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Name: ________ Evolution Practice Test (H) 1. What is the ultimate result of repeatedly introducing insecticides on a species of insects that are effecting the production of crops? A) Natural selection of insects resistant to the insecticide. B) Mutations as a result of contact to the insecticide allows for survival of the entire species. Date: _________ 4. Groups of finches from given populations migrated and began occupying several habitats on the Galapagos Islands. The evolutionary pathway that accounts for the existence of many species of finch on a specific Galapagos Island is A) convergent evolution B) genetic drift C) The creation of a new insect species. C) adaptive radiation D) Death of the entire insect species. D) isolation E) Overproduction of the insect population due to lack of competition. E) punctuated equilibrium 2. An example of heterozygote advantage favoring a genetic disease is A) Sickle cell anemia 5. A randomly mating population has a frequency of 16% for organisms that are homozygous dominant. What is the frequency of the recessive allele in the gene pool? A) 0.4 B) Huntington’s disease B) 0.2 C) 0.6 D) 1.0 E) 0.5 C) Tay-Sachs disease D) PKU E) Turner’s syndrome 3. Which of the following was NOT presented by Darwin as evidence for evolution? A) geographic distribution B) fossils C) vestigial organs D) comparative anatomy 6. Base your answer to the following question on the following information. In a certain population of birds, 16 percent of the population have grey feathers and 84 percent have red feathers. Assume the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. What percentage of the population is homozygous for red feathers? A) 64% B) 4 % C) 36 % D) 20 % E) 28% E) genetic mutation Version 1 Page 1 Ms. Kavner Evolution Practice Test (H) 7. The type of selection that occurs when the environment favors extreme or unusual traits, while selecting against the common traits is 9. The bottleneck effect A) amplifies genes that will eventually cause extinction A) Stabilizing selection B) increases adaptability within a population B) Sexual selection C) eliminates traits whether they are beneficial to the population or not C) Disruptive selection D) Directional selection D) increases the overall variability in a population E) Artificial selection E) decreases weak organisms unable to survive natural disasters 8. 10. Random changes in the gene pool of a population are called A) adaptive radiation B) natural selection C) isolation D) genetic drift E) convergent evolution What type of selection is shown in the graph? A) Sexual selection B) Stabilizing selection C) Artificial selection 11. A population consisting of green-eyed and red-eyed fruit flies occupying the same region face a cold, harsh winter and none of the green-eyed fruit flies survive. Consequently, the frequency of the allele for green eyes becomes zero. This is an example of a D) Disruptive selection A) mutation E) Directional selection B) random mating Version 1 C) heterozygote advantage D) genetic bottleneck E) founder effect Page 2 Ms. Kavner Evolution Practice Test (H) 12. The pollutants associated with the Industrial Revolution caused 15. A complete fossil record A) exists because of the solidification of minerals around organisms A) the gene frequency of light-colored moths to increase exponentially B) is available because of the small location in which all organisms used to live B) light-colored moths to become less camouflaged in their natural environment and this increased bird predation of light-colored moths C) does not exist D) exists because organisms that die become embedded in the soil to form rock C) light-colored moths to evolve into dark-colored moths E) exists because of the great preservation in ocean sediment D) light-colored moths to have a selective advantage over dark-colored moths E) black-colored moths to survive better on light-colored tree trunks 13. According to biogeography, species tend to be more closely related to 16. In an excavation, an area of layered rock is discovered to contain vertebrate fossils. Three of the fossils discovered are from a fish, early amphibian, and mammal. In what order, from bottom to top, were the fossils discovered? A) fish, amphibian, mammal A) other species that reproduce similarly, but live in a different location B) mammal, amphibian, fish B) other species from the same area D) fish, mammal, amphibian C) amphibian, mammal, fish C) other species with similar environmental pressures living in a different location E) amphibian, fish, mammal D) other species with similar features, living in a different location E) other species with the same lifestyle, but different location 17. In what type of environment would the greatest diversity of fossils most likely be found? A) Amber B) Sedimentary rock 14. According to fossil records, the first humans appeared on Earth during which period? A) Precambrian B) Cenozoic C) Paleozoic D) Prehistoric C) Coal D) Volcanic rock E) Caves E) Mesozoic Version 1 Page 3 Ms. Kavner Evolution Practice Test (H) 18. What is the order of the geological time scale, from past to present? 21. Molecular biologists cite as evidence for evolution similarities in A) Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic A) nucleotide bases B) Precambrian, Paleozoic, Cenozoic, Mesozoic C) amino acid sequences C) Mesozoic, Precambrian, Paleozoic, Cenozoic D) lipid composition D) Paleozoic, Precambrian, Mesozoic, Cenozoic E) cellular components B) carbohydrate chains E) Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Precambrian 22. The tonsils and appendix are examples of 19. Which of the following discoveries is least likely? A) analogous structures B) divergent evolution A) A fossil of a human skeleton C) homologous structures B) A fossil of a plant in the mud D) vestigial structures C) A fossil of a bug E) balance polymorphism D) A fossil of a clam E) A fossil of a soft-bodied worm 23. Which of the following is evidence that mitochondria may have once been free living organisms? 20. Which of the following best describes the theory of serial endosymbiosis? I. They are capable of synthesizing their own proteins II. They can divide independently III. They contain circular strands of DNA similar to that of bacteria. A) A prokaryotic cell takes up genes from the surrounding environment. B) Cyanobacteria synthesize food and restore oxygen to the atmosphere. C) An organism will benefit from the symbiotic relationship, while neither is harmed. D) Prokaryotes mediate the return of elements from the nonliving components of the environment. A) I B) II C) I and II D) I, II, and III E) III E) Some organelles were once small prokaryotes. Version 1 Page 4 Ms. Kavner Evolution Practice Test (H) 24. The endosymbiont theory proposes that mitochondria descended from endosymbiotic bacteria that lived inside other cells. Which of the following statements would best support that theory? A) Neither bacteria nor mitochondria have nuclear membranes. B) Microtubules are present in both bacteria and mitochondria. C) Both bacteria and mitochondria possess similar nuclei. D) Both bacteria and mitochondria are small structures. E) Both bacteria and mitochondria possess similar ribosomes and genetic material. 25. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below. Physical similarities between organisms in regions B and E provide evidence for A) homologous structures B) stabilizing selection C) neutral selection D) ontogeny E) convergent evolution Version 1 Page 5 Ms. Kavner Evolution Practice Test (H) 26. The marsupial Australian sugar glider and the placental North American flying squirrel posses examples of 29. Speciation occurs through A) A and B B) extinction A) neutral selection C) reproductive isolation B) analogous structures D) all of the above C) homologous structures E) geographic isolation D) sympatric speciation E) divergent evolution 30. All of the following are strong contributors to speciation EXCEPT 27. Organisms categorized in which of the following classification schemes have the highest degree of similarity? A) Kingdom B) Species C) Order D) Genus A) sexual reproduction B) selection C) variation D) isolation E) asexual reproduction E) Family 28. Phylogenies are useful for scientists because they 31. Two or more morphologically distinct forms in a population constitute a(n) A) reconstruct the evolutionary history and common ancestry of various organisms. D) they are indisputable evidence of past evolutionary patterns. C) mutation D) inbreeding 32. An individual is determined to be part of a population by A) gene flow between the individual and the population E) measure the number of similarities between organisms. Version 1 B) genus E) polymorphism B) are based on morphological characteristics. C) calibrate how long ago two similar species diverged. A) cline B) similarities in mate choice C) joint expression of recessive genes D) shared geographic location E) adaptive radiation Page 6 Ms. Kavner Evolution Practice Test (H) 33. The smallest unit that may undergo evolution is the A) family B) population C) individual D) genus 36. Base your answer to the following question on Base your answer on the diagram below. E) species 34. Speciation always involves what type of isolation? A) Allopatric B) Temporal C) Parapatric D) Sympatric E) Genetic The forelimbs of these organisms A) demonstrate punctuated equilibrium B) are all vestigial structures 35. Which of the following describes when populations resemble each other but are completely unrelated? C) are all homologous structures D) are considered analogous structures E) are evidence of convergent evolution A) divergent evolution B) directional selection C) convergent evolution D) speciation E) stabilizing selection Version 1 Page 7 Ms. Kavner Evolution Practice Test (H) 37. 39. The abiotic origin of life could NOT exist on Earth today because A) there is not enough carbon dioxide B) present bacteria would destroy any abiotic life C) humans have destroyed the ozone layer D) there is too much light hitting Earth's surface E) the present atmosphere is not conducive to the spontaneous formation of complex molecules The diagram best represents which of the following? A) Survival of the fittest B) Acquired characteristics 40. Base your answer to the following question on the following diagram. C) Common Ancestry D) Reproductive isolation E) Convergence 38. The eyes of squids and vertebrates are physically and functionally similar; however, these animals do not share a recent common ancestor. This is an example of A) divergent evolution The above diagram illustrates which theory of evolution? B) coevolution C) convergent evolution A) Lamarck's theory D) parallel evolution B) punctuated equilibrium E) allopatric speciation Version 1 C) uniformitarianism D) gradualism E) creationism Page 8 Ms. Kavner Evolution Practice Test (H) 41. According to Oparin's hypothesis, which of the following is the correct order in which organisms were thought to have developed on Earth? 43. The endosymbiont theory details the A) origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts within a larger prokaryotic cell A) anaerobic autotroph — aerobic autotroph — anaerobic heterotroph — aerobic heterotroph B) adiabatic processes occurring within all cells C) development of the endomembrane system in eukaryotic cells B) anaerobic autotroph — anaerobic heterotroph — aerobic autotroph — aerobic heterotroph D) presence of certain parasites within their host organisms C) anaerobic heterotroph — anaerobic autotroph — aerobic autotroph — aerobic heterotroph E) hypothesis of heat sharing between symbiotic organisms D) anaerobic heterotroph — aerobic heterotroph — anaerobic autotroph — aerobic autotroph E) aerobic heterotroph — aerobic autotroph — anaerobic autotroph — anaerobic heterotroph 44. The first biotic organisms on earth most likely resembled modern A) unicellular plants B) viruses C) bacteria D) fungi E) protists 42. In the Miller-Urey experiment, application of electric sparks to simple gases resulted in the formation of 45. Acquired characteristics A) polysaccharides B) ozone B) are genetically inherited from parents who possessed those traits C) steroids C) are explained by Darwin's theories of evolution D) RNA E) simple amino acids Version 1 A) accurately explain why giraffe's have evolved long necks D) are the basis of modern genetics E) are not passed on to the subsequent generation Page 9 Ms. Kavner Evolution Practice Test (H) 46. If a modern scientist wanted to replicate the experiment performed by Miller and Urey in 1953 (which converted prebiotic matter to simple organic compounds), each of the following components would be necessary for the experimental reaction EXCEPT A) a spark B) NH 4 C) H 2 D) O 2 48. Earth's primitive atmosphere consisted of all of the following except A) CO 2 B) Ar C) H 2O D) HCl E) N2 49. Which of the following is the original source of energy used by nearly all organisms on earth? E) H 2O A) The sun B) Water C) Heat D) ATP E) Plants 47. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below. 50. The absence of what substance greatly contributed to the prolonged existences of simple organic molecules in earth's prebiotic oceans? A) Glucose B) Hydrogen molecules C) Hydrogen ions D) Oxygen E) Ammonia According to Miller and Urey, the heat source is necessary to simulate A) volcanic activity which stimulated terrestrial mutations B) the sun, which was more active billions of years ago C) the air in which life began D) the primordial sea E) the habitat necessary for prokaryotic reproduction Version 1 Page 10 Ms. Kavner Answer Key Evolution Practice 1. A 32. A 2. A 33. B 3. E 34. E 4. C 35. C 5. C 36. C 6. C 37. C 7. C 38. C 8. B 39. E 9. C 40. D 10. D 41. C 11. D 42. E 12. B 43. A 13. B 44. C 14. B 45. E 15. C 46. D 16. A 47. D 17. B 48. B 18. A 49. A 19. E 50. D 20. E 21. C 22. D 23. D 24. E 25. E 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. E 31. E Version 1 Page 11 Ms. Kavner