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Name__________________ Mitosis, Meiosis Miss Badean Date____________ Mendelian Test Review AP Biology 1. Mitosis produces two new cells from a single existing cell. (a) Explain how the chromosome number is maintained through consecutive divisions of a single cell. (b) Multicellular organisms rely on mitosis for development and survival. Describe TWO reasons why plant and animal cells continually undergo mitosis. (c) Discuss the events that occur when a cell has escaped from cell cycle control. 2. Which regulatory molecule(s) provide the signals at the G1 and G2 checkpoints? B) Protein kinases D) Tubulin A) ATP C) Growth factor 3. All of the following are important explanations for the necessity of cell division EXCEPT A) reproduction of single-celled organisms to produce two individual organisms B) development of a sexually reproducing organism from a single cell C) dilution of genetic material as a cell divides from one generation to the next D) replacement of cells that have been damaged or degraded 4. During non-growth periods of the cell cycle, DNA exists as A) B) C) D) daughter chromosomes a single sister chromatid newly formed sister chromatids chromatin 5. During mitosis, DNA exists in the form of two sister chromatids during A) telophase C) prophase B) interphase D) anaphase 6. Mitosis can produce A) diploid cells C) both a and b B) somatic cells D) a, b and c 7. Which of the following is NOT considered a phase of mitosis? A) Anaphase C) Prophase B) Cytokinesis D) Telophase 8. Muscle cells generally remain in A) G1 C) S B) G2 D) telophase 9. At what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur? A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) M 10. Two sister chromatids are better known as a A) chromosome C) chiasma B) multichromatid D) dihybrid 11. In mitosis, two sister chromatids are attached at the A) centromere C) centriole B) centrosome D) cristae 12. The G2 stage of cell division A) occurs after DNA replication and prior to the commencement of mitosis B) is the stage of DNA synthesis during Interphase C) is the stage before DNA replication during Interphase D) is associated with the disappearance of the nuclear membrane 13. During cytokinesis A) B) C) D) genetic material is divided in the nucleus the cytoplasm divides into two cells chromatin condenses into chromosomes DNA replicates 14. What would happen if a cell was inhibited during the S phase of its cycle? A) B) C) D) There will be a lack of DNA synthesis Centrioles will not migrate ATP will not be available The plasma membrane will be destroyed 15. All of the following statements about the cell cycle are true EXCEPT A) The nucleus divides in mitosis B) The cytoplasm divides during cytokinesis C) In prophase of mitosis the chromosomes condense into distinct rodlike structures D) Mitosis occupies a large time segment of the total cell cycle 16. Which of the following stages of mitosis is incorrectly paired with its description? A) In metaphase, the chromosomes move to and align themselves along the spindle equator. B) In anaphase, sister chromatid of each replicated chromosome separate. C) In telophase, the chromosomes migrate to opposite poles of the cell. D) In telophase, the chromosomes decondense into a threadlike form. 17. Which of the following statements best describes metastasis? A) The division of benign tumor cells. B) The transformation of tumor cells from benign to malignant. C) The alteration of blood and lymph vessels. D) The spread of cancer cells from their original site. Base your answers to questions 18 through 21 on the diagram below, which shows the stages occurring during mitosis, not necessarily in the correct order. 18. At which stage does the nuclear membrane disappear? 19. At which stage is the cell in Anaphase? 20. Which letter shows cytokinesis? 21. At which stage does DNA begin the long process of condensation? 22. What happens to cells that have escaped cell cycle control? A) B) C) D) Excessive division. Density-dependent inhibition. Halted division. Decreased synthesis of cyclin. 23. Which of the following is true about both mitosis and meiosis? A) DNA replication only occurs once. B) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes occurs during prophase. C) Genetic composition is the same throughout. D) Sister chromatids never separate. 24. A human cell in metaphase I of meiosis can be distinguished from a human cell in metaphase of mitosis by observing A) B) C) D) spindle in the mitotic cell kinetochores in the mitotic cell separation of sister chromatids in the meiotic cell tetrads aligning on the equatorial plate in the meiotic cell 25. Which of the following statements regarding meiosis and mitosis is correct? A) Meiosis produces 4 haploid cells while mitosis produces 2 diploid cells B) Meiosis produces 4 diploid cells while mitosis produces 2 haploid cells. C) Prophase I of mitosis results in the formation of a tetrad but not in prophase I of mitosis D) Mitosis and not meiosis occurs in the gametes. 26. Which of the following occurs during meiosis I but NOT during mitosis? A) The chromatids of each chromosome are separated. B) Both synapsis and crossing-over occurs. C) The haploid number of chromosomes is changed to the diploid number. D) The chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate. 27. In humans, what is the number of chromatids in a cell prior to its entrance into meiosis I? A) 92 B) 46 C) 23 D) 16 28. Base your answer to the following question on Base your answer to the following question on the diagram shown below. This event between allels a and A on homologous chromosomes is referred to as A) nondisjunction B) mitosis C) a point mutation 29. Which of the following accurately defines a difference between mitosis and meiosis? A) The end product of mitosis is two 2n daughter cells with unduplicated chromosomes whereas the end product of meiosis is four n cells with unduplicated chromosomes. B) The end product of mitosis is two n daughter cells with unduplicated chromosomes whereas the end product of meiosis is four 2n cells with unduplicated chromosomes. C) The end product of mitosis is two 2n daughter cells with duplicated chromosomes whereas the end product of meiosis is four n cells with duplicated chromosomes. D) The end product of mitosis is two 2n daughter cells with duplicated chromosomes whereas the end product of meiosis is four n cells with unduplicated chromosomes. 30. During prophase I, crossing over is responsible for A) B) C) D) contributing to genetic diversity the formation of tetrads initiating the condensation of chromosomes recombination of two sister chromatids 31. During meiosis II, interphase A) B) C) D) is required in order for the cell to enter prophase II is required in order for the cell to undergo cytokinesis occurs more rapidly than in meiosis I does not occur 32. Which of the following are human males? I. XO II. XY III. XXY A) III only C) II and III only B) I and II only D) I, II and III 33. Polyploidy can result from A) B) C) D) nondisjunction in meiosis I nondisjunction in meiosis II crossing-over in meiosis I crossing-over in mitosis D) recombination 34. During which of the following stages does nondisjunction occur? A) Anaphase C) Metaphase B) Interphase D) Prophase 35. Base your answer to the following question on the following information. The somatic cells of an organism contain 20 chromosomes. In this organism, the number of chromatids found within a sex cell after telophase II of meiosis would be A) 0 B) 5 C) 10 D) 20 36. In prophase I, DNA forms A) euchromatin C) hybrid DNA B) histones D) tetrads Base your answers to questions 37 through 42 on the following diagram depicting the amount of DNA in a cell undergoing gamete formation. 46. Which of the following accurately describes crossing-over? A) Genes located far apart on the chromosome have a high likelihood of being separated by the exchange of segments. B) Genes located far apart on the chromosome have a low likelihood of being separated by the exchange of segments. C) Genes located far apart on the chromosome cannot be linked. D) Crossing-over occurs during Anaphase of Mitosis. 47. During which stage of meiosis do the chromosomes have the LEAST amount of DNA in each cell? 37. The amount of DNA in a sperm cell is equal to that present in region A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 38. Crossing-over occurs in region A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 39. Sister chromatid separation occurs in region A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 40. Which of the following represents the amount of DNA present during metaphase I of meiosis? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 41. In which region would chromosome disjunction be occurring? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 42. Which of the following represents the amount of DNA in a spermatogonium? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 43. Gene mapping on chromosomes is a function of which of the following? A) B) C) D) Crossing-over between homolgous chromosomes Order of chromosomes Number of genes on a chromosome Number of chromosomes 44. All of the following are true of meiosis EXCEPT A) there is no DNA synthesis between the divisions B) the result is four cells with half the number of chromosomes of the starting cell C) meiosis does not contribute to the genetic diversity in A) Prophase I C) Telophase II 48. If an organism has the genotype AaBBCCDdee, which of the following gametes can NOT be formed via meiosis? A) ABcDe C) aBCDe A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 32 50. Which of the following is the site of crossover between attached homologous chromosomes? A) Centromeres C) Chiasma B) Synapsis D) Sister chromatids 51. How many different sex cell genotypes can an organism with genotype CcDd produce? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 52. A couple is considering having a child and would like to be tested beforehand for any chromosomal defects. The best method for this is A) B) C) D) amniocentesis bacterial transformation gene therapy karyotyping 53. Base your answer to the following question on the 5 lettered headings listed below. Select the single heading that most directly applies to the subsequent statement. Each heading may be used once, more than once, or not at all within its group. (A) Meiosis (B) Mitosis (C) Both Meiosis and Mitosis (D) Budding (E) Binary Fission D) fusion of two of the products of meiosis produces a zygote A) Tetrad formation takes place during this stage. B) Crossing-over between non-sister chromatids occurs. C) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes occurs during this stage. D) Sister chromatids separate B) aBCde D) ABCde 49. How many different sex cells can be produced given the genotype WwXXYyZZ? populations 45. Which statement is true of anaphase II of meiosis? B) Telophase I D) Interphase Prokaryotes reproduce via this type of cell division 54. When there is a small difference between the observed and expected results, which of the following is most likely true? A) B) C) D) High chi-squared test so the hypothesis is supported High chi-squared test so the hypothesis is rejected Low chi-squared test so the hypothesis is supported Low chi-squared test so the hypothesis is rejected 55. Gregor Mendel’s experiment with pea plants proved to be groundbreaking in the advancement of genetics. a.) What conclusions did he reach? b.) Today, there are many examples of heredity that do not follow Mendelian genetics. Explain when and how two genes do not follow Mendel’s theories. 56. An organism with genotype QqRr only produces two gamete genotypes, QR and qr. This violates which principle of Mendelian genetics? A) B) C) D) Codominance Dominance Independent Assortment Segregation 57. Base your answer to the following question on the information given below. A heterozygous red-eyed female fruit fly mates with a white-eyed male. Their offspring are one red-eyed female, one white-eyed female and one red-eyed male. A red-eyed female with normal wings mates with a white-eyed male with normal wings. They have two offspring: one white-eyed female with normal wings, one red-eyed male with vestigial wings. What are the parental genotypes? A) B) C) D) Ww Vv x ww Vv XWXw Vv x XwY Vv 58. In fruit flies (Drosophila), vestigial wings (v) are recessive to normal wings (V). What phenotype(s) of offspring would you expect from the following cross, Vv x vv? Two vestigial and two normal wings Four normal wings Three normal and one vestigial Three vestigial and one normal B) 25% B) 1/6 C) 50% D) 75% C) 1/2 D) 6/7 61. Genes A, B and C are not linked. If the probability of allele A, B and C in a gamete is each 1/2, then what is the probability of alleles A, B, and C being in the same gamete? A) (1/2) × (1/2) × (1/2) C) (1/2) + (1/2 × 1/2) B) (1/2) + (1/2) + (1/2) D) (1/2) – (1/2 × 1/2) 62. Two parents have the genotype DdEeFf. What is the likelihood that their offspring phenotypically express the recessive allele for the first gene, the recessive allele for the second gene, and the dominant allele for the third gene? A) 3/64 B) 3/8 64. Two plants are mated and 250 offspring are phenotypically classified. 61 plants display the recessive phenotype and 189 plants display the dominant phenotype. Assuming classical Mendelian patterns of inheritance, what are the most likely genotypes of the parent plants? A) B) C) D) Heterozygous and heterozygous Recessive and heterozygous Recessive and homozygous dominant Heterozygous and homozygous dominant C) 9/16 (A) Phenotype (B) Genotype (C) Locus (D) Allele (E) Heterozygous 66. One of several varieties of a gene 60. A couple has 6 children and all of them are female. The probability that the couple's 7th child is a male is A) 1/7 B) AaRr × AaRR D) AaRr × aaRr 65. The location on a chromosome where a gene is located 59. When a homozygous recessive organism is crossed with a heterozygous dominant organism, what percent of the progeny will be heterozygous dominant? A) 0% A) AaRr × AaRr C) aaRr × AaRr Base your answers to questions 65 through 67 on the choices below. XWXW Vv x XwY Vv XWXW VV x XwY vv A) B) C) D) 63. In pea plants, assume that the trait for axial flowers (A) is dominant to terminal flowers (a), and the trait for round seeds (R) is dominant to wrinkled seeds (r). The probability of an offspring having axial flowers is 3/4 and the probability of an offspring having wrinkled seeds is 1/4. The parental genotypes are most likely represented by which of the following genotypes? D) 9/64 67. The condition where two inherited alleles are different 68. In sheep, eye color is controlled by a single gene with two alleles. When a homozygous brown-eyed sheep is crossed with a homozygous green-eyed sheep, blue-eyed offspring are produced. If the blue-eyed sheep are mated with each other, what percent of their offspring will most likely have blue eyes? A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100% 69. A woman with genotype AaBb mates with a man with genotype AABb. Assuming independent assortment and random recombination, what is the chance that the child will phenotypically express the recessive allele for both genes? A) 0/16 B) 2/16 C) 4/16 D) 8/16 70. After mapping a chromosome, a scientist find that genes Q and R are twenty units apart, and genes R and S are eleven units apart, and genes Q and S are thirty units apart. The sequence on the chromosome would be A) RSQ B) SRQ C) SQR D) QSR Base your answers to questions 71 and 72 on the following pedigree chart for a sex-linked disorder. 71. If Individual 9 marries a woman with one recessive allele, what are their chances of having a normal daughter? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% C) XnXn D) XNXn 72. The genotype of Individual 1 is A) nn B) Nn Base your answers to questions 73 and 74 on the diagram below. 73. What is the genotype of Individual 5? A) tt B) Tt C) TT D) XT Y 74. The inheritance pattern for the depicted trait is most likely A) autosomal dominant C) sex-linked dominant B) polygenic D) sex-linked recessive 75. According to Mendel, true breeding refers to which of following? A) B) C) D) The offspring that inherited the dominant phenotype. A homozygous organism. A heterozygous organism. An organism whose pair of alleles will separate independently during gamete formation. 76. Which of the following is used to determine an unknown genotype of a parent? A) Self-cross C) Back-cross B) Test-cross D) Any of the above 77. Base your answer to the following question on Base your answer to this question on the diagram below. What is the genotype of the father of Individual 2? A) It can be either Ee or EE. C) It must be EE. B) It must be Ee. D) It can either be Ee or ee. 78. Four genes on a chromosome C are mapped and their crossover frequencies were determined. Genes Crossover Frequency K and J 10 J and M 15 M and L 20 J and L 35 K and L 45 Which of the following represents the relative locations of these 4 genes on chromosome C? A) KJML B) KMLJ C) JMLK D) LJMK 79. Which of the following is true regarding the genetic cross called a testcross? A) One organism has a dominant phenotype and the other has the homozygous recessive phenotype. B) One organism has the heterozygous dominant phenotype and the other has the homozygous dominant phenotype. C) Both organisms are thought to possess the recessive phenotype to ensure the recessive nature of the allele in question. D) The phenotypes of both organisms being tested are unknown. 80. A sample of a child’s cheek cells was found to have a high number of dysfunctional mitochondria. Evidence of this condition should also be sought in cells from the child’s A) paternal grandmother B) father C) mother D) male cousins 81. If blond hair, green eyes, and freckles were consistently inherited together, the best explanation would be that A) these traits are dominant to others B) these traits are codominant C) the genes for these traits are linked on the same chromosome D) a genetic mutation occurred Base your answers to questions 82 through 84 on the following information. A female rabbit with a bushy tail and white coat is crossed with a long-tailed male with a brown coat. Their offspring are 5 long-tails with brown coats, 4 bushy-tails with white coats, 2 long-tails with white coats, and 1 bushy-tail with brown coat. 82. Given the following relative distances, what is the sequence of genes on a chromosome containing the genes in the above description? B and T 38 B and C 13 C and E 7 E and B 20 A) BTEC B) CBET C) ECTB D) TECB 83. What does the crossover frequency of these two genes indicate? A) B) C) D) These genes cooperate to control a polygenic trait. These genes are linked Recombination will occur between these genes. The gene loci segregate independently 84. What is the crossover frequency of these two genes? A) 8.3% B) 12.5% C) 25% D) 75% 85. When a red snapdragon is crossed with a white snapdragon, the resulting F1 hybrids are pink. Which of the following terms best describes this phenomenon? A) B) C) D) Incomplete dominance Pleiotropy Codominance Epitasis 86. Blood types are an example of A) B) C) D) Multiple alleles Sex-linked traits Recessive traits Incomplete dominance 87. If a mother and her child belong to blood group AB, which blood group could the father NOT belong to? A) AB C) O B) A D) Both B and C 88. A man with type O blood marries a woman heterozygous for type A blood. If they have 4 children together, how many children would be expected to have type O blood? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 89. A particular flower inherits color via incomplete dominance. A cross between a homozygous blue flower (BB) and a homozygous red flower (RR) yields 100% purple flowers. If a cross between a purple flower and a red flower is performed, what percentage of the progeny will be purple flowers? A) 0% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100% 90. A couple has two boys and two girls. If half of their sons are hemophiliacs and the father is normal, the mother must be A) B) C) D) normal a carrier a hemophiliac either a carrier or a hemophiliac 91. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait. If a man and a woman produce a son who has hemophilia, what must be true? A) B) C) D) The mother carries an allele for hemophilia. The father carries an allele for hemophilia. The mother has hemophilia. Both parents have hemophilia. 92. If a Drosophila melanogaster female who expresses a sex-linked recessive trait is mated with a wildtype D. melanogaster male, which of the following is expected to occur? A) 100% of the males will express the trait and 0% of the females will express the trait. B) 50% of the males will express the trait and 50% of the females will express the trait. C) 0% of the males will express the trait and 100% of the females will express the trait. D) 0% of the males and 0% of the females will express the trait. 93. In humans, hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait. If two parents produce a son with hemophilia, which of the following statements must be true? A) B) C) D) The mother carries the allele for hemophilia The mother has hemophilia The father carries the allele for hemophilia Both parents carry the allele for hemophilia 94. The human condition of colorblindness is A) B) C) D) more common in males expressed by a heterozygous genotype in females inherited by males from their fathers produced by a homozygous genotype in males 95. One of the main differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA is A) B) C) D) Prokaryotes do not have DNA Prokaryotic DNA can only be single stranded Prokaryotic DNA is coiled in a single ring Prokaryotic DNA cannot be cloned Answer Key Mitosis, Meiosis, Mendelian 1. 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. E 21. A 41. C 81. C 42. B 82. D 43. A 83. B 44. C 84. B 45. D 85. A 46. A 86. A 47. C 87. C 48. A 88. B 49. B 89. B 50. C 90. B 51. B 91. A 52. D 92. A 93. A 94. A 95. C 53. E 54. 55. C (essay) 56. C 57. B 58. A 59. C 60. C 61. A 62. A 22. A 63. A 23. A 64. A 24. D 65. C 25. A 66. 26. B D 27. A 67. E 28. D 29. D 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. A 34. A 35. C 36. D 37. D 38. A 39. D 40. B 68. B 69. A 70. B 71. B 72. D 73. B 74. A 75. B 76. B 77. B 78. A 79. A 80. C Answer Key Mitosis, Meiosis, Mendelian 55. a.) Mendel developed two laws: the law of segregation and the law of independent assortment. The first law states that two alleles for a trait are segregated into separate gametes. The second law states that pairs of alleles segregate independently of other pairs during gamete production. b.) When two genes are linked, which means they are located relatively close together on a single chromosome, they do not segregate. During meiosis, chromosomes separate into separate gametes, but alleles on the same chromosome have the ability to segregate as one unit. When crossing over exists, which commonly occurs, especially as the distance between two alleles increases, the alleles segregate independently, following Mendel’s principles of inheritance.