Download Exam1 2012 Life Student

BI100
Exam 1
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Place all answers on a scantron.
Chapter 1
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1. An organ is made up of several
a. biological molecules.
b. organ systems.
c. tissues.
d. cells.
e. organisms.
2. The simplest entity that exhibits all of the properties of life is called a(n)
a. cell.
b. molecule.
c. organ.
d. tissue.
e. organism.
3. The scientific name for the black-footed ferret is Mustela nigripes. The name Mustela indicates the _____ to
which this organism belongs.
a. class
b. family
c. genus
d. phylum
e. species
4. If an ecologist is studying the cycling of carbon through a particular environment (which involves the
movement of carbon through living things as well as through rock, air, and water), the scientist is studying at
what level of ecology?
a. community
b. biosphere
c. ecosystem
d. organism
e. population
5. Characteristics usually associated with life include all of the following except
a. motility.
b. responsiveness to stimuli.
c. reproduction.
d. lack of change from generation to generation.
e. a high degree of organization.
6. Which list is organized from smallest to largest level of organization of life?
a. organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms
b. organelles, tissues, cells, organ systems, organs, organisms
c. cells, tissues, organ systems, organelles, organs, organisms
d. organisms, organ systems, organs, tissues, cells, organelles
e. tissues, cells, organelles, organs, organ systems, organisms
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7. To maintain order within their cells and organs, all living things must
a. extract energy from the environment.
b. constantly change.
c. carry on metabolism.
d. reproduce.
e. be able to move.
8. Organisms that undergo asexual reproduction
a. produce offspring that are identical to each other and to the parent.
b. are usually very complex.
c. do not require energy to reproduce.
d. produce offspring that are different from each other.
e. require another organism to reproduce.
9. Young multicelled organisms usually start out small, then grow in size and increase in complexity. This
process is called
a. reproduction.
b. heredity.
c. development.
d. evolution.
e. metabolism.
10. The units of inheritance are
a. heredities.
b. evolutions.
c. twins.
d. metabolic activities.
e. genes.
11. Scientists have found that ancient fossils
a. are very similar to present-day organisms.
b. are more similar to present-day organisms than more recent fossils.
c. are just as similar to present-day organisms as more recent fossils.
d. are less similar to present-day organisms than more recent fossils.
e. bear no resemblance to present-day organisms.
12. Organisms that have descended from the same initial group and have the ability to interbreed belong to the
same
a. genus.
b. species.
c. class.
d. family.
e. order.
13. Which of the following includes all other levels of hierarchy?
a. kingdom
b. domain
c. order
d. phylum
e. family
____ 14. In populations, adaptation usually arises through
a. natural selection.
b. heredity.
c. development.
d. metabolism.
e. responsiveness.
____ 15. All the living organisms in a particular area makeup a
a. population.
b. community.
c. ecosystem.
d. biosphere.
e. biosystem.
____ 16. The first step in the scientific method is to
a. identify a problem.
b. propose a solution.
c. predict the results of an experiment.
d. perform an experiment.
e. draw a conclusion.
____ 17. All living things have the following characteristics except
a. responsiveness to external and/or internal stimuli.
b. utilization of energy.
c. they are composed of cells.
d. growth.
e. reproduce sexually.
____ 18. What is the term that describes the study of the relationship between living things and components of their
environment?
a. zoology
b. ecology
c. herpetology
d. analogy
e. ichnology
____ 19. When examining the hierarchy of life, which of the following terms is most inclusive?
a. population
b. species
c. biosphere
d. ecosystem
e. population
____ 20. Which of the following concepts best describes the wide variety of dog species we observe, ranging from the
domesticated golden retriever or the basset hound, to the wild dogs of Africa, to foxes?
a. evolution
b. taxonomy
c. asexual reproduction
d. preadaptation
e. inheritance of acquired characteristics
Match the following domains with the appropriate characteristic.
a. often live in extreme environments
b. includes only plants and animals
c. complex cells with a nucleus
d. includes the species that causes strep throat
____ 21. Domain Bacteria
____ 22. Domain Archaea
____ 23. Domain Eukarya
Program 101
____ 24. According to Professor Paul Saltman life can be thought of in three ways. Select the following that are
correct.
a. Life is a set of chemical reactions.
b. Life is a series of physical activities.
c. Life is the integration of the physical and chemical laws that govern the universe.
d. All of these are correct.
e. None of these are correct.
____ 25. Natural selection seems to select for individuals that
a. are strong.
b. can live.
c. can live and produce offspring.
d. survive on less energy.
e. can fly.
Program 102
____26. How do scientists identify atoms?
a. By their color.
b. By their shape.
c. By the number of nuclei in each atom.
d. By the number of particles they contain.
e. By their Rogue Community College PIN.
____27. What is the dominant compound of the living world?
a. Oil.
b. Carbohydrates.
c. Protein.
d. Oxygen.
e. Water.
____ 28. The molecules of life are
a. carbohydrates.
b. lipids.
c. nucleic acids.
d. proteins.
e. All of these are molecules of life.
Chapter 2
____ 29. Viruses, like HIV, are considered non-living because
a. they have internal order.
b. they contain genetic material.
c. they display some motility.
d. they have no metabolism .
e. none of the above.
____ 30. The smallest particle the of an element that displays the elements chemical properties is a(n)
a. molecule.
b. atom.
c. compound.
d. nucleus.
e. electron.
____ 31. This element is prominent in both living organisms and in the Earth’s surface.
a. carbon
b. hydrogen
c. silicon
d. aluminum
e. oxygen
____ 32. The atomic nucleus consists of
a. neutrons and electrons.
b. neutrons only.
c. protons and electrons.
d. neutrons and protons.
e. protons only.
____ 33. In an atom, the electrons are
a. housed within the nucleus.
b. moving through the nucleus.
c. present in various energy shells.
d. usually at rest, but occasionally move.
e. positively charged.
____ 34. 12C, 13C, and 14C are all isotopes of carbon. They differ in their
a. overall charges.
b. number of electrons.
c. number of protons.
d. number of neutrons.
e. electron energy shells.
____ 35. Because the shared electrons between hydrogen and oxygen spend more time orbiting the oxygen than the
hydrogen, water is
a. a charged molecule.
b. a neutral molecule.
c. a nonpolar molecule.
d. ionized.
e. a polar molecule.
____ 36. Rank the following chemical bonds from weakest to strongest.
a. hydrogen, ionic, covalent
b. hydrogen, covalent, ionic
c. ionic, hydrogen, covalent
d. ionic, covalent, hydrogen
e. covalent, ionic, hydrogen
____ 37. Surface tension of water is due to
a. ionic bonding.
b. ionization of water.
c. the ability of water to act as a solvent.
d. hydrogen bonding.
e. water molecules repelling each other.
____ 38. The internal pH of most cells is near neutral. This allows
a. water to break down into H+ and OH-.
b. enzymes within the cells to act at peak efficiency.
c. the buffers produced within the body to affect these cells.
d. enzymes outside of these cells to function.
e. rapid fluctuations between acidic and basic conditions within the cells.
____ 39. Examples of polysaccharides include all of the following except
a. chitin.
b. glycogen.
c. cellulose.
d. sucrose.
e. starch.
____ 40. Polypeptides consist of strings of amino acids held together by
a. ionic bonds.
b. hydrogen bonds.
c. peptide bonds.
d. double covalent bonds.
e. protein glues.
____ 41. Classes of lipids include all of the following except
a. phospholipids.
b. fats.
c. waxes.
d. carbohydrates.
e. steroids.
____ 42. What method is often used by cells to move large solid material into the cell?
a. facilitated diffusion
b. exocytosis
c. simple diffusion
d. active transport
e. phagocytosis
____ 43. Kool-Aid readily dissolves in water. This means that Kool-Aid is
a. an acid.
b. hydrophilic.
c. hydrophobic.
d. a base.
e. a buffer.
____ 44. Viruses are not considered to be living things, although they can evolve, and they do have genetic material.
However, they
a. cannot reproduce on their own.
b. cannot cause disease.
c. possess a molecular structure entirely different from living cells.
d. do not possess DNA.
e. do not possess enzymes.
____ 45. Which of the following elements is not particularly abundant in living cells?
a. carbon
b. hydrogen
c. helium
d. nitrogen
e. oxygen
____ 46. Water is often known as a universal solvent, it dissolves polar molecules as well as
a. ionic compounds.
b. nonionic compounds.
c. hydrophobic compounds.
d. covalently bonded compounds.
e. lipids.
____ 47. Most cells are small. When they reach a certain size, cells typically divide. This has to do with the
a. amount of genetic material.
b. surface-to-volume ratio.
c. inability to produce more components of the cell membrane.
d. fact that they cannot possess sufficient numbers of organelles for normal cell functioning.
e. differences between viral particles and eukaryotic cells.
Match the following components of HIV with the correct descriptive term.
a. integrase
b. reverse transcriptase
c. RNA
d. capsid
e. envelope
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48.
49.
50.
51.
Enzyme responsible for copying the HIV RNA into a DNA copy
The outer portion of the viral particle
Enzyme responsible for the replication of viral nucleic acid in the host chromosomal DNA
Type of molecule in HIV that contains the genetic information
Match the following examples with the correct cellular organelle.
a. nucleus
b. ribosomes
c. Goldi apparatus
d. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
e. mitochondria
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52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
These break down carbon-containing molecules to make ATP.
Modification of proteins takes place, often determining the final destination for these proteins.
Proteins are made on these.
The genetic material is stored here.
Lipids and phospholipids for the plasma membrane are produced here.
Program 103
____ 57. According to professor Dwayne Simmons if one really wants to understand the functions of the human body
of the human body one must understand the function of the different kinds and varieties of _________.
a. tissues
b. cells
c. organs
d. organ systems
e. molecules
____ 58. In passive diffusion across the plasma membrane the movement of molecules is always
a. from outside to inside the cell.
b. from inside to outside the cell.
c. from high concentration to low concentration.
d. All of these are true.
e. None of these are true.
____ 59. Prokaryote cells like bacteria differ from eukaryote cells like yours because prokaryote cells lack
a. cell membranes.
b. membrane bound organelles.
c. DNA.
d. the ability to reproduce.
e. the ability to live in hostile environments.
Program 104
____60. According to Professor Paul Saltman our bodies need energy:
a. to create warmth.
b. to power chemical reactions.
c. for movement.
d. for nerve signals.
e. All of these are correct.
____ 61. To make cell metabolism energy efficient chemical reactions ____________.
a. are coupled together
b. work separate.
c. don’t use energy
d. produce little heat.
e. are slow.
____ 62. The energy currency of the cell is _______________?
a. DAF
b. LSD
c. ADP
d. ATP
e. MONEY
Chapter 3
____ 63. Hummingbirds’ small size allows them to hover while extracting nectar from various flowers. This same size
requires large amounts of calories to maintain body temperature because
a. the breeze from their flapping wings constantly cools them off.
b. hummingbirds only eat at night.
c. they have a large body mass relative to their surface area.
d. hovering requires less energy than forward flight.
e. they have a large surface area relative to their body mass.
____ 64. A stone is pushed from the top of a hill. Halfway to the bottom of the hill, this rolling stone
a. has potential energy only.
b. has both potential energy and kinetic energy.
c. is using up chemical energy.
d. is constantly gaining more energy.
e. has kinetic energy only.
____ 65. As one form of energy is converted into another, there is always some energy lost as
a. chemical energy.
b. activation energy.
c. heat.
d. kinetic energy.
e. light.
____ 66. Substances that start chemical reactions are called
a. sustrata.
b. starters.
c. promoters.
d. reactants.
e. products.
____ 67. In a cell,
a. energy-releasing reactions are coupled to energy-absorbing reactions.
b. there are many more energy-absorbing reactions than energy-releasing reactions.
c. energy-absorbing reactions and energy-releasing are unlinked.
d. energy released may cause the cell to become a cancer cell.
e. more energy is used up than is produced.
____ 68. The most common energy-carrying molecule in the cell is
a. AMP.
b. ADP.
c. ATP.
d. adenine.
e. DNA.
____ 69. All enzymes act by
a. breaking hydrogen bonds between molecules.
b. lowering the activation energy of specific chemical reactions.
c. breaking and forming ionic bonds between ions.
d. allowing products to be changed during the chemical reactions.
e. raising the activation energy of specific chemical reactions.
____ 70. The active site of an enzyme
a. binds the reactants or substrate of a chemical reaction.
b. does not change shape during the reaction.
c. is not important for enzymes involved in metabolism.
d. can bind many different reactants.
e. only acts when it is unoccupied.
____ 71. The majority of ATP produced in cellular respiration is produced during
a. glycolysis.
b. the Kerbs cycle.
c. the electron transport chain.
d. fermentation.
e. anaerobic processes.
____ 72. What process occurs in both the aerobic and anaerobic pathways?
a. glycolysis
b. Krebs cycle
c. electron transport chain
d. fermentation
e. anaerobic processes
____ 73. The role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to
a. combine with carbon atoms to form carbon dioxide.
b. allow glycolysis to continue.
c. act as the final electron acceptor.
d. aid in the transport of pyruvate into the mitochondria.
e. supply an energy molecule.
____ 74. The main purpose of fermentation reactions is to
a. produce ATP.
b. regenerate the electron carriers needed for glycolysis.
c. produce the building blocks for biological molecules.
d. prepare the pyruvate for the Krebs cycle.
e. provide various products useful for man.
____75. Visible light travels through space in wave patterns with energy particle called
a. electons.
b. protons.
c. neutrons.
d. bosons.
e. photons.
____ 76. Chlorophyll and other pigments are directly embedded in light absorbing disklike sacs called
a. chloroplasts.
b. stroma.
c. thylakoids.
d. inner membranes.
e. iuter membranes.
____ 77. Which of the following does not take place during the first of the two reactions of photosynthesis?
a. Light energy is absorbed by electrons in the chlorophyll.
b. Water is split.
c. ATP and electron carriers are formed.
d. Carbon dioxide is fixed.
e. Oxygen is released.
____ 78. Which of the following would not be an autotroph?
a. grass
b. chemosynthetic organisms
c. green algae
d. snails
e. trees
____ 79. Which color of light is not absorbed by chlorophyll and is least important role in photosynthesis?
a. red
b. green
c. blue
d. orange
e. Yellow
____ 80. When one compares the chemical reactions of cellular respiration and photosynthesis we notice
a. the two reactions are nearly opposites.
b. the products of photosynthesis are needed as reactants in cellular respiration.
c. both reactions produce ATP as products.
d. b and c but not a.
e. a and b but not c.
____ 81. The energy needed to power the carbon-fixing reactions of photosynthesis is created during the
a. Krebs Cycle
b. Glycolysis
c. Light-Dependent Reaction
d. Electron Transport Chain
e. Fermentation
____ 82. Which of the following might help to reduce global climate change?
a. Using solar energy to power homes.
b. Driving cars that get better gas mileage.
c. Reducing the destruction of rain forests.
d. All of these above.
e. None of the above.
____ 83. A hummingbird is “drinking” nectar containing sugar from a red columbine flower. Arrange the following
events to occur in the hummingbird in order from the first to last:
(1) Glucose sugar is converted to pyruvate.
(2) Energy from high-energy electrons is released from an electron transport chain. This energy is used to
make ATP.
(3) The hummingbird exhales carbon dioxide and energy is stored in electron carriers.
(4) The hummingbird has the ability to beat its wings 40 to 80 times a second.
a. 1, 4, 3, 2
b. 2, 1, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4, 1
e. 1, 3, 2, 4
Match the following parts of cellular respiration with the appropriate description.
a. glucose is split into two molecules; net production of two ATP molecules
b. joins high energy electrons with oxygen and hydrogen to from water; produces much ATP
c. carbon dioxide is released
____ 84. Electron transport chain
____ 85. Glycolysis
____ 86. Krebs cycle
Chapter 4
____ 87. Basal cell cancinoma originates when cells of the _______ of the skin grow uncontrolled.
a. Stratum corneum.
b. Germ or basal layer.
c. Dermis.
d. Subcutaneous layer.
e. BCNS layer.
____ 88. After the DNA is replicated, and it condenses in prophase, two identical rods of DNA are seen. These are
a. sister chromatids.
b. centromeres.
c. spindle fibers.
d. kinetochores.
e. chromatin.
____ 89. Spindle fibers
a. are composed of DNA.
b. only appear during interphase.
c. attach to the ends of chromosomes.
d. connect chromosomes to the center of the cell.
e. are used to organize and move chromosomes during mitosis.
____ 90. Cytokinesis in plant cells differs from cytokinesis in animal cells because
a. the contractile protein, actin, is important only in plant cells.
b. a contractile ring forms only in plant cells.
c. in plant cells, the cell plate must also divide into two parts.
d. plant cells have a rigid cell wall.
e. there is no difference.
____ 91. Microtubules are
a. affected by cancer-fighting chemicals such as Taxol.
b. responsible for formation of the contractile ring.
c. involved in cell plate formation.
d. only built up to make longer and longer microtubules.
e. important during interphase of the cell cycle.
____ 92. Pairs of chromosomes that are similar in size and genetic composition are
a. chromatids.
b. diploid.
c. haploid.
d. chrmoatin.
e. homologous chromosomes.
____ 93. Special cells found in the gonads that give rise to gametes upon division are called
a. germ cells.
b. somatic cells.
c. zygote cells.
d. basal cells.
e. egg cells.
____ 94. At the end of meiosis I, the resulting two cells are
a. identical in all ways.
b. genetically identical.
c. genetically different.
d. hexaploid.
e. prepared to enter interphase so the chromosome can be replicated.
____ 95. In males meiosis produces four sperm cells. In females meiosis results in _______and _____________.
a. one sperm, three eggs
b. one polar body, three eggs
c. two eggs, two polar bodies
d. three eggs, one polar body
e. One egg, three polar bodies
____ 96. What structure holds the sister chromatids to the spindle fibers?
a. kinetochore
b. cell plate
c. chromatin
d. cyclin
e. MPF
____ 97. If you view a cell in which the genetic material is beginning to be visible as separate bodies, and the nucleolus
has disappeared from view, you may surmise that the cell is in
a. telophase.
b. anaphase.
c. prophase.
d. metaphse.
e. interphase.
____ 98. In what phases is the genetic material in the cell correctly referred to as chromatids?
a. interphase and telophase
b. metaphase and prophase
c. anaphase and metaphase
d. metaphase and telophase
e. interphase and prophase
____ 99. Meiosis produces ________________.
a. haploid cells
b. diploid cellls
c. sister cells
d. stem cells
e. jail cells
Match the following examples with mitosis, meiosis, or both.
a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. mitosis and meiosis
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____
____
____
____
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
occurs in somatic cells
gives rise to gametes
generally produces 4 daughter cells
required chromosome replication, must be complete beforehand
produces genetically identical daughter cells
Match the following phases of the cell cycle with the appropriate activity.
a. DNA is replicated
b. The cell divides
c. Each organelle divides in half
d. Proteins necessary for mitosis are formed
e. New proteins and cell components are made
____
____
____
____
105.
106.
107.
108.
G1
G2
M
S
Program 105
____ 109. Leaves are covered with a waxy cuticle for protection but they also require carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere for photosynthesis. What structure allows carbon dioxide to enter plant leaves?
a. pores
b. holes
c. Bob
d. stigmata
e. stomata
____ 110. In cellular respiration the ultimate goal is to use food molecules to produce _____________.
a. enzymes
b. glucose
c. FAD
d. ATP
e. pyruvate
____ 111. When yeast are placed into an anaerobic environment (no oxygen) they use fermentation to produce carbon
dioxide, ______________ and ______________.
a. alcohol, sugar
b. sugar, ATP
c. pyruvic acid, sugar
d. alcohol, ATP
e. pyruvic acid, oxygen
Program 106
____ 112. The more chromosomes found in a cells the more complex the organism is.
a. True
b. False
____ 113. Consistency in the wine industry is possible by creating clones. Cloning grape plants is
possible because of ______________ and _______________.
a. mitosis, meiosis
b. meiosis, grafting
c. fertilization, meiosis
d. grafting, mitosis
e. grafting, fertilization
____ 114. Genetic variety in gametes is produced by ____________.
a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. fertilization
d. grafting
e. cloning
Chapter 5
____ 115. The protein responsible for cystic fibrosis is
a. found on the inside of cells.
b. the same in normal individuals and those with cystic fibrosis.
c. responsible for blocking normal fluid transport across the cell membrane.
d. a carcinogen.
e. the result of a normal gene.
____ 116. Gregor Mendel was successful in his analysis of the genetics of pea plants because
a. he examined and analyzed both the F1 and F2 generations.
b. he studied the parental plants to determine their differences.
c. pea plants have genetics different from other organisms.
d. he decided to only look at his results in an objective manner.
e. he studied a trait that had a strange inheritance pattern.
____ 117. Mendel observed that dominant traits
a. are only expressed in hybrids.
b. were absent in the F1 generation of pea plants that he used in his experiments.
c. were the only traits seen in the F2 generation of pea plants in his experiments.
d. are expressed in all plants.
e. are seen in all the F1 hybrid pea plants in his experiments.
____ 118. An allele is
a. the dominant form of a gene.
b. an alternate form of a gene.
c. always recessive.
d. the main factor determining a trait.
e. always one of a pair.
____ 119. The genetic makeup of a particular trait in an individual is its
a. dominance.
b. heterozygosity.
c. genotype.
d. phenotype.
e. filial.
____ 120. Mendel correctly surmised that the 3 dominant : 1 recessive phenotypic ratio seen in the F2 generation pea
plants was due to
a. a tendency to have more fertilization events yielding homozygous dominant than
homozygous recessive.
b. homozygosity.
c. genotypic selection.
d. random combination of sperm and egg with respect to the allele carried.
e. certain phenotypes having a selective advantage.
____ 121. The segregation principle states that in sexually reproducing diploid organisms the two copies of each gene
a. move together as a unit during meiosis.
b. separate from each other during mitosis.
c. will both wind up in either the sperm or egg.
d. must always be the same allele.
e. segregation from each other during meiosis.
____ 122. Pedigrees are
a. used by genetics to determine the sequence of an individual’s genes.
b. histories of families with regard to particular genetic traits.
c. used only for dogs, cats, and horses.
d. mutated alleles capable of causing genetic disorders.
e. characteristics that are apparent in an individual.
____ 123. Which of the following statements about genetic disorders is true?
a. In carriers, the recessive allele causes an intermediate phenotype.
b. With recessive genetic disorders, if both parents are carriers, the offspring will all be
affected.
c. In recessive genetic disorders, the mother and/or father of an affected individual must also
be affected.
d. With dominant genetic disorders, the mother and/or father of an affected individual must
also be affected.
e. The dominant allele is masked in homozygous dominant individuals.
____ 124. Sickle cell anemia is an example of what type of inheritance?
a. incomplete dominance
b. complete dominance
c. codominance
d. recessive dominance
e. multiple alleles
____ 125. Consider two traits for an organism, determined by two genes, each of which is governed by at least two
alleles. In the case of a dihybrid individual, the gametes formed will be of either the parental type or the
recombinant type. Recombinant type gametes are formed because of
a. incomplete dominance.
b. independent assortment.
c. heterozygosity.
d. the principle of dihybrids.
e. multiple alleles.
____ 126. With respect to genetic traits, what is the opposite of recessive?
a. regressive
b. progressive
c. dominant
d. subordinate
e. hybrid
____ 127. A brown horse and a white horse are mated and produce a roan horse. Roans have both white hair and
pigmented hair. This would be an example of
a. codominance.
b. incomplete dominance.
c. multiple alles.
d. mutations.
e. why you should have dogs for pets.
____ 128. The physical characteristics of an organism resulting from its genes are known as the organism’s
a. alleles.
b. hybrids.
c. recessive characteristics.
d. genotype.
e. phenotype.
____ 129. An organism with two copies of the same allele is said to be
a. homozygous.
b. heterozygous.
c. phenotypic.
d. genotypic.
e. a hybrid.
____ 130. With the ABO blood type a person with type A blood could have a genotype of __________.
a. AA
b. Ao
c. AB
d. a and b but not c
e. a and c but not b
____ 131. A gene on the X chromosome is said to be
a. heterozygous.
b. sex chromosome lethal.
c. x-linked.
d. bipolar.
e. a mutation.
____ 132. The determination of gene positions on chromosomes is know as
a. gene therapy.
b. gene mutation.
c. gene construction.
d. gene alteration.
e. gene mapping.
____ 133. A person with the genotype XXY will be a _____ with _____syndrome and have _____ chromosomes in each
cell.
a. male, Turner, 47
b. female, Turner, 45
c. male, Klinefelter, 45
d. female, Kinefelter, 47
e. male, Klinefelter, 47
____ 134. In a normal human karyotype how man sex chromosomes should one expect to see?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
____ 135. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (MD) is inherited from an X-linked recessive allele. What is the probability
that a son with Duchenne MD inherited this disease from his biological father?
a. 0
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d. 1/8
e. 1/16
____ 136. Most cases of red-green colorblindness are inherited as an X-linked recessive characteristic. Which of the
following are possible is a woman, who is a carrier for colorblindness, has offspring with a male who is
colorblind?
a. All their sons will have normal color vision.
b. All their sons will be colorblind.
c. All their daughters will be colorblind.
d. All their daughters will have normal vision.
e. All of these are possible.
____ 137. What is the probability that a person would have cystic fibrosis if one of her parents was homozygous
dominant and the other was a carrier for cystic fibrosis?
a. 0
b. 1:4
c. 1:6
d. 1:8
e. 1:16
____ 138. The Human Genome Project
a. determined the sequence of the human genome by the 2000.
b. may make it easier to identify the structure and activity of disease related genes.
c. may help in the development therapies for genetic disorders.
d. All the above are correct
e. None of the above are correct.
____ 139. Usually, an egg cell from a human female contains
a. one X chromosome and one Y chromosome.
b. one X chromosome.
c. one Y chromosome.
d. two X chromosomes.
e. two Y chromosomes.
Program 107
____ 140. A plant with the genotype tt would be ____________.
a. homozygous recessive
b. homozygous dominant
c. heterozygous
d. dizygous
e. hemizygous
____ 141. White homing pigeons exhibit
a. epistasis
b. Polygenic inheritance
c. albinism
d.
a and b but not c
e. a and c but not b
____ 142. Hemophilia is a condition in which blood cells will not carry oxygen.
a. True
b. False
Program 108
____ 143. Who proved the genetic material was DNA, not proteins?
a. Hershey and Crick
b. Hershey and Chase
c. Watson and Crick
d. Wilkins and Franklin
e. Nestle and Hershey
____ 144. What organism might successfully be able to insert human genes into the DNA of individuals who suffer from
a genetic illness?
a. parasites
b. viruses
c. bacteria
d. worms
e. elephants
____ 145. Stretched out the DNA in a human cell would be __________ long and contain approximately _______ genes.
a. 2 ft, 100
b. 3 ft, 1,000
c. 4 ft, 10,000
d. 6 ft, 100,000
e. 8 ft, 1,000,000
Chapter 6
____ 146. Frederick Griffith conducted experiments where nonlethal bacterial acquired the ability to cause lethal
pneumonia due to the presence of an unknown chemical. This chemical was later found to be
a. RNA.
b. a protein.
c. DNA.
d. nonhereditary material.
e. phosphorus.
____ 147. Hershey and Chase performed an experiment in which they used radioactive isotopes of phosphorus and
sulfur to label different components of bacterial viruses. Their results clearly showed that
a. DNA was entering into the infected bacteria.
b. the viruses did not contain protein.
c. the viruses did not contain DNA.
d. protein was entering into the infected bacteria.
e. genetic material normally contains radioactive isotopes.
____ 148. Genes are composed of
a. DNA.
b. proteins.
c. chromosomes.
d. carbohydrates.
____ 149.
____ 150.
____ 151.
____ 152.
____ 153.
____ 154.
____ 155.
e. lipids.
The structure of DNA was determined primarily by
a. Mendel.
b. Watson and Crick.
c. Pauling.
d. Hershey and Chase.
e. Griffith.
What step in DNA replication precedes the pairing of complementary bases?
a. polymerization of DNA
b. separation of the two strands
c. joining of the two strands
d. mitotic division
e. formation of the histone core
Which is not true of DNA replication?
a. It occurs in the S phase of the cell cycle.
b. It functions similarly for all organisms.
c. Both strands are synthesized at the same time.
d. Both strands are copied.
e. It is not semiconservative.
The most important experimental result that suggested to Watson and Crick that DNA was in the form of a
helix was
a. the findings of Chargaff that DNA always had equal amounts of A and T and equal
amounts of G and C.
b. Griffith’s results with transformation.
c. the discovery that DNA is wound around histone proteins.
d. X-ray data from Rosalind Franklin.
e. understanding DNA replication.
In a DNA double helix, each loop of the helix
a. is wound around histone proteins.
b. consists of 10 nucleotides.
c. always contains equal amounts of G and T.
d. contains the sugar-phosphate backbones in the interior of the helix.
e. represents one nucleotide.
The two strands of DNA in a DNA double helix
a. are identical to each other.
b. are connected to each other by covalent chemical bonds.
c. both contain nucleotides, but the order of the nucleotides on the two strands is not related.
d. are oriented in the same direction.
e. are antiparallel to each other.
Base pairing
a. occurs between identical bases.
b. required hydrogen bonds.
c. takes place between sugars and phosphates on the two strands in a helix.
d. explains the X-ray results from Rosalind Franklin.
e. occurs between A and C.
____ 156. Packaged DNA is referred to as
a. chromosomes.
b. histones.
c. chromatin.
d. protein.
e. nucleosomes.
____ 157. DNA replication involves all of the following steps except
a. separation.
b. joining.
c. production of single-stranded DNA molecules.
d. complementary base pairing.
e. polymerization.
____ 158. DNA replication
a. occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.
b. does not require proteins.
c. occurs in the G1 of interphase.
d. takes place in the nucleus of the cell.
e. is constantly happening in a cell
____ 159. DNA replication of a single DNA molecule is referred to as semiconservative because
a. it results in two nonidentical DNA molecules.
b. one DNA strand is replicated continuously, while the other must be replicated
discontinuously.
c. of the two DNA molecules, one is made up totally of parental DNA, while the other is
entirely newly synthesized DNA.
d. all the DNA strands in the two DNA molecules will have both parental and newly
synthesized DNA>
e. each of the two DNA molecules will consist of one parental strand and one newly
synthesized strand.
____ 160. DNA replication occurs
a. during cell division.
b. continuously.
c. before cell division.
d. only one in the life of the organism.
e. only in gametes.
____ 161. A package of histones with DNA wrapped around them forms the spherical structures called
a. nucleoli.
b. chromatin.
c. nucleosomes.
d. ribosomes.
e. lysosomes.
____ 162. If DNA is likened to a ladder, what are the compounds that make up the sides of the ladder?
a. phosphates and bases
b. phosphates and sugars
c. bases only
d. phosphates only
e. bases and sugars
____ 163. Which of the following DNA sequences might be considered a genetic marker?
a. GAGAGAGAGAGAGA.
b. AGTACAGCCTAGGAC.
c. CATACTCCATTACAC.
d. GTCACTTAACGACTA.
e. GACTTAACCGGAATT.
____ 164. What is the sugar molecule found in DNA?
a. ribose
b. phosphate
c. deoxyribose
d. oxyribose
e. polymerase
____ 165. Which of the researchers that elucidated the structure of DNA did not receive a Nobel Prize?
a. Wilkins
b. Franklin
c. Crick
d. Watson
e. All four received a Nobel Prize.
____ 166. In complementary base pairing
a. cytosine always binds with adenine.
b. guanine always binds with thymine.
c. thymine always bins with adenine.
d. cytosine always binds with thymine.
e. sugars always bind to phosphates.
____ 167. To use DNA in crime or paternity case you must:
a. Open up the cells and the cell nucleus
b. Separate the DNA from the proteins.
c. Leave the DNA intact.
d. Have a large enough DNA sample to work with.
e. All the bove.
Match the following steps in DNA replication with the correct descriptive term that either describes the step
or describes why the step is necessary.
a. Replication cannot occur if DNA is present as a helix.
b. Free nucleotides will form hydrogen bonds with unpaired bases.
c. The new strand is formed from the newly paired bases.
____ 168. joining
____ 169. separation
____ 170. complementary base pairing
Match the following terms with their characteristics.
a. building block of DNA
b. joins nucleotides during DNA replication
c. cytosine, guanine, adenine, and thymine
d. spool of protein associated with DNA
____
____
____
____
171.
172.
173.
174.
DNA polymerase
nucleotide
histone
bases of DNA
Program 109
____ 175. What molecule transports the DNA information out of the nucleus to the ribosomes to be read?
a. tRNA
b. rRNA
c. mRNA
d. snRNA
e. pRNA
____ 176. News caster Christopher Nance suffers from Sickle Cell Disease (Anemia). This condition is caused by
a. a replacement mutation in the gene for hemoglobin A.
b. a replacement mutation in the gene for hemoglobin S.
c. a mutation in white blood cells.
d. an error in transcription.
e. an error in translation.
____ 177. To study specialization/differentiation in cells scientists are using what simple eukaryotic organism?
a. rats
b. fruit flies
c. flat worms
d. nematodes
e. slime mold
Program 112
____ 178. Since bacteria are simple and physically similar to each other the best tool for classification is
a. DNA and genetic relationships.
b. cell size.
c. protein structure.
d. Composition of their cells walls.
e. the number of nuclei they have.
____ 179. A good diagnostic test to determine which antibiotic to use to treat a specific bacterial infection is
a. a gram stain.
b. the cell shape.
c. the media the bacteria grows on.
d. all of these.
e. none of these
____ 180. Animal-like protists, called protozoans, are classified loosely based on what characteristic?
a. What they eat.
b. Their cell wall structure.
c. The number of cells they have.
d. Their method of locomotion.
e. Their color.
Essay Questions
Directions: Answer each essay question as completely as possible. Type your answer on a separate sheet of
paper using a 12 point font. Please paper clip your essay answers to your scantron forms when you turn in
your exam. Each question is worth five (5) points.
1. One of the major characteristics of life is reproduction. There are two types of reproduction: asexual
and sexual. For this question please do the following: a) discuss the advantages each types of
reproduction, b) discuss the disadvantages of each types of reproduction and c) explain the benefit of
sexual reproduction that makes it so much more prevalent among living things?
2. Why are carbohydrates important fuels for energy? Why are carbohydrates like sugar especially
important to nervous tissue?
3. In biology the sun is considered the ultimate source of energy for all living things. Explain or
support this idea using the relationship between the sun, autotrophs and heterotrophs.
4. Explain how the nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus work together to produce
plasma membrane proteins or release secretions from the cell.