Download BI 200 - Exam #2

BI 200 - Exam #2
Fall 2002
Name
Lab Section. Seat#
Disclaimer
Consider each question, and answer each in the appropriate format (e.g., multiple choice).
You may qualify your answer if you have reservations. If your comments have merit,
you may receive partial or full credit. Questions are 1 point each unless indicated.
Multiple Choice - 2 points each
1. Which of these is a macromolecule?
a. cysteine
b. glycogen
c. nitrogen
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
2. Which of these is a macronutrient?
a. cysteine
b. glycogen
c. nitrogen
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
3. What is the oxidation number of the phosphorous atom in phosphoric acid, H3PO4?
a. -5
b. -2
c. 0
d. +2
e. +5
4. What is the oxidation number of the carbon atoms in acetaldehyde, CH3CHO?
a. -1
b. -1/2
c. 0
d. +1/2
e. +1
5. The tetrapyrole porphoryn group of a cytochrome would best be characterized as
a. cofactor
b. trace element
c. prosthetic group
d. micronutrient
e. Vitamin C
6. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. Fimbriae are generally longer than pili
b. Fimbriae are not made of protein
c. Fimbriae function in surface adhesion
d. all of the above
7. Glycogen granules
a. are derived directly from PHB
b. function as a storage depot for carbon and energy
c. are made of protein
d. help bacteria evade the immune system
8. Endospores are
a. bacterial reproductive structures
b. metabolically inactive
c. sensitive to temperature
d. all of the above
9. A major function of prokaryotic gas vesicles is
a. to provide buoyancy for the organism
b. to serve as a reservoir for oxygen and carbon dioxide gas
c. promote conjugation between male and female bacteria
d. help bacteria evade the immune system
10. Which of the following are composed of protein?
a. PHB
b. S-layer
c. sulfur granules
d. magnetosomes
11. Biosynthesis of new cell material is called
a. metabolism
b. anabolism
c. catabolism
d. synthatabolism
12. In an electron carrier system, the net energy change is determined by the difference in
reduction potentials between the
a. primary electron donor and the terminal electron donor
b. primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron donor
c. primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron donor
a. primary electron donor and the terminal electron acceptor
13. NADH is the most important _________ carrying molecule in the cell, while
_______ is the most important energy high energy phosphate compound in living
organisms
a. carbon ; CoA
b. electron ; ATP
c. energy; glucose
d. none of the above is correct
14. The oxidation of the six carbon atoms in glucose, C6H12O6, to 6 CO2 involves the
transfer of _____ electrons to 6 O2.
a. 0
b. 6
c. 12
d. 24
15. The portion of the enzyme to which substrates bind is referred to as the __________,
and the enzyme will ________ the activation energy required to make the reaction
proceed.
a. active site; raise
b. active site; lower
c. active site; not change
d. none of the above, the change in activation energy is not predictable
16. Which best describes the reason that fermenting organisms carry out reactions which
reduce pyruvate?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Pyruvate is toxic to cells.
ATP is synthesized in the reductive stage III
Oxygen must be consumed in fermentation
It is an unregulated reaction of no value.
Cells must regenerate oxidized NAD.
17. Which of the following is not a high-energy intermediate of glycolysis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
phophoenolpyruvate
1,3 bisphosphoglycerate
succinyl-CoA
all of the above – none occur in glycolysis
a, b,c – none are high energy intermediates
18. The net ATP production during glycolysis is
a. 0
b. 4
c. 2
d. 36-38
19. Regarding the fermentation of sugars like glucose or lactose to lactic acid, which
statement is not true?
a. The process is involved in the production of dairy products like cheese and yogurt
b. The unique enzyme is lactate dehydrogenase
c. It can be carried out by yeast like Saccharomyces cerevisiae
d. none of the above, all are true
20. Which of the following fermentation products contains substantial chemical bond
energy?
a. H2
b. ethanol
c. lactate
d. all of the above
21. During aerobic respiration oxygen is consumed during
a. glycolysis
b. the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle)
c. electron transport phosphorylation – electron transport chain plus ATPase
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
22. During aerobic respiration ATP is produced during
a. glycolysis
b. the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle)
c. electron transport phosphorylation – electron transport chain plus ATPase
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
23. In eukaryotic mitochondria enzymes of the Krebs cycle are found in the _________
and components of the electron transport chain are associated with the ____________.
a. cristae; matrix
b. cytoplasm; cristae
c. matrix; cristae
d. none of the above – eukaryotes don’t have mitochondria
24. In chemiosmosis (the generation of a proton gradient)
a. OH- accumulates on the outside of the membrane while H+ accumulates
b. the pH of the cytoplasm goes down
c. the inside of the cell becomes negative relative to the outside
d. ATP is formed by substrate level phosphorylation
25. Which of the following bacteria is not an obligate aerobe?
a. Pseudomonas
b. Paracoccus
c. Alcaligenes
d. Escherichia
26. Which of the following would not be involved with electron transport
phosphorylation?
a. a membrane
b. ATPase
c. phosphoenolpyruvate
d. cytochrome
e. an external electron acceptor
27. Most chemolithotrophs are
a. phototrophs
b. eukaryotes
c. heterotrophs
d. autotrophs
28. For a carbon source, chemoorganotrophs generally use such compounds as
a. carbon dioxide
c. glucose
c. sunlight
d. H2S
29. Which do fermentation and aerobic respiration have in common?
a. Glycolysis
b. Citric acid cycle
c. Electron transport
d. ATPase
30. An organism which uses CO2 as carbon source is most properly termed
(a) a heterotroph
(b) a chemoorganotroph
(c) a lithotroph
(d) an autotroph
(e) a chemotroph
31. Anaerobic respiratory bacteria differ from humans and other aerobic respiratory
organisms
a.
b.
c.
d.
in their substrate oxidizing pathways
in their electron transport chains
because they don’t form proton gradients
because they don’t contain the enzyme ATPase
32. Cofactor F420 occurs in
a. fermentative yeast
b. fluorescent methanogens
c. denitrifying bacteria
d. iron-oxidizing bacteria
33. The following carry out the detrimental activity where nitrate is depleted from soil
a. denitrifying bacteria
b. nitrogen-fixing bacteria
c. nitrifying bacteria
d. enteric bacteria
34. Acetogens and methanogens are
a. strict aerobes
b. strict anaerobes
c. facultative anaerobes
d. obligate aerobes
35. Which of the following is a sulfate reducing bacterium
a. Desulfovibrio
b. Thiobacillus
c. Beggiatoa
d. Sulfolobus
e. all of the above
36. Rusticyanin occurs in
a. fermentative yeast
b. fluorescent methanogens
c. denitrifying bacteria
d. iron-oxidizing bacteria
37. Lithotrophic bacteria differ from humans and other aerobic respiratory organisms
a. in their substrate oxidizing pathways
b. in their electron transport chains
c. because they don’t form proton gradients
d. because they don’t contain the enzyme ATPase
38. In most cases the final product of sulfur oxidation is
a. H2S
b. H2SO4
c. S
d. could be any of these
39. The enzyme ammonium monooxygenase would be found in
a. Pseudomonas
b. Escherichia
c. Azotobacter
d. Nitrosomonas
e. Nitrobacter
40. 2 free points
Matching. Place the name of one of the
microbes on the right that fits the
description on the left. You may use a
name more than once, but place only one
answer in each – no multiple guesses.
41. _____________________________
Any spore forming bacteria
42. _____________________________
Any obligate aerobe
43. _____________________________
Any lactic acid fermenter
44. _____________________________
Any lithotroph
45. _____________________________
Any organism that uses H2 as fuel
46. _____________________________
Reduces nitrate (NO3-) to nitrite (NO2-)
47. _____________________________
Oxidizes ammonia (NH3) to nitrite (NO2-)
48. _____________________________
Any archea
49. _____________________________
Reduces ferric iron
50. _____________________________
Sulfur-oxidizing bacteria
Alcalignenes
Aquaspirillum
Aquifex
Bacillus
Beggiatoa
Clostridium
Desulfovibrio
Escherichia
Gallionella
Geobacter
Hydrogenobacter
Lactobacillus
Leptothrix
Methanosarcina
Nitrobacter
Nitrosomonas
Paracoccus
Pseudomonas
Saccharomyces
Shewanella
Streptococcus
Sulfolobus
Thiobacillus
Zymomonas
Matching. Place the name of one of the
microbes on the right that fits the
description on the left. You may use a
name more than once, but place only one
answer in each – no multiple guesses.
41. _____________________________
Any spore forming bacterium
42. _____________________________
Any obligate anaerobe
43. _____________________________
Any ethanol fermenter
44. _____________________________
Any anaerobic respiratory bacterium
45. _____________________________
Any organism that uses H2 as fuel
46. _____________________________
Reduces nitrate (NO3-) to nitrogen gas
(N2)
47. _____________________________
Oxidizes nitrite (NO2-) to nitrate (NO3-)
48. _____________________________
Any archea
49. _____________________________
Oxidizes ferrous iron
50. _____________________________
Sulfate-reducing bacteria
Alcalignenes
Aquaspirillum
Aquifex
Bacillus
Beggiatoa
Clostridium
Desulfovibrio
Escherichia
Gallionella
Geobacter
Hydrogenobacter
Lactobacillus
Leptothrix
Methanosarcina
Nitrobacter
Nitrosomonas
Paracoccus
Pseudomonas
Saccharomyces
Shewanella
Streptococcus
Sulfolobus
Thiobacillus
Zymomonas
Interpreting experiments
In a diagnostic kit for streptococcal pneumoniae, antibodies that attach to the surface of
Streptococcus pneumoniae are attached to a membrane