Download This test includes chapters on Development, States of

This test includes chapters on Development, States of Consciousness,
Learning, Personality, Thinking and Language and Social Psychology.
Multiple Choice: Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the
statement or answers the question.
1. From 2 weeks to 9 weeks after conception, the human organism is known as a(n):
A) embryo.
B) fetus.
C) zygote.
D) ovum.
2. The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome demonstrate that alcohol is a:
A) teratogen.
B) form of DNA.
C) hallucinogen.
D) neurotransmitter.
E) placebo.
3. When Joan touched her infant's cheek, he turned his head toward the side that was
touched and opened his mouth. Joan was eliciting the:
A) startle reaction.
B) rooting reflex.
C) grasping reflex.
D) attachment reflex.
E) attention reflex.
4. Biological growth processes that are relatively uninfluenced by experience and that
enable orderly changes in behavior are referred to as:
A) continuity.
B) imprinting.
C) generativity.
D) maturation.
E) fixation.
5. A concept or framework that organizes and interprets information is called a(n):
A) assimilation.
B) attachment.
C) accommodation.
D) schema.
6. Adjusting current schemas to make sense of new information is called:
A) habituation.
B) accommodation.
C) egocentrism.
D) assimilation.
E) maturation.
1
7. The principle that properties such as mass, volume, and number remain the same
despite
changes in the forms of objects is called:
A) perceptual constancy.
B) object equivalence.
C) conservation.
D) object permanence.
E) accommodation.
8. According to Piaget, people are first able to reason abstractly and think hypothetically
during the ________ stage.
A) preoperational
B) postconventional
C) formal operational
D) concrete operational
9. Infant monkeys raised with a nourishing wire mother and a nonnourishing cloth
mother:
A) preferred the nourishing wire mother.
B) preferred the nonnourishing cloth mother.
C) showed no preference for one mother over the other.
D) shifted their initial preference for the wire mother to the cloth mother as they matured.
10. The process by which certain birds form attachments during a critical period very
early in life is called:
A) imprinting.
B) assimilation.
C) habituation.
D) bonding.
11. Which of the following phases of development extends from the beginnings of sexual
maturity to independent adulthood?
A) puberty
B) adolescence
C) menopause
D) menarche
12. Nonreproductive sexual characteristics such as the deepened male voice and facial
hair on the male are called:
A) masculine prototypes.
B) secondary sex characteristics.
C) primary sex characteristics.
D) teratogens.
13. Henry disapproves of stealing jelly beans from his sister's Easter basket because he
thinks his mother will spank him if he does. Henry best represents a(n) ________
morality.
A) egocentric
B) conventional
C) preconventional
D) concrete operational
2
14. According to Erikson, infancy is to trust as adolescence is to:
A) autonomy.
B) identity.
C) generativity.
D) integrity.
15. The deterioration of memory, reasoning, and language that accompanies
Alzheimer's disease is called:
A) crystallized intelligence.
B) role confusion.
C) dementia.
D) menarche.
16. In recall and recognition tests of memory for recently learned material, older adults
are more likely than young adults to have difficulty:
A) recalling meaningful material.
B) recognizing meaningful material.
C) recalling meaningless material.
D) recognizing meaningless material.
17. Tonya asks people of different ages to complete a measure of life satisfaction. She
then looks for life satisfaction differences across different age levels. Tonya is
conducting a ________ study.
A) longitudinal
B) factor-analytic
C) cross-sectional
D) psychohistorical
18. In which research method are the same people retested over a period of years?
A) longitudinal
B) experimental
C) chronological
D) cross-sectional
19. Crystallized intelligence refers most directly to a person's:
A) accumulated knowledge and verbal skills.
B) ability to reason speedily and abstractly.
C) ability to assume the perspective of others.
D) willingness to revise beliefs in light of new information.
20. Level of emotional instability is:
A) highest among 35-year-olds.
B) highest among 40-year-olds.
C) highest among 50-year-olds.
D) highest among 55-year-olds.
E) similar among adults at all of these ages.
3
21. Personality is best defined as an individual's:
A) characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting.
B) most noticeable characteristics.
C) biologically inherited temperament.
D) hidden thoughts and emotions.
22. Which of the following techniques was Freud most likely to use in an attempt to
discover the hidden conflicts underlying his patients' symptoms?
A) free association
B) projective testing
C) fixation
D) unconditional positive regard
23. The pleasure principle is to the ________ as the reality principle is to the ________.
A) oral stage; anal stage
B) id; superego
C) id; ego
D) life instinct; death instinct
E) conscious; unconscious
24. According to Freud's theory, the ego:
A) is the executive part of personality.
B) develops before the id.
C) operates on the pleasure principle.
D) is the major source of guilt feelings.
E) operates only on a conscious level.
25. According to Freud, children develop unconscious sexual desires for the parent of
the opposite sex during the ________ stage.
A) oral
B) genital
C) phallic
D) anal
E) latency
26. A boy's sexual desires for his mother and feelings of hostility toward his father
constitute what Freud called:
A) reaction formation.
B) the Oedipus complex.
C) reciprocal determinism.
D) an oral fixation.
E) displacement.
27. Freud suggested that adults with an anal fixation often show signs of:
A) passive dependence.
B) overeating.
C) compulsive neatness.
D) learned helplessness.
E) insomnia.
4
28. Psychoanalytic theory suggests that the ego disguises threatening impulses and
reduces anxiety by means of:
A) free association.
B) self-actualization.
C) unconditional positive regard.
D) defense mechanisms.
29. Which defense mechanism involves the conscious expression of feelings that are the
opposite of unconscious feelings?
A) repression
B) projection
C) rationalization
D) reaction formation
E) displacement
30. Projection refers to the process by which people:
A) consciously express feelings that are the opposite of underlying unconscious
impulses.
B) disguise unacceptable, unconscious impulses by attributing them to others.
C) retreat to behavior patterns characteristic of an earlier stage of development.
D) offer self-justifying explanations in place of real, but unacceptable, unconscious
reasons for action.
31. Displacement refers to the process by which people:
A) offer self-justifying explanations in place of real, but unacceptable, unconscious
reasons for action.
B) consciously express feelings that are the opposite of unacceptable, unconscious
impulses.
C) disguise threatening impulses by attributing them to others.
D) retreat to behavior patterns characteristic of an earlier stage of development.
E) redirect aggressive or sexual impulses toward less threatening targets.
32. Tests that present ambiguous stimuli designed to uncover hidden personality
dynamics are called ________ tests.
A) empirical
B) projective
C) multiphasic personality
D) factor analytic
33. The Thematic Apperception Test requires people to respond to:
A) incomplete sentences.
B) ambiguous pictures.
C) unfamiliar melodies.
D) meaningless inkblots.
34. Carl Jung emphasized the importance of ________ in personality functioning.
A) social interest
B) inferiority feelings
C) psychosexual stages
D) the collective unconscious
E) unconditional positive regard
5
35. Which perspective on personality emphasizes the importance of our capacity for
healthy growth and self-realization?
A) psychoanalytic
B) psychodynamic
C) humanistic
D) neo-Freudian
36. According to Maslow, the psychological need that arises after all other needs have
been met is the need for:
A) personal control.
B) self-actualization.
C) self-esteem.
D) unconditional positive regard.
37. Carl Rogers emphasized the importance of:
A) the collective unconscious.
B) unconditional positive regard.
C) childhood social tensions.
D) free association.
38. The Big Five is the term used to describe the basic:
A) body types.
B) defense mechanisms.
C) trait dimensions.
D) sensory modalities.
39. Corbett refuses to take reasonable precautions to protect his health because he
believes good health is just a matter of luck anyway. Corbett's attitude best illustrates:
A) the Barnum effect.
B) reaction formation.
C) an external locus of control.
D) reciprocal determinism.
40. Researchers have observed that the experience of repeated uncontrollable traumatic
events contributes to:
A) the spotlight effect.
B) learned helplessness.
C) reaction formation.
D) an internal locus of control.
41. Classical and operant conditioning both illustrate:
A) shaping.
B) modeling.
C) respondent behavior.
D) associative learning.
6
42. If a ringing bell causes a dog to salivate because the bell has been regularly
associated with food in the mouth, the UCR is the:
A) ringing bell.
B) salivation to the ringing bell.
C) food in the mouth.
D) salivation to the food in the mouth.
43. In Pavlov's experiments on the salivary conditioning of dogs, the CS was:
A) the taste of food.
B) salivation to the taste of food.
C) the sound of a tone.
D) salivation to the sound of a tone.
44. When a CS is not paired with a UCS, the subsequent fading of a CR is called:
A) discrimination.
B) generalization.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) extinction.
45. The tendency for a CR to be evoked by stimuli similar to the CS is called:
A) spontaneous recovery.
B) conditioned reinforcement.
C) latent learning.
D) generalization.
E) shaping.
46. Some of Pavlov's dogs learned to salivate to the sound of one particular tone and not
to
other tones. This illustrates the process of:
A) shaping.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) discrimination.
D) extinction.
47. The process of reinforcing successively closer approximations to a desired behavior
is called:
A) generalization.
B) intermittent reinforcement.
C) shaping.
D) secondary reinforcement.
48. A negative reinforcer ________ the behavior it follows.
A) strengthens
B) eliminates
C) suppresses but does not eliminate
D) has an unpredictable effect on
7
49. Money is to food as ________ is to ________.
A) delayed reinforcer; immediate reinforcer
B) secondary reinforcer; primary reinforcer
C) discrimination; generalization
D) partial reinforcement; continuous reinforcement
E) operant conditioning; classical conditioning
50. Intermittent reinforcement is associated with ________ acquisition and
________extinction than continuous reinforcement.
A) slower; faster
B) faster; slower
C) faster; faster
D) slower; slower
51. Luana edits manuscripts for a publisher and is paid $15 for every three pages she
edits.
Luana is reinforced on a ________ schedule.
A) fixed-interval
B) fixed-ratio
C) variable-interval
D) variable-ratio
52. A choppy stop-start pattern of operant responding is associated with the ________
schedule
of reinforcement.
A) fixed-ratio
B) fixed-interval
C) variable-ratio
D) variable-interval
53. Which of the following decreases the recurrence of the behavior it follows?
A) positive reinforcer
B) negative reinforcer
C) punishment
D) both b. and c.
54. Latent learning can occur in the absence of:
A) reinforcement.
B) cognition.
C) experience.
D) any of the above.
55. Promising people rewards for doing what they already enjoy doing is likely to
produce:
A) overlearning.
B) the overjustification effect.
C) latent learning.
D) generalization.
8
56. The desire to engage in an activity for the sake of its own enjoyment involves:
A) secondary reinforcers.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) intrinsic motivation.
D) latent learning.
57. The loss of intrinsic motivation for engaging in an activity is a central characteristic
of:
A) delayed reinforcement.
B) latent learning.
C) respondent behavior.
D) the overjustification effect.
58. Reinforcement is to operant conditioning as ________ is to observational learning.
A) prosocial behavior
B) punishment
C) respondent behavior
D) modeling
59. Mr. Zandee has stopped smoking because he wants to model healthy behavior
patterns for his children. Mr. Zandee is apparently aware of the importance of ________
in his children's development.
A) shaping
B) observational learning
C) generalization
D) delayed reinforcement
E) spontaneous recovery
60. Most researchers who have examined the effects of viewing televised aggression
conclude that:
A) viewing violence takes people's minds off their own problems and thus reduces their
aggressive urges.
B) viewing violence leads children and teenagers to behave aggressively.
C) there is no correlation between viewing aggression and behaving aggressively.
D) although viewing violence is correlated with increased aggression, there is no
evidence that viewing violence actually leads to aggression.
61. The smallest speech units that carry meaning are called:
A) phonemes.
B) morphemes.
C) prototypes.
D) phenotypes.
62. In the words “lightly,” “neatly,” and “shortly,” the “ly” ending is a(n):
A) algorithm.
B) phenotype.
C) phoneme.
D) morpheme.
9
63. When her teacher mentioned the arms race, Krista understood that the word “arms”
referred to weapons and not to body parts. Krista's correct interpretation best illustrates
the importance of:
A) semantics.
B) syntax.
C) morphemes.
D) prototypes.
64. Syntax refers to the:
A) orderly arrangement of words into grammatically sensible sentences.
B) derivation of meaning from morphemes, words, and sentences.
C) smallest speech unit that carries meaning.
D) most logical and methodical procedure for solving a problem.
65. Word meaning is to word order as ________ is to ________.
A) phoneme; grammar
B) morpheme; phoneme
C) semantics; syntax
D) nomenclature; semantics
66. Two-year-old Dirk's sentences--“Dad come,” “Mom laugh,” and “Truck gone”—are
examples of:
A) babbling.
B) phonetics.
C) telegraphic speech.
D) universal grammar.
67. Research suggests that humans can most easily master the grammar of a second
language during:
A) childhood.
B) adolescence.
C) early adulthood.
D) late adulthood.
68. The principles of learning emphasized by behaviorists would be most helpful in
explaining why children:
A) master the complicated rules of grammar with ease.
B) add new words to their vocabulary.
C) make systematic speech errors because they overgeneralize grammatical rules.
D) babble even when they have deaf parents.
69. A statistical procedure that identifies clusters of test items that seem to tap a
common ability is called:
A) correlational measurement.
B) standardization.
C) reliability assessment.
D) criterion-based validation.
E) factor analysis.
10
70. The components of creativity include:
A) impulsivity and empathy.
B) expertise and a venturesome personality.
C) competitiveness and dogmatism.
D) imagination and extrinsic motivation.
E) competitiveness and empathy.
71. In order to test whether intelligence is related to information-processing capacities,
researchers have tested subjects to determine how long it takes them to:
A) copy the letters of the alphabet.
B) detect and identity familiar odors.
C) type written paragraphs presented on a computer monitor.
D) perceive briefly presented visual images.
72. Marilyn judges her professor's strict class attendance policy to be an indication of
his overcontrolling personality rather than a necessity dictated by the limited number
of class sessions in a course that meets only once a week. Her judgment best
illustrates:
a. the mere exposure effect.
b. group polarization.
c. deindividuation.
d. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
e. the fundamental attribution error.
73. Bart complied with his friends' request to join them in smashing decorative
pumpkins early one Halloween evening. Later that night he was surprised by his own
failure to resist their pressures to throw eggs at passing police cars. Bart's
experience best illustrates the:
a. bystander effect.
b. foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
c. fundamental attribution error.
d. frustration-aggression principle.
e. just-world phenomenon.
74. Cognitive dissonance theory is most helpful for understanding the impact of:
a. frustration on aggression.
b. groupthink on social conflict.
c. deindividuation on the bystander effect.
d. role-playing on attitude change.
11
75. In making wedding preparations, Jason conforms to the expectations of his
future bride's family simply to win their favor. His behavior illustrates the importance
of:
a. social facilitation.
b. normative social influence.
c. mirror-image perceptions.
d. the mere exposure effect.
e. the bystander effect.
76. The level of obedience in the Milgram experiments was highest when the
"teacher" was ________ the experimenter and ________ the "learner."
a. close to; close to
b. far from; far from
c. close to; far from
d. far from; close to
77. Bonnie pedals an exercise bike at her health club much faster when other
patrons happen to be working out on nearby equipment. This best illustrates:
a. the bystander effect.
b. the mere exposure effect.
c. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
d. social facilitation.
e. group polarization.
78. When a group of high school students who were all prejudiced discussed racial
issues, their attitudes became even more prejudiced. This best illustrates:
a. group polarization.
b. the bystander effect.
c. social facilitation.
d. the mere exposure effect.
e. social loafing.
12
79. Kelly, a Republican, and Carlos, a Democrat, both believe that members of their
own political party are more fair-minded and trustworthy than members of other
parties. Their beliefs best illustrate:
a. the social responsibility norm.
b. the just-world phenomenon.
c. the two-factor theory.
d. deindividuation.
e. ingroup bias.
80. When visiting the Bergin-Belsen concentration camp shortly after World War II,
one German civilian was said to have remarked, "What terrible criminals these
prisoners must have been to receive such treatment." This reaction is best explained
in terms of:
a. the mere exposure effect.
b. social facilitation.
c. the just-world phenomenon.
d. the social responsibility norm.
e. deindividuation.
81. After extensive exposure to X-rated sexual films, men are subsequently
________ accepting of women's sexual submission to men and _______ likely to
perceive a woman's friendliness as sexual interest.
a. more; less
b. less; more
c. more; more
d. less; less
82. Max fails to recycle his glass, metal, and plastic garbage because he thinks it's
personally inconvenient and likely to have minimal impact on the city's already
overflowing landfills. His reaction best illustrates the dynamics of:
a. the mere exposure effect.
b. the just-world phenomenon.
c. the fundamental attribution error.
d. a social trap.
e. social facilitation.
13
83. When buying groceries, many shoppers prefer certain products simply because
they have a familiar brand name. This preference best illustrates the importance of:
a. social traps.
b. the mere exposure effect.
c. mirror-image perceptions.
d. the reciprocity norm.
e. deindividuation.
84. Which theory best explains why the excitement that lingers after a frightening
event can facilitate passionate love?
a. social exchange theory
b. cognitive dissonance theory
c. the two-factor theory
d. the scapegoat theory
e. equity theory
85. Mr. Hughes heard what sounded like cries for help from a swimmer located 30
yards from the ocean shoreline. He continued walking along the beach, however,
because he figured that one of the many swimmers in the vicinity would provide help
if it was needed. His reaction best illustrates the dynamics involved in:
a. the fundamental attribution error.
b. group polarization.
c. the bystander effect.
d. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
e. the mere exposure effect.
86. The hostilities between two racial subgroups of a riverfront community were
dramatically reduced when the threat of their river flooding its banks required that
they work together to save their town. This best illustrates the impact of:
a. the mere exposure effect.
b. groupthink.
c. superordinate goals.
d. deindividuation.
e. the bystander effect.
14
87. The fundamental attribution error involves:
a. failing to give aid in an emergency situation involving many onlookers.
b. becoming more extreme in one's individual opinions following group
discussion.
c. performing a complex task more poorly when in the presence of others.
d. underestimating situational constraints on another's behavior.
e. losing self-restraint in group situations that foster anonymity.
88. Professor Stewart wrote a very positive letter of recommendation for a student
despite his having doubts about her competence. Which theory best explains why he
subsequently began to develop more favorable attitudes about the student's
abilities?
a. cognitive dissonance theory
b. social exchange theory
c. two-factor theory
d. scapegoat theory
e. equity theory
89. Research participants who worked alongside someone who rubbed his or her face
or shook his or her foot were observed to do the same thing themselves. This best
illustrated:
a. the mere exposure effect.
b. the chameleon effect.
c. social loafing.
d. deindividuation.
e. the bystander effect.
90. Using the Asch procedure, studies reveal that conformity to group judgments is
least likely when:
a. participants announce their own answers only after the other group members
have done so.
b. participants are not observed by other group members when giving their
answers.
c. it is very difficult for anyone to make correct perceptual judgments.
d. judgments are made in a group that has more than three people.
15
91. In a study of social loafing, blindfolded students were asked to pull on a rope as
hard as they could. The students tugged hardest when they thought:
a. three others were pulling with them.
b. three others were pulling against them.
c. no others were pulling with them.
d. no one was monitoring how hard they pulled.
92. Although Frieda is typically very reserved, as part of a huge rock concert crowd
she lost her inhibitions and behaved in a very sexually provocative way. Frieda's
unusual behavior is best understood in terms of:
a. the bystander effect.
b. social facilitation.
c. deindividuation.
d. the mere exposure effect.
e. the fundamental attribution error.
93. Groupthink is fueled by a desire for:
a. conflict.
b. self-disclosure.
c. harmony.
d. passionate love.
e. cognitive dissonance.
94. Following Germany's defeat in World War I and the economic chaos that
followed, many Germans experienced increasing levels of prejudice toward Jews.
This surge of hostility can best be explained in terms of the
a. mere exposure effect.
b. reciprocity norm.
c. just-world phenomenon.
d. scapegoat theory.
e. bystander effect.
16
95. Shortly after Alex learned that he had failed to make the high school football
team, he vandalized the team's locker room and broke several classroom windows.
His behavior is best explained in terms of:
a. group polarization.
b. the mere exposure effect.
c. social loafing.
d. deindividuation.
e. the frustration-aggression principle.
96. Although the leaders of two enemy nations admit to a buildup of their own
military forces, each sees the other country's actions as unreasonable and motivated
by evil intentions. This situation best illustrates:
a. deindividuation.
b. the mere exposure effect.
c. the just-world phenomenon.
d. mirror-image perceptions.
e. social facilitation.
97. When asked how much they like various letters of the alphabet, people tend to
prefer those that happen to be found in their own names. This best illustrates the
impact of:
a. deindividuation.
b. social facilitation.
c. the mere exposure effect.
d. the fundamental attribution error.
e. the foot-in-the door phenomenon.
98. Compared to less attractive people, those who are physically attractive are least
likely to be perceived as very:
a. honest.
b. healthy.
c. socially skilled.
d. happy.
17
99. Although Natalie receives somewhat greater rewards from her marriage than
does her husband, both are satisfied with the relationship because they each benefit
in proportion to what they put into it. This best illustrates the significance of:
a. equity.
b. deindividuation.
c. the bystander effect.
d. social facilitation.
e. the mere exposure effect.
100. The neighbors' failure to call the police in time to save the life of Kitty Genovese
best illustrated:
a. group polarization.
b. the frustration-aggression principle.
c. the mere exposure effect.
d. the just-world phenomenon.
e. the bystander effect.
101. After Mrs. Chanski and her children had helped themselves to free samples of
the cookies being promoted in the grocery store, she felt obligated to buy some,
even though they seemed unreasonably expensive. Her reaction best illustrates the
significance of:
a. social facilitation.
b. the reciprocity norm.
c. the bystander effect.
d. the just-world phenomenon.
e. deindividuation.
102. If asked to press a button when they are tapped, people can respond in 1/10th
of a second. This best illustrates the importance of:
a. subconscious information processing.
b. biological rhythms.
c. dissociation.
d. hypnogogic sensations.
103. Staying up especially late on weekends is most likely to have an influence on:
a. narcolepsy.
b. sleep apnea.
c. the circadian rhythm.
18
104. The different brain wave patterns that accompany various sleep stages are
recorded by means of a(n):
a. REM.
b. EEG.
c. EMG.
d. PET scan.
105. Sleepwalking is most likely to be associated with ________ sleep.
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
e. REM
106. A recurring sleep stage during which most vivid dreams commonly occur is
known as ________ sleep.
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
e. REM
107. Which of the following sleep disorders is most strongly associated with obesity?
a. narcolepsy
b. insomnia
c. night terrors
d. sleep apnea
108. The distinction between manifest content and latent content is central to
________ theory of dreams.
a. the activation-synthesis
b. the memory consolidation
c. Freud's wish-fulfillment
d. Hilgard's dissociation
19
109. The social influence theory of hypnosis receives support from evidence that:
a. behaviors produced through hypnotic procedures can also be produced
without them.
b. hypnotized subjects have a hidden observer.
c. easily hypnotized individuals have difficulty focusing attention on their own
thoughts and feelings.
d. very few people are at all responsive to hypnotic suggestions.
110. Research most clearly disputes claims of:
a. REM rebound.
b. age regression.
c. circadian rhythms.
d. hypnogogic sensations.
111. Those who are highly hypnotizable are especially at risk for:
a. false memories.
b. sleep apnea.
c. drug abuse.
d. narcolepsy.
112. Research on addictive drugs most clearly indicates that:
a. the medical use of morphine to control pain typically leads to addictive drug
cravings.
b. most of America's ex-smokers were able to overcome their nicotine addiction
without professional treatment.
c. addictions to narcotic drugs can't be overcome without professional treatment
programs.
d. relationship dependencies have the same addictive characteristics as drug
dependencies.
113. Cocaine is to ________ as marijuana is to ________.
a. depressants; stimulants
b. stimulants; depressants
c. hallucinogens; depressants
d. stimulants; hallucinogens
20
114. The experience of vivid geometric images and dreamlike scenes is most likely to
be triggered by:
a. LSD.
b. heroin.
c. Nembutal.
d. amphetamines.
115. A car driver's ability to navigate a familiar route while carrying on an animated
conversation with passengers best illustrates the importance of:
a. dualism.
b. REM rebound.
c. the hidden observer.
d. biological rhythms.
e. parallel processing.
116. The five-stage sleep cycle provides an example of:
a. sleep apnea.
b. dissociation.
c. serial processing.
d. biological rhythms.
e. latent content..
117. Bright light inhibits our feelings of sleepiness by influencing the production of:
a. melatonin.
b. dopamine.
c. MDMA.
d. THC.
118. The large, slow brain waves associated with Stage 4 sleep are called:
a. sleep spindles.
b. delta waves.
c. alpha waves.
d. REMs.
21
119. The visual and auditory areas of the brain are most active during ________
sleep.
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. slow-wave
d. paradoxical
120. Those who complain of insomnia typically _______ how long it actually takes
them to fall asleep and ________ how long they actually slept.
a. underestimate; overestimate
b. overestimate; underestimate
c. underestimate; underestimate
d. overestimate; overestimate
121. Which sleep disorder is most likely to be accompanied by sleepwalking and
sleeptalking?
a. narcolepsy
b. night terrors
c. sleep apnea
d. insomnia
122. In order to help patients control their undesired symptoms or unhealthy
behaviors, clinicians would be most likely to make use of:
a. dissociation.
b. REM rebound.
c. posthypnotic suggestion.
d. hypnogogic sensations.
123. In an experiment, hypnotized subjects are told to scratch their ear if they hear
the word "psychology" mentioned later. The fact that they do so only if they think
the experiment is still under way most clearly supports the theory that hypnosis
involves:
a. dissociation.
b. psychological dependence.
c. role-playing.
d. hypnogogic sensations.
22
124. The experience of insomnia following discontinued use of a psychoactive drug
best illustrates:
a. narcolepsy.
b. withdrawal.
c. REM rebound.
d. dissociation.
e. sleep apnea.
125. Which of the following psychoactive drugs produces the quickest and most
powerful rush of euphoria?
a. alcohol
b. marijuana
c. cocaine
d. barbiturates
23
EIS EXAM
BIMESTER III
TO BE FILLED IN BY THE TEACHER
CLASS NAME:
TEACHER’S NAME:
GRADE LEVEL:
DATE OF EXAM:
AP Psychology
Ms. Darlene Heilman
AP 11 & 12
Thursday March, 15th 2007
THIS EXAM IS WORTH __125___ POINTS
THIS EXAM CONTAINS __23___ PAGES (exclude this page)
TO BE FILLED IN BY THE STUDENT
STUDENT’S NAME: ____________________________ (please print)
CLASS SECTION: __________
INCLUDED IN THIS EXAM ARE EXACTLY… (circle one)
…BLUE BOOKS.
0
1
2
3
4
5
24
25