Download Test-Questions to Lab Exam 1 on the Autumn Semester of 2015

TEST-QUESTIONS TO LAB EXAM 1
on the Autumn Semester of 2015-2016 academic year
1. The organisms to be identified have a nucleus surrounded by a nuclear membrane. Genetic
material is concentrated predominantly in the chromosomes, which consist of DNA strands and
protein molecules. These cells divide mitotically. Identify these organisms:
A. Bacteriophages
B. Prokaryotes
C. Viruses
D. Eukaryotes
E. Bacteria
2. A group of researchers set an experiment and obtained anucleate mutant cells. In the first
place they will have disturbed synthesis of the following compounds:
A. Transfer RNA
B. Lipids
C. Ribosomal RNA
D. Monosaccharides
E. Polysaccharides
3. Oval and round organelles with double wall are seen at the electron micrograph. The outer
membrane is smooth, the inner membrane folded into cristae contains enzyme ATPase
synthetase. These are:
A. Mitochondria
B. Golgi complex
C. Lysosomes
D. Centrioles
E. Ribosomes
4. Microscopic analysis of human heart cells revealed some oval oganelles, their tunic being
formed by two membranes: the external one is smooth, and the internal one forms cristae.
Biochemical analysis determined the presence of ATPsynthetase enzyme. What organelles were
analysed?
A. Lysosomes
B. Ribosomes
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Centrosomes
E. Mitochondria
5. A cell has been treated with a substance that blocks nucleotide phosphorilation in the
mitochondria. What process of cell activity will be disturbed in the first place?
A. Synthesis of mitochondrial proteins
B. Oxidative phosphorilation
C. ATP resynthesis
D. Integration of functional protein molecules
E. Fragmentation of big mitochondrions into lesser ones
6. Examination of a 28-year-old patient with hepatocerebral degeneration revealed an
impairment of ceruloplasmin synthesis. This defect is associated with the following organelles:
A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosomes
D. Granular (rough) endoplasmic reticulum
E. Golgi complex
7. Golgi complex exports substances from a cell due to the fusion of the membrane saccule with
the cell membrane. The saccule contents flows out. What process is it?
A. Exocytosis
B. Endocytosis
C. Active transport
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. All answers are false
8. In course of practical training students studied a stained blood smear of a mouse with bacteria
phagocyted by leukocytes. What cell organelle completes digestion of these bacteria?
A. Mitochondria
B. Granular endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Ribosomes
E. Lisosomes
9. Electron microscopic study of a cell revealed roundish bubbles confined by a membrane and
containing a lot of various hydrolytic enzymes. It is known that these organelles provide
intracellular digestion and protective functions. These elements are:
A. Centrosomes
B. Lysosomes
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Ribosomes
E. Mitochondria
10. A cell with vitamin E deficit had been affected by ionizing radiation. This induced an
intensified release of hydrolytic enzymes into the cytoplasm and thus a complete destruction of
intracellular structures ― autolysis. What organelles caused this phenomenon?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Golgi complex
C. Microbodies
D. Lysosomes
E. Mitochondria
11. Ionizing radiation or vitamin E deficiency may increase the permeability of lysosome
membranes. What consequences may arise from this pathology?
A. Partial or complete cell disintegration
B. Intensive protein synthesis
C. Intense energy synthesis
D. Restoration of the cytoplasmic membrane
E. Formation of cleavage spindle
12. A tissue sample of benign tumor was studied under the electron microscope. A lot of small
(15-20 nm) spherical bodies consisting of 2 unequal subunits were detected. These are:
A. Golgi complex
B. Ribosomes
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. Microtubules
E. Mitochondria
13. A 50-year-old woman had her tooth extracted. The tissue regenerated. Which of the
following organelles are the most active during tissue regeneration?
A. Centrosomes
B. Postlysosomes
C. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
D. Ribosomes
E. Lysosomes
14. A 36-year-old patient underwent tooth extraction at a dental clinic. After two weeks the
stratified squamous epithelium regenerated at this site. What organelles were involved in the
restoration of the mucous membrane?
A. Centrosomes
B. Postlysosomes
C. Ribosomes
D. Smooth ER
E. Mitochondria
15. Formation of ribosome subunits in a cell was disturbed in course of an experiment (by means
of activated mutagenic factors). This will have an effect on the following metabolic process:
A. Protein biosynthesis
B. Carbohydrate biosynthesis
C. ATP synthesis
D. Photosynthesis
E. Biological oxidation
16. At the laboratory experiment the leukocyte culture was mixed with staphylococci.
Neutrophile leukocytes engulfed and digested bacterial cells. This process is termed:
A. Pinocytosis
B. Diffusion
C. Facilitated diffusion
D. Osmosis
E. Phagocytosis
17. A patient is being operated under inhalation narcosis with nitrous oxide. It is known that it
has evident lipophilic properties. What mechanism is responsible for transporting this
preparation through biological membranes?
A. Active transport
B. Passive diffusion
C. Facilitated diffusion
D. Filtration
E. Pinocytosis
18. A patient was prescribed a drug with apparent lipophilic properties. What is the main
mechanism of its absorption?
A. Filtration
B. Active transporting
C. Pinocytosis
D. Passive diffusion
E. Binding with transport proteins
19. A blood drop has been put into a test tube with 0.3% solution of NaCl. What will happen to
erythrocytes?
A. Shrinkage
B. Mechanical haemolysis
C. Osmotic haemolysis
D. Biological haemolysis
E. Any changes will be observed
20. Testosterone and its analogs increase the mass of skeletal muscles that allows to use them for
treatment of dystrophy. Due to interaction of the hormone with what cell substrate is this action
caused?
A. Membrane receptors
B. Nuclear receptors
C. Ribosomes
D. Chromatin
E. Proteins-activators of transcription
21. Nucleoli of nuclei have been damaged due to ionizing irradiation of tissue culture.
Regeneration of what organelles becomes hampered in cytoplasm?
A. Lysosomes
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Ribosomes
E. Microtubules
22. Low level of albumins and fibrinogen was detected in a patient’s blood. Decreased activity of
what organelle of the liver hepatocytes can most probably cause it?
A. Agranular endoplasmatic reticulum
B. Granular endoplasmatic reticulum
C. Mitochondria
D. Golgi complex
E. Lysosomes
23. Analysis of an electron diffraction pattern of a cell revealed mitochondrion destruction. This
might result in abnormal course of the following cell process:
A. Nuclear division
B. Crossing over
C. Oxidation of organic substances
D. Cleavage
E. –
24. To what total ATP quantity is the full glucose oxidation and its linking with phosphorylation
equivalent?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 52
D. 38
E. 58
25. On an electron micrograph a scientist has identified a structure formed by eight histone
proteins and a part of DNA molecule which makes about 1.75 revolutions around the molecules.
Which structure has been identified?
A. Elemetary fibril
B. Half-chromatid
C. Chromatid
D. Chromosome
E. Nucleosome
26. Cytogenetic analysis established that the patient had the 47, XYY karyotype. The extra
chromosome in the karyotype has a centromere located very close to one of the chromosome
ends so that one chromosomal arm is much shorter than the other one. Such a chromosome is
called:
A. Acrocentric
B. Metacentric
C. Submetacentric
D. Telocentric
E. Submetacentric with a satellite
27. Nucleolus organizers of human chromosomes 13-15, 21, 22 include about 200 gene clusters
that synthesize RNA. These chromosomal regions contain the information on the following type
of RNA:
A. tRNA
B. mRNA
C. snRNA
D. tRNA + rRNA
E. rRNA
28. Life cycle of cell includes the process of DNA autoreduplication. As a result of it
monochromatid chromosomes turn into bichromatid ones. What period of cell cycle does this
phenomenon fall into?
A. G0
B. S
C. G1
D. G2
E. 29. Normal, actively dividing cells of human red bone marrow are analyzed. What number of
cells’ chromosomes is typical for G1 period?
A. 48
B. 47
C. 45
D. 46
E. 23
30. An electronic micrograph presents a cell that has no nucleoli and nuclear membrane.
Chromosomes has free position, centrioles migrate to the poles. What phase of cell cycle is it
typical for?
A. Anaphase
B. Metaphase
C. Telophase
D. Interphase
E. Prophase
31. An electronic microphotography represents a cell without nucleoli and nuclear membrane.
Chromosomes are loosely scattered, centrioles migrate to the poles. What phase of cell cycle is
it?
A. Anaphase
B. Metaphase
C. Prophase
D. Telophase
E. Interphase
32. During the examination of a two-month-old boy a pediatrician noticed that the child’s cry
sounds like cat’s mewing; he revealed also microcephalia and valvular defect. By means of
cytogenetic method he determined the child’s karyotype ― 46, ХY, 5р-. At what stage of
mitosis was the patient’s karyotype analyzed?
A. Prometaphase
B. Prophase
C. Anaphase
D. Metaphase
E. Telophase
33. A specimen of an onion rootlet includes a cell in which the fully condensed chromosomes are
located in the equatorial plane making an aster. What phase of the mitotic cycle is the cell in?
A. Early telophase
B. Prophase
C. Interphase
D. Late telophase
E. Metaphase
34. Studying the mitotic cycle phases of an onion root the researchers revealed a cell with
chromosomes lying in equatorial plane in form of a star. What phase of mitosis is it?
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
E. Interphase
35. While studying maximally spiralized chromosomes of human karyotype the process of cell
division was stopped at the following phase:
A. Prophase
B. Interphase
C. Anaphase
D. Metaphase
E. Telophase
36. Movement of the daughter chromatids to the poles of the cell is observed in the mitotically
dividing cell. On what stage of the mitotic cycle is this cell?
A. Metaphase
B. Telophase
C. Anaphase
D. Prophase
E. Interfase
37. According to the law of constant chromosome number, each species of most animals has a
definite and constant number of chromosomes. The mechanism providing this constancy in
sexual reproduction of the organisms is called:
A. Schizogony
B. Amitosis
C. Regeneration
D. Gemmation
E. Meiosis
38. During the postsynthetic period of mitotic cycle the synthesis of tubulin proteins was
disturbed. These proteins take part in construction of division spindle. It can lead to the
disturbance of:
A. Spiralization of chromosomes
B. Chromosome disjunction
C. Cytokinesis
D. Despiralization of chromosomes
E. Mitosis duration
39. Students study the stages of gametogenesis. They analyze a cell having a haploid number of
chromosomes, and each chromosome consists of two chromatids. The chromosomes are located
in the equatorial plane of the cell. Such situation is typical for the following stage of meiosis:
A. Metaphase of the first division
B. Anaphase of the first division
C. Anaphase of the second division
D. Metaphase of the second division
E. Prophase of the first division
40. During the electronical microscopic analysis of salivary gland the cell fragments were
revealed, which are surrounded by a membrane and contain condensed particles of nuclear
substance and solitary organelles; the inflammatory reaction around these cells is absent. What
process is meant?
A. Karyorhexis
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Karyopyknosis
D. Karyolysis
E. Apoptosis
41. During embryogenesis epithelial band also known as vestibular plate gives rise to
development of vestibule of mouth. What biological mechanism of the programmed death of
cells provides growth of buccolabial sulcus from epithelial plate?
A. Apoptosis
B. Necrosis
C. Meiosis
D. Paranecrosis
E. Amitosis
42. Blood of a child and putative father was referred to forensic medical examination for
affiliation. What chemical components should be identified in the blood under study?
A. Transfer RNA
B. DNA
C. Ribosomal RNA
D. Messenger RNA
E. SnRNA
43. Ability to divide is characteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cell
division is different from that of eukaryotic, but there is one molecular process that is the basis of
both types of division. Name this process.
A. Reparation
B. Gene amplification
C. DNA replication
D. Translation
E. Transcription
44. Epithelium regeneration of mucous membrane of oral cavity (cell reproduction) was
accompanied by semiconservative DNA replication (selfreproduction). Nucleotides of a new
DNA chain are complementary to:
A. Sense codons
B. DNA polymerase enzyme
C. Introns
D. Maternal (template) chain
E. RNA polymerase enzyme
45. An experiment proved that UV-irradiated skin cells of patients with xeroderma pigmentosum
restore the native structure of DNA slower than the cells of healthy people due to the defect in
repair enzyme. What enzyme takes part in this process?
A. RNA ligase
B. Primase
C. DNA polymerase
D. DNA gyrase
E. Endonuclease
46. Patients with pigmentary xeroderma are characterized by anamalously high sensivity to
ultraviolet rays that causes skin cancer as a result of incapability of enzyme systems to restore
damages of hereditary apparatus of cells. Which process is this pathology connected with?
A. DNA reparation
B. Genetic conversion
C. DNA recombination
D. Genetic complementation
E. DNA reduplication
47. Skin of patients with pigment xeroderma is very sensitive to the sun radiation; there is a risk
of skin cancer development. The reason for this is hereditary deficiency of UV-endonuclease. As
a result of this defect the following process is disturbed:
A. Transcription
B. DNA replication
C. Translation
D. DNA reparation
E. Initiation
48. In the course of evolution there appeared molecular mechanisms for correction of damaged
DNA molecules. This process is called:
A. Transcription
B. Translation
C. Replication
D. Processing
E. Reparation
49. According to the model of double DNA helix that was suggested by Watson and Creek, it
was established that one of chains would not be lost during replication and the second chain
would be synthesized complementary to the first one. What way of replication is it?
A. Analogous
B. Identical
C. Semiconservative
D. Dispersed
E. Conservative
50. During cell division, DNA replication occurs by a signal from the cytoplasm, and a certain
portion of the DNA helix unwinds and splits into two individual strains. What enzyme facilitates
this process?
A. RNA polymerase
B. Ligase
C. Restrictase
D. Helicase
E. DNA polymerase
51. DNA replication occurs during the cell division when a signal is received from the
cytoplasm, and a certain portion of the DNA helix is unwound and divided into two chains. The
helix is unwound by the following enzyme:
A. RNA polymerase
B. Ligase
C. Restrictase
D. DNA polymerase
E. Helicase
52. RNA-containing HIV virus (causes AIDS) penetrated into a leukocyte and by means of
reverse transcriptase forced a cell to synthetize a viral DNA. This process is based upon:
A. Operon repression
B. Reverse translation
C. Operon depression
D. Reverse transcription
E. Convariant replication
53. During reproduction of some RNA-containing viruses that cause tumors in animals, genetic
information can be transmitted in the opposite direction from RNA to DNA via a specific
enzyme. The enzyme of reverse transcription is called:
A. DNA polymerase
B. Ligase
C. Primase
D. Topoisomerase
E. Reverse transcriptase
54. It was revealed that T-lymphocytes were affected by HIV. Virus enzyme - reverse
transcriptase (RNA-dependent DNA-polymerase) - catalyzes the synthesis of:
A. Viral informational RNA on the matrix of DNA
B. DNA on viral ribosomal RNA
C. Viral DNA on DNA matrix
D. DNA on the template of viral mRNA
E. mRNA on the matrix of viral protein
55. RNA polymerase B (II) is blocked due to amanitine poisoning (poison of deathcup). It
disturbs:
A. Synthesis of mRNA
B. Synthesis of tRNA
C. Reverse transcription
D. Primers synthesis
E. Maturation of mRNA
56. It was found out that some compounds, for instance fungi toxins and some antibiotics, can
inhibit activity of RNA polymerase. What process will be disturbed in a cell in case of inhibition
of this enzyme?
A. Processing
B. Replication
C. Translation
D. Reparation
E. Transcription
57. Examination of a patient revealed reduced contents of magnesium ions that are necessary for
attachment of ribosomes to the granular endoplasmatic reticulum. It is known that it causes
disturbance of protein biosynthesis. What stage of protein biosynthesis will be disturbed?
A. Transcription
B. Replication
C. Translation
D. Aminoacid activation
E. Termination
58. Labelled amino acids alanine and tryptophane were injected to a mouse in order to study
localization of protein synthesis in its cells. The labelled amino acids will be accumulated near
the following organelles:
A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. Ribosomes
C. Centrosome
D. Lysosomes
E. Golgi apparatus
59. A patient has low rate of magnesium ions that are necessary for affixion of ribosomes to the
endoplasmic reticulum. It is known that it causes disturbance of protein biosynthesis. At what
stage is protein biosynthesis impaired?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Transcription
Replication
Amino acid activation
Termination
Translation
60. One of the protein synthesis stages is recognition. The first mRNA triplet starts with AUG
triplet. What complementary triplet is found in tRNA?
A. AAA
B. GUG
C. UAC
D. UGU
E. CUC
61. Experimental studies revealed steroid hormones to have an effect on protein sinthesis. They
influence synthesis of the following substances:
A. Specific ribosomal RNA
B. Specific transfer RNA
C. Adenosine triphosphate
D. Specific messenger RNA
E. Guanosine triphosphate
62. It was proved that a molecule of immature mRNA (precursor mRNA) contained more triplets
than amino acids found in the synthesized protein. The reason for that is that translation is
normally preceded by:
A. Initiation
B. Reparation
C. Mutation
D. Replication
E. Processing
63. Inside a human cell the messenger RNA containing both exons and introns was delivered to
the granular endoplasmic reticulum and then to the ribosomes. What process does NOT take
place?
A. Replication
B. Transcription
C. Processing
D. Translation
E. Prolongation
64. At the stage of translation in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, ribosome moves along the
mRNA. Amino acids are joined together by peptide bonds in a specific sequence, and thus
polypeptide synthesis takes place. The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide corresponds to
the sequence of:
A. tRNA nucleotides
B. mRNA codons
C. tRNA anticodons
D. rRNA nucleotides
E. rRNA anticodons
65. In cell, granular endoplasmatic reticulum is a site of translation when mRNA advances to the
ribosomes. Amino acids get bound by peptide bonds in a certain sequence thus causing
polypeptide biosynthesis. The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide corresponds with the
sequence of:
A. mRNA codons
B. tRNA nucleotides
C. tRNA anticodons
D. rRNA nucleotides
E. rRNA anticodons
66. The students studied peculiarities of genetic code and found out that there are amino acids
encoded by 6 codons, 5 amino acids ― by 4 different codons. Other amino acids are codified by
three or two codons and only two amino acids are codified by one codon. What pecularity of
genetic code did the students find out?
A. Versatility
B. Collinearity
C. Unidirectionality
D. Redundancy
E. Triplety
67. It is known that information about amino acid sequence in a protein molecule is stored as a
sequence of four nucleotide types in DNA molecule, and different amino acids are encoded by
different quantity of triplets ranging from one to six. Name this property of genetic code:
A. Degeneracy
B. Universality
C. Disjointness
D. Triplety
E. Specificity
68. Treatment of a patient with hereditary form of immunodeficiency involved gene therapy: the
enzyme gene was introduced into the cells of the patient by means of a retrovirus. What property
of genetic code allows to use retroviruses as vectors of functional genes?
A. Specificity
B. Collinearity
C. Universality
D. Continuity
E. Redundancy
69. Substitution of the glutamic acid by valine was revealed while examining initial molecular
structure. For what inherited pathology is this symptom typical?
A. Sickle-cell anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Minkowsky-Shauffard disease
D. Favism
E. Hemoglobinosis
70. In some areas of South Africa many people have sickle cell disease characterized by red
blood cells that assume an abnormal sickle shape due to the substitution of glutamic acid by
valine in hemoglobin molecule. What is the cause of this disease?
A. Disturbances of the mechanisms of genetic information transmission
B. Crossing-over
C. Genomic mutation
D. Gene mutation
E. Transduction
71. As a result of treatment of viral RNA with nitrous acid, UCA triplet mutated to UGA triplet.
What kind of mutation occurred?
A. Missense mutation
B. Transition
C. Nucleotide deletion
D. Nucleotide insertion
E. Inversion
72. You are studying functioning of a bacterial operon. The operator gene has been released from
the repressor. Immediately after this the following process will start in the cell:
A. Translation
B. Replication
C. Transcription
D. Processing
E. Repression
73. Which of the following belongs to the mechanical part of microscope?
A. Ocular
B. Objective
C. Condenser
D. Mirror
E. Revolving nosepiece.
74. Which of the following belongs to the optical part of microscope?
A.
Condenser
B.
Body tube
C.
Ocular
D. Substage diaphragm
E.
Revolving nosepiece.
75. Which of the following belongs to the illuminating part of microscope?
A.
Condenser
B.
Ocular
C.
Objective
D.
Base
E.
Coarse-adjustment knob
76. The magnification of light microscope is estimated as
A.
Magnification of ocular
B.
Magnification of objective
C.
Magnification of ocular and magnification of objective in sum
D.
Product of ocular and objective magnifications
E.
Half of wave-length of visible light
77. The resolving power of light microscope is about
A.
0.02 nm
B.
100 nm
C.
200 nm
D.
500 nm
E.
1000 nm
78. What is a method for study of cell growth and environmental influences on the vital
characteristics of a cell?
A
Tissue culture
B
Differential centrifugation
C
Autoradiography
D
Optical microscopy
E
Electron microscopy
79. What method allows separation the cell components for studying their chemical
composition?
A
Tissue culture
B
Differential centrifugation
C
Autoradiography
D
Optical microscopy
E
Electron microscopy
80. What is a method for determining the presence of DNA synthesis in a cell?
A
Tissue culture
B
Differential centrifugation
C
Autoradiography
D
Optical microscopy
E
Electron microscopy
81. The cell was first discovered by the method of
A
Tissue culture
B
Differential centrifugation
C
Autoradiography
D
Optical microscopy
E
Electron microscopy
82. To determine the ultrastructure of a cell organelle, the most likely method of successful
observations would be
A.
Light microscopy
B.
Electron microscopy
C.
Autoradiography
D.
Cell fractionation
Tissue culture
83. The material employed in conservation of the structure of living cell in tissue treatment is
A
Xylol
B
Formalin
C
Hematoxylin
D
Paraffin
E
Balsam
84. In histological technique, the chemical used for dehydration of tissue specimens is
A. Paraffin
B. Ethanol
C. Formalin
D. Hematoxylin
E. Balsam
85. An acid dye is
A.
Thionine
B.
Sudan
C.
Eosin
D.
Hematoxylin
E.
All of these
86. A basic dye is
A.
Eosin
B.
Acid fuchsine
C.
Sudan
D.
Thionine
E.
All of these
87. A neutral dye employed for staining the cellular components
A
Eosin
B
Thionine
C
Hematoxylin
D
Sudan
E
all of these
88. Which of these is non-cellular organism?
A.
Bacterium
B.
Amoeba
C.
Cyanobacterium
D.
Virus
E.
Ovum
89. Which one of the following are prokaryotes?
A.
Viruses
B.
Animals
C.
Prions
D.
Fungi
E.
Bacteria
90. Bacteria were first discovered by
A. R. Hooke
B. A. Leeuwenhoek
C. T. Schwann
D. M. Schleiden
E. R. Virchow
91. Prokaryotic cell would not have which of these structures?
A. Cell wall
B. Cell membrane
C. Ribosomes
D. Nucleus
E. Cytoplasm
92. What organelles are present in a prokaryotic cell?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Nuclear envelope
C. Chloroplasts
D. Ribosomes
E. Mitochondria
93. Centrosome is responsible for
A. Protein synthesis
B. Formation of ribosomes
C. Oxidation of organic matter
D. Formation of mitotic spindle
E. Digestion of organic matter
94. Metabolically inactive, temporary cytoplasmic structures that reserve food materials are
called
A. Peroxisomes
B. Lysosomes
C. Vacuoles
D. Inclusions
E. Microfilaments
95. Cell membrane is made up of
A. Glycoproteins
B. Phospholipids and proteins
C. Phosphoproteins
D. Double layer of proteins
E. Double layer of glycoproteins
96. Main component of biological membranes is
A
RNA
B
Lipids
C
Glycogen
D
DNA
E
ATP
97. The functional state of cell changes as a result of hormone co-operation with
A. Cilia
B.
C.
D.
E.
Microtubules
Receptors
Neurotransmitters
Microfilaments
98. The movement of small molecules from area of high concentration to area of lower
concentration is
A. Exocytosis
B. Endocytosis
C. Pumping
D. Diffusion
E. Active transport
99. Cell eating is
A. Exocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Diffusion
E. Active transport
100. Cell drinking is
A. Exocytosis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Pinocytosis
D. Active transport
E. Diffusion
101. Phagocytosis of bacteria by leucocyte is the example of
A Diffusion
B Facilitated diffusion
C Osmosis
D Endocytosis
E Exocytosis
102. Cell products are secreted from a cell through
A. Exocytosis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Facilitated diffusion
D. Active transport
E. Diffusion
103. A section of chromosomes that codes for a trait is called
A. Nucleotide
B. Codon
C. Telomere
D. Gene
E. Nucleosome
104. How many autosomes are in human somatic cells?
A. 1 pair
B. 20 pairs
C. 22 pairs
D. 23 pairs
E. 46 pairs
105. Identical copies of the chromosome held together by a primary constriction are called
A. Satellites
B. Telomeres
C. Centromeres
D. Chromatids
E. Nucleosomes
106. The structure that holds together two chromatids of a chromosome is the:
A. Nucleus
B. Spindle
C. Centromere
D. Mitochondria
E. Centrosome
107. The point where microtubules of mitotic spindle attach is
A. Primary constriction
B. Secondary constriction
C. Kinetochore
D. Satellite
E. Telomere
108. The chromosomal constitution of an organism is called
A. Chromatin
B. Genetic map
C. Karyotype
D. Ideogram
E. Genotype
109. In a strand of nucleic acid, two nucleotides are linked by
A. Amide bond
B. Phosphodiester bond
C. Glucosidic bond
D. Hydrogen bond
E. Peptide bond
110. What molecule contains thymine?
A. DNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. rRNA
E. Protein
111. Replication takes place in:
A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. Prophase
E. Metaphase
112. Gene disorders occur in
A.
DNA replication
B.
RNA transcription
C.
DNA repair
D.
Cell division
E.
Disturbance of cell metabolism
113. A disease caused by disorder of DNA repair
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Albinism
C. Cystinuria
D. Xeroderma
E. Haemophilia
114. In a eukaryotic gene, the regions of DNA that code for a polypeptide are called:
A.
hnRNAs
B.
Primers
C.
Leader sequences
D.
Exons
E.
Introns
115. Processing is the formation of
A.
Protein
B.
DNA
C.
rRNA
D.
mRNA
E.
tRNA
116. An enzyme that takes part in splicing is
A. RNA-polymerase
B. DNA-polimerase
C. Helicase
D. Tоpoisomerase
E. Endonuclease
117. An enzyme that joins exons is
A. Polymerase
B. Helicase
C. Tоpoisomerase
D. Ligase
E. Primase
118. What is a template for protein synthesis?
A.
DNA
B.
pre-mRNA
C.
mRNA
D.
tRNA
E.
Amino acid
119. Chemical composition of ribosome is
A.
tRNA + proteins
B.
rRNA + proteins
C.
D.
E.
mRNA + proteins
DNA + proteins
mRNA + rRNA + proteins
120. The building blocks of proteins are:
A.
Phosphoric acids
B.
Amino acids
C.
Nucleotides
D.
Carbonic acids
E.
Steroides
121. The bond between adjacent amino acids is
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Polypeptide bond
C. Hydrophobic bond
D. Ionic bond
E. None of the above
122. A linear sequence of amino acids that makes up a protein is
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Tertiary structure
D. Quaternary structure
E. All of above
123. A specific region in the DNA where the RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription
A. Promoter
B. Activator
C. Regulator
D. Operator
E. Repressor
124. The special sequence of nucleotides on the DNA molecule, which is recognized by proteinrepressor is called:
A. Promoter
B. Activator
C. Regulator
D. Operator
E. Terminator
125. A short fragment of RNA formed on DNA template of lagging strand is called
A.
Messenger RNA
B.
RNA-primase
C.
RNA-primer
D.
RNA-polymerase
E.
Primary transcript
126. What is the function of mRNA?
A. It carries the genetic information out of the nucleus for protein synthesis
B. It serves as a precursor for RNA synthesis
C. It is decoder of the information
D. It is a portion of a ribosome
E. It is catalyst of many reactions in cell cytoplasm
127. A codon is a portion of:
A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. tRNA
D. Ribosome
E. Polypeptide
128. An anticodon is a portion of:
A. DNA
B. Ribosome
C. Ribosomal-RNA
D. Transfer-RNA
E. Messenger-RNA
129. What molecule functions to transfer information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?
A.
DNA
B.
mRNA
C.
tRNA
D.
Protein
E.
Lipid
130. The function of tRNA is to
A. Provide a site for polypeptide synthesis
B. Transport amino acids to the ribosome
C. Travel to the ribosome to direct the assembly of polypeptides
D. Transcribe DNA
E. Translate DNA
131. A unit of inheritance is
A. Triplet
B. Gene
C. Nucleosome
D. Chromosome
E. mRNA
132. The cytoplasm divides, and the cell contents are separated into two separate cells in
A. cytokinesis
B. telophase
C. anaphase
D. metaphase
E. prophase
133. In meiosis, crossing-over occurs during
A. leptotene
B. zygotene
C. pachytene
D. diplotene
E. diakinesis
134. In meiosis, synapsis occurs in
A. leptotene
B.
C.
D.
E.
zygotene
pachytene
diplotene
diakinesis
135. Genetically programmed cell death is
A. necrosis
B. apoptosis
C. oncogenesis
D. binary fission
E. mitosis