Download AP abnormal test bank 2016 2017

Name: __________________________ Date: _____________
1. Psychiatrists and psychologists label behavior as disordered when it is:
A) aggressive, persistent, and intentional.
B) selfish, habitual, and avoidable.
C) deviant, distressful, and dysfunctional.
D) biologically influenced, unconsciously motivated, and difficult to change.
2. Alexis is socially withdrawn and has few close friends. This behavior is most likely to
be diagnosed as a symptom of psychological disorder if it is:
A) a long-standing pattern of behavior.
B) preventing her from functioning effectively.
C) not caused by a biological disorder.
D) difficult for her to change.
3. Inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity are major symptoms of:
A) OCD.
B) PTSD.
C) ADHD.
D) DID.
4. Larry has difficulty organizing his daily schedule of work responsibilities. He often
makes careless mistakes or fails to complete his work because he is easily distracted.
Larry's behavior is most characteristic of:
A) antisocial personality disorder.
B) attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
5. ADHD is diagnosed ________ often in girls than in boys. Over the past 20 years a(n)
________ proportion of American children have been treated for this disorder.
A) more; increasing
B) less; decreasing
C) more; decreasing
D) less; increasing
6. Although Adderall is a ________ drug, it is commonly used in the treatment of
________.
A) stimulant; PTSD
B) stimulant; ADHD
C) depressant; PTSD
D) depressant; ADHD
7. In one study, rats were given prolonged exposure to Ritalin early in life. When the
drug was withdrawn later in life, the rats were more likely to show symptoms of
________ than were their control-group counterparts.
A) catatonia
B) depression
C) panic disorder
D) dissociation
8. The greatest shortcoming associated with explanations of psychological disorders in
terms of demon possession is that these explanations:
A) were relevant only to severe disorders such as schizophrenia.
B) encouraged many to believe there was no such thing as insanity.
C) led to some harsh and ineffective remedial treatments.
D) absolved people of personal responsibility for their own behavior.
9. According to the medical model, psychological disorders are:
A) sicknesses that need to be diagnosed and cured.
B) maladaptive responses to a troubling environment.
C) purely imaginary symptoms of distress.
D) learned habits that need to be extinguished.
10. The discovery that psychologically disordered behavior could result from syphilis
infections facilitated the credibility and acceptance of:
A) psychoanalytic theory.
B) the medical model.
C) DSM-IV.
D) the social-cognitive perspective.
11. The medical model of psychologically disordered behavior is most likely to be
criticized for neglecting the importance of:
A) social circumstances and psychological factors.
B) biological evolution.
C) the DSM-IV.
D) genetically influenced abnormalities.
12. It would be most difficult to use the ________ to explain why anorexia nervosa
occurs mostly in Western cultures.
A) learning perspective
B) medical model
C) social-cognitive perspective
D) biopsychosocial approach
13. Both the inseparability of mind and body and the interaction of nature and nurture are
most clearly emphasized by:
A) DSM-IV.
B) the medical model.
C) the learning perspective.
D) the biopsychosocial approach.
14. DSM-IV focuses on clinicians' reports of observable behavior in order to:
A) facilitate the reliability of diagnoses.
B) shorten the time it takes to make a diagnosis.
C) avoid invading clients' psychological privacy.
D) reduce the need for medical terminology in psychological assessments.
15. DSM-IV is most likely to be criticized for:
A) attempting to explain behavior by simply labeling it.
B) classifying an excessively broad range of human behaviors as psychologically
disordered.
C) failing to base diagnoses on observable behaviors.
D) inhibiting scientific efforts to discover the underlying causes of psychological
disorders.
16. One facet of the positive psychology movement has been the introduction of a
classification system designed to aid in the process of:
A) assessing human strengths.
B) explaining psychological disorders.
C) reducing current reliance on the DSM-IV.
D) shortening the time it takes to classify psychological disorders.
17. A fundamental problem with the diagnostic labeling of psychologically disordered
behaviors is that the labels often:
A) bias our perceptions of the labeled person.
B) represent attempts by psychologists to explain behavior by simply naming it.
C) interfere with effective research on the causes of these disorders.
D) interfere with effective treatment of these disorders.
18. After George learned that Mrs. Min suffered from schizophrenia, he mistakenly
concluded that her tendencies to laugh easily and smile frequently were symptoms of her
disorder. This best illustrates the:
A) unreliability of DSM-IV.
B) shortcomings of the medical model.
C) biasing power of diagnostic labels.
D) dangers of the biopsychosocial approach.
19. When children are told that certain classmates are learning disabled, they may behave
in ways that inhibit the success of these students in the classroom. This best illustrates the
dangers of:
A) the medical model.
B) linkage analysis.
C) self-fulfilling prophecies.
D) the psychoanalytic perspective.
20. A deluded Scotsman, Daniel M'Naughten, tried to assassinate a government official
in 1843. He was sent to a mental hospital rather than to a prison because he was judged
to:
A) have schizophrenia.
B) be depressed.
C) be manic.
D) be insane.
21. A World Health Organization study of 20 countries estimated that ________ had the
highest prevalence of mental disorders during the prior year.
A) Japan
B) Germany
C) Mexico
D) the United States
22. Among women, the stresses and demoralization of poverty are especially likely to
precipitate:
A) ADHD.
B) depression.
C) schizophrenia.
D) dissociative disorders.
23. Maladaptive behaviors that reduce worry and fear are most indicative of:
A) bipolar disorder.
B) an anxiety disorder.
C) catatonia.
D) attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.
24. Rishi, a college student, complains that he feels apprehensive and fearful most of the
time but doesn't know why. Without warning, his heart begins to pound, his hands get
icy, and he breaks out in a cold sweat. Rishi most likely suffers from:
A) post-traumatic stress disorder.
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) a phobia.
25. A generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by:
A) offensive and unwanted thoughts that persistently preoccupy a person.
B) a continuous state of tension, apprehension, and autonomic nervous system arousal.
C) hyperactive, wildly optimistic states of emotion.
D) alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism.
26. Freud suggested that for those suffering a generalized anxiety disorder, the anxiety is:
A) cyclical.
B) free-floating.
C) antisocial.
D) completely outside of conscious awareness.
27. While he was studying, Matthew was suddenly overwhelmed by feelings of intense
apprehension. For several minutes he felt so agitated that he could not catch his breath.
Matthew was most likely suffering from:
A) bipolar disorder.
B) a panic attack.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) a delusion.
28. In comparison to generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder is characterized by
periods of distress that are:
A) more intense and more prolonged.
B) less intense and less prolonged.
C) more intense and less prolonged.
D) less intense and more prolonged.
29. Incapacitating efforts to avoid specific anxiety-producing situations is most indicative
of certain:
A) delusions.
B) hallucinations.
C) phobias.
D) obsessions.
30. Kaylee is so afraid of spiders and insects that she avoids most outdoor activities and
even refuses to go to the basement of her own house alone. Kaylee appears to suffer
from:
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B) a dissociative disorder.
C) bipolar disorder.
D) a phobia.
31. An immediate and irrational anxiety response to the mere sight of blood is indicative
of:
A) mania.
B) catatonia.
C) a specific phobia.
D) a dissociative disorder.
32. An incapacitating and highly distressing fear about being embarrassed in the presence
of others is most characteristic of:
A) panic disorder.
B) social phobia.
C) antisocial personality disorder.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
33. Anxiety about being in places or situations from which escape might be difficult is
indicative of:
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B) a mood disorder.
C) agoraphobia.
D) bipolar disorder.
34. Sadie is so fearful of being overwhelmed by anxiety that she rarely steps outside her
apartment. The thought of going shopping and getting lost in a crowd terrifies her, so she
has her groceries delivered. Because of her fear, she earns her living as a freelance writer,
working at home. Sadie's behavior is most characteristic of:
A) agoraphobia.
B) generalized anxiety disorder.
C) antisocial personality disorder.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
35. Cecil is preoccupied with thoughts of jumping out the window of his tenthfloor
apartment. In order to reduce his anxiety, he frequently counts his heartbeats aloud. Cecil
would most likely be diagnosed as experiencing:
A) panic disorder.
B) bipolar disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
36. Obsessions are:
A) persistent, irrational fears of specific objects or situations.
B) false beliefs of persecution or grandeur.
C) periodic episodes of intense dread accompanied by frightening physical sensations.
D) offensive and unwanted thoughts that persistently preoccupy a person.
37. Mrs. Swift is alarmed by her own intrusive and irrational thoughts that her house is
contaminated by germs. Her experience best illustrates the agitating effects of:
A) mania.
B) an obsession.
C) agoraphobia.
D) panic disorder.
38. The billionaire aviator Howard Hughes insisted that his assistants carry out elaborate
hand-washing rituals and wear white gloves when handling any document he would later
touch. His behavior best illustrated the symptoms of:
A) antisocial personality disorder.
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C) bipolar disease.
D) schizophrenia.
39. Repeatedly washing your hands is to ________ as repeatedly thinking about your
own death is to ________.
A) dissociation; schizophrenia
B) mania; depression
C) phobia; delusion
D) compulsion; obsession
40. Two years after being brutally beaten and raped, Brianna still experiences jumpy
anxiety and has trouble sleeping and vivid flashbacks of her assault. Brianna is most
clearly showing signs of:
A) panic disorder.
B) post-traumatic stress disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) social phobia.
41. Most political dissidents who survive dozens of episodes of torture do not later
exhibit PTSD. This best illustrates survivor:
A) mania.
B) catatonia.
C) dissociation.
D) resiliency.
42. Some psychologists believe that partly due to a broadening definition of trauma,
mental health professionals have been overdiagnosing:
A) panic disorder.
B) PTSD.
C) ADHD.
D) schizophrenia.
43. According to the ________ perspective, anxiety is sometimes produced by the
submerged mental energy associated with repressed impulses.
A) biological
B) learning
C) psychoanalytic
D) social-cognitive
44. Rats who received unpredictable electric shocks in a laboratory experiment
subsequently became apprehensive when returned to that same laboratory setting. This
best illustrates that anxiety disorders may result from:
A) stimulus generalization.
B) observational learning.
C) reinforcement.
D) classical conditioning.
45. Melissa is fearful of men and refuses to go out on dates. Her therapist suggests that
she is fearful because she was sexually abused by her father when she was young. The
therapist's suggestion most clearly reflects a ________ perspective.
A) humanistic
B) learning
C) biological
D) psychoanalytic
46. Luke suffers from acrophobia, a fear of high places. Luke's therapist suggests that his
reaction to heights is a generalization of the fear triggered by a childhood playground
accident in which he fell off a sliding board. The therapist's suggestion reflects a
________ perspective.
A) learning
B) psychoanalytic
C) humanistic
D) biological
47. Julius is obsessed with avoiding germs and feels compelled to bathe at least 10 times
every day. His therapist suggests that Julius continues his maladaptive bathing because
this behavior temporarily reduced his anxiety on many past occasions. The therapist's
suggestion most directly reflects a ________ perspective.
A) biological
B) learning
C) psychoanalytic
D) humanistic
48. Obsessive thoughts typically ________ anxiety and compulsive behaviors typically
________ anxiety.
A) increase; increase
B) decrease; decrease
C) increase; decrease
D) decrease; increase
49. As Jordan watches, his brother receives an electric shock from touching the frayed
cord to the toaster. Jordan is now intensely afraid of toasters. This best illustrates that fear
can be learned through:
A) stimulus generalization.
B) observational learning.
C) linkage analysis.
D) reinforcement.
50. We can more easily extinguish a fear of driving a car than a fear of holding snakes.
This is best explained from a ________ perspective.
A) learning
B) biological
C) psychoanalytic
D) humanistic
51. It has been suggested that compulsive acts typically exaggerate behaviors that
contributed to the survival of the human species. This idea best illustrates the ________
perspective.
A) humanistic
B) learning
C) psychoanalytic
D) biological
52. A traumatic experience may trigger a lasting phobia in a child with a sensitive, highstrung temperament. The same experience, however, may have no long-term impact on a
child with a more relaxed temperament. This best illustrates the role of ________ in the
development of phobias.
A) explanatory style
B) catatonia
C) genetic predispositions
D) mood disorders
53. The anterior cingulate cortex, a brain region that monitors our actions, seems
especially likely to be hyperactive in those with:
A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) a dissociative disorder.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) antisocial personality disorder.
54. Disruptions in conscious awareness and sense of identity are most characteristic of
________ disorders.
A) bipolar
B) obsessive-compulsive
C) generalized anxiety
D) dissociative
55. William, an airplane pilot, is unable to remember anything of a bombing raid in
which his plane was severely damaged and two crew members were killed. Because he
himself suffered no physical injuries, psychologists suspect that William probably suffers
from:
A) panic disorder.
B) a dissociative disorder.
C) a phobia.
D) bipolar disorder.
56. A sense of being separated from your body and watching yourself with a sense of
detachment is a symptom of:
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B) generalized anxiety disorder.
C) agoraphobia.
D) dissociation.
57. The experience of multiple personalities is most likely to be characterized by:
A) a massive dissociation of self from ordinary consciousness.
B) offensive and unwanted thoughts that persistently preoccupy a person.
C) delusions of persecution and grandiosity.
D) a lack of guilt feelings.
58. College students were asked to pretend that they were accused murderers. Under
hypnosis, they typically expressed a second personality when prompted to do so by the
examining psychiatrist. This most strongly suggests that dissociative identity disorder
may involve:
A) low self-esteem.
B) unconscious fear.
C) a negative explanatory style.
D) role-playing.
59. Evidence that symptoms of dissociative identity disorder are triggered by the
suggestions and leading questions of therapists most clearly points out the importance of
________ in the onset of this disorder.
A) learned helplessness
B) repression
C) childhood sexual trauma
D) role-playing
60. A biological perspective would be least helpful for explaining the:
A) prevalence of schizophrenia throughout the world.
B) fluctuations in mood experienced by those suffering a bipolar disorder.
C) fear of snakes experienced by a high percentage of Americans.
D) dramatic increase in reported cases of dissociative identity disorder during the past 40
or so years.
61. Connie exhibits multiple personalities. Evidence that information learned by her
secondary personality influences the moods and behaviors of her primary personality
would most clearly rule out the contribution of ________ to her symptoms.
A) role-playing
B) sexual trauma
C) dissociation
D) motivational conflict
62. Noah's therapist suggests that Noah developed a dissociative identity disorder in order
to misbehave without feeling a strong sense of personal shame. The therapist's suggestion
most directly reflects a ________ perspective.
A) humanistic
B) social-cognitive
C) psychoanalytic
D) biological
63. Psychological disorders characterized by inflexible, enduring, and socially
maladaptive behavior patterns are called ________ disorders.
A) acute
B) free-floating
C) reactive
D) personality
64. The distinctive features used to identify the three clusters of personality disorders are:
A) obsessions, compulsions, and delusions.
B) genetics, culture, and self-awareness.
C) optimism, pessimism, and perfectionism.
D) anxiety, eccentricity, and impulsivity.
65. Those with an avoidant personality disorder are most likely to display:
A) a lack of guilt feelings.
B) a sense of self-importance.
C) shallow, attention-getting emotions.
D) a fear of social rejection.
66. The antisocial personality disorder is most likely to be characterized by:
A) a persistent, irrational fear of people.
B) episodes of intense autonomic nervous system arousal.
C) disruptions in conscious awareness and sense of identity.
D) a lack of guilt feelings.
67. Which of the following disorders is more common among men than women?
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder
B) antisocial personality disorder
C) dissociative identity disorder
D) schizophrenia
68. Anthony is 32 years old, well above average in intelligence, and quite charming. He
has swindled several elderly people out of their life savings, and he seems to have little
feeling for his victims, nor does he fear the consequences of getting caught. His behavior
is evidence of:
A) schizophrenia.
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C) a personality disorder.
D) a dissociative disorder.
69. There is some evidence that a relatively low level of autonomic nervous system
arousal may contribute to:
A) post-traumatic stress disorder.
B) antisocial personality disorder.
C) dissociative disorders.
D) generalized anxiety disorder.
70. The reduced self-control of murderers is most closely related to reduced brain activity
in their ________ lobes.
A) frontal
B) temporal
C) occipital
D) parietal
71. The prominent feature of mood disorders is the experience of:
A) social phobia.
B) flat affect.
C) emotional extremes.
D) paranoia.
72. The experience of depression ________ risk taking and ________ aggression.
A) inhibits; stimulates
B) stimulates; inhibits
C) inhibits; inhibits
D) stimulates; stimulates
73. A major depressive disorder is most likely to be characterized by:
A) delusions of persecution.
B) alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism.
C) a persistent irrational fear of other people.
D) feelings of personal worthlessness.
74. For the last month, Gabrielle has felt lethargic and has been unable to get out of bed
in the morning. She has withdrawn from friends and family because she feels worthless
and unlovable. Gabrielle is most likely suffering from:
A) agoraphobia.
B) major depressive disorder.
C) PTSD.
D) antisocial personality disorder.
75. A disorder in which an individual is overexcited, hyperactive, and wildly optimistic is
known as:
A) paranoia.
B) mania.
C) a panic attack.
D) catatonia.
76. Elmer, the owner of an auto service station, suddenly began smashing the front
fenders and hoods of two customers' cars. When asked why, he excitedly explained that
he was transforming the cars into “real racing machines.” When an employee tried to
restrain him, he shouted that everybody was fired and quickly began breaking the car
windows. Elmer is exhibiting symptoms of:
A) a dissociative disorder.
B) catatonia.
C) a panic attack.
D) mania.
77. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, individuals are most likely to experience:
A) high self-esteem.
B) delusions of persecution.
C) uncontrollable grief and despair.
D) visual or auditory hallucinations.
78. George Frideric Handel composed his Messiah during three weeks of intense, creative
energy. Many believe Handel suffered a mild form of:
A) agoraphobia.
B) a dissociative disorder.
C) bipolar disorder.
D) schizophrenia.
79. Cognitive changes that accompany depression include a(n):
A) decrease in self-focused thinking.
B) increased expectation of negative outcomes.
C) increased externalization of blame.
D) increased obsession with experiencing physical pleasure.
80. Research regarding depression indicates that:
A) depression is typically unrelated to stressful life events.
B) depression is unlikely to be overcome without professional help.
C) depression is associated with abnormally high levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin.
D) with each new generation, depression is increasing in its prevalence.
81. Which perspective suggests that depression is a reaction to loss and the internalization
of unresolved anger toward parents?
A) social-cognitive
B) biological
C) psychoanalytic
D) learning
82. Laura's husband died three years ago, but she is still depressed. Her therapist suggests
that she is really angry at her husband for abandoning her. The therapist's interpretation
reflects the ________ perspective.
A) social-cognitive
B) psychoanalytic
C) learning
D) biological
83. Suicide rates in the United States are ________ among Whites than Blacks and
________ among men than women.
A) higher; higher
B) lower; lower
C) higher; lower
D) lower; higher
84. The risk of suicide is greatest when people:
A) anticipate the onset of a depressive episode.
B) experience the first symptoms of a depressive episode.
C) experience depressive symptoms at their most extreme levels of severity.
D) begin to rebound from their depression.
85. Of those who talk of suicide, ________ actually attempt suicide. Of those who
attempt suicide, ________ succeed in completing the act.
A) only a few; most
B) most; only a few
C) only a few; only a few
D) most; most
86. Linkage analysis is of greatest interest to those who attempt to explain mood
disorders from a ________ perspective.
A) psychoanalytic
B) biological
C) social-cognitive
D) humanistic
87. Drugs that alleviate mania tend to reduce levels of the neurotransmitter:
A) acetylcholine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) dopamine.
D) estrogen.
88. Abnormally low levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin are associated with:
A) panic attacks.
B) schizophrenia.
C) depression.
D) dissociative disorders.
89. By boosting serotonin, antidepressant drugs stimulate the growth of neurons in the:
A) cerebellum.
B) hippocampus.
C) reticular formation.
D) sympathetic nervous system.
90. According to the social-cognitive perspective, women are more vulnerable to
depression than men because they are more likely to:
A) have unrealistically optimistic goals in life.
B) experience learned helplessness.
C) experience low levels of norepinephrine.
D) experience cyclical variations in hormone levels.
91. Women are at greater risk of depression than men partially because women are more
likely to ________ in response to stressful circumstances.
A) overthink
B) externalize blame
C) suffer memory loss
D) become socially withdrawn
92. The social-cognitive perspective has emphasized that depression is perpetuated by:
A) motivational conflict.
B) self-blaming attributions.
C) egocentrism.
D) conscious role playing.
93. Which perspective suggests that explaining our own failures in terms that are global,
stable, and internal contributes to depression?
A) psychoanalytic
B) biological
C) learning
D) social-cognitive
94. Inanna suffers from chronic depression. According to the social-cognitive
perspective, how is she most likely to respond when told that she performed very poorly
on a test she took the previous day?
A) “I'm academically incompetent and always will be.”
B) “Yesterday was just my unlucky day.”
C) “I suspect that none of the students in my class did well on that test.”
D) “Hardly any of the professors in this college are effective classroom teachers.”
95. A therapist suggests that Margaret is depressed because she attributes her failures to
her own incompetence instead of blaming her parents and teachers for the unreasonable
demands they place on her. The therapist's interpretation most clearly reflects a ________
perspective.
A) biological
B) psychoanalytic
C) humanistic
D) social-cognitive
96. One difficulty with a purely attributional explanation of depression is that negative
attributions:
A) are more characteristic of men than of women.
B) may be a consequence rather than a cause of depression.
C) do not coincide with actual episodes of depression.
D) are more clearly associated with mania than with depression.
97. People who suffer chronic depression are at high risk for experiencing:
A) unrealistic optimism.
B) reduced self-awareness.
C) excessive levels of norephinephrine.
D) social rejection.
98. In order to break the vicious cycle of depression, the social-cognitive perspective
suggests that people should be encouraged to explain their failures in terms that are both:
A) internal and stable.
B) external and global.
C) internal and global.
D) external and temporary.
99. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are the ________ of inappropriate behaviors, and
negative symptoms are the ________ of appropriate behaviors.
A) absence; absence
B) presence; presence
C) absence; presence
D) presence; absence
100. One of the negative symptoms of schizophrenia is:
A) an expressionless face.
B) loud and meaningless talking.
C) inappropriate laughter.
D) uncontrollable outbursts of rage.
101. Jabar, a 25-year-old auto mechanic, thinks he is Napoleon. He further believes he is
being imprisoned against his will in the psychiatric hospital where his relatives have
brought him for treatment. Jabar is most likely suffering from:
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B) schizophrenia.
C) panic disorder.
D) dissociative identity disorder.
102. Mr. Hunt believes that he is the president of the United States and that he will soon
become the “King of the Universe.” Mr. Hunt is most clearly suffering from:
A) delusions.
B) obsessions.
C) hallucinations.
D) dissociative identity disorder.
103. In which type of disorder is a person's speech likely to be so full of unrelated words
and phrases that it could be characterized as a “word salad”?
A) panic disorder
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder
C) schizophrenia
D) dissociative disorder
104. Delusions of persecution are most common among those with ________
schizophrenia.
A) catatonic
B) manic
C) avoidant
D) paranoid
105. A breakdown in selective attention is most likely to be experienced by those who
suffer from:
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B) phobias.
C) generalized anxiety disorders.
D) schizophrenia.
106. Wilma is extremely agitated because she hears voices that tell her to sexually seduce
the male nurses in her hospital ward. Wilma is most clearly suffering from:
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B) catatonia.
C) a dissociative disorder.
D) hallucinations.
107. Flat affect and catatonia are symptoms most closely associated with:
A) schizophrenia.
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C) bipolar disorder.
D) antisocial personality disorder.
108. Sudden development of symptoms is to gradual development of symptoms as
________ schizophrenia is to ________ schizophrenia.
A) chronic; process
B) acute; reactive
C) chronic; acute
D) reactive; chronic
109. Those with ________ symptoms of schizophrenia more often have a(n) ________
condition that responds to drug therapy.
A) positive; chronic
B) negative; reactive
C) positive; reactive
D) negative; acute
110. Schizophrenia is associated with an excess of receptors for:
A) norepinephrine.
B) dopamine.
C) serotonin.
D) acetylcholine.
111. Dopamine overactivity appears to be most clearly related to:
A) flat affect.
B) agoraphobia.
C) hallucinations.
D) bipolar disorder.
112. Vigorous activity in the thalamus of schizophrenia patients has been found to be
associated with:
A) hearing voices.
B) flat affect.
C) disorganized speech.
D) repetitive rocking motions.
113. Among schizophrenia patients, the fluid-filled areas of the brain are:
A) abnormally large and the thalamus is abnormally small.
B) abnormally small and the thalamus is abnormally large.
C) abnormally small and the thalamus is abnormally small.
D) abnormally large and the thalamus is abnormally large.
114. Low birth weight is a known risk factor for:
A) dissociative identity disorder.
B) major depressive disorder.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) schizophrenia.
115. Evidence suggests that prenatal viral infections contribute to:
A) generalized anxiety disorders.
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C) schizophrenia.
D) bipolar disorders.
116. People born in ________ during the month of ________ are at increased risk for
schizophrenia.
A) North America; February
B) Asia; September
C) Australia; February
D) Europe; September
117. Research on the causes of schizophrenia strongly suggests that:
A) there is a genetic predisposition to schizophrenia.
B) almost anybody will develop schizophrenia if exposed to extensive environmental
stress.
C) schizophrenia patients suffer from a deficiency of the neurotransmitter serotonin.
D) if adopted children's adoptive parents have schizophrenia, they will, too.
118. If identical twins share a single placenta rather than having separate placentas, their
chances of being similarly affected by ________ are dramatically increased.
A) depression
B) schizophrenia
C) dissociative disorders
D) antisocial personality disorder
119. An adopted child's chances of developing schizophrenia ________ if the biological
parents have schizophrenia. The child's chances ________ if the adopted parents have
schizophrenia.
A) increase; increase
B) do not increase; do not increase
C) increase; do not increase
D) do not increase; increase
120. Psychologists are least likely to suggest that ________ contribute(s) to the
development of schizophrenia.
A) neglectful child-rearing practices
B) prenatal viral infections
C) dopamine overactivity
D) shrinkage of cerebral tissue
36
37 52. Which of the following personality disorders is characterized by behavior that
includes dishonesty, repeated trouble with authority figures, and an absence of remorse
for these types of conduct? (AP99)
(A) Antisocial
(B) Histrionic
(C) Passive-aggressive
(D) Narcissistic
(E) Borderline
36 74. Contemporary definitions of abnormal behavior typically characterize such
behavior as all of the following EXCEPT (AP99)
(A) Atypical
(B) Maladaptive
(C) Inappropriate
(D) due to inappropriate child-rearing practices
(E) Disturbing to the individual exhibiting the behavior
36 3. The basic purpose of the DSM-IV-TR is to (AP04)
(A) Provide a set of diagnostic categories for classifying psychological disorders
(B) Provide a clear distinction between neurosis and psychosis
(C) Describe the psychoanalytic approach to psychological disorders
(D) Describe internal personality factors that are involved in psychological disorders
(E)Identify childhood experiences that contribute to psychological disorders
36 13. Contemporary definitions of abnormality might include all of the following
criteria EXCEPT (AP04)
(A)Maladaptiveness
(B)Personal distress or discomfort
(C)Deviance from cultural norms
(D)Gender
(E)Statistical Prevalence
No ap questions on the 2013 test
36 72. Thomas is thirty years old and is very shy. He becomes anxious in social
situations, so he avoids them. Thomas does not have close friends and rarely leaves his
apartment. However, he writes a very successful and popular Internet blog, is usually
content and calm while working at home, and has a positive relationship with his family.
Psychologists would be hesitant to label Thomas as psychologically disordered because
his behavior (AP 15)
(A) is a conscious choice, rational, and predictable
(B) was learned through principles of operant conditioning
(C) was learned through principles of classical conditioning
(D) does not appear to be deviant from the norm
(E) does not appear to cause distress or impair his day-to-day functioning
37
37 6. Distrust of others is symptomatic of (AP94)
(A) Mania
(B) Dementia
(C) Catatonia
(D) Paranoia
(E) hebephrenia
37 59. Which of the following best characterizes individuals diagnosed as having
personality disorders? (AP94)
(A) They are typically afraid to leave their homes.
(B) They are consistently psychotic in their cognition and affect.
(C) They may function reasonably well in society.
(D) Their symptoms are characterized by sudden onset and short duration.
(E) They developed their problems as a result of drug abuse.
37 64. Multiple personality is a type of (AP94)
(A) Dissociative disorder
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Dementia praecox
(D) Bipolar disorder
(E) Manic-depressive psychosis
37 3. Phobic and panic disturbances are examples of which of the following kinds of
disorder? (AP99)
(A) Personality
(B) Schizophrenic
(C) Anxiety
(D) Somatoform
(E) Dissociative
Move to 18 45. An individual's fear of dogs that is lost as the individual is exposed to
dogs in nonthreatening situations is referred to by behaviorists as a fear that has been
(AP99)
(A) Satiated
(B) Suppressed
(C) Repressed
(D) Extinguished
(E) Punished
Not 37 62. Learned helplessness is most likely to result when (AP99)
(A) Responses have no effect on the environment
(B) Young organisms fail to imprint at the critical period
(C) A response is reinforced independently
(D) Reinforcement occurs on an intermittent schedule
(E) An organism receives negative reinforcement
37 64. A college student experiences a loss of sensation in her right arm before exams.
Doctors can find no physiological basis for her condition. This student is most likely
experiencing which of the following kinds of disorders? (AP04)
(A)Somatoform
(B)Dissociative
(C)Anxiety
(D)Mood
(E)Personality
37 59. Which of the following treatments is most frequently used to eliminate specific
phobias? (AP04)
(A)Antidepressant drugs
(B)Systematic desensitization
(C)Implosion therapy
(D)Psychoanalysis
(E)Aversion therapy
37 57. Persistent repetitive thoughts that cannot be controlled are known as (AP94)
(A) Compulsions
(B) Obsessions
(C) Phobias
(D) Delusions
(E) Sublimations
37 89. Which of the following is most descriptive of antisocial personality disorder?
(AP04)
(A)A pattern of limited social interaction and reluctance to enter into relationships
(B)A pattern of extreme dependence on other people and acute anxiety at being left alone
(C)A pattern of bizarre or unstable behavior characterized by dramatic mood shifts
(D)An inability to feel empathy for others and a lack of remorse for actions that harm
others
(E)An exaggerated sense of self importance
37 4. An individual survives a period of captivity and exhibits behaviors that include
anxiety, inability to concentrate, depression, edginess, and the re experience of stressful
events. These symptoms illustrate which of the following disorders? (AP04)
(A)Generalized anxiety
(B)Major depression
(C)Hypochondriasis
(D)Histrionic
(E)Posttraumatic stress
37
9. Which of the following individuals would most likely be classified as exhibiting a
social phobia? (AP13)
(A) Pablo, who is afraid of snakes
(B) Priti, who is afraid of being humiliated when giving a speech
(C) Chrissie, who avoids long flights on airplanes
(D) Lisa, who is afraid of giving blood
(E) Masato, who is always worried about her health
23. All of the following are anxiety disorders EXCEPT(AP13)
(A) agoraphobia
(B) posttraumatic stress disorder
(C) conversion disorder
(D) obsessive-compulsive disorder
(E) panic disorder
68. An individual has recurring unwanted thoughts of doing harm to his family. This is
consistent with a diagnosis of(AP13)
(A) dissociative identity disorder
(B) posttraumatic stress disorder
(C) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
(D) somatoform disorder
(E) obsessive-compulsive disorder
87. As a child, George often skipped school and engaged in repeated acts of vandalism
and petty theft. As an adult, he has been arrested for running a dishonest investment
company. The most likely diagnosis for George’s current behavior is(AP13)
(A) narcissistic personality disorder
(B) antisocial personality disorder
(C) borderline personality disorder
(D) dissociative identity disorder
(E) oppositional defiant disorder
37 41. Specific phobia differs from generalized anxiety disorder in which of the
following ways? (AP 15)
(A) Specific phobia is linked to a particular stimulus, whereas generalized anxiety
disorder is not.
(B) Generalized anxiety disorder is linked to a particular stimulus, whereas specific
phobia is not.
(C) Specific phobia is not very upsetting for the sufferer, whereas generalized anxiety
disorder is.
(D) Generalized anxiety disorder is not very upsetting for the sufferer, whereas specific
phobia is.
(E) Generalized anxiety disorder is classified as one of the anxiety disorders, whereas
specific phobia is not.
37 53. Which of the following treatments would be most effective for someone who
experiences a rapid heartbeat, light-headedness, and nausea when speaking in public?
(AP 15)
(A) Medication to reduce dopamine levels
(B) Interpretation of transference behaviors
(C) Systematic desensitization
(D) Reflective listening
(E) Aversive conditioning
37 40 76. Which of the following psychological theories would explain posttraumatic
stress disorder as being the result of irrational beliefs and ideas? (AP 15)
(A) Psychoanalytic
(B) Gestalt
(C) Evolutionary
(D) Cognitive
(E) Humanistic
37
37 1. People who habitually wash their hands numerous times before going to bed most
likely have (AP14)
(A) a compulsion
(B) a phobia
(C) an affective disorder
(D) a conversion disorder
(E) a panic disorder
37 41 100. A therapist using systematic desensitization to help a client overcome a fear of
big dogs would probably begin treatment by asking the client to (AP14)
(A) free-associate to the word “dog”
(B) walk into a room where there is a small dog
(C) describe her past experience with dogs
(D) buy a puppy
(E) master a set of relaxation techniques
37 10. Following the failure of his business, Mr. Jones disappeared and was discovered
two years later in another state practicing law without a license. When questioned, he
responded that he had found himself in a strange city and could not remember any
personal information. Mr. Jones most likely would be diagnosed with (AP14)
(A) amnesia
(B) dissociative identity disorder
(C) dissociative fugue
(D) dementia
(E) bipolar disorder
37 13. Alan is sure something is wrong with him, even though his doctor has not found
any physiological basis for his complaints. He returns to the doctor every few weeks to
report symptoms of new illnesses based on information he reads. Alan is most likely to be
diagnosed with which of the following types of disorders? (AP14)
(A) Mood
(B) Anxiety
(C) Dissociative
(D) Somatoform
37 26. Joan displays anxiety, irritability, inability to concentrate, and apathy. She also reexperiences a disastrous event through nightmares and vivid memories. Joan is
experiencing (AP14)
(A) burnout
(B) hypochondriasis
(C) exhaustion
(D) generalized anxiety disorder
(E) posttraumatic stress disorder
19 37 63. Although people can acquire phobias to almost any object or situation, certain
phobias (e.g., those to snakes, spiders, heights) are much more common than others. This
finding can best be explained by which of the following concepts? (AP14)
(A) Biological preparedness
(B) Spontaneous recovery
(C) Stimulus discrimination
(D) Stimulus generalization
(E) Observational learning
37 94. All of the following statements about suicide are true EXCEPT: (AP14)
(A) It is common for people who commit suicide to have talked about suicide.
(B) Women attempt suicide more often than do men.
(C) Suicide is one of the most common causes of death among young people.
(D) Suicide is attempted only by people who are depressed.
(E) Men use more lethal means of attempting suicide than do women.
38
38 45. The cognitive theory of depression states that depression results from (AP94)
(A) Anger directed toward the self and significant others
(B) An excess of certain neurotransmitters in the brain
(C) Failure in adult love relationships
(D) Maladaptive interpretations of life events
(E) Oral fixations from disturbed mother-infant relationships
38 82. Bipolar disorders are most effectively treated with a combination of tricyclic
antidepressants and (AP94)
(A) Acetaminophen
(B) antianxiety drugs
(C) Beta-blockers
(D) Amphetamines
(E) Lithium carbonate
38 2. For several weeks--ever since she did not receive a raise that was given to several
colleagues-Enid has lacked energy, has been unable to go to work, and has expected bad
things to happen every day. Of the following, she is most likely experiencing (AP99)
(A) Post traumatic stress
(B) Mania
(C) Hypochondria
(D) Depression
(E) fugue
No ap questions 2013
38 59. Which of the following is a common symptom of the manic phase of bipolar
disorder? (AP 15)
(A) Auditory hallucinations
(B) A feeling of intense sadness
(C) Rapid speech
(D) The presence of two distinct personalities
(E) Narcolepsy
38
38 41. A person who experiences prolonged episodes of severe unhappiness and loss of
interest in life would most likely be diagnosed with (AP14)
(A) agoraphobia
(B) specific phobia
(C) generalized anxiety disorder
(D) major depressive disorder
(E) hypochondriasis
38 42 61. Lithium carbonate is used to treat (AP14)
(A) agoraphobia
(B) anorexia nervosa
(C) panic disorder
(D) bipolar disorder
(E) dissociative fugue
39
39 20. Which of the following is most characteristic of individuals with chronic
schizophrenia? (AP94)
(A) Extreme mood swings
(B) Disordered thinking
(C) Profound sadness
(D) Unaccountable loss of body function
(E) Loss of memory
39 76. Which of the following has been most effective in the treatment of schizophrenia?
(AP94)
(A) Administration of L-dopa
(B) Prefrontal lobotomy
(C) Psychoanalytic therapy
(D) Drug therapy that blocks neurotransmitter sites
(E) Drug therapy that increases the activity of limbic system neurons
39 11. Psychotic disorders frequently involve perceptions of nonexistent sensory
stimulation, such as voices. Symptoms such as these are called (AP99)
(A) Delusions
(B) paraphilias
(C) Hallucinations
(D) Paranormal images
(E) Psychic phenomena
39 43. One suspected cause of schizophrenia is the abnormal increase of which of the
following neurotransmitters in the brain? (AP99)
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Somatotropin
(C) Dopamine
(D) Norepinephrine
(E) Serotonin
39 54. Which of the following is associated with schizophrenia? (AP04)
(A)Enlarged, fluid filled areas in the brain
(B)Damage to the medulla
(C)Malfunction of the endocrine system
(D)Impairment of the spinal reflexes
(E)Injury to the parasympathetic nervous system
39
16. Delusional thinking is central to which of the following? (AP13)
(A) Fugue states
(B) Panic attacks
(C) Schizophrenic disorders
(D) Dissociative disorders
(E) Affective disorders