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Transcript
Name: ________
Evolution Practice Test (H)
1. What is the ultimate result of repeatedly
introducing insecticides on a species of insects
that are effecting the production of crops?
A) Natural selection of insects resistant to
the insecticide.
B) Mutations as a result of contact to the
insecticide allows for survival of the entire
species.
Date: _________
4. Groups of finches from given populations
migrated and began occupying several habitats
on the Galapagos Islands. The evolutionary
pathway that accounts for the existence of
many species of finch on a specific Galapagos
Island is
A) convergent evolution
B) genetic drift
C) The creation of a new insect species.
C) adaptive radiation
D) Death of the entire insect species.
D) isolation
E) Overproduction of the insect population due
to lack of competition.
E) punctuated equilibrium
2. An example of heterozygote advantage favoring
a genetic disease is
A) Sickle cell anemia
5. A randomly mating population has a frequency of
16% for organisms that are homozygous
dominant. What is the frequency of the
recessive allele in the gene pool?
A) 0.4
B) Huntington’s disease
B) 0.2
C) 0.6
D) 1.0
E) 0.5
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) PKU
E) Turner’s syndrome
3. Which of the following was NOT presented by
Darwin as evidence for evolution?
A) geographic distribution
B) fossils
C) vestigial organs
D) comparative anatomy
6. Base your answer to the following question on
the following information. In a certain population
of birds, 16 percent of the population have grey
feathers and 84 percent have red feathers.
Assume the population is in Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium.
What percentage of the population is
homozygous for red feathers?
A) 64% B) 4 %
C) 36 % D) 20 % E) 28%
E) genetic mutation
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Ms. Kavner
Evolution Practice Test (H)
7. The type of selection that occurs when the
environment favors extreme or unusual traits,
while selecting against the common traits is
9. The bottleneck effect
A) amplifies genes that will eventually cause
extinction
A) Stabilizing selection
B) increases adaptability within a population
B) Sexual selection
C) eliminates traits whether they are
beneficial to the population or not
C) Disruptive selection
D) Directional selection
D) increases the overall variability in a
population
E) Artificial selection
E) decreases weak organisms unable to survive
natural disasters
8.
10. Random changes in the gene pool of a population
are called
A) adaptive radiation
B) natural selection
C) isolation
D) genetic drift
E) convergent evolution
What type of selection is shown in the graph?
A) Sexual selection
B) Stabilizing selection
C) Artificial selection
11. A population consisting of green-eyed and
red-eyed fruit flies occupying the same region
face a cold, harsh winter and none of the
green-eyed fruit flies survive. Consequently,
the frequency of the allele for green eyes
becomes zero. This is an example of a
D) Disruptive selection
A) mutation
E) Directional selection
B) random mating
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C) heterozygote advantage
D) genetic bottleneck
E) founder effect
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Ms. Kavner
Evolution Practice Test (H)
12. The pollutants associated with the Industrial
Revolution caused
15. A complete fossil record
A) exists because of the solidification of
minerals around organisms
A) the gene frequency of light-colored moths
to increase exponentially
B) is available because of the small location in
which all organisms used to live
B) light-colored moths to become less
camouflaged in their natural environment
and this increased bird predation of
light-colored moths
C) does not exist
D) exists because organisms that die become
embedded in the soil to form rock
C) light-colored moths to evolve into
dark-colored moths
E) exists because of the great preservation in
ocean sediment
D) light-colored moths to have a selective
advantage over dark-colored moths
E) black-colored moths to survive better on
light-colored tree trunks
13. According to biogeography, species tend to be
more closely related to
16. In an excavation, an area of layered rock is
discovered to contain vertebrate fossils. Three
of the fossils discovered are from a fish, early
amphibian, and mammal. In what order, from
bottom to top, were the fossils discovered?
A) fish, amphibian, mammal
A) other species that reproduce similarly, but
live in a different location
B) mammal, amphibian, fish
B) other species from the same area
D) fish, mammal, amphibian
C) amphibian, mammal, fish
C) other species with similar environmental
pressures living in a different location
E) amphibian, fish, mammal
D) other species with similar features, living
in a different location
E) other species with the same lifestyle, but
different location
17. In what type of environment would the greatest
diversity of fossils most likely be found?
A) Amber
B) Sedimentary rock
14. According to fossil records, the first humans
appeared on Earth during which period?
A) Precambrian
B) Cenozoic
C) Paleozoic
D) Prehistoric
C) Coal
D) Volcanic rock
E) Caves
E) Mesozoic
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Ms. Kavner
Evolution Practice Test (H)
18. What is the order of the geological time scale,
from past to present?
21. Molecular biologists cite as evidence for
evolution similarities in
A) Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic,
Cenozoic
A) nucleotide bases
B) Precambrian, Paleozoic, Cenozoic, Mesozoic
C) amino acid sequences
C) Mesozoic, Precambrian, Paleozoic, Cenozoic
D) lipid composition
D) Paleozoic, Precambrian, Mesozoic, Cenozoic
E) cellular components
B) carbohydrate chains
E) Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Precambrian
22. The tonsils and appendix are examples of
19. Which of the following discoveries is least
likely?
A) analogous structures
B) divergent evolution
A) A fossil of a human skeleton
C) homologous structures
B) A fossil of a plant in the mud
D) vestigial structures
C) A fossil of a bug
E) balance polymorphism
D) A fossil of a clam
E) A fossil of a soft-bodied worm
23. Which of the following is evidence that
mitochondria may have once been free living
organisms?
20. Which of the following best describes the
theory of serial endosymbiosis?
I. They are capable of
synthesizing
their own
proteins
II. They can divide independently
III. They contain circular strands
of
DNA similar to that of
bacteria.
A) A prokaryotic cell takes up genes from the
surrounding environment.
B) Cyanobacteria synthesize food and restore
oxygen to the atmosphere.
C) An organism will benefit from the
symbiotic relationship, while neither is
harmed.
D) Prokaryotes mediate the return of
elements from the nonliving components of
the environment.
A) I
B) II
C) I and II
D) I, II, and III
E) III
E) Some organelles were once small
prokaryotes.
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Ms. Kavner
Evolution Practice Test (H)
24. The endosymbiont theory proposes that
mitochondria descended from endosymbiotic
bacteria that lived inside other cells. Which of
the following statements would best support
that theory?
A) Neither bacteria nor mitochondria have
nuclear membranes.
B) Microtubules are present in both bacteria
and mitochondria.
C) Both bacteria and mitochondria possess
similar nuclei.
D) Both bacteria and mitochondria are small
structures.
E) Both bacteria and mitochondria possess
similar ribosomes and genetic material.
25. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below.
Physical similarities between organisms in regions B and E provide evidence for
A) homologous structures
B) stabilizing selection
C) neutral selection
D) ontogeny
E) convergent evolution
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Ms. Kavner
Evolution Practice Test (H)
26. The marsupial Australian sugar glider and the
placental North American flying squirrel posses
examples of
29. Speciation occurs through
A) A and B
B) extinction
A) neutral selection
C) reproductive isolation
B) analogous structures
D) all of the above
C) homologous structures
E) geographic isolation
D) sympatric speciation
E) divergent evolution
30. All of the following are strong contributors to
speciation EXCEPT
27. Organisms categorized in which of the
following classification schemes have the
highest degree of similarity?
A) Kingdom
B) Species
C) Order
D) Genus
A) sexual reproduction
B) selection
C) variation
D) isolation
E) asexual reproduction
E) Family
28. Phylogenies are useful for scientists because
they
31. Two or more morphologically distinct forms in a
population constitute a(n)
A) reconstruct the evolutionary history and
common ancestry of various organisms.
D) they are indisputable evidence of past
evolutionary patterns.
C) mutation
D) inbreeding
32. An individual is determined to be part of a
population by
A) gene flow between the individual and the
population
E) measure the number of similarities
between organisms.
Version 1
B) genus
E) polymorphism
B) are based on morphological characteristics.
C) calibrate how long ago two similar species
diverged.
A) cline
B) similarities in mate choice
C) joint expression of recessive genes
D) shared geographic location
E) adaptive radiation
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Ms. Kavner
Evolution Practice Test (H)
33. The smallest unit that may undergo evolution is
the
A) family
B) population
C) individual
D) genus
36. Base your answer to the following question on
Base your answer on the diagram below.
E) species
34. Speciation always involves what type of
isolation?
A) Allopatric
B) Temporal
C) Parapatric
D) Sympatric
E) Genetic
The forelimbs of these organisms
A) demonstrate punctuated equilibrium
B) are all vestigial structures
35. Which of the following describes when
populations resemble each other but are
completely unrelated?
C) are all homologous structures
D) are considered analogous structures
E) are evidence of convergent evolution
A) divergent evolution
B) directional selection
C) convergent evolution
D) speciation
E) stabilizing selection
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Ms. Kavner
Evolution Practice Test (H)
37.
39. The abiotic origin of life could NOT exist on
Earth today because
A) there is not enough carbon dioxide
B) present bacteria would destroy any abiotic
life
C) humans have destroyed the ozone layer
D) there is too much light hitting Earth's
surface
E) the present atmosphere is not conducive
to the spontaneous formation of complex
molecules
The diagram best represents which of the
following?
A) Survival of the fittest
B) Acquired characteristics
40. Base your answer to the following question on
the following diagram.
C) Common Ancestry
D) Reproductive isolation
E) Convergence
38. The eyes of squids and vertebrates are
physically and functionally similar; however,
these animals do not share a recent common
ancestor. This is an example of
A) divergent evolution
The above diagram illustrates which theory of
evolution?
B) coevolution
C) convergent evolution
A) Lamarck's theory
D) parallel evolution
B) punctuated equilibrium
E) allopatric speciation
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C) uniformitarianism
D) gradualism
E) creationism
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Ms. Kavner
Evolution Practice Test (H)
41. According to Oparin's hypothesis, which of the
following is the correct order in which
organisms were thought to have developed on
Earth?
43. The endosymbiont theory details the
A) origin of mitochondria and
chloroplasts within a larger prokaryotic
cell
A) anaerobic autotroph — aerobic autotroph
— anaerobic heterotroph — aerobic
heterotroph
B) adiabatic processes occurring within all
cells
C) development of the endomembrane system
in eukaryotic cells
B) anaerobic autotroph — anaerobic
heterotroph — aerobic autotroph —
aerobic heterotroph
D) presence of certain parasites within their
host organisms
C) anaerobic heterotroph — anaerobic
autotroph — aerobic autotroph —
aerobic heterotroph
E) hypothesis of heat sharing between
symbiotic organisms
D) anaerobic heterotroph — aerobic
heterotroph — anaerobic autotroph —
aerobic autotroph
E) aerobic heterotroph — aerobic autotroph
— anaerobic autotroph — anaerobic
heterotroph
44. The first biotic organisms on earth most likely
resembled modern
A) unicellular plants B) viruses
C) bacteria
D) fungi
E) protists
42. In the Miller-Urey experiment, application of
electric sparks to simple gases resulted in the
formation of
45. Acquired characteristics
A) polysaccharides
B) ozone
B) are genetically inherited from parents who
possessed those traits
C) steroids
C) are explained by Darwin's theories of
evolution
D) RNA
E) simple amino acids
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A) accurately explain why giraffe's have
evolved long necks
D) are the basis of modern genetics
E) are not passed on to the subsequent
generation
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Ms. Kavner
Evolution Practice Test (H)
46. If a modern scientist wanted to replicate the
experiment performed by Miller and Urey in
1953 (which converted prebiotic matter to
simple organic compounds), each of the
following components would be necessary for
the experimental reaction EXCEPT
A) a spark
B) NH 4
C) H 2
D) O 2
48. Earth's primitive atmosphere consisted of all
of the following except
A) CO 2
B) Ar
C) H 2O D) HCl
E) N2
49. Which of the following is the original source of
energy used by nearly all organisms on earth?
E) H 2O
A) The sun
B) Water
C) Heat
D) ATP
E) Plants
47. Base your answer to the following question on
the diagram below.
50. The absence of what substance greatly
contributed to the prolonged existences of
simple organic molecules in earth's prebiotic
oceans?
A) Glucose
B) Hydrogen molecules
C) Hydrogen ions
D) Oxygen
E) Ammonia
According to Miller and Urey, the heat source
is necessary to simulate
A) volcanic activity which stimulated
terrestrial mutations
B) the sun, which was more active billions of
years ago
C) the air in which life began
D) the primordial sea
E) the habitat necessary for prokaryotic
reproduction
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Ms. Kavner
Answer Key
Evolution Practice
1.
A
32.
A
2.
A
33.
B
3.
E
34.
E
4.
C
35.
C
5.
C
36.
C
6.
C
37.
C
7.
C
38.
C
8.
B
39.
E
9.
C
40.
D
10.
D
41.
C
11.
D
42.
E
12.
B
43.
A
13.
B
44.
C
14.
B
45.
E
15.
C
46.
D
16.
A
47.
D
17.
B
48.
B
18.
A
49.
A
19.
E
50.
D
20.
E
21.
C
22.
D
23.
D
24.
E
25.
E
26.
B
27.
B
28.
A
29.
A
30.
E
31.
E
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Ms. Kavner