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BI 200 - Exam #2 Fall 2002 Name Lab Section. Seat# Disclaimer Consider each question, and answer each in the appropriate format (e.g., multiple choice). You may qualify your answer if you have reservations. If your comments have merit, you may receive partial or full credit. Questions are 1 point each unless indicated. Multiple Choice - 2 points each 1. Which of these is a macromolecule? a. cysteine b. glycogen c. nitrogen d. all of the above e. none of the above 2. Which of these is a macronutrient? a. cysteine b. glycogen c. nitrogen d. all of the above e. none of the above 3. What is the oxidation number of the phosphorous atom in phosphoric acid, H3PO4? a. -5 b. -2 c. 0 d. +2 e. +5 4. What is the oxidation number of the carbon atoms in acetaldehyde, CH3CHO? a. -1 b. -1/2 c. 0 d. +1/2 e. +1 5. The tetrapyrole porphoryn group of a cytochrome would best be characterized as a. cofactor b. trace element c. prosthetic group d. micronutrient e. Vitamin C 6. Which of the following statements is (are) true? a. Fimbriae are generally longer than pili b. Fimbriae are not made of protein c. Fimbriae function in surface adhesion d. all of the above 7. Glycogen granules a. are derived directly from PHB b. function as a storage depot for carbon and energy c. are made of protein d. help bacteria evade the immune system 8. Endospores are a. bacterial reproductive structures b. metabolically inactive c. sensitive to temperature d. all of the above 9. A major function of prokaryotic gas vesicles is a. to provide buoyancy for the organism b. to serve as a reservoir for oxygen and carbon dioxide gas c. promote conjugation between male and female bacteria d. help bacteria evade the immune system 10. Which of the following are composed of protein? a. PHB b. S-layer c. sulfur granules d. magnetosomes 11. Biosynthesis of new cell material is called a. metabolism b. anabolism c. catabolism d. synthatabolism 12. In an electron carrier system, the net energy change is determined by the difference in reduction potentials between the a. primary electron donor and the terminal electron donor b. primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron donor c. primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron donor a. primary electron donor and the terminal electron acceptor 13. NADH is the most important _________ carrying molecule in the cell, while _______ is the most important energy high energy phosphate compound in living organisms a. carbon ; CoA b. electron ; ATP c. energy; glucose d. none of the above is correct 14. The oxidation of the six carbon atoms in glucose, C6H12O6, to 6 CO2 involves the transfer of _____ electrons to 6 O2. a. 0 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24 15. The portion of the enzyme to which substrates bind is referred to as the __________, and the enzyme will ________ the activation energy required to make the reaction proceed. a. active site; raise b. active site; lower c. active site; not change d. none of the above, the change in activation energy is not predictable 16. Which best describes the reason that fermenting organisms carry out reactions which reduce pyruvate? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Pyruvate is toxic to cells. ATP is synthesized in the reductive stage III Oxygen must be consumed in fermentation It is an unregulated reaction of no value. Cells must regenerate oxidized NAD. 17. Which of the following is not a high-energy intermediate of glycolysis? a. b. c. d. e. phophoenolpyruvate 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate succinyl-CoA all of the above – none occur in glycolysis a, b,c – none are high energy intermediates 18. The net ATP production during glycolysis is a. 0 b. 4 c. 2 d. 36-38 19. Regarding the fermentation of sugars like glucose or lactose to lactic acid, which statement is not true? a. The process is involved in the production of dairy products like cheese and yogurt b. The unique enzyme is lactate dehydrogenase c. It can be carried out by yeast like Saccharomyces cerevisiae d. none of the above, all are true 20. Which of the following fermentation products contains substantial chemical bond energy? a. H2 b. ethanol c. lactate d. all of the above 21. During aerobic respiration oxygen is consumed during a. glycolysis b. the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) c. electron transport phosphorylation – electron transport chain plus ATPase d. all of the above e. none of the above 22. During aerobic respiration ATP is produced during a. glycolysis b. the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) c. electron transport phosphorylation – electron transport chain plus ATPase d. all of the above e. none of the above 23. In eukaryotic mitochondria enzymes of the Krebs cycle are found in the _________ and components of the electron transport chain are associated with the ____________. a. cristae; matrix b. cytoplasm; cristae c. matrix; cristae d. none of the above – eukaryotes don’t have mitochondria 24. In chemiosmosis (the generation of a proton gradient) a. OH- accumulates on the outside of the membrane while H+ accumulates b. the pH of the cytoplasm goes down c. the inside of the cell becomes negative relative to the outside d. ATP is formed by substrate level phosphorylation 25. Which of the following bacteria is not an obligate aerobe? a. Pseudomonas b. Paracoccus c. Alcaligenes d. Escherichia 26. Which of the following would not be involved with electron transport phosphorylation? a. a membrane b. ATPase c. phosphoenolpyruvate d. cytochrome e. an external electron acceptor 27. Most chemolithotrophs are a. phototrophs b. eukaryotes c. heterotrophs d. autotrophs 28. For a carbon source, chemoorganotrophs generally use such compounds as a. carbon dioxide c. glucose c. sunlight d. H2S 29. Which do fermentation and aerobic respiration have in common? a. Glycolysis b. Citric acid cycle c. Electron transport d. ATPase 30. An organism which uses CO2 as carbon source is most properly termed (a) a heterotroph (b) a chemoorganotroph (c) a lithotroph (d) an autotroph (e) a chemotroph 31. Anaerobic respiratory bacteria differ from humans and other aerobic respiratory organisms a. b. c. d. in their substrate oxidizing pathways in their electron transport chains because they don’t form proton gradients because they don’t contain the enzyme ATPase 32. Cofactor F420 occurs in a. fermentative yeast b. fluorescent methanogens c. denitrifying bacteria d. iron-oxidizing bacteria 33. The following carry out the detrimental activity where nitrate is depleted from soil a. denitrifying bacteria b. nitrogen-fixing bacteria c. nitrifying bacteria d. enteric bacteria 34. Acetogens and methanogens are a. strict aerobes b. strict anaerobes c. facultative anaerobes d. obligate aerobes 35. Which of the following is a sulfate reducing bacterium a. Desulfovibrio b. Thiobacillus c. Beggiatoa d. Sulfolobus e. all of the above 36. Rusticyanin occurs in a. fermentative yeast b. fluorescent methanogens c. denitrifying bacteria d. iron-oxidizing bacteria 37. Lithotrophic bacteria differ from humans and other aerobic respiratory organisms a. in their substrate oxidizing pathways b. in their electron transport chains c. because they don’t form proton gradients d. because they don’t contain the enzyme ATPase 38. In most cases the final product of sulfur oxidation is a. H2S b. H2SO4 c. S d. could be any of these 39. The enzyme ammonium monooxygenase would be found in a. Pseudomonas b. Escherichia c. Azotobacter d. Nitrosomonas e. Nitrobacter 40. 2 free points Matching. Place the name of one of the microbes on the right that fits the description on the left. You may use a name more than once, but place only one answer in each – no multiple guesses. 41. _____________________________ Any spore forming bacteria 42. _____________________________ Any obligate aerobe 43. _____________________________ Any lactic acid fermenter 44. _____________________________ Any lithotroph 45. _____________________________ Any organism that uses H2 as fuel 46. _____________________________ Reduces nitrate (NO3-) to nitrite (NO2-) 47. _____________________________ Oxidizes ammonia (NH3) to nitrite (NO2-) 48. _____________________________ Any archea 49. _____________________________ Reduces ferric iron 50. _____________________________ Sulfur-oxidizing bacteria Alcalignenes Aquaspirillum Aquifex Bacillus Beggiatoa Clostridium Desulfovibrio Escherichia Gallionella Geobacter Hydrogenobacter Lactobacillus Leptothrix Methanosarcina Nitrobacter Nitrosomonas Paracoccus Pseudomonas Saccharomyces Shewanella Streptococcus Sulfolobus Thiobacillus Zymomonas Matching. Place the name of one of the microbes on the right that fits the description on the left. You may use a name more than once, but place only one answer in each – no multiple guesses. 41. _____________________________ Any spore forming bacterium 42. _____________________________ Any obligate anaerobe 43. _____________________________ Any ethanol fermenter 44. _____________________________ Any anaerobic respiratory bacterium 45. _____________________________ Any organism that uses H2 as fuel 46. _____________________________ Reduces nitrate (NO3-) to nitrogen gas (N2) 47. _____________________________ Oxidizes nitrite (NO2-) to nitrate (NO3-) 48. _____________________________ Any archea 49. _____________________________ Oxidizes ferrous iron 50. _____________________________ Sulfate-reducing bacteria Alcalignenes Aquaspirillum Aquifex Bacillus Beggiatoa Clostridium Desulfovibrio Escherichia Gallionella Geobacter Hydrogenobacter Lactobacillus Leptothrix Methanosarcina Nitrobacter Nitrosomonas Paracoccus Pseudomonas Saccharomyces Shewanella Streptococcus Sulfolobus Thiobacillus Zymomonas Interpreting experiments In a diagnostic kit for streptococcal pneumoniae, antibodies that attach to the surface of Streptococcus pneumoniae are attached to a membrane