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BI 200 - Exam #2 Fall 2004 Name Lab Section Disclaimer A. Consider each question, and answer each in the appropriate format (e.g., multiple choice). You may qualify your answer if you have reservations. If your comments have merit, you may receive partial or full credit. A. Multiple Choice - 1 point each 1. Biochemical synthesis of new cell material is called a. metabolism b. anabolism c. catabolism d. synthatabolism. 2. What is the oxidation number of the phosphorous atom in phosphoric acid, H3PO4? a. -5 b. -2 c. 0 d. +2 e. +5 3. What is the average oxidation number of the carbon atoms in pyruvate, C3H4O3? a. -1 b. -1/3 c. 0 d. +1/3 e. +1 4. In an electron carrier system, the net energy change is determined by the difference in reduction potentials between the a. primary electron donor and the terminal electron donor b. primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron acceptor c. primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron donor d. primary electron donor and the terminal electron acceptor 5. NADH is the most important _________ carrying molecule in the cell, while _______ is the most important energy high energy phosphate compound in living organisms a. carbon ; CoA b. electron ; ATP c. energy; glucose d. none of the above is correct 6. The oxidation of the six carbon atoms in glucose, C6H12O6, to 6 CO2 involves the transfer of _____ electrons to 6 O2. a. 0 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24 7. The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose fermented is a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 8. In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is a. hydrogen. b. oxygen. c. water. d. ATP. 9. In chemiosmosis (establishment of a proton gradient) a. OH- accumulates on the outside of the membrane while H+ accumulates on the inside. b. OH- accumulates on the inside of the membrane while H+ accumulates on the outside. c. Both OH- and H+ accumulate on the inside of the membrane. d. Both OH- and H+ accumulate on the outside of the membrane. 10. As each molecule of pyruvate traverses the citric acid cycle, how many molecules of CO2 are generated? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 11. When DNA or RNA is being synthesized the next nucleotide is added to the ______ of the existing chain a. b. c. d. e. 5’ phosphate 3’ phosphate 2’ hydrogen 3’ hydroxyl 5’ hydroxyl 12. Supercoiling in prokaryotes is removed by ______________ which creates single stranded breaks in the DNA a. Topoisomerase I b. DNA polymerase c. Topoisomerase II d. Gyrase 13. AT-rich DNA will melt a. at a higher temperature than GC-rich DNA b. at a lower temperature than GC-rich DNA c. at the same temperature as GC-rich DNA 14. Which part of RNA polymerase in prokaryotes is responsible for recognizing the promotor region? a. alpha b. beta c. sigma d. core 15. If a bacterial chromosome contains 30% adenine bases, what will be the percent of guanine? a. 0% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% 16. Some guys named Avery, McCarty, and McLeod studied DNA exchange among bacteria and found that Dnase could inhibit the process. They were studying a. Conjugation b. Transformation c. Transduction d. Mutation 17. In conjugation genes on plasmids are transferred in matings between: a. b. c. d. e. two F- strains F+ and F- cells two F+ strains a and b b and c 18. Which of the following is not true about transformation? a. Viruses are not involved. b. The process is sensitive to the enzyme DNase. c. DNA cannot be transferred between species. d. The donor cell must be lysed before transfer can take place. 19. The exchange of homologous DNA molecules in general recombination requires: a. b. c. d. e. RecA protein insertion sequences topoisomerase I virus low levels of DNA homology 20. Which of the following bacteria are not naturally competent? a. b. c. d. Escherichia Streptococcus Bacillus Haemophilis 21. The type of bacterial virus which is covalently inserted into its host’s DNA is called a. b. c. d. bacteriophage temperate phage macrophage virulent phage 22. When lysogenized the bacterial host a. is immune to further infection b. may produce additional toxins as with diptheria and scarlet fever c. can reproduce indefinitely d. all of the above e. none of the above 23. Of the following, the earliest of these proteins expressed during a lytic infection is a. b. c. d. capsomere tail fiber protein lysozyme DNA polymerase 24. Viruses may be as small as a. 0.02 nm b. 0.02 m c. 0.02 mm d. 0.02 inches 25. The virus that poses the largest health threat to human beings, in terms of number of people that have died since 1900, is a. HIV b. rhabdovirus c. orthomyxovirus d. Ebola virus 26. Which of the following sequences is consistent with the order of events during a lytic infection? a. attachment, penetration, assembly, synthesis, release b. attachment, synthesis, penetration, assembly, release c. penetration, attachment, assembly, release, synthesis d. attachment, penetration, synthesis, assembly, release 27. Which would be an early gene expressed in lytic infection by T4? a. lysozyme b. capsomere c. tail fiber d. DNA polymerase 28. Which virus shows an unusually broad host range and is considered a zoonose? a. Rhabdovirus b. Paramyxovirus c. Parvovirus d. Hepatitis A 29. What type of virus causes SARS? a. Picornavirus b. Rhinovirus c. Corona virus d. Rhabdovirus 30. Herpes virus causes all of the following except a. Mononucleosis b. Polio c. Chicken pox d. Cold sores 31. Which of the following is tumorogenic? a. Ebola b. HIV c. Human papilloma virus d. T4 32. Which of the following bacteriophage is helical? a. Lambda b. M13 c. T4 d. orthomyxovirus 33. Which of the following bacteriophage is temperate? a. Lambda b. M13 c. T4 d. orthomyxovirus 34. The life style exhibited by HIV is best described as a. tumorogenic b. lytic c. persistant d. latent B. True or False (1 point each) Place the whole word True or the whole word False before each of the following statements indicating their validity 1.___________ Transcription and translation are said to be coupled in prokaryotes. 2.___________ Eukaryotic genes contain non-coding regions called operons. 3.___________ Transcription is carried out by ribosomes 4.___________ RNA processing involves removal of 5’caps and 3’tails. 5.___________ DNA binding proteins attach to the major groove 6.___________ Supercoiling in prokaryotes does not involve histone protein 7.___________ Complementary strands of DNA are identical in base composition 8.___________ Codons are normally larger than transposons 9.___________ Introns occur in prokaryotic genes. 10.___________ A theta structure occurs in a partially replicated eukaryotic chromosome. 11.___________ Mutations are errors during translation 12.___________ High copy number plasmids may reach 1000 per cell 13.__________ In some cases, plasmids can also mobilize chromosomal DNA and cause its transfer from one cell to another. 14.__________ Female bacteria are turned into male bacteria after conjugation, but the bacteria can be cured of maleness by loss of plasmid 15.__________ The virion replicates independently of the host 16.__________ In viruses DNA is always double stranded, while RNA is always single stranded. 17.__________ The membrane of an enveloped virus is taken from the host cell 18. __________ Hepatitis B is also known as “food born” hepatitis 19. __________In an oxidation-reduction reaction electrons are transferred from the reduced form of one couple to the oxidized form of a more positive couple 20. __________ Metabolism involves two basic kinds of chemical transformations, building up (biosynthetic) processes, called anabolism, and breaking down processes, called catabolism, which usually result in energy release. 21. __________ About two thirds of the energy generated by a cell is spent on motility. 22. __________ Enzymes lower the activation energy required for a chemical reaction. 23. __________ Coenzyme A is involved with electron transfer, while NAD+ is involved in transfer of carbon atoms. 24. __________ The net result of proton extrusion through the membrane is acidification of the cytoplasm 25. __________ ATPase makes ATP by substrate level phosphorylation 26. __________ Chlorophyll and cytochromes both contain porphoryn (tetrapyrole) ring structures 27. __________ Bacteriochlorophyll and chlorophyll differ greatly in their structure, but absorb the same type of light. 28. __________ Heterocysts are specialized cells in cyanobacteria that are involved in nitrogen fixation. 29. __________ BI 200 (micro) is harder than BO 200 or ZO 200 30. __________ BI 200 is more fun than BO 200 or ZO 200 Complete the following narrative by circling the word or phrase in each bold faced parenthesis that most accurately completes the statement. (1 point each). C. The study of variation in bacteria has several features that are distinct from the study of genetics in eukaryotic organisms. Bacteria typically have (a single, two, multiple) chromosome(s) that is(are) composed of (single stranded RNA, single stranded DNA, double stranded DNA). There are (one, two) copies of the (linear, circular) molecule. There may be additional small pieces of circular DNA called (introns, plasmids, satellites) carrying accessory genes. The outward appearance of the organism, or (genotype, karyotype, phenotype) is determined by which version of the particular gene that is present. The different versions of the gene are called (heterozygotes, plasmids, alleles). The normal looking individual is called the (wild type, mutant, marker). Visible phenotypes studied in bacteria include colony pigmentation and texture, but (selectable, differential, magic) markers involving fermentation of particular sugars are often studied. Mutations in genes that confer the ability to grow, or not grow, under a given set of conditions are called (selectable, differential) phenotypic markers. Bacteria can often synthesize their own growth factors like amino acids, and are called (chemotrophs, auxotrophs, prototrophs). Mutants unable to synthesize their own growth factors are called (autotrophs, auxotrophs, prototrophs). Since bacteria reproduce asexually all the members of a colony are genetically identical and referred to (plasmids, clones, homozygotes). There are limited means of gene exchange in bacteria. These include the transfer of free DNA called (transduction, translation, transformation), transfer during mating called (conjugation, transduction, competence), and gene transfer mediated by virus called (transduction, theta structure, conjugation). D. Matching. Place the name of one of the microbes on the right that fits the description. You may use a name more than once, but place only one answer in each – no multiple guesses. 14. _____________________________ Any green algae 1. _____________________________ Any obligate anaerobe 16. _____________________________ Your least favorite microbe 2. _____________________________ Any lactic acid fermenter Alcalignenes Anabena Aquaspirillum Aquifex Bacillus Beggiatoa Chlamydomonas Chlorobium Chloroflexus Chromatium Clostridium Desulfovibrio Escherichia Gallionella Geobacter Halobacterium Hydrogenobacter Lactobacillus Leptothrix Methanosarcina Navicula Nitrobacter Nitrosomonas Oscillatoria Paracoccus Pseudomonas Rhodospirillum Rhodopseudomonas Saccharomyces Shewanella Spirogyra Streptococcus Sulfolobus Synechococcus Thiobacillus Volvox Zymomonas 3. _____________________________ Any lithotroph 4. _____________________________ Any archea 5. _____________________________ Any anoxygenic phototroph 6. _____________________________ Any purple or purple non-sulfur anoxygenic phototroph 7. _____________________________ Reduces nitrate (NO3-) to nitrogen gas (N2) 8. _____________________________ Oxidizes nitrite (NO2-) to nitrate (NO3-) 9. _____________________________ Reduces sulfate (SO42-) to sulfide (H2S) 10. _____________________________ Oxidizes Fe3+ to Fe2+ 11. _____________________________ Sulfur-oxidizing bacterium 12. _____________________________ Any eukaryote 13. _____________________________ Any cyanobacterium 15. _____________________________ Your favorite microbe E. Matching. Match the structure or enzyme on the right to the description on the left that is most appropriate. There is only one best answer. 1 point each 1. ________ Electron carrier in autotrophic phototrophs A. Carboxysome 2. ________ Substrate oxidation enzyme in Nitrosomonas 3. ________ Photosynthetic pigment in Halobacterium halobium B. Grana C. APS D. Bacteriorhodopsin 4. ________ Fluorescent cofactor in Methanogens E. Rusticyanin 5. ________ Central chlorophyll molecule in non-cyclic photophosphorylation 6. ________ Adenylated intermediate of sulfate reduction 7. ________ Alternative electron carrier that replaces ubiquinone in iron reducers 8. ________ Membrane bound sack rich in the RuBisCo enzyme. F. Ammonium monooxygenase G. Menaquinone H. Sulfur granules I. Alcohol dehydrogenase J. F420 9. ________ Iron oxidation enzyme in Thiobacillus ferroxidans K. Heterocyst 10. ________ 2H+ + 2 e- H2 L. P680 11. ________ Key enzyme in the reductive stage of fermentation by yeast M. P870 12. ________ Disc-like membrane structures found in cyanobacteria and chloroplasts 13. ________ Found in denitrifying bacteria 14. ________ Central bacteriochlorophyll molecule in cyclic photophosphorylation 15. ________ Specialized cell that carriers out N2fixation 16. ________ Formed by purple and green sulfur bacteria N. NADPH O. Nitrite Reductase P. Hydrogenase F. Fill in the empty boxes for these familiar pathways. (18 responses required - 1 point each). Trait or Characteristic Substrates Glycolysis 3. 1. Pyruvate, NAD+, FAD+ Ethanol Fermentation (reduction only) Pyruvate, NADH 4. Products 5. Pyruvate, NADH, ATP 2. 6. 7. 3 CO2, NADH, FADH 8. ATP, Sulfur 9. O2: consumed, produced, both or neither? Representative organisms or cellular localization in eukaryote 11. Neither consumed or produced Cytoplasm of Chemoorganotrophs Animals, Plants, Protozoa, Bacteria 14. (give cellular localization in eukaryote) 10. 12. 15. (give representative eukaryote) 13. Chromatium, Thiocapsa, Ectothiocapsa 16. (give representative prokaryote) Key Enzymes or Intermediates 17. 18. Coenzyme A, Citric Acid, Succinyl-CoA, Dehydrogenase Enzymes Alcohol Dehydrogenase RC Bacteriochlorophyll, Carotenoid, Ubiquinone, Cytochrome bc