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Evolution Review
Chapter 22
e. resulted from artificial selection.
1. The classification of organisms into hierarchical
groups is called
a. the scale of nature.
b. taxonomy.
c. natural theology.
d. biogeography.
e. natural selection.
2. The study of fossils is called
a. phylogeny.
b. gradualism.
c. paleontology.
d. anthropology.
e. biogeography.
3. To Cuvier, the differences in fossils from
different strata were evidence for
a. changes occurring as a result of cumulative
but gradual processes.
b. divine creation.
c. evolution by natural selection.
d. continental drift.
e. local catastrophic events such as droughts
or floods.
4. Darwin proposed that new species evolve from
ancestral forms by
a. the gradual accumulation of adaptations to
changing or different environments.
b. the inheritance of acquired adaptations to
the environment.
c. the struggle for limited resources.
d. the accumulation of mutations.
e. the exponential growth of populations.
5. The best description of natural selection is
a. the survival of the fittest.
b. the struggle for existence.
c. the reproductive success of the members of
a population best adapted to the
environment.
d. the overproduction of offspring in environments with limited natural resources.
e. a change in the proportion of inheritable
variations within a population.
6. The remnants of pelvic and leg bones in a
snake are
a.
b.
c.
d.
are vestigial structures.
show that lizards evolved from snakes.
are homologous structures.
provide evidence for inheritance of acquired
characteristics.
7. Darwin's claim that all of life descended from a
common ancestor is best supported with
evidence from
a. the fossil record.
b. comparative embryology.
c. taxonomy.
d. molecular biology.
e. comparative anatomy.
8. The smallest unit that can evolve is
a. a genome.
b. an individual.
c. a species.
d. a population.
e. a community.
9. Which of the following would not be considered
part of the process of natural selection?
a. Many of the variations among individuals in
a population are heritable.
b. More offspring are produced than are able to
survive and reproduce.
c. Individuals with traits best adapted to the environment are likely to leave more offspring.
d. Many adaptive traits may be acquired during
an individual's lifetime, helping that individual to evolve.
e. Differential reproductive success leads to
gradual change in a population.
10. All of the following influenced Darwin as he
synthesized the theory of evolution by natural
selection except
a. the biogeographic distribution of species
such as the finches on the Galapagos
Islands.
b. Lyell's book, Principles of Geology, on the
gradualness of geologic changes.
c. Linnaeus' hierarchical classification of
species, which could be interpreted as
evidence of evolutionary relationships.
d. examples of artificial selection that produce
rapid changes in domesticated species.
e. Mendel's paper in which he described his
"laws of inheritance."
11. What might you conclude from the
observation that the bones in your arm and
hand are similar to the bones that make up a
bat's wing?
a. The bones in the bat's wing are vestigial
structures, no longer useful as "arm" bones.
b. The bones in a bat's wing are homologous
to your arm and hand bones.
c. Bats and humans evolved in the same geographic area.
d. Bats lost their opposable digits during the
course of evolution.
e. Our ancestors could fly.
12. Which of the following is an example of
convergent evolution?
a. remnants of pelvic girdles and limb bones
found in whales
b. two very different plants that are found in different habitats, but evolved from a fairly
recent common ancestor
c. similarities between the marsupial sugar
glider and the eutherian flying squirrel
d. the remodeling of a vertebrate forelimb in
the evolution of a bird wing
e. the many different bill sizes and shapes of
finches on the Galapagos Islands
CH. 23
1. Darwinian fitness is a measure of
a. survival.
b. number of matings.
c. adaptation to the environment.
d. successful competition for resources.
e. number of viable offspring.
2. According to the Hardy-Weinberg theorem,
a. the allele frequencies of a population
should remain constant from one
generation to the next if the population
is large and there is no natural
selection.
b. only natural selection, resulting in
unequal reproductive success, will
cause evolution.
c. the square root of the frequency of
individuals showing the recessive trait
will always equal the frequency of q.
d. genetic drift, gene flow, and mutations
are always maladaptive.
e. all of the above are correct.
3. If a population has the following genotype frequencies, AA = 0.42, Aa = 0.46, and aa = 0.12,
what are the allele frequencies?
a. A = 0.42
a = 0.12
b. A = 0.6
a = 0.4
c. A = 0.65
a = 0.35
d. A = 0.76
a = 0.24
e. A = 0.88
a = 0.12
4. In a population with two alleles, Band b, the allele frequency of b is 0.4. What would be the
frequency of heterozygotes if the population is
in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. 0.16
b. 0.24
c. 0.48
d. 0.6
e. You cannot tell from this information.
5. In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for two alleles, C and c, 16% of the population show a recessive trait. Assuming C is
dominant to c, what percent show the dominant
trait?
a. 36%
b. 48%
c. 60%
d. 84%
e. 96%
6. Genetic drift is likely to be seen in a population
a. that has a high migration rate.
b. that has a low mutation rate.
c. in which natural selection is occurring.
d. that is very small.
e. for which environmental conditions are
changing.
7. Gene flow often results in
a. populations that move to better
environments.
b. an increase in sampling error in the
formation of the next generation.
c. adaptive microevoluion.
d. a decrease in allele frequencies.
e. a reduction of the allele frequency
differences between populations.
8. The existence of two distinct phenotypic forms
in a species is known as
a. geographic variation.
b. stabilizing selection.
c. heterozygote advantage.
d. polymorphism.
e. directional selection.
9. In a study of a population of field mice, you find
that 48% of the mice have a coat color that
indicates that they are heterozygous for a
particular gene. What would be the frequency
of the dominant allele in this population?
a. 0.24
b. 0.48
c. 0.50
d. 0.60
e. You cannot estimate allele frequency
from this information.
10. Sexual selection will
a. select for traits that enhance an
individual's chance of mating.
b. increase the size of individuals.
c. result in individuals better adapted to the
environment.
d. result in stabilizing selection.
e. result in a relative fitness of more than
1.
11. A plant population is found in an area that is
becoming more arid. The average surface area
of leaves has been decreasing over the
generations. This trend is an example of
a. a cline.
b. directional selection.
c. disruptive selection.
d. gene flow.
e. genetic drift.
12. Genetic analysis of a large population of mink
inhabiting an island in Michigan revealed an
unusual number of loci where one allele was
fixed. Which of the following is the most
probable
explanation
for
this
genetic
homogeneity?
a. The population exhibited nonrandom
mating, producing homozygous
genotypes.
b. The gene pool of this population never
experienced mutation or gene flow.
c. A very small number of mink may have
colonized this island, and this founder
effect and subsequent genetic drift
could have fixed many alleles.
d. Natural selection has selected for and
fixed the best adapted alleles at these
loci.
e. The colonizing population may have
had much more genetic diversity, but
genetic drift in the last year or two may
have fixed these alleles by chance.
CH 24
Name the type of reproductive barrier and whether it is pre- or postzygotic for the following examples.
Type
of Barrier
Pre- or
Post-
Example
a.
b.
Two species of frogs are mated in the lab and produce viable,
but sterile, offspring.
c.
d.
Two species of sea urchins release gametes at the same
time, but no cross fertilization occurs.
e.
f.
Two orchid species with different length nectar tubes are
pollinated by different moths.
g.
h.
Two species of mayflies emerge during different weeks in
spring.
i.
j.
Two species of salamanders will mate and produce offspring,
but their offspring are sterile.
k.
1.
Two similar species of birds have different mating rituals.
m.
n.
Embryos of two species of mice bred in the lab usually abort.
o.
p.
Peepers breed in woodland ponds; leopard frogs breed in
swamps.
1. A horse (2n = 64) and a donkey (2n = 62) can
mate and produce a mule. How many chromosomes would there be in a mule's cells?
a. 31
b. 62
c. 63
d. 64
e. 126
2. What prevents horses and donkeys from hybridizing to form a new species?
a. reduced hybrid fertility
b. reduced hybrid viability
c. mechanical isolation
d. gametic isolation
e. behavioral isolation
3. Allopatric speciation is more likely to occur
when an isolated population
a. is large and thus has more genetic
variation.
b. is reintroduced to its original homeland.
c. is exposed to different selection
pressures in its new habitat.
d. inhabits an island close to its parent
species' mainland.
e. All of the above contribute to allopatric
speciation.
4. There are 28 morphologically diverse species
of a group of sunflowers called silverswords
found on the Hawaiian Archipelago. These
species are an example of
a. a geographical cline.
b. adaptive radiation.
c. allopolyploidy.
d. the bottleneck effect.
a. sympatric speciation.
5. Which of the following is descriptive of the
punctuated equilibrium model?
a. Long periods of stasis are punctuated
by speciation and episodes of relatively
rapid change.
b. Microevolution is the driving force of
speciation.
c. Most rapid speciation events involve polyploidy in plants.
d. Evolution occurs gradually as the
environment gradually changes.
e. In the framework of geologic time periods,
speciation events occur very slowly and
the equilibrium of species is punctuated
by frequent extinctions.
6. Which of the following would not contribute to
allopatric speciation?
a. geographic separation
b. genetic drift
c. gene flow
d. different selection pressures
e. founder effect
Chapter 25-26
Place the taxa (outgroup, A, B, C, and D) on the cladogram based on the presence or absence of the
characters 1-4 as shown in this table. Indicate before each branch point which shared derived character
evolved in the ancestor of that clade.
Taxa
Characters
Outgroup O
A
B
C
D
1
0
1
1
1
1
2
0
0
1
0
1
3
0
1
1
0
1
0
0
0
0
4
1. The richest source of fossils is found
a. in coal and peat moss.
b. along gorges.
c. within sedimentary rock strata.
d. encased in volcanic rocks.
e. in amber.
2. Which of the following is least likely to leave a
fossil?
a. a soft-bodied land organism such as a
slug
b. a marine organism with a shell such as
a mussel
c.
a vascular plant embedded in layers of
mud
d. a freshwater snake
e. a human
3. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5,730 years. A
fossil that is 22,920 years old would have what
amount of the normal proportion of C-14 to C12?
a. ½
c. 1/6
e. 1/16
b. ¼
d.1/8
1
4. Related families are grouped into the next highest taxon called a
a. class.
b. order.
c. phylum.
d. genus.
e. kingdom.
5. Convergent evolution may result
a. when older structures are co-opted for
new functions.
b. when homologous structures are adapted
for different functions.
c. from adaptive radiation.
d. when species are widely separated
geographically.
e. when species have similar ecological
roles.
6. A taxon such as the class Reptilia, which does
not include its relatives, the birds, is
a. really an order.
b. a clade.
c. monophyletic.
d. Not monophyletic
7. A biologist is studying the evolution of four similar species of birds. Which approach would
allow her to choose the best phylogenetic tree
from all possible phylogenies?
a. Draw the simplest cladogram and
choose that one.
b. From a comparison of nucleotide
sequences, determine the number of
evolutionary events required for each
tree and choose the most parsimonious
tree.
c. Compare the entire genomes of each
species; the two most similar genomes
are the two species that are most
closely related.
d. Determine
which
species
can
interbreed; those that can evolved from
a common ancestor most recently.
e. Choose the tree that has the most
evolutionary changes required as the
most probable explanation for why these
similar birds have evolved into four
distinct
species.
TRUE OR FALSE: Indicate T or F, and then correct the
false statements.
Review topics from notes:

Lamarck’s Principle of “felt needs,” use and disuse, and
inheritance of acquired traits

Cuvier and catastrophism, Lyell and uniformitarianism

Darwin’s natural selection (differential reproductive
success)

3 patterns of natural selection (stabilizing, directional,
diversifying)

Five conditions necessary for Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium (no nat. sel, no genetic drift, no gene flow,
random mating, not mutations)

Populations evolve (not individuals)

Hardy-Weinberg problems

Species definition

Geographical isolation and adaptive radiation (contrast
with convergent evolution)

Convergent evolution and analogous structures

Homologous structures, vestigial structures, analogous
structures

Types of prezygotic barriers (habitat, temporal,
behavioral, mechanical, gametic)

Types of postzygotic barriers (hybrid inviability, hybrid
sterility)

Sympatric speciation vs. allopatric speciation

Binomial nomenclature, Heirarchy of 7 taxa
(K,P,C,O,F,G,S), cladograms

Atmosphere of early earth vs. today’s atmosphere

Miller apparatus (started with H20, CH4, H2, and
NH3 created amino acids, etc)
1. A monophyletic taxon includes only species that share
a common ancestor.
2. The more the sequences of amino acids in
homologous proteins vary, the more recently the two
species have diverged.
3. Phylogenetic trees determined on the basis of similar
structures may be inaccurate when adaptive radiations
have created large differences or when convergent
evolution has created misleading analogies.
4. A cladogram represents both the chronology and the
age of evolutionary branches, as well as the degree of
divergence between taxa.
5. Phylogenetic trees designed with the concept of
parsimony should show the most likely evolutionary
relationships.
6. Carbon-14 dating is not a good technique for
sequencing fossils from the Carboniferous period (363290 mya) because carbon is too abundant in that
period to allow accurate dating.
7. The strongest support for a phylogenetic hypothesis
comes from the concurrence of molecular and
morphological evidence.