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Transcript
Narne: ______________________ Class: __________________ Date: _________
1st Semester Practice Test
Matching
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a. distillation
d. compound
b. mass
e. element
c. chemical reaction
f. homogeneous
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
describes mixture with a uniform composition
process in which substances are changed into different substances
composed of two or more substances chemically combined in a fixed proportion
a process in which a liquid is boiled to produce a vapor that is condensed again into a liquid
substance that cannot be changed into simpler substances by chemical means
amount of matter an object contains
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a. mixture
d. reactant
b. product
e. heterogeneous mixture
c. phase
f. vapor
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
a physical blend of two or more components
starting substance in a chemical reaction
a substance formed in a chemical reaction
part of a sample having uniform composition and properties
not uniform in composition
gaseous state of substance that is a liquid or solid at room temperature
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
13. A theory is a _ _.
a. proposed explanation for an observation
b. well-tested explanation for a broad set of observations
c. summary of the results of many observations
d. procedure used to test a proposed explanation
14. Which of the following is NOT an example of matter?
a. air
c. smoke
b. heat
d. water vapor
15. An example of an extensive property of matter is _ _.
a.
b.
16. All
a.
b.
temperature
c. mass
pressure
d. hardness
of the following are physical properties of matter EXCEPT _ _.
mass
c. melting point
color
d. ability to rust
1
ID: A
Name: _____________________
ID: A
17. Which of the following is NOT a physical property of water?
a. It has a boiling point of 1000 e.
b. It is a colorless liquid.
c. It is composed of hydrogen and oxygen.
d. Sugar dissolves in it.
18. Which state of matter has a definite volume and takes the shape of its container?
a. solid
c. gas
b. liquid
d. both band c
19. Which of the following is a physical change?
a. corrosion
c. evaporation
b. explosion
d. rotting of food
20. Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?
a. vinegar in water
c. oil and vinegar
b. milk
d. air
21. Separating a solid from a liquid by evaporating the liquid is called __.
a. filtration
c. solution
b. condensation
d. distillation
22. A substance that can be separated into two or more substances only by a chemical change is a(n) __.
a. solution
c. mixture
b. element
d. compound
23. The chemical symbol for iron is __.
a. fe
c. Fe
b. FE
d. Ir
24. When an iron nail is ground into powder, its mass __.
a. stays the same
c. increases
b. decreases
d. cannot be determined
25. The expression of 5008 km in scientific notation is __.
a.
5.008 X 10 3 km
c.
5.008 X 10-3 km
b. 50.08 X 10-4 km
d. 5.008 X 10 4 km
26. Which of the following measurements is expressed to three significant figures?
a. 0.007 m
c. 7.30 X 10-7 km
b. 7077 mg
d. 0.070 mm
27. Express the sum of 7.68 m and 5.0 m using the correct number of significant digits.
a. 12.68m
c. 13m
b. 12.7m
d. 10m
28. What is the measurement 1042 L rounded off to two significant digits?
a.
1.0 X 10 3 L
c.
1050 L
b. 1040 L
d. 1.1 X 10 3 L
29. What quantity is represented by the metric system prefix deci-?
a. 1000
c. 0.1
b. 100
d. 0.0 I
30. The chief advantage of the metric system over other systems of measurement is that it __.
a. has more units
c. is in French
b. is in multiples of 10
d. is derived from nature itself
2
Name: _____________________
ID: A·
31. What is the boiling point of water in kelvins?
a. 0 K
c. 273 K
b. 100 K
d. 373 K
32. What is the temperature -34°C expressed in kelvins?
a. 139 K
c. 239 K
b. 207 K
d. 339 K
33. Density is found by dividing __.
a. mass by volume
c. mass by area
b. volume by mass
d. area by mass
34. What is the density of an object having a mass of 8.0 g and a volume of 25 cm 3 ?
a. 0.32 g/cm 3
c.
b. 2.0 g/cm 3
3.1 g/cm 3
d. 200 g/cm 3
35. As the density of a substance increases, the volume of a given mass of that substance __.
a. increases
c. decreases
b. is not affected
d. fluctuates
36. The smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element is a(n) __.
a. atom
c. proton
b. electron
d. neutron
37. The particles that are found in the nucleus of an atom are __.
a. neutrons and electrons
c. protons and neutrons
b. electrons only
d. protons and electrons
38. An element has an atomic number of 76. The number of protons and electrons in a neutral atom of the
element are
a. 152 protons and 76 electrons
c. 38 protons and 38 electrons
b. 76 protons and 0 electrons
d. 76 protons and 76 electrons
39. The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom equals the __.
a. atomic number
c. atomic mass
b. nucleus number
d. mass number
40. All atoms of the same element have the same __
a. number of neutrons
c. mass numbers
b. number of protons
d. mass
41. How many protons,. electrons, and neutrons does an atom with atomic number 50 and mass number 125
contain?
a. 50 protons, 50 electrons, 75 neutrons
c. 120 neutrons, 50 protons, 75 electrons
b. 75 electrons, 50 protons, 50 neutrons
d. 70 neutrons, 75 protons, 50 electrons
42. How does the energy of an electron change when the electron moves closer to the nucleus?
a. It decreases.
c. It stays the same.
b. It increases.
d. It doubles.
43. The principal quantum number indicates what property of an electron?
a. position
c. energy level
b. speed
d. electron cloud shape
44. What is the maximum number off orbitals in any single energy level in an atom?
a. 1
c. 5
b. 3
d. 7
3
Name: _____________________
ID: A
45. What is the maximum number of electrons in the second principal energy level?
a. 2
c. 18
b. 8
d.
32
46. The letter "p" in the symbol4p3 indicates the __.
a. spin of an electron
c. principle energy level
b. orbital shape
d. speed of an electron
47. What is the next atomic orbital in the series Is, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p?
a. 2d
c. 3f
b. 3d
d. 4s
48. According to the aufbau principle, __.
a. an orbital may be occupied by only two electrons
b. electrons in the same orbital must have opposite spins
c. electrons enter orbitals of highest energy first
d. electrons enter orbitals of lowest energy first
49. What is the number of electrons in the outermost energy level of an oxygen atom?
a. 2
c. 6
b. 4
d. 8
50. If three electrons are available to fill three empty 2p atomic orbitals, how will the electrons be distributed in
the three orbitals?
a. one electron in each orbital
b. two electrons in one orbital, one in another, none in the third
c. three in one orbital, none in the other two
d. Three electrons cannot fill three empty 2p atomic orbitals.
51. What is the basis for exceptions to the aufbau diagram?
a. Filled and half-filled energy sublevels are more stable than partially-filled energy sublevels. b. Electron configurations are only probable.
c. Electron spins are more important than energy levels in determining electron configuration. d. Some elements have unusual atomic orbitals.
52. Which of the following electron configurations of outer sublevels is the most stable?
a. 4d 5 5s I
C.
4d 3 5s 3
d. 4d 2 5s 4
53. Which type of electromagnetic radiation includes the wavelength 10-7 m?
a. gamma ray
c. radio wave
b. microwave
d. visible light
54. How are the frequency and wavelength of light related?
a. They are inversely proportional to each other.
b. Frequency equals wavelength divided by the speed of light.
c. Wavelength is determined by dividing frequency by the speed of light.
d. They are directly proportional to each other.
55. The light given off by an electric discharge through sodium vapor is __.
a. a continuous spectrum
c. of a single wavelength
b. an emission spectrum
d. white light
4
Name: _____________________
ID: A
56. What is the approximate energy of a photon having a frequency of 4 X 10 7 Hz? (h
a. 3 X 10-26 J
c. 2 X 10-41 J
b. 3 X 10-27 J
d. 3 X 10 42 J
= 6.6 X 10-34 J·S)
57. What are quanta of light called?
c. muons
a. charms
b. excitons
d. photons
58. Which scientist developed the quantum mechanical model of the atom?
a. Albert Einstein
c. Niels Bohr
b. Erwin Schrodinger
d. Ernest Rutherford
59. According to the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, if the position of a moving particle is known, what other
quantity CANNOT be known?
a. mass
c. spin
b. charge
d. velocity
60. Which of the following elements is in the same period as phosphorus?
a. carbon
c. nitrogen
b. magnesium
d. oxygen
61. Each period in the periodic table corresponds to __.
a. a principal energy level
c. an orbital
b. an energy sublevel
d. a suborbital
62. The modern periodic table is arranged in order of increasing atomic __.
a. mass
c. number
b. charge
d. radius
63. To what category of elements does an element belong if it is a poor conductor of electricity?
a. transition elements
c. nonmetals
b. metalloids
d. metals
64. What element has the electron configuration ls22s22p 6 3i3p2?
a. nitrogen
c. silicon
b. selenium
d. silver
65. Elements that are characterized by the filling of p orbitals are classified as __.
a. groups 3A through 8A
c. inner transition metals
b. transition metals
d. groups 1A and 2A
66. Which subatomic particle plays the greatest part in determining the properties of an element?
a. proton
c. neutron
b. electron
d. none of the above
67. How does atomic radius change from top to bottom in a group in the periodic table?
a. It tends to decrease.
c. It first increases, then decreases.
b. It tends to increase.
d. It first decreases, then increases.
68. What is the charge of a cation?
a. a positive charge
b. no charge
c. a negative charge
d. The charge depends on the size of the nucleus.
5
Name: ID:A
69. Which of the following statements is true about ions?
a. Cations form when an atom gains electrons.
b. Cations form when an atom loses electrons.
c. Anions form when an atom gains protons.
d. Anions form when an atom loses protons.
70. In which of the following groups of ions are the charges all shown correctly?
a. Li -, 0 2-, S2+
c. K2-, F -, Mg2+
2
b. Ca +, AP+, Br d. Na+, I·, Rb­
71. What is the element with the highest electronegativity value?
a. cesium
c. calcium
b. helium
d. fluorine
72. What is the energy required to remove an electron from an atom in the gaseous state called?
a. nuclear energy
c. shielding energy
b. ionization energy
d. electronegative energy
73. What type of ions have names ending in -ide?
a. only cations
c. only metal ions
b. only anions
d. only gaseous ions
74. When Group 2A elements form ions, they __.
a. lose two protons
c. lose two electrons
b. gain two protons
d. gain two electrons
75. When naming a transition metal ion that can have more than one common ionic charge, the numerical value
of the charge is indicated by a __.
a. prefix
c. Roman numeral following the name
b. suffix
d. superscript after the name
76. In which of the following are the symbol and name for the ion given correctly?
a. Fe 2+: ferrous ion; Fe3+: ferric ion
b. Sn 2+: stannic ion; Sn 4+: stannous ion
c. C02+: cobalt(II) ion; C03+: cobaltous ion
d. Pb 2+: lead ion; Pb4+: lead(lV) ion
77. The nonmetals in Groups 6A and 7A _ _.
a. lose electrons when they form ions
b. have a numerical charge that is found by subtracting 8 from the group number
c. all have ions with a -1 charge
d. end in -ate
78. What is the Stock name for chromic ion?
a. chromium(l) ion
c. chromium(III) ion
b. chromium(II) ion
d. chromium(lV) ion
79. Which of the following is NOT a cation?
c. Ca2+
a. iron(III) ion
b. sulfate
d. mercurous ion
80. In which of the following are the symbol and name for the ion given correctly?
a. NH4 +: ammonia; H+: hydride
c. OH - : hydroxide; 0 2-: oxide
b. C 2H 3O 2 - : acetate; C 2 0 4 - : oxalite
d. P0 33-: phosphate; PO 4 3- : phosphite
6
Name: ID: A
81. Which of the following compounds contains the Mn 3+ ion?
a. MnS
c. Mn 20 3
b. MnBr2
d.
MnO
82. How are chemical formulas of binary ionic compounds generally written?
a. cation on left, anion on right
b. anion on left, cation on right
c. Roman numeral first, then anion, then cation
d. subscripts first, then ions
83. Which of the following correctly represents an ion pair and the ionic compound the ions form?
a. Ca2., F· ; CaF2
c. Ba2+, 0 2-; Ba 20 2
b. Na+, Cl·; NaCl 2
d.
Pb4 +, 0 2.; Pb 20
4
84. In which of the following is the name and formula given correctly?
a. sodium oxide, NaO
c. cobaltous chloride, CoCl 3
b. barium nitride, BaN
d.
stannic fluoride, SnF 4
85. Which set of chemical name and chemical formula for the same compound is correct?
a. iron(II) oxide, Fe 20 3
c. tin(IV) bromide, SnBr 4
b. aluminum fluorate, AlF)
d.
potassium chloride, K 2Cl 2
c.
d.
polyatomic ionic
binary molecular
c.
d.
binary compound
polyatomic compound
86. What type of compound is CuS0 4 ?
a. monotomic ionic
b. polyatomic covalent
87. Sulfur hexafluoride is an example of a _ _.
a. monatomic ion
b. polyatomic ion
88. Molecular compounds are usually _ _.
a. composed of two or more transition elements
b. composed of positive and negative ions
c. composed of two or more nonmetallic elements
d. exceptions to the law of definite proportions
89. Binary molecular compounds are made of two _ _.
a. metallic elements
c. polyatomic ions
b. nonmetallic elements
d. cations
90. In naming a binary molecular compound, the number of atoms of each element present in the molecule is
indicated by _ _.
a. Roman numerals
c. prefixes
b. superscripts
d. suffixes
91. Which of the following formulas represents a molecular compound?
a. ZnO
c. S02
b. Xe
d.
92. When dissolved in water, acids produce _ _.
c.
a. negative ions
d.
b. polyatomic ions
7
BeF2
hydrogen ions
oxide ions
Name: ______________________
ID: A
93. When naming acids, the prefix hydro- is used when the name of the acid anion ends in __.
a. -ide c. -ate
b. -ite d. -ic
94. When the name of an anion that is part of an acid ends in -ite, the acid name includes the suffix __ .
a. -ous
c. -ate
b. -ic
d. -ite
95. A compound is
a. a pure substance that cannot be broken down into simpler, stable substances.
b. a substance, made of two or more atoms that are chemically bonded, that can be broken
down into simpler, stable substances.
c. the smallest unit of matter that maintains its chemical identity.
d. any substance, whether it is chemically bonded or not.
96. Noble gases are in Group 18, and are best known because they are
a. unreactive.
c. rare.
b. excellent conductors.
d. lanthanides.
97. Nitrogen monoxide and oxygen, both colorless gases, form a red-brown gas when mixed. Nitrogen monoxide
and oxygen are called the
a. products.
c. synthetics.
b. equilibria.
d. reactants.
98. The liquid state of matter can be described as
a. having definite shape and definite volume.
b. having neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.
c. having lost electrons owing to energy content.
d. having a definite volume but not a definite shape.
99. The vertical columns on the periodic table are called
a. periods.
c. groups.
b. rows.
d. elements.
100. The horizontal rows on the periodic table are called
a. actinides.
c.
b. families.
d.
101. A nonmetal is usually
a. brittle.
c.
d.
b. malleable.
elements.
periods.
a good conductor.
used to make jewelry.
102. A statement that can be tested experimentally is a
c.
a. variable.
d.
b. model.
103. All of the following are examples of units except
c.
a. mass.
d.
b. kilometer.
104. The SI base units for length and time are
c.
a. centimeter and second.
d.
b. meter and hour.
centimeter and hour.
meter and second.
105. The symbol mm represents
a. micrometer.
b. millimeter.
milliliter.
meter.
c.
d.
8
generalization.
hypothesis.
gram.
ounce.
Name: _____________________
106. The unit m 3 measures
a. length.
b. area.
ID: A
c.
d.
107. A volume of 1 milliliter is equivalent to
a. 1 cubic centimeter.
b. 1 gram.
c.
d.
108. Which of these is a measure of Earth's gravitational
a. density c.
b. weight d.
109. The number of grams equal to 0.5 kg is
a. 0.0005. b. 0.005. 110. How many minutes are in 1 week?
a. 168 min b. 1440 min c.
d.
volume.
time.
1 liter.
10- 1 cubic decimeters.
pull on matter?
volume
mass
500.
5000.
c. 10080 min
d. 100 800 min
111. The measurement 0.035550 g rounded off to two significant figures would be
a. 0.03 g. c. 0.036 g.
b. 0.35 g. d. 3.5 x 102 g.
112. The number of significant figures in the measurement 2010 cm is
a. 1. c. 3.
b. 2. d. 4.
113. The product of 13 cm and 5.7 cm is correctly reported as
a. 74 cm2• c. 74.1 cm 2•
b. 74.0 cm 2 • d. 75 cm2 •
114. How many significant figures would the answer to the following calculation have?
3.475 x 1.97 + 2.4712 is
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5
115. According to the law of conservation of mass, when sodium, hydrogen, and oxygen react to form a
compound, the mass of the compound is __ the sum of the masses of the individual elements.
a. equal to c. less than
d. either greater than or less than
b. greater than 116. A nuclear particle that has about the same mass as a proton, but with no electrical charge, is called a(n)
a. nuclide. c. electron.
b. neutron. d. isotope.
117. An atom is electrically neutral because
a. neutrons balance the protons and electrons.
b. nuclear forces stabilize the charges.
c. the numbers of protons and electrons are equal.
d. the numbers of protons and neutrons are equal.
118. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different
a. principal chemical properties.
c. numbers of protons.
b. masses. d. numbers of electrons.
9
Name: ______________________
ID: A
119. The tritium atom consists of
a. one proton, two neutrons, and two electrons.
b. one proton, one neutron, and one electron.
c. one proton, two neutrons, and one electron.
d. two protons, one neutron, and one electron.
120. How many isotopes of hydrogen are known?
c. 3
a. 1 b. 2 d. 4
121. The atomic number of oxygen, 8, indicates that there are eight
a. protons in the nucleus of an oxygen atom.
b. oxygen nuclides.
c. neutrons outside the oxygen atom's nucleus.
d. energy levels in the oxygen atom's nucleus.
122. In determining the atomic mass of elements, the standard is the
a. C-12 atom. c. H-l atom.
b. C-14 atom. d. 0-16 atom.
123. An aluminum isotope consists of 13 protons, 13 electrons, and 14 neutrons. Its mass number is
~
13.
c. 27.
b. 14. d. 40.
124. Carbon-14 (atomic number 6), the radioactive nuclide used in dating fossils, has
a. 6 neutrons. c. 10 neutrons.
b. 8 neutrons. d. 14 neutrons.
125. For electromagnetic radiation, c (the speed of light) equals
a. frequency minus wavelength.
c. frequency divided by wavelength.
b. frequency plus wavelength.
d. frequency times wavelength.
126. The frequency of electromagnetic radiation is measured in waves/second, or
a. nanometers. c. hertz.
b. quanta. d. joules.
127. The distance between two successive peaks on adjacent waves is its
a. frequency. c. quantum number.
b. wavelength. d. velocity.
128. If electrons in an atom have the lowest possible energies, the atom is in the
a. ground state. c. excited state.
b. inert state. d. radiation-emitting state.
129. The region outside the nucleus where an electron can most probably be found is the
a. electron configuration. c. s sublevel.
b. quantum. d. electron cloud.
130. The quantum number that indicates the position of an orbital about the three axes in space is the
a. principal quantum number.
b. angular momentum quantum number.
c. magnetic quantum number.
d. spin quantum number.
10 Name: ID: A
131. The spin quantum number of an electron can be thought of as describing
a. the direction of electron spin.
b. whether the electron's charge is positive or negative.
c. the electron's exact location in orbit.
d. the number of revolutions the electron makes about the nucleus per second.
132. The set of orbitals that are dumbbell shaped and directed along the x, y, and z axes are called
a. d orbitals. c. f orbitals.
b. p orbitals. d. s orbitals.
133. How many electrons can occupy the s orbitals at each energy level?
a. two, if they have opposite spins
b. two, if they have the same spin
c. one
d. no more than eight
134. Which of the following lists atomic orbitals in the correct order they are filled according to the Aufbau
principle?
a. Is 2s 2p 3s 4s 3p 3d 4p 5s
b. Is 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 4p 5s
c. Is 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 4p 3d 4d
d. Is 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p 5s
135. In the ground state, the 3d and 4s sublevels of the chromium atom (atomic number 24) are represented as
a. 3d6 4s 1• c. 3d5 4s 1•
b. 3d4 4s 2 • d. 4s2 3d4 •
136. The idea of arranging the elements in the periodic table according to their chemical and physical properties is
attributed to
a. Mendeleev. c. Bohr.
b. Moseley. d. Ramsay.
137. Evidence gathered since Mendeleev's time indicates that a better arrangement than atomic mass for elements
in the periodic table is an arrangement by
a. mass number. c. group number.
b. atomic number. d. series number.
138. What are the radioactive elements with atomic numbers from 90 to 103 called?
a. the noble gases c. the actinides
b. the lanthanides d. the rare-earth elements
139. The periodic law states that the physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their
atomic
a. masses. c. radii.
b. numbers. d. charges.
140. Elements in a group or column in the periodic table can be expected to have similar
a. atomic masses. c. numbers of neutrons.
b. atomic numbers. d. properties.
141. Bromine, atomic number 35, belongs to Group 17. How many electrons does bromine have in its outermost
energy level?
a. 7 c. 18
b. 17 d. 35
142. The elements in Group I are also known as the
a. alkali metals. c. Period 1 elements.
b. rare-earth series. d. actinide series.
11 Name:
ID: A
143. Which block in the periodic table contains the alkali metals?
a. s
c. d
b. p
d. f
144. The first member of the noble gas family, whose highest energy level consists of an octet of electrons, is
a. helium.
c. neon.
b. argon.
d. krypton.
145. A negative ion is known as a(n)
a. ionic radius.
c. cation.
b. valence electron.
d. amon.
146. In a row in the periodic table, as the atomic number increases, the atomic radius generally
a. decreases.
c. increases.
b. remains constant.
d. becomes immeasurable.
147. Within a group of elements, as the atomic number increases, the atomic radius
a. increases.
b. remains approximately constant.
c. decreases regularly.
d. varies unpredictably.
148. The electrons involved in the formation of a chemical bond are called
a. dipoles.
c. Lewis electrons.
b. s electrons.
d. valence electrons.
149. When atoms share electrons, the electrical attraction of an atom for the shared electrons is called the atom's
a. electron affinity.
c. resonance.
b. electronegativity.
d. hybridization.
150. If the atoms that share electrons have an unequal attraction for the electrons, the bond is called
a. nonpolar.
c. ionic.
b. polar.
d. dipolar.
151. The B-F bond in BF3 (electronegativity for B is 2.0; electronegativity for F is 4.0) is
a. polar covalent.
c. nonpolar covalent.
b. ionic.
d. metallic.
152. The percentage ionic character and the type of bond in Br2 (electronegativity for Br is 2.8) is
a. 0%; nonpolar covalent.
c. 0%; pure ionic.
b. 100%; polar covalent.
d. 100%; pure ionic.
153. Which of the following is not an example of a molecular formula?
a. H 20
c. NH3
b. B
d. O2
154. In a molecule of fluorine, the two shared electrons give each fluorine atom how many electron(s) in the outer
energy level?
a. 1
c. 8
b. 2
d. 32
155. A chemical formula includes the symbols of the elements in the compound and subscripts that indicate
a. atomic mass of each element.
b. number of atoms or ions of each element that are combined in the compound.
c. formula mass.
d. charges on the elements or ions.
12 Name: _____________________
ID: A
156. The formula for carbon dioxide, CO2, can represent
a. one molecule of carbon dioxide.
b. 1 mol of carbon dioxide molecules.
c. the combination of 1 atom of carbon and 2 atoms of oxygen.
d. all of the above.
157. What is the formula for zinc fluoride?
a. ZnF
158. What is the formula for the compound formed by calcium ions and chloride ions?
a. CaCl
c. CaCh
b. Ca2Cl
d. CaCb
159. What is the formula for the compound formed by lead(II) ions and chromate ions?
a. PbCr04
c. Pb2(Cr04)3
b. Pb2Cr04
d. Pb(Cr04)2
160. What is the formula for aluminum sulfate?
a. AlS04
b. AbS04
c.
d.
Ab(S04)3
Al(S04h
161. Name the compound Zn3(P04h.
a. zinc potassium oxide
b. trizinc polyoxide
c.
d.
zinc phosphate
zinc phosphite
162. Name the compound KCl0 3.
a. potassium chloride
b. potassium trioxychlorite
c.
d.
potassium chlorate
hypochlorite
163. Name the compound CF4.
a. calcium fluoride
b. carbon fluoride
c.
d.
carbon tetrafluoride
monocalcium quadrafluoride
164. Name the compound N20 3.
a. dinitrogen oxide
b. nitrogen trioxide
c.
d.
nitric oxide
dinitrogen trioxide
165. What is the formula for hydrochloric acid?
a. HF
b. HCl
c.
d.
HClO
H 2C0 3
166. What is the oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds?
a. -8
c. 0
b. -2
d. +1
167. What is the oxidation number of a pure element?
a. -1
c.
b. 0
d.
168. In a compound, the algebraic sum of the oxidation
a. O.
c.
b. 1.
d.
+1
8
numbers of all atoms equals
8.
the charge on the compound.
169. What is the oxidation number of hydrogen in KH?
a. -1
c. +1
b. 0
d. +2
13 Name: ID: A
170. Name the compound S02 using the Stock system.
a. sulfur(II) oxide c.
b. sulfur(IV) oxide d.
sulfur dioxide
sulfur oxide
171. What is the sum of the atomic masses of all the atoms in a formula for a compound?
a. molecular mass c. atomic mass
b. formula mass d. actual mass
172. A formula that shows the simplest whole-number ratio of the atoms in a compound is the
a. molecular formula. c. experimental formula.
b. ideal formula. d. empirical formula.
173. The empirical formula is always the accepted formula for a(n)
a. atom. c. molecular compound.
b. molecule. d. ionic compound.
174. When a solid produced by a chemical reaction separates from the solution it is called
a. a precipitate. c. a molecule.
b. a reactant. d. the mass of the product.
175. In writing a chemical equation that produces hydrogen gas, the correct representation of hydrogen gas is
a. H. c. H 2•
b.
2H. d.
OR.
176. What is the small whole number that appears in front of a formula in a chemical equation?
a. a subscript c. a ratio
b. a superscript d. a coefficient
177. In the word equation, sodium oxide + water ~ sodium hydroxide, the formula for sodium hydroxide is represented by a. Na20H. c.
b.
NaOR. d.
178. How would oxygen be represented in the formula equation for the reaction of methane and oxygen to yield
carbon dioxide and water?
a. oxygen c. O 2
b. 0 d. 0 3
179. In an equation, the symbol for a substance in water solution is followed by
a. (1). c. (aq).
b. (g). d. (s).
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