 3-7 month of embryogenesis B. 7-9 month of embryogenesis C. neonatal period D. infancy period E. puberty period 135. The early stage of spermatogenesis occurs in A. 3-7 month of embryogenesis B. 7-9 month of embryogenesis C. neonatal period D. infancy period E. puberty period 136. The following statements are true about characteristics of sexual reproduction, except: A. It is generally biparental. B. It involves formation of gametes. C. During gamete formation the main cell division is mitosis. D. The offspring is not genetically identical to the parents. E. Sexual reproduction is a source of variety in population. 137. The following statements are true about characteristics of asexual reproduction, except: A. Multiplication occurs rapidly. B. It is generally uniparental. C. It involves meiotic cell division. D. Fertilization does not occur. E. The offspring is a genetic copy of the parent. 138. The fusion of two unicellular organisms in zygote formation is called A. Cоpulation B. Conjugation C. Syngamy 11 D. E. Endogamy Parthenogenesis 139.The division of the parent into many small daughter individuals simultaneously is A. Multiple fission B. Fragmentation C. Conjugation D. Parthenogenesis E. Budding 140. A disease affecting exocrine secretions A. Cystic fibrosis B. Cystinuria C. Phenylketonuria D. Porphyria E. Color blindness 141. In a pedigree, a shaded circle or square indicates a person who has A. an allele for a trait only B. the trait as well as its allele C. a male allele D. a female allele E. all of the above C. XcXc D. XCY E. XcY 146. A "carrier" individual for a sex-linked recessive trait A. shows the dominant phenotype B. is always female C. is heterozygous for recessive condition D. can pass the gene on to daughters E. All the above choices are correct 147. An individual with aneuploidy can have: A. one less chromosome B. one extra chromosome C. an entire extra set of chromosomes D. only one member of each chromosome pair E. exactly two copies of each chromosome 148. The scientific study of fingerprints is called A. criminalistics B. genealogy C. printology D. dermatoglyphics E. detectology 142. Dominant lethal disorders both are A. chondrodystrophy and brachidactyly B. brachidactyly and sickle-cell anemia C. sickle-cell anemia and thalassemia D. cystic fibrosis and thalassemia E. Huntington's disease and sickle-cell anemia 149. The sex chromatin is an inactivated A. germ cell B. Y chromosome present in most males C. Y chromosome present in most females D. X chromosome present in most males E. X chromosome present in most females 143. The genes located at different loci on the same chromosome are called A. allelic B. non-allelic genes C. dominant D. recessive E. sex-linked 150. These all are the stages of medical genetic counseling, except A. diagnostics B. prognosis C. treatment D. documentation E. recommendation 144. One map unit is equal to A. 10 centimorgans B. 100 centimorgans C. 1 nanometer D. 1% recombination between two genes E. the average length of the chromosome containing the genes 145. A color-blind man has a daughter with normal color vision. What is the daughter’s genotype? A. XCXC B. XCXc 12