Download LIST OF CHECK-UP QUESTIONS for

LIST OF CHECK-UP QUESTIONS for
Module 2
Concluding session for Module II
List of CHECK-UP QUESTIONS for grounding in Module 2“Parasitology
and Parasitism” are following:
1. What is parasite?
2. Defi ne a parasitism.
3. What is constant parasite?
4. What is ectoparasite?
5. What is endoparasite?
6. What is accidental parasite?
7. What is monoxenous parasite?
8. What is panxenous parasite?
9. What is the cyst serves for?
10. What is trophosoite?
11. Name fl agellated protozoan lives in urogenital tract
12. Trypanosoma and Leishmania both are in the Trypanosomatidae family. How
can
we distinguish them during their lifecycles?
13. What factors have to be present for feral nidal infection existing?
14. Name fl agellated protozoan invasion diseases are transmitted without vectors.
15. Name leishmaniasis’ types.
16. What is the vector for Chagas diseases?
17. What is the vector for sleeping sickness?
18. What is feral nidal disease?
19. What fl agellated protozoan can be transmitted without cysts?
20. What is the general name of plasmodium stages it get development in
mosquito?
21. Name malaria Plasmodium species please. Which is the most widespread and
dangerous?
22. What animal is most common source of toxoplasmosis to humans? Why?
23. Why toxoplasm is founding in virtually every country of the world?
24. Does toxoplasm produce cysts?
25. In what period of human life toxoplasm is dangerous especially? Why?
26. Name diagnostic stages of malaria in human blood. What is the vector for
malaria
disease?
27. Why liver treatment is critically important for malaria?
28. What is biohelminth?
29. What is geohelminth?
30. What stage of Opisthorhis felineus development is invective for human beings?
31. Who are fl ukes concerning their sex?
32. What stage of Opisthorhis felineus development is diagnostic for human
beings?
33. What stage of Fasciola hepatica development is invective for human beings?
34. What is strobila?
35. What diseases can cause Taenia solium in humans?
36. What are sources of the Himenolepis nana invasion in humans?
37. Why people who don’t consume pork can get disease caused by pork tapeworm
(Taenia solium)? What is the disease name?
38. Why infection of Himenolepis nana can persists for years in patient’ intestine?
39. What is onchosphere?
40. What are dog tapeworm’ target organs in humans?
41. What parasitic worm infestation is named “hydatidosis, or hydatid disease”?
Why?
42. Why Difi llobotrium latum is named “broad tapeworm”?
43. What is the name of Echinococcus cyst?
44. What are the differences of A. multilocularis and E. granulosis infections for
humans?
45. Name human longest parasitic worm.
46. Name main features which distinguish Arthropods from other animal phylums
47. Why ticks are not insects? Name their features.
48. What main parts does Arthropoda body consists of?
49. How do Solifugae are differ from other spiders?
50. What is Solifugae medical importance?
51. How does scorpion perform its bite?
52. Poison of what spiders may be fatal?
53. Female of which Arthropoda is named “black widow”? Why?
54. Name structural features which belong to ticks
55. Hard ticks have soft and stretched belly. Why are they named “hard”?
56. How can you distinguish Soft and Hard ticks?
57. What is soft ticks’ medical importance?
58. What is hard ticks’ medical importance?
59. What is the reason of sarcoptic mange in humans?
60. In what way can humans be ingested by Sarcoptes scabiei?
61. What are main sarcoptic mange symptoms? What are their reasons?
62. What sites do Demodex species occupy in human bodies?
63. How humans can get the Demodex infection?
64. What are tree features which distinguish Insecta from other Arthropoda
Classes?
65. What diseases in humans may presence of Pediculus lice leads to?
66. How can you distinguish Pediculus and Phtirus lice?
67. Which Insects’ genuses are most important in terms of parasitic diseases
transmission?
68. What diseases can fl ea transmit to humans?
69. Why fl ea can jump 200 times longer its body length?
70. Why it is almost impossible to squash fl ea by fi ngers?
71. How can eggs of Anopheles and common mosquitoes be distinguished?
72. How can larvae of Anopheles and common mosquitoes be distinguished?
73. How can adults of Anopheles and common mosquitoes be distinguished?
74. Name disease transmitted by black fl y to humans
75. How larvae transmitted with black fl y is adapted to vector’ activity?
76. What is medical importance of fl ies?
77. Name myiasys types?
78. Why removing of cockroaches is medically important?
79. There is no data about human diseases transmitted by the bedbugs. Why these
insects are medically important?
TESTS FOR GROUNDING IN
MODULE 1
CYTOLOGY
Answers multiple tests, choose and indicate the correct answer/statement, please:
1. The non-membranous organelles are:
a) ribosomes; CORRECT
b) Golgi body;
c) lysosomes;
d) Endoplasmic reticulum;
e) nucleus
2. Chloroplasts and mitochondria both NOT:
a) are found in plant cells;
b) have two membranes;
c) contain DNA;
d) are found in animal cells; CORRECT
e) contain a matrix.
3. The way of formation of somatic cells in human body is:
a) amitosis
b) mitosis CORRECT
c) meiosis
d) gametogenesis
4. In what phase of the cell cycle the period when DNA replication and histone synthesis occurs,
resulting in duplication of the chromosomes? At the end of this phase, each chromosome consists
of two identical chromatids attached to one another at the centromere. Choose the correct
answer:
a) G1 phase
b) S phase CORRECT
c) G2 phase
d) mitosis
5. Some phase begins when the sister chromatids separate and begin their migration to opposite
poles of the cell. What is the name of this mitosis stage?
a) telophase
b) metaphase
c) anaphase CORRECT
d) prophase
6. In which stage of prophase I does crossing-over occur?
a) leptotene
b) zygotene
c) pachytene CORRECT
d) diplotene
7. In which period of spermatogenesis does meiosis take place?
a) reproduction
b) growing
c) maturation CORRECT
d) formation
8. Human diploid number has 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes migrate to each pole
during meiosis I in anaphase? How many chromatids migrate to each pole during meiosis II in
anaphase?
a) 23 chromosomes, 23 chromatids CORRECT
b) 46 chromosomes, 46 chromatids
c) 23 chromosomes, 46 chromatids
d) 46 chromosomes, 23 chromatids
9. Work with microscope starts from a small magnification (according to the rules).
Magnification is x 56. Indicate, please, the correct answer:
a) ocular x 7, objective 8
b) ocular x 10, objective 40
c) ocular x 15, objective 40
d) objective x 8, ocular 10 CORRECT
e) objective x 40, ocular 10
10. In what organelle proteins are matured into their final forms?
a) mitochondria
b) lysosomes
c) Golgi apparatus CORRECT
d) ribosomes
11. What does an optical part of the light microscope consist of?
a) refractor
b) diaphragm
c) condenser
d) turret
e) ocular CORRECT
12. The membranes that partition the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells (endomembrane system)
include:
a) Golgi complex;
b) lysosomes;
c) endoplasmic reticulum; CORRECT
d) transport recycles;
e) plasma membrane.
13. The “cytoskeleton” of eukaryotic cells does NOT:
a) changes constantly;
b) includes microfilaments;
c) includes some DNA; CORRECT
d) extends into the nucleus;
e) includes protein.
15. Cell membrane functions include:
a) energy transduction;
b) selective permeability;
c) isolation of different chemical reaction;
d) concentration of reactants;
e) all of these above CORRECT
16. The chromosome is acrocentric if:
a) centromere divides it into two arms of approximately length
b) centromere establishes one long arm and one short arm
c) it pinches off only a small amount of material. CORRECT
17. What chromosome number is present in sex cells?
a) haploid (n) CORRECT
b) diploid (2n)
c) tetraploid (4n)
d) triploid (3n)
18. In what types of reproduction gametes are formed?
a) vegetative;
b) asexual;
c) sexual. CORRECT
d) budding
e) shizogonia
19. In which period of ovogenesis does mitosis take place?
a) reproduction CORRECT
b) growing
c) maturation
d) formation
20. What organelles of special purpose (carry out the directed functions in cells with narrow
specialization) do you know? Choose the correct answer:
a) organelles of moving (flagellae, pseudopodia) CORRECT
b) organelles produce polysaccharides
c) organelles founding in plant cells
d) correct answer is absent
e) All of these
21. During what phase of meiosis the secondary oocyte is formed and how many chromosomes
and DNA are present:
a) meiosis I (n, 2c) CORRECT
b) meiosis II (n, c)
c) meiosis I (2n, c)
d) meiosis II (2n, 2c)
e) meiosis I (2n, 4c)
22. What organelles belong to the organelles for special purpose?
a) lysosomes
b) rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)
d) cilia CORRECT
e) mitochondria
23. The lysosome membrane is destroyed. What will happen with a cell?
a) phagocytosis
b) endocytosis
c) lysis CORRECT
d) mitosis
e) pinocytosis
24. How many homologous chromosomes and chromatids after replication are present in human
karyotype?
a) 46 chromosomes and 92 chromatids CORRECT
b) 46 chromosomes and 46 chromatids
c) 92 chromosomes and 92 chromatids
d) 92 chromosomes and 46 chromatids
25. Choose definition corresponding with different cell types:
a) Prokaryotic cells:…______________
b) Eukaryotic cells:…_______________
1. Bacteria and blue-green algae, (Cyanobacteria)
2. Genetic material spread out in the cytoplasm
3. Nucleus and nuclear membrane lacking
4. Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body and mitochondria lacking.
5. Plant and animal cells.
6. Genetic material concentrated within the nucleus.
7. Nucleus and nuclear membrane present.
8. One or more nucleoli present.
9. All such organelles present.
10. Genetic material organized in a single closed loop-like chromosome.
11. Nuclear spindle formed
12. Nuclear spindle never formed during cell division
26. In which period of gametogenesis does reduplication of DNA and chromosomes take place?
a) reproduction
b) growing
c) maturation
d) formation
27. Where do chromosomes located in metaphase during mitosis or meiosis:
a) in a nucleus
b) on the poles of a cell
c) on the equator of a cell CORRECT
d) not visible
28. How many chromosomes and DNA molecules does mature ovum, spermatozoa have?
a) 46 chromosomes and 46 DNA;
b) 23 chromosomes and 46 DNA;
c) 23 chromosomes and 23 DNA; CORRECT
d) 46 chromosomes and 23 DNA.
29. The types of asexual reproduction in single-cellular organisms are:
a) binary fission
b) budding
c) sporogony
d) schizogony
e) all of these above CORRECT
30. What is NOT living level among definitions listed below? Choose correct answer:
a) biogeocenotic (population-species)
b) molecular-genetic
c) cellular
d) biosphere (ecosystem)
e) tissue (organ)
f) organism (ontogenesis)
g) chromosomal CORRECT
31. What does an illuminative part of light microscope consist of?
a) micrometer screw
b) macrometer
c) objective screw
d) refractor CORRECT
e) ocular
32. What is the main function of mitochondrion?
a) synthesis of proteis
b) secretory
c) ATP synthesis CORRECT
d) lipid synthesis
e) degradation of intracellular debris
33. Which type of chromosome is if centromere divides it into two equal arms?
a) acrocentric
b) submetacentric
c) metacentric CORRECT
d) telocentric
34. What two-membranous organelles do you know?
a) endoplasmic reticulum
b) mitochondrion CORRECT
c) Goldgi complex
d) lysosomes
e) peroxisomes
f) vacuoles
36. The chromosomes can be distinguished by such main sighs, as:
a) size, centromere position CORRECT
b) centromere position, width
c) length of the arms, condensation level
d) chromatids number, size
37. What phase of mitosis chromosomes are visible, differentiated, condensed and reduplicated:
a) prophase
b) telophase
c) metaphase CORRECT
d) anaphase
38. The types of asexual reproduction in multi-cellular organisms are:
a) vegetative (regeneration)
b) polyembrionya
c) sporogony
d) budding
e) all of these CORRECT
39. In which period of spermatogenesis sperms are formed?
a) reproduction
b) growing
c) maturation
d) formation CORRECT
40. Which of the following cells contain plastids?
a) animal
b) plant CORRECT
c) some eukaryotic
d) some prokaryotic
e) all cells
41. Lysosomes do NOT:
a) contain digestive enzymes
b) possess a membrane
c) contain nucleic acids CORRECT
d) break down complex molecules
e) break down organelles
42. The functions of nucleus are:
a) establishes one long arm and one short arm
b) storages the genetic information
c) moves to opposite poles of the cell
d) reduplicates of the genetic information
e) B+D
43. In which stage of meiosis does crossing-over occur?
a) telophase I
b) metaphase II
c) anaphase II
d) prophase I CORRECT
44. How many chromosomes groups are there in the human karyotype?
a) 46
b) 23 CORRECT
c) 92
d) 7
e) 9
45. In what phase the sister chromatids are separate and begin their migration to opposite poles
of the cell?
a) telophase
b) metaphase
c) anaphase CORRECT
d) prophase
46. How many chromosomes are present in each secondary oocyle?
a) 46
b) 23 CORRECT
c) 1600
d) 400
e) 22
47. The types of sexual reproduction in single-cellular organisms are:
a) polyembrionya
b) sporogony
c) binary fission
d) budding
e) conjugation CORRECT
f) schizogony
48. Each sperm consists of:
a) a head region
b) body or midpiece
c) tail or flagellum.
d) end piece
e) all of these CORRECT
49. How many chromosomes are present in each spermatogonium, an oogonium?
a) 46 CORRECT
b) 23
c) 1600
d) 400
e) 22
50. Some phase begins when the sister chromatids separate and begin their migration to opposite
poles of the cell.What named this phase during meiosis?
a) telophase
b) metaphase
c) anaphase CORRECT
d) prophase
51. Which type of chromosome characterized that the is if a centromere divides it into two nonequal arms (one of them is more longer)?
a) acrocentric
b) submetacentric CORRECT
c) metacentric
d) telocentric
56. What one-membranous components do you know:
a) endoplasmic reticulum
b) Goldgi complex
c) lysosomes
d) peroxisomes
e) vacuoles
f) all of these above CORRECT
61. The way of formation of sex cells in human body is:
a) amitosis
b) mitosis
c) meiosis CORRECT
d) gametogenesis
63. The parts of a mitochondrion that are rich in enzymes are:
a) the cristae. CORRECT
b) intermembrane space.
c) outer membrane.
d) inner membrane.
e) matrix.
64. Actin, myosin, and tubulin are
a) proteins.
b) components of filaments.
c) constructed on ribosomes
d) all of these CORRECT.
65. Organic matters which are carrying out in a cell and functions as enzymes are:
a) proteins, CORRECT
b) carbohydrates,
c) lipids,
d) of nucleic acids,
e) phospholipids.
66. Choose organelles of a cell, in which a photosynthesis occur:
a) mitochondrion,
b) lysosome,
c) ribosome,
d) chloroplasts, CORRECT
e) cellular center.
67. What is a mean of division in a somatic cells:
a) amitosis,
b) mitosis, CORRECT
c) meiosis,
d) schizogony,
e) budding?
68. Choose a haploid number of chromosomes of the man:
a) 18,
b) 46,
c) 40,
d) 23, CORRECT
e) 36.
69. Moving of the daughter chromatids to the poles of the cell is observed in the mitotically
dividing cell. On what stage of the mitotic cycle is this cell?
a) Interfase
b) Telophase
c) Anaphase CORRECT
d) Metaphase
e) Prophase
70. What cell structure contain DNA?
a) Nucleolus
b) Ribosomes
c) Nucleus CORRECT
d) Lysosomes
e) Golgi apparatus
71. A granular endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus are well developed in cells. What
main function do these cells perform?
a) Production of energy
b) Phagocytosis and digestion of entrapped particles
c) Release of protein secretion CORRECT
d) Transmission of nervous stimulation
e) Production of protein
72. Nucleosomes are held together in large coiled loops by
a) histones. CORRECT
b) chromatin,
c) scaffolding proteins,
d) topoisomerases.
e) protosomes.
73. Lysosomes are vesicles containing digestive enzymes. The isolation of these enzymes in
lisosomes protects the rest of the cell from inappropriate digestive activity.
a) Phagocytosis
b) Endocytosis
c) Lysis CORRECT
d) Mitosis
e) Pinocytosis
Genetics
1. During the examination of the man’s epithelium of the cheek mucosa it was established that in
most cells the nuclei had Barr bodies. What syndrome is it typical of?
a) Turner’s syndrome.
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome CORRECT.
c) Down’s syndrome.
d) Edward’s syndrome.
2. The dominant relationships of the alleles are follows: A—brown eyes; a—blue eyes. The
genes for these traits assort independently and present in autosomes. Indicate genotype of browneyed woman.
a) Aa or aa
b) AA or Aa CORRECT
c) aa
d) AA or aa
3. Parents have I and III groups of blood. Which groups of blood may their children get?
a) I or II
b) I or III CORRECT
c) II or III
d) I or IV
4. What will be the phenotypic ration in the first filial generation during test cross, if an
analyzing person is heterozygous by one pair of genes:
a) 3:1;
b) 9:3:3:1;
c) 1:1 CORRECT
d) segregation is absent.
5. How many alleles that control blood group every human has?
a) one
b) two CORRECT
c) three
d) four
6. What from human diseases listed is example of the modifi cation variability:
a) albinism;
b) haemophilia
c) infl uenza CORRECT
d) color blindness
7. What type of mutations has the greatest probability to be expressed in the next generation?
a) recessive, linked with a sex, which arises in X-chromosome;
b) recessive, which arises in autosomes;
c) dominant autosomal mutation CORRECT
d) all of these avove
8. A human has galactosemia — a disease of accumulation. Which genetic method can we use to
diagnose the case?
a) Cytogenetic.
b) Biochemical. CORRECT
c) Population-statistical.
d) Pedigree analysis.
9. The intensity of human skin pigmentation is controlled by a few pairs of non-allelic dominant
genes. It was found that if the quantity of the genes increased, the pigmentation became more
intensive. What do we call this type of genes’ interaction?
a) Pleiotropy.
b) Polymery. CORRECT
c) Codominance.
d) Complementary.
10. There is ichtyosis in the family pedigree. This feature appears in each generation and is
typical only for males. What type of inheritance does this feature have?
a) Recessive, X-linked.
b) Autosomal-dominant.
c) Autosomal-recessive.
d) Y-linked. CORRECT
11. In a family of students from Africa a child with signs of anemia was born. The child died
within a short time. It was found that the child’s erythrocytes were shaped like a sickle. What
genotypes may the parents have if they have a light form of anemia?
a) and AA.
b) and AA.
c) aa and aa.
d) and Aa. CORRECT
12. A child is ill with phenylketonuria. The child’s parents are healthy. What genotype may the
parents have?
a) aa and AA.
b) Aa and AA.
c) aa and aa.
d) Aa and Aa. CORRECT
13. The study of the female karyogram shows that the centromere in X-chromosome is placed
near the centre. What do we call such chromosome?
a) Telocentric.
b) Subacrocentric.
c) Submetacentric. CORRECT
d) Acrocentric.
14. During the pedigree analysis of a family with such an inherited pathology as transgression of
enamel formation, it was found that the disease appeared in each generation. It is inherited by
daughters from fathers. What type of inheritance can we observe in this case?
a) Dominant, X-linked. CORRECT
b) Autosomal-dominant.
c) Autosomal-recessive.
d) Recessive, X-linked.
15. “Cat’s cry” syndrome is characterized by the underdevelopment of laryngeal muscles,
“miaowing” voice timbre, psychomotoric immaturation of a child. This disease is the result of:
a) Duplication of a fragment of the 5th chromosome.
b) Translocation of the 21st chromosome on the 15th.
c) Deletion of the short arm of the 5th chromosome. CORRECT
d) Deletion of the short arm of the 21st chromosome.
16. Endemic goiter is widespread among Transcarpathian population due to iodine deficiency in
food. What form of variability is this case based on?
a) Mutation.
b) Modification. CORRECT
c) Combinative.
d) Genotypical.
17. The pathoanatomic inspection of a newborn boy’s dead body showed the following
abnormalities: polydactily, microcephaly, a cleft lip and cleft palate, hypertrophy of the
parenchymal organs. These symptoms are typical of Patau’s syndrome. What is the cause of this
disease?
a) Trisomy on the 21st chromosome.
b) Trisomy on the 18th chromosome.
c) Trisomy on the 13th chromosome CORRECT.
d) Monosomy on X-chromosome
18. Due to the results of the pedigree analysis a geneticist found out that feature became apparent
in each generation, a male and a female inherited feature with the same frequency, both parents
transmitting this feature heir children. What type of inheritance does this feature have?
a) Recessive, X-linked.
b) Autosomal-recessive.
c) Dominant, X-linked.
d) Autosomal-dominant. CORRECT
19. A baby boy has deformations of cerebral and facial cranial parts, microphthalmia, an ear
deformation and cleft plate. The baby’s karyotype is 47, XY,13+. What disease is it?
a) Edward’s syndrome.
b) Patau’s syndrome. CORRECT
c) Down’s syndrome.
d) Turner’s syndrome.
20. A 10-year-old girl has got shortened extremities, a small skull, a face anomaly, the
mongolian type of eyelid fold, epicanthus, mental retardation, disorders of the heart and vascular
structure. In a genetic clinic the girl’s karyotype was determined. What was the girl’s karyotype?
a) 45, XO.
b) 47, XX,13+.
c) 47, XX,21+. CORRECT
d) 47, XXX.
21. Excessive ear pilosis (hypertrichosis) is determined by the gene, which is localized in Ychromosome. A man has got this feature. What is the probability of his having a son with such
feature?
a) 75 %.
b) O%.
c) 25 %.
d) 100 % CORRECT
22. According to the rule of the permanent chromosomes number, each animal species can be
characterized by a specifi c and permanent number of chromosomes. What mechanism provides
this feature during sexual reproduction?
a) Reparation.
b) Meiosis. CORRECT
c) Mitosis.
d) Cytokinesis.
23. How many sperms do 400 spermatogonies give?
a) 400
b) 100
c) 1600 CORRECT
d) 800
24. Inclination to diabetes mellitus is provoked by the autosomal-recessive gene. This gene
becomes apparent only in 30% of homozygous individuals. What genetic regularity is observed
in this case?
a) Complementarity.
b) Gene expressiveness.
c) Incomplete penetrance. CORRECT
d) Pleiotropy.
25. In which period of spermatogenesis does meiosis take place?
a) reproduction
b) growing
c) maturation CORRECT
d) formation
26. What chromosome number is present in sex cells?
a) haploid CORRECT
b) diploid
c) tetraploid
d) triploid
27. Antibiotic actinomycin D is known to have no toxic effect on the maternal organism, on the
other hand, it impairs the formation of tissues and organs of ectodermic origin in the embryo
organism. A woman was taking actinomycin D during pregnancy. What organs or systems of the
fetus can be impaired as a result?
a) Sex glands.
b) Skeleton muscles.
c) Locomotion system.
d) Nervous system. CORRECT
28. How many ovums do 400 oogonies give?
a) 400 CORRECT
b) 100
c) 1600
d) 800
29. Which type of the human blood group is example of codominance:
a) I (O)
b) II (A)
c) III (B)
d) IV (AB) CORRECT
30. Parents have I and III groups of blood. Which groups of blood may their children get?
a) I or II
b) I or III CORRECT
c) II or III
d) I or IV
31. The stage of blastocyst the beginning of a human embryo implantation into the womb wall
was recorded. What term of embryogenesis does it occur at?
a) 10-12 days.
b) 3-4 days.
c) 6-7 days. CORRECT
d) 24-26 days.
32. A baby was born with abnormalities of the external and internal organs development. During
the check up the following abnormalities were found: epicanthus, shortened extremities,a small
skull, impaired development of the cardiovascular system. On these grounds theprovisional
diagnosis of Down’s syndrome was made. What genetic method can confi rm this pathology?
a) Pedigree analysis.
b) Population-statistical.
c) Cytogenetic. CORRECT
d) Biochemical.
33. How do we call the individual development of organisms from the moment of formation of a
zygote up to the end of life?
a) phylogenesis;
b) ontogenesis CORRECT
c) normogenesis;
d) ovogenesis;
34. What number of chromosome has a zygote?
a) haploid;
b) diploid; CORRECT
c) polyploidy;
d) aneuploid.
35. Which kind of sex is heterogametic in human being?
a) male CORRECT
b) female
c) male and female
d) none of these
36. Allelic genes:
a) have the different loci (sites) in the homologous chromosomes
b) are situated in the non-homologous chromosomes
c) are situated in the homologous chromosomes
d) have the same loci in the homologous chromosomes. CORRECT
37. Which form of gene interactions is characterized that one gene masks the phenotypic effect
of gene from different pair:
a) complete dominance
b) epistasis CORRECT
c) superdominance
d) codominance.
38. In a P2 cross, an AABBindividual is paired with an aabbcc individual. What will be the
expected frequency of aabbcc individuals in the F2 generation?
a) 16/64;
b) 4/64;
c) 2/64;
d) 1/64. CORRECT
39. How many and which types of gametes are present in the person with such genotype:
AaBBCc?
a) two: ABABc
b) three: ABABc, A
c) four: ABABc, aBaCORRECT
d) six: ABABc, aBaBc, abc, Abc.
40. The fi rst step in diagnosing diseases provoked by the disorder of metabolism is the
application of express methods which are based on a simple quality reaction of determining
metabolites in blood or urine. The second step is to confirm the diagnosis, for which exact
chromatographical methods of enzymes and amino acids study are used. What genetic method
can be applied?
a) Biochemical. CORRECT
b) Study of twins.
c) Cytogenetic.
d) Population-statistical.
41. In human genes A and B located in the same autosome. What types of sperms does a man
with genotype AB//ab produce in the case of complete linkage?
a) AB, ab CORRECT
b) Aab, Ab, aB
c) Ab, AB
d) Aa, Bb
42. A segment of DNA of normal diploid cell has the sequence of the nucleotides: AATGCT.
After ionizing radiation mutant DNA have the sequence of the nucleotides: AATTCG. What
kind of mutation does take place?
a) deletion;
b) duplication;
c) inversion; CORRECT
d) insertion.
43. What syndromes involving autosomal chromosome aneuploidy do you know?
a) Patau’s syndrome; CORRECT
b) Turner’s syndrome;
c) Tryplo-X syndrome;
d) Klinefelter’s syndrome
44. A human has galactosemia - a disease of accumulation. Which genetic method can we use to
diagnose the case?
a) Cytogenetic.
b) Biochemical. CORRECT
c) Population-statistical.
d) Pedigree analysis.
45. One of the forms of rickets is inherited in the autosomal dominant way. This disease is a
result of:
a) Aneuploidy.
b) Changes in the number of chromosomes.
c) Chromosomal mutations.
d) Gene mutations. CORRECT
46. Children with normal hearing have been born by deaf and dumb parents with the genotype
DDee and ddEE. What is the form of gene interaction between the genes D and E?
a) Complementarity. CORRECT
b) Complete dominance.
c) Polymery.
d) Codominance.
47. Both a mother and a father are phenotypically healthy. They have a sick baby in whose blood
and urine phenylpyruvic acid has been found, which indicates phenylketonuria. What is the type
of the inheritance of this disease?
a) Autosomal-dominant.
b) Recessive, X-linked.
c) Autosomal-recessive. CORRECT
d) Dominant, X-linked.
48. Some people with good clinical health can feel anemia symptoms in the conditions of high
mountains. During their blood test we can find sickle-shaped erythrocytes. What genotype can a
person with occasional symptoms of sickle cell anemia have?
a) XCXC.
b) aa.
c) AA.
d) Aa. CORRECT
50. 18-year-old young man is tall and has narrow shoulders, a large pelvis, an adult woman
pattern of hair distribution, and oxyphonia. Mental retardation is also present. Based on these
symptoms, the provisional diagnosis of Klinefelter’s syndrome was made by a doctor. What
genetic method can confirm the diagnosis?
a) Cytogenetic. CORRECT
b) Pedigree analysis.
c) Study of twins.
d) Population-statistical
51. In which stage of prophase I does crossing-over occur?
a) diakinesis
b) zygotene
c) pachytene CORRECT
d) diplotene
52. How many types of gametes are present in the person with such genotype: AaBbCC?
a) 2 CORRECT
b) 4
c) 8
d) 3
53. What is the genotype of man with the rhesus-negative IV group of blood?
a) IAIA RhRh
b) IBirhrh
c) IAIB Rhrh
d) IAIB rhrh CORRECT
54. Genes M and N are linked. The frequency of crossing over between genes M and N is 25%.
Which type of linkage is?
a) complete linkage
b) incomplete linkage CORRECT
c) complete and incomplete linkage
d) none of these
55. What is the karyotype formula for normal females?
a) 46, XY
b) 47, XXX
c) 45, XO
d) 46, XX CORRECT
56. During the checkup of an 18-year-old boy some physical and psychical developmental
defects are found. They as following: eunuchoidism, female stature and an adult woman pattern
of hair distribution, muscular hypoplasia, mental deficiency. Using the cytogenetic method, the
karyotype of the patient was determined. Which karyotype was it?
a) 47,XY,21+.
b) 45, X0.
c) C 47, XXY. CORRECT
d) 47, XYY.
57. 18-year-old girl has a body disproportion: wide shoulders, a narrow pelvis, shortened low
extremities, swallowed skin folds on the neck, underdevelopment of the ovaries. During the
laboratory analysis neither “drumsticks” in the neutrophil nuclei nor Barr bodies in the nuclei of
the buccal epithelium cells were found. Using the dermatoglyphics method it was determined
that the atd palmar angle was equal to 66°. What provisional diagnosis can we make?
a) Down’s syndrome.
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
c) Turner’s syndrome. CORRECT
d) Patau syndrome.
58. The skin of a newborn boy is covered with a thick layer of keratinized scales (ichtyosis). It
looks like reptile skin. After the investigation of the pedigree of his family it was revealed that
this feature occurs in each generation only in males. Which of the below mentioned biological
regularities becomes apparent in this case?
a) The law of independent assortment.
b) The law of unit characters.
c) Sex-linked inheritance. CORRECT
d) Linkage of genes.
59. Three forms of Down’s syndrome — trisomic, translocational, and mosaic — are known.
What genetic method do we have to use to distinguish these forms?
a) Population-statistical.
b) Study of twins.
c) Pedigree analysis.
d) Cytogenetic. CORRECT
60. Sickle-sell anemia, when erythrocytes are in the form of a sickle, if widespread among the
population of some districts in tropic Africa. What biological phenomenon is this disease based
on?
a) Gene mutation. CORRECT
b) Chromosomal aberration.
c) Modifi cation.
d) Chromosomal mutation.
61. Parents with normal health have an ill with phenylketonuria son, but owing to a special diet
he has normal development. What type of variability is his normal development connected with?
a) Mutational variability.
b) Combinative variability.
c) Modifi cative variability. CORRECT
d) Genotype variability.
62. The checkup of an 18-year-old girl showed underdevelopment of the ovaries, wide shoulders,
a narrow pelvis, shortened extremities, and a “neck of sphinx”. The girl was mentally healthy.
The case was diagnosed as Turner’s syndrome. What changes in the chromosomes’ quantity is
this disease connected with?
a) Trisomy of the X-chromosome.
b) Trisomy of the 13th chromosome.
c) Monosomy on X-chromosome. CORRECT
d) Trisomy on the 21st chromosome.
63. The analysis of the fetus’s amniotic fluid cells for the presence of sexual chromatin shows
that the majority of their nuclei have two Barr bodies each. Which inherited disease can this baby
have?
a) Trisomy on X-chromosome. CORRECT
b) Turner’s syndrome.
c) Patau syndrome.
d) Edward’s syndrome.
64. A proband, his three sons, his brother and father have ichtyosis. His sisters and two daughters
do not have this sign. What is the character of the inheritance of this sign?
a) Autosomal-recessive.
b) Autosomal-dominant.
c) Holandric. CORRECT
d) Recessive, X-linked.
65. Parents with a normal phenotype gave a birth to an albino child (the feature that is inherited
by the autosomal-recessive manner). What genotype do the parents have?
a) AA and aa.
b) AA and AA.
c) AA and Aa.
d) Aa and Aa. CORRECT
66. Pedigree analysis showed that the proband’s disease occurred in each generation, affected a
relatively big number of sibs, both males and females. What type of inheritance does it point
out?
a) Autosomal-recessive.
b) Dominant, X-linked.
c) Recessive, X-linked.
d) Autosomal-dominant. CORRECT
67. The parents of an ill 5-year-old girl came for advice to a genetic consultation. In her
karyotype 46 chromosomes were found. One of the chromo some of the 15th pair was longer
thar usual due to joining a part of chromosome of the 21th pair to it. What mul tion took place in
this case?
a) Inversion.
b) Deletion.
c) Translocation. CORRECT
d) Duplication.
68. During the cytogenetic analysis a patient was found to have cells with chromosome number
46, XY and 47, XXY in the same proportions. What condition the doctor diagnose?
a) Down’s syndrome.
b) Patau syndrome.
c) C.Klinefelter’s syndrome. CORRECT
d) Turner’s syndrome.
69. A 14-year-old girl has some abnormalities: her height is lower than in girls of the same age,
the signs of puberty are absent, her neck is very short, her shoulders are wide, during the
cytogenetic analysis the one X-chromosome was found, the girl has normal intellectual
development. What disease does the girl have?
a) Turner’s syndrome. CORRECT
b) Down’s syndrome.
c) C.Patau syndrome.
d) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
70. Alkaptonuria is inherited as an autosomalrecessive feature. Parents with a normal phenotype
have a baby with alkaptonuria. What genotype do these parents have?
a) AA and AA.
b) AA and Aa.
c) Aa and aa.
d) Aa and Aa. CORRECT
71. A teenager with the provisional diagnosis of Klinefelter’s syndrome came for advice to a
genetic consultation. What genetic method does the doctor have to apply to make a correct
diagnosis?
a) Pedigree analysis.
b) Cytogenetic. CORRECT
c) Study of twins.
d) Population-statistical.
72. During the analysis of the woman’s buccal mucosa epithelium cells no sexual chromatin was
found. Which of the below mentioned diseases can it be?
a) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
b) Down’s syndrome.
c) Turner’s syndrome. CORRECT
d) Patau syndrome.
73. A patient has mental defi ciency, a short stature, and the Mongolian type of the eyelid fold.
The microscopical examination of the patient’s karyotype revealed the presence of trisomy on
the 21st chromosome. What do we call the disease which is caused by this chromosomal
abnormality?
a) Down’s syndrome. CORRECT
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
c) Edward’s syndrome.
d) Patau syndrome.
74. In a family pedigree hypertrichosis (excessive pilosis of the auricle) is observed. This feature
appears in each generation and is typical only of men. What type of inheritance does this feature
have?
a) Autosomal-dominant.
b) Y-linked. CORRECT
c) Dominant, X-linked.
d) Recessive, X-linked.
75. During the cytogenetic analysis in the cells of an abortive fetus only 44 chromosomes were
found due to the absence of both chromosomes from the 3rd pair. What type of mutation
occured?
a) Monosomy.
b) Chromosomal aberration.
c) Polyploidy.
d) Nullisomy. CORRECT
76. means of the cytogenetic analysis the karyotype 47, XX, 13+ of a child with plural defects of
the skull, extremities, and internal organs was determined. What syndrome did the baby have?
a) Edward’s syndrome.
b) Patau syndrome. CORRECT
c) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
d) Down’s syndrome.
77. A baby has following pathology: anomaly of the lower jaw and the larynx development
accompanied by voice changes resembling a cat’s cry. Moreover, the baby has microcephaly,
heart trouble, and four fi ngers. A likely cause of such anomaly is the deletion of:
a) Short arm of the 7th chromosome.
b) Short arm of the 9th chromosome.
c) C.Short arm of the 5th chromosome. CORRECT
d) Short arm of the 21st chromosome.
78. During the examination of a newborn the diagnosis of Down’s syndrome was made. What is
the main cause of this pathology?
a) Trisomy on the 13th chromosome.
b) Trisomy on the 21st chromosome. CORRECT
c) Trisomy on X-chromosome.
d) Monosomy on the 1st chromosome.
79. The male karyotype is 47, XXY He has endocrine hypertrophy development of testicles and
absence of spermatogenesis. What disease do these symptoms suggest?
a) Patau syndrome.
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome. CORRECT
c) C.Turner’s syndrome.
d) Down’s syndrome.
80. A child, ill with hemophilia, has been born to healthy parents, but the mother’s grandfather
had hemophilia, too. What type of inheritance does this feature have?
a) Autosomal-recessive.
b) Dominant, X-linked.
c) Recessive, X-linked. CORRECT
d) Autosomal-dominant.
81. Under the infl uence of gamma-radiation a fragment of a chromosome is lost. What
chromosomal mutation is it?
a) Deletion. CORRECT
b) Duplication.
c) Inversion.
d) Intrachromosomal translocation.
82. Under the infl uence of gamma-radiation a fragment of a chromosome is turned by 180°.
What chromosomal mutation has taken place?
a) Duplication.
b) Deletion.
c) Inversion. CORRECT
d) Interchromosomal translocation.
83. During the inspection of a girl’s karyotype a shortened arm of the 20th pair of chromosome
was found. How do we call this mutation?
a) Deletion. CORRECT
b) Inversion.
c) Translocation.
d) Monosomy on the 20th chromosome.
84. A patient has phenylpyruvic acid in the blood and urine. Based on this the diagnosis of
phenylketonuria is made. What genetic method is used?
a) Pedigree analysis.
b) Population-statistical.
c) Biochemical. CORRECT
d) Imunological.
85. In a maternity hospital a child with numerous development anomalies of the internal organs,
such as the heart, kidneys, digestive system, was born, doctor suspected Edward’s syndrome.
What genetic method can confi rm these diagnosis?
a) Biochemical.
b) Dermatoglyphic.
c) Pedigree analysis.
d) Cytogenetic. CORRECT
86. In a cytogenetic laboratory the karyotype of a healthy man was studied. 46 chromosomes
were seen in each somatic cell. How many autosomes does each cell include?
a) 23.
b) 22.
c) 44. CORRECT
d) 46.
87. In a maternity hospital a child with numerous development anomalies was diagnosed with
Patau syndrome. What genetic method can confirm this diagnosis?
a) Pedigree analysis.
b) Biochemical.
c) Population-statistical.
d) Cytogenetic. CORRECT
88. In the genetic consultation a provisional diagnosis of Turner’s syndrome of a 14-year old girl
was made. What karyotype does the girl have?
a) 47,XY,13+.
b) 46, XX.
c) 47, XXY.
d) 45, X0. CORRECT
89. The pathologoanatomic inspection of a newborn boy’s dead body showed the following
abnormalities: polydactily, microcephaly, a cleft lip and cleft palate, hypertrophy of the
parenchymal organs. These symptoms are typical of Patau syndrome. What is the cause of this
disease?
a) Trisomy on the 21st chromosome.
b) Trisomy on the 18th chromosome.
c) Trisomy on the 13th chromosome. CORRECT
d) Trisomy on X-chromosome.
90. What are possible karyotype formulae for girl with Down syndrome?
a) 47, XX, 21+
b) 47, XY, 21+, 46, XY t15q21q
c) 46, XX t15q21q, 47, XX, 21+ CORRECT
d) 46, XY t15q21q
91. What are possible karyotype formulas for boy with Down syndrome?
a) 47, XX, 21+
b) 47, XY, 21+, 46, XYt15q21q CORRECT
c) 46, XX t15q21q, 47, XX, 21+
d) 46, XY t15q21q
92. What is the karyotype formula for girl with Patau syndrome?
a) 47, XX, 18+
b) 47, XX, 18+, 46, XX t15q18q
c) 47, XX, 13+, 46, XX t15q13q CORRECT
d) 47, XX, 21+, 46, XX t15q21q
93. What is the karyotype formula for girl with Edward syndrome?
a) 47, XX, 21+; 46, XX t15q21q
b) 47, XY, 18+; 46, XY t15q18q
c) 47, XX, 18+; 46, XX t15q18q CORRECT
d) 46, XX, 5p94. What are possible karyotype formulae for persons with Klinefelter syndrome?
a) 47, XX, 21+; 46, XX t15q21q
b) 47, XY, 21+; 46, XY t15q21q
c) 47, XXY; 48 XXXY CORRECT
d) 46, XX, 5p95. What is the karyotype formula for girl with cru-di-chat syndrome?
a) 47, XX, 21+; 46, XX t15q21q
b) 46, XX, 5p- CORRECT
c) 46, XY, 5pd)
47, XXX
96. What is karyotype formula for person with Turner syndrome?
a) 47, XX, 18+
b) 45, XO CORRECT
c) 47, XXX
d) 47, XXY, 48 XXXY
97. What is the karyotype formula for boy with Edward syndrome?
a) 47, XY, 21+; 46, XX t15q21q
b) 47, XY, 18+; 46, XY t15q18q CORRECT
c) 47, XX, 13+; 46, XX t15q13q
d) 45, XO
98. Which form of gene interactions is characterized that heterozygous phenotype intermediate
between the two homozygous?
a) complete dominance
b) incomplete dominance CORRECT
c) continuous variation (polimery)
d) codominance
99. Which form of gene interactions is the manifestation in heterozygous state traits, which are
defined by two genes?
a) complete dominance
b) incomplete dominance
c) superdominance
d) codominance CORRECT
100. Which form of gene interactions is an interaction between the products of two genes in
which each of them gives characteristic phenotype in the end?
a) complete dominance
b) incomplete dominance
c) complementarity CORRECT
d) codominance
101. Which form of gene interactions makes an organism not viable?
a) complete dominance
b) incomplete dominance
c) superdominance CORRECT
d) codominance
102. Which form of gene interactions is present when one allelic gene in heterozygous
completely masks the other allelic gene?
a) complete dominance CORRECT
b) incomplete dominance
c) superdominance
d) codominance
103. Which form of gene interactions is characterized that different dominant non-allele’s genes
affect on one trait, making it more expressive?
a) complete dominance
b) incomplete dominance
c) continuous variation (polimery) CORRECT
d) codominance
104. What type of inheritance is if trait can affect both sexes (female and male) and the trait is
viable in each generation?
a) autosomal-dominant CORRECT
b) autosomal-recessive
c) X-linked dominant
d) Y-linked.
105. What type of inheritance is if trait can pass only from father to their sons?
a) autosomal-recessive
b) X-linked recessive
c) X-linked dominant
d) Holandric inheritance (Y-linked) CORRECT
106. What type of inheritance is if trait is not appeared in each generation and is usually for
children born in consanguineous marriages?
a) autosomal-dominant
b) autosomal-recessive CORRECT
c) X-linked recessive
d) X-linked dominant
107. What type of inheritance is if trait is appeared in sons of a carrier mothers?
a) autosomal-dominant
b) X-linked recessive CORRECT
c) X-linked dominant
d) Y-linked
108. What type of inheritance is if trait is affects mostly females and an affected father passes the
trait to his daughters only?
a) autosomal-dominant
b) X-linked Recessive
c) X-linked dominant CORRECT
d) Y-linked
109. In maize there are 10 pairs of homologous chromosomes. How many linkage groups does
maize have?
a) 20
b) 10 CORRECT
c) 5
d) 2
110. In garden pea there are 7 pairs of homologous chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does garden pea have?
a) 14
b) 10
c) 7 CORRECT
d) 3,5
111. The gene of prostate gland cancer is located in the X-chromosome. Which type of trait does
it form? Indicate the irrefragable answer, please.
a) Sex-limited
b) Both sex-linked and sex-influenced
c) Both sex-linked and sex-limited CORRECT
d) Both sex-limited and sex-infl uenced
112. Healthy man is married woman whose father was colour-blind. What is the probability their
child will be healthy?
a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75% CORRECT
113. Curly hair is incompletely dominant over the strait hair. Heterozygous individuals have
wavy hair. What is the probability of wavy-haired children birth if both parents have wavy hair
too?
a) 25%
b) 50% CORRECT
c) 75%
d) 100%
114. In human Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder (h— allele of the haemophilia,
H—allele of the normal blood clotting). Healthy woman whose father has haemophilia marries a
healthy man. What is the probability their child will have haemophilia?
a) 25% CORRECT
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
115. Skin colour is quantitative trait, that are controlled by two pairs of genes A1, A2,a1, a2. A
woman with white skin married a mediumbrown man. What is the probability of their child
having a white skin?
a) 25% CORRECT
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
116. What is the probability of birth a male offspring who is color-blind with I blood group if
parents have normal color vision and II blood group. Color-blindness is sex-linked recessive
trait.
a) ¼
b) 1/8
c) 1/16 CORRECT
d) 2/16
117. Polydactyly (extra fingers and toes) is dominant trait in humans. A heterozygous woman
has polydactyly and brown eyes. The man has 5 fingers and blue eyes. The genes for these traits
assort independently. What is the probability that their child will have the same genotype as
mother?
a) 25% CORRECT
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
118. Absents of the sweat glands in human is determined by recessive gene, which is located in
X-chromosome. Healthy man marries a heterozygous woman. What is the probability of the
disease be revealed in offspring?
a) 25% CORRECT
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
119. In human Brown tooth syndrome is a sex-linked dominant disorder, genes of blood group
inheritance are located in autosomes. The woman with Brown tooth syndrome and II group
blood, whose father has I group blood and white tooth married man with white tooth I group
blood. What is the possibility of the father’s both signs to be inherited by their child?
a) 25% CORRECT
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
120. In human Vitamin D-resistant rickets is a sex-linked dominant disorder (ХR – vitamin Dresistant rickets, Xr - normal metabolism of vitamin D). Healthy woman marries a man with
vitamin D-resistant rickets. What is the probability that their child will have these disease?
a) 25%
b) 50% CORRECT
c) 75%
d) 0%
121. In human alkaptonuria is recessive disorder. A homozygous woman with normal
metabolism marries a diseased man. What are the chances that their children will be with
alkaptonuria?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 0% CORRECT
RANKING OF STUDENTS’ MARKS AT CONCLUDING SESSION FOR MODULE 1:
During this Concluding session you would answer 40 tests among those listed above.
Each correct answer for the test would give you 2 scores. You can get maximum 80 scores
as a total result. Marks arrangement is listed below:
Mark Scores
“5” ( excellent) 71-80 scores
“4” (good) 61-70 scores
“3” (satisfactory) 50-60 scores
“2” (unsatisfactory) Less than 50 scores
If you have got less than 50 scores you have to repeat Concluding session for Module 1.