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Immunology Exam + Key Answers Below 1. Memory T cells tend to extravasate to sites of former infection. This movement is most likely directed by _________. A. B. C. D. E. antibodies inflammatory cytokines cell adhesion molecules signaling via class I and II MHC mast cells, which weaken local connections between endothelial cells 2. The HEV, a specific phenotype of the lining of the blood vessels, is used to direct ______ into secondary lymphoid tissue. A. B. C. D. E. macrophages and monocytes B and T cells basophils and eosinophils sentinel dendritic cells neutrophils 3. Which of the following does NOT promote an inflammatory response? A. B. C. D. E. necrotic (as opposed to apoptotic) tissue fibrinopeptides released from a blood clot prostaglandins and arachandoic acid TNFα, IFNγ and IL-6 prednisone and ibuprofen 4. NKT cells resemble TH cells in that they ________ and NK cells in that they ______. A. B. C. D. recognize peptide epitopes; recognize peptide epitopes; use CD4; use CD4; arise in the bone marrow have CD16, the antibody Fc receptor arise in the bone marrow have CD16, the antibody Fc receptor 5. This drawing (figure 13.5b) shows chemokine binding, leading a conformation change in ______. A. B. C. D. integrin mucin immunoglobulin CAM selectin 6. Scientists develop a number of mutant lines of mice with defective CTLs. Which of these will be able to kill viral-infected cells? A. B. C. D. E. cells with non-functioning perforin genes cells with non-functioning FAS-ligand genes cells with non-functioning versions of both perforin and FAS-ligand genes A and B will both be able to kill cells. None of these cells will be able to kill cells. 7. Both NK cells and macrophages recognize and destroy self cells by recognizing ______. A. B. C. D. E. foreign antigen on MHC I foreign antigen on MHC II abnormally low levels of MHC I antibodies bound to the surface of a cell complement bound to the surface of a cell 8. People with Di George Syndrome and nude mice share a genetic defect resulting in no thymus. What additional characteristic is common to both syndromes? A. B. C. D. E. Both result from a defective X-linked recessive. Both result from an autosomal dominant deletion. Both result in the affected individual being bald or lacking fur. Both leave the organism particularly vulnerable to extracellular bacteria. Both interfere with development of neural crest-derived structures. 9. Both Type II and Type III hypersensitivity reactions typically involve ______ antibodies. A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgD E. IgE 10. Type II and Type III hypersensitivity reactions are similar in that NEITHER reaction ______. A. B. C. D. involves attack by TC cells takes place within 30 minutes after exposure to antigen is likely to result in kidney damage can be evoked by exposure to a pathogen 11. Type II hypersensitivity differs from Type III in that ________. A. mast cells trigger II, neutrophils trigger III B. in II phagocytes attack cells with surface antibody, in III they engulf immune complexes C. penicillin has not been identified as a trigger of II, but it does trigger III D. II puts a person at risk for kidney damage, III does not E. Type II is a runaway TH2 response, Type III is a runaway TH1 response. 12. Allergists sometimes treat patients by injecting them with the very allergen they are sensitive to. Why? A. If the allergen is present in high enough titers, it may be mistaken for a self protein and ignored. B. The allergen may trigger the production of IgG, and thus prevent IgE-triggered responses. C. An injection into muscle will divert the immune response from the upper respiratory tract. D. This prevents the allergen from denaturing as it crosses an epithelial barrier. E. These guys are quacks and will try anything if they can get money for it. 13. Degranulation of mast cells is most directly triggered by ________. A. B. C. D. activation of toll-like receptors calcium entrance into the cell histamine stimulation IgE binding to the Fc receptor 14. Exposure to dogs and sheep is most likely to prevent _______. A. B. C. D. E. malignancy multiple sclerosis transplant rejection excess activity of Treg cells asthma 15. The inflammation that results from a mosquito bite is different from the inflammation that results from a positive TB skin test in that the reaction to the mosquito bite _________. A. B. C. D. does not require prior sensitization takes more time to appear results primarily from antibody-antigen interactions involves basophils, mast cells and TC cells 16. TDTH cells are a subset of _______ T cells A. TH1 B. TH2 C. TC D. γδ E. Treg 17. When considering rejection of tissue transplants, a “second set,” or hyperacute, response differs from a first set response in that it involves __________. A. a larger number of immune cells, brought in by rapid vascularization of the graft B. tissue damage brought about by activated CTLs C. antibodies, which mark the tissue for ADCC D. coordination of the response by TDTH cells E. recognition of foreign MHC I and II 18. Which of the following disease agents typically does NOT multiply in the host? A. B. C. D. E. Trichophytan tonsurans (ringworm) SARS (corona virus) Schistoma mansoni (Platyhelminth) Plasmodium falciparum (malaria) All of these typically multiply in the host. 19. Fungal infections tend to be limited to superficial layers of the skin because ___. A. B. C. D. they require some exposure to sunlight in order to grow their preferred food source is dead skin cells they grow better at cooler temperatures they can avoid exposure to cells with innate pattern receptors 20. Most people contract tuberculosis from/by ________. A. airborne entry into the lungs B. sewage contamination C. insect vectors D. personal contact, including sexual intercourse E. contaminated surfaces, by hand to eye or nose contact 21. CCL5 promotes resistance to and recovery from ________ disease by promoting ________ in/of macrophages. A. B. C. D. viral; viral; bacterial; bacterial; phagocytosis survival phagocytosis survival 22. Malaria has applied strong selective pressures on human populations. Humans are undergoing natural selection of versions of the gene for _______, which prevents us from contracting malaria. A. B. C. D. E. DDT glycophorin C hemoglobin granulolysin class M antibody 23. Which disease agent has hundreds of genes for different forms of surface coat proteins, allowing it to change surface antigen without evolving? A. B. C. D. E. trypanosomes tapeworms yeast influenza virus diphtheria bacteria 24. Lapses in previously successful immunization programs have led to a reemergence of ________ as a serious public health hazard. A. B. C. D. E. influenza diphtheria tuberculosis malaria SARS 25. In which of the following situations can you transplant tissue from a blood type A individual into a blood type O recipient? A. When the recipient is a young infant B. When the donor has Di George Syndrome C. When donor and recipient are perfect matches for all classical MHC I and II alleles D. When the recipient is completely immune-suppressed E. This is not something you can ever do successfully. 26. The current standard of pediatric care in the US includes the use of Salk polio vaccine and not Sabine. Why? Salk is ________. A. B. C. D. E. more able to produce a lasting immunity a product of American technology does not have to be injected cheaper to produce safer MHC allele Recipient Donor 1 Donor 2 Donor 3 Ib Ih Ip Iv Iz II3 II7 II11 II15 The above diagram shows the partial results of tissue typing of a patient needing a transplant and three possible donors who may be able to provide tissue or organs to the patient. Darkened circles indicate a positive reaction to antibodies for the particular allele of either class I or class II MHC; open circles indicate no reaction. For questions 27 through 29, use the following choices: A. B. C. D. E. Donor 1 Donor 2 Donor 3 Any of these donors None of these donors 27. Which is the best donor to use for a corneal transplant? 28. Which is the best donor to use for a kidney transplant? 29. Which is the best donor to use for a bone marrow transplant? 30. Passive and active immunity are similar in that they BOTH ______. A. B. C. D. E. result in the production of memory cells that recognize the pathogenic antigen take about two weeks after treatment to become effective involve recognition of a pathogenic antigen by antibodies can result in a patient getting serum sickness are principally innate responses 31. Passive and active immunity differ in that ONLY the passive _______. A. B. C. D. E. results from supplying the patient with antibodies from another organism risks making the patient sick from a reaction to the therapy uses immune elements that are part of the adaptive response defends the patient with a primarily cellular response provides protection that will last a year or more 32. In which of the following situations would you be most likely to perform a mixed lymphocyte reaction? A. Prior to transplanting a kidney from one identical twin into another B. Prior to transplanting bone marrow from one sibling into another sibling with a different MHC haplotype C. Prior to transplanting a liver from a cadaver into a patient with a similar, but not identical, haplotype D. Prior to transplanting skin from one area to a patient to a region that had been severely burned 33. Inoculation with FluMist is unlikely to lead to a severe reaction because _______. A. B. C. D. The virus only grows in the cooler temperatures of the upper respiratory tract. The virus can only mount an effective infection on duck or chicken cells. FluMist is a killed vaccine, and cannot multiply in the host. The virus has been adapted to grow in a medium containing bile and will not grow well without it. E. The vaccine does not contain an adjuvant. 34. What advantage does a conjugate vaccine have over traditional (killed or attenuated pathogen) vaccines? A. It can be used in immune suppressed patients. B. It can activate TH cells against bacterial polysaccharides. C. It can activate B cells to produce antibodies to bacterial polysaccharides. D. It can enter they cytoplasm directly, quickly activating TC cells. E. It produces a much faster response. 35. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a DNA vaccine over traditional (killed or attenuated pathogen) vaccines? A. B. C. D. E. 1C 2B 3E 4D 5A 6D 7D 8E 9C 10A 11B 12B 13B 14E 15C 16A 17C 18C 19D 20A 21B 22B 23A 24B 25A 26E 27D 28B 29E 30C 31A 32C 33A 34B 35D Need not be refrigerated. Can carry instructions to produce antigens from more than one pathogen. Delivered via “gene gun:” efficient delivery system. Provides a stronger immune response in humans than most vaccines. Can immunize a patient without exposing them to an entire deadly pathogen.