Download Quiz 1_1407 1) Catastrophism was Cuvier`s attempt to explain the

Quiz 1_1407
1) Catastrophism was Cuvier's attempt to explain the existence of _____.
A) evolution
B) the fossil record
C) uniformitarianism
D) the origin of new species
2) When Cuvier considered the fossils found in the vicinity of Paris, he concluded that the
extinction of species _____.
A) occurs, but that there is no evolution
B) and the evolution of species both occur
C) and the evolution of species do not occur
D) does not occur, but evolution does occur
3) Which pair of scientists below would probably have agreed with the process that is depicted
by this tree?
A) Cuvier and Lamarck
B) Lamarck and Wallace
C) Aristotle and Lyell
D) Wallace and Linnaeus
4) Which of these conditions are always true of populations evolving due to natural selection?
Condition 1: The population must vary in traits that are heritable.
Condition 2: Some heritable traits must increase reproductive success.
Condition 3: Individuals pass on most traits that they acquire during their lifetime.
A) Condition 1 only
B) Condition 2 only
C) Conditions 1 and 2
D) Conditions 2 and 3
5) Darwin and Wallace were the first to propose _____.
A) that evolution occurs
B) a mechanism for how evolution occurs
C) that Earth is older than a few thousand years
D) natural selection as the mechanism of evolution
6) Which of Darwin's ideas had the strongest connection to his reading of Malthus's essay on
human population growth?
A) descent with modification
B) variation among individuals in a population
C) struggle for existence
D) that the ancestors of the Galápagos finches had come from the South American mainland
7) Cotton-topped tamarins are small primates with tufts of long white hair on their heads. While
studying these creatures, you notice that males with longer hair get more opportunities to mate
and father more offspring. To test the hypothesis that having longer hair is adaptive in these
males, you should _____.
A) test whether other traits in these males are also adaptive
B) look for evidence of hair in ancestors of tamarins
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C) determine if hair length is heritable
D) test whether males with shaved heads are still able to mate
8) Given what we know about evolutionary biology, we expect to find the largest number of
endemic species in which of the following geological features, which have existed for at least a
few million years?
A) an isolated ocean island in the tropics
B) an extensive mountain range
C) a grassland in the center of a large continent, with extreme climatic conditions
D) a shallow estuary on a warm-water coast
9) Genetic variation _____.
A) is created by the direct action of natural selection
B) arises in response to changes in the environment
C) must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population
D) tends to be reduced by when diploid organisms produce gametes
10) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in homozygous recessives that causes death during the
teenage years. If 9 in 10,000 newborn babies have the disease, what are the expected frequencies
of the dominant (A1) and recessive (A2) alleles according to the Hardy-Weinberg model?
A) f(A1) = 0.9997, f(A2) = 0.0003
B) f(A1) = 0.9800, f(A2) = 0.0200
C) f(A1) = 0.9700, f(A2) = 0.0300
D) f(A1) = 0.9604, f(A2) = 0.0392
11) For biologists studying a large flatworm population in the lab, which Hardy-Weinberg
condition is most difficult to meet?
A) no selection
B) no genetic drift
C) no gene flow
D) no mutation
12) The higher the proportion of loci that are "fixed" in a population, the lower are that
population's _____.
A) nucleotide variability
B) chromosome number
C) average heterozygosity
D) nucleotide variability and average heterozygosity
13) In the formula for determining a population's genotype frequencies, the "2" in the term 2pq is
necessary because _____.
A) the population is diploid
B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways
C) the population is doubling in number
D) heterozygotes have two alleles
14) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the
frequency of allele a is 0.1. What is the frequency of individuals with AA genotype?
A) 0.20
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B) 0.32
C) 0.42
D) 0.81
15) Mutation is the only evolutionary mechanism that _____.
A) does little to change allele frequencies
B) is more important in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes
C) happens in all populations
D) has no effect on genetic variation
16) Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the
course of human evolution by increasing _____.
A) nonrandom mating
B) geographic isolation
C) genetic drift
D) gene flow
17) Currently the only predators of Galápagos marine iguanas are Galápagos hawks. Iguana body
size is not correlated with risk of hawk predation, although small iguanas can sprint faster than
large iguanas. If predators (for example, cats) that preferably catch and eat slower iguanas are
introduced to the island, iguana body size is likely to _____ in the absence of other factors; the
iguanas would then be under _____ selection.
A) increase; directional
B) increase; disruptive
C) decrease; directional
D) decrease; disruptive
18) Arrange the following in order from most general to most specific.
1 natural selection
2. microevolution
3. intrasexual selection
4. evolution
5. sexual selection
A) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
B) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
C) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
D) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
19) Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch. Starlings producing fewer or
more than this have reduced fitness. Which of the following terms best describes this situation?
A) directional selection
B) stabilizing selection
C) disruptive selection
D) sexual selection
20) A proficient engineer can easily design skeletal structures that are more functional than those
currently found in the forelimbs of such diverse mammals as horses, whales, and bats. The actual
forelimbs of these mammals do not seem to be optimally arranged because _____.
A) natural selection has not had sufficient time to create the optimal design in each case, but will
do so given enough time
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B) in many cases, phenotype is determined by genotype and the environment
C) though we may not consider the fit between the current skeletal arrangements and their
functions excellent, we should not doubt that natural selection ultimately produces the best
design
D) natural selection is generally limited to modifying structures that were present in previous
generations and in previous species
21) The approach to estimating phylogenetic trees is most like the approach of which species
concept?
A) morphological species concept
B) biological species concept
C) phylogenetic species concept
22) Which of the various species concepts distinguishes two species based on the degree of
genetic exchange between their gene pools?
A) phylogenetic
B) ecological
C) biological
D) morphological
23) Rank the following in order from most general to most specific:
1. gametic isolation
2. reproductive isolating mechanism
3. sperm-egg incompatibility in sea urchins
4. prezygotic isolating mechanism
A) 2, 3, 1, 4
B) 2, 4, 1, 3
C) 4, 1, 2, 3
D) 4, 2, 1, 3
24) The production of sterile mules by interbreeding between female horses (mares) and male
donkeys (jacks) is an example of _____.
A) reduced hybrid viability
B) hybrid breakdown
C) reduced hybrid fertility
D) mechanical isolation
25) The largest unit within which gene flow can readily occur is _____.
A) a population
B) a species
C) the entire range of a genus
D) the hybrid zone
26) Most causes of speciation are relatively slow, in that they may take many generations to see
changes, with the exception of _____.
A) polyploidy
B) reinforcement
C) colonization
D) natural selection
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27) Among known plant species, which of these have been the two most commonly occurring
phenomena that have led to the origin of new species?
A) allopatric speciation and sexual selection
B) allopatric speciation and polyploidy
C) sympatric speciation and sexual selection
D) sympatric speciation and polyploidy
28) A hybrid zone is properly defined as _____.
A) an area where the ranges of two closely related species overlap, but do not interbreed
B) an area where mating occurs between members of two closely related species, producing
viable offspring
C) a zone where sterile hybrids form, kept separate by postzygotic barriers
D) an area where members of two closely related species intermingle, but gene flow is prevented
by prezygotic barriers
29) According to the concept of punctuated equilibrium, the "sudden" appearance of a new
species in the fossil record means that _____.
A) the species is now extinct
B) speciation occurred in one generation
C) speciation occurred rapidly in geologic time
D) the species will consequently have a relatively short existence, compared with other species
30) Speciation _____.
A) occurs at such a slow pace that no one has ever observed the emergence of new species
B) occurs only by the accumulation of small genetic changes over vast expanses of time
C) must begin with the geographic isolation of a small, frontier population
D) can involve changes to a single gene
31) Which of the following is a defining characteristic that all protocells had in common?
A) the ability to synthesize enzymes
B) a surrounding membrane or membrane-like structure
C) RNA genes
D) the ability to replicate RNA
32) How were conditions on the early Earth of more than three billion years ago different from
those on today's Earth? Unlike Earth today, early Earth _____.
A) had an atmosphere rich in gases released from volcanic eruptions
B) had an oxidizing atmosphere
C) experienced little high energy radiation from the sun
D) had an atmosphere with significant quantities of ozone
33) Which of the following organisms would be most likely to fossilize?
A) a rare worm
B) a common worm
C) a rare squirrel
D) a common squirrel
34) If a fossil is encased in a stratum of sedimentary rock without any strata of volcanic rock (for
example, lava or ash) nearby, then it should be _____.
A) easy to determine the absolute age of the fossil, because the radioisotopes in the sediments
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will not have been "reset" by the heat of the igneous rocks
B) easy to determine the absolute age of the fossil, because the igneous rocks will not have
physically obstructed the deposition of sediment of a single age next to the fossil
C) difficult to determine the absolute age of the fossil, because the "marker fossils" common to
igneous rock will be absent
D) difficult to determine the absolute age of the fossil, because radiometric dating of sedimentary
rock is less accurate than that of igneous rock
35) Which of these observations gives the most support to the endosymbiotic theory for the
origin of eukaryotic cells?
A) the existence of structural and molecular differences between the plasma membranes of
prokaryotes and the internal membranes of mitochondria and chloroplasts
B) the similarity in size between the cytosolic ribosomes of prokaryotes and the ribosomes
within mitochondria and chloroplasts
C) the size disparity between most prokaryotic cells and most eukaryotic cells
D) the observation that some eukaryotic cells lack mitochondria
36) Which listing of geological periods is in the correct order, from oldest to most recent?
A) Cambrian, Devonian, Permian, Cretaceous
B) Devonian, Cambrian, Permian, Cretaceous
C) Cambrian, Permian, Devonian, Cretaceous
D) Permian, Cambrian, Cretaceous, Devonian
37) What is true of the Cambrian explosion?
A) There are fossils of animals in geological strata that are older than the Cambrian explosion.
B) Only the fossils of microorganisms are found in geological strata older than the Cambrian
explosion.
C) The Cambrian explosion is evidence for the instantaneous creation of life on Earth.
D) The Cambrian explosion marks the appearance of filter-feeding animals in the fossil record.
38) Many species of snakes lay eggs. However, in the forests of northern Minnesota, where
growing seasons are short, only live-bearing snake species are present. This trend toward species
that have live birth in a particular environment is an example of _____.
A) an exaptation
B) sexual selection
C) species selection
D) goal direction in evolution
39) The various taxonomic levels (for example, phyla, genera, classes) of the hierarchical
classification system differ from each other on the basis of _____.
A) how widely the organisms assigned to each are distributed throughout the environment
B) their inclusiveness
C) the relative genome sizes of the organisms assigned to each
D) morphological characters that are applicable to all organisms
40) If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms C,
D, and E belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following pairs of
organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?
A) A and D
B) B and D
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C) B and C
D) D and E
41) Linnaeus believed that species remained fixed in the form in which they had been created.
Linnaeus would have been uncomfortable with _____.
A) a hierarchical classification scheme
B) taxonomy
C) phylogenies
D) nested, increasingly inclusive categories of organisms
42) Some beetles and flies have antler-like structures on their heads, much like male deer do. The
existence of antlers in beetle, fly, and deer species with strong male-male competition is an
example of _____.
A) convergent evolution
B) a synapomorphy
C) homology
D) parsimony
43) The common ancestors of birds and mammals were very early (stem) reptiles, which almost
certainly possessed three-chambered hearts (two atria, one ventricle). Birds and mammals,
however, are alike in having four-chambered hearts (two atria, two ventricles). The fourchambered hearts of birds and mammals are best described as _____.
A) structural homologies
B) vestiges
C) homoplasies
D) the result of shared ancestry
44) Your professor wants you to construct a phylogenetic tree of orchids. She gives you tissue
from seven orchid species and one lily. What is the most likely reason she gave you the lily?
A) to serve as an outgroup
B) to see if the lily is a cryptic orchid species
C) to see if the lily and the orchids show all the same shared derived characters
(synapomorphies)
D) to demonstrate likely homoplasies
45) Phylogenetic trees constructed from evidence from molecular systematics are based on
similarities in _____.
A) morphology
B) the pattern of embryological development
C) biochemical pathways
D) mutations to homologous genes
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
46) To apply parsimony to constructing a phylogenetic tree, _____.
A) choose the tree that assumes all evolutionary changes are equally probable
B) choose the tree in which the branch points are based on as many shared derived characters as
possible
C) choose the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes, either in DNA sequences or
morphology
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D) choose the tree with the fewest branch points
47) Concerning growth in genome size over evolutionary time, which of these is LEAST
associated with the others?
A) orthologous genes
B) gene duplications
C) paralogous genes
D) gene families
48) A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA would be
most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of _____.
A) archaeans and bacteria
B) fungi and animals
C) chimpanzees and humans
D) sharks and dolphins
49) Neutral theory proposes that _____.
A) molecular clocks are more reliable when the surrounding pH is close to 7.0
B) most mutations of highly conserved DNA sequences should have no functional effect
C) DNA is less susceptible to mutation when it codes for amino acid sequences whose side
groups (or R-groups) have a neutral pH
D) a significant proportion of mutations are not acted upon by natural selection
50) Which eukaryotic kingdom includes members that are the result of endosymbioses that
included an ancient aerobic bacterium and an ancient cyanobacterium?
A) Plantae
B) Fungi
C) Animalia
D) Protista
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