Download Saturday Review – Biology

Biology Practice Questions
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. Which of these is a model of the most complete food chain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
____
2. Which population would be most affected if the snakes were removed from this food web?
F. Grass
____
G. Mouse
H. Lizard
J. Hawk
3. In this food pyramid, how much energy is available as the energy is passed from one trophic level
to another?
A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%
____
4. Which organisms in this food web can be described as both primary and secondary consumers?
F. Hawks
G. Weasels
H. Raccoons
J. Mice
____
5. In this food chain, the spiders are —
A. producers
B. competitors
C. primary consumers
D. secondary consumers
____
6. Energy used by producers in a grassland food web is provided by —
F. sunlight
H. oxygen
G. photosynthesis
J. carbon dioxide
____
7. Which of these groups of organisms would most likely have accumulated the largest
concentration of a long-lasting chemical pollutant in their bodies?
A. Phytoplankton
C. Lake trout
B. Zooplankton
D. Gulls
____
8. The difference in the size of each layer of this food pyramid is primarily the result of the
difference in
F. food choices of individual niches
G. oceanic zones of habitat
H. the amount of food energy at each trophic level
J. the relative heights of the organisms
____
9. In this food pyramid, which level contains the greatest amount of energy?
A. Tertiary consumers
C. Primary consumers
B. Secondary consumers
D. Producers
____ 10. Which group is most responsible for the recylcing of atoms within the environment?
F. Autotrophs
H. Phototrophs
Consumers
G.
J. Decomposers
____ 11. In this food web, the bacteria probably function as —
A. producers
B. herbivores
C. decomposers
D. carnivores
____ 12. About 10% of the energy at one trophic level is passed to the next level. What usually happens to
the energy that is not passed to the next trophic level or used to carry out life processes?
F. It is given off as heat.
H. It is used in reproduction.
G. It is stored as vitamins.
J. It is used in protein synthesis.
____ 13. When organisms die, what prevents the environment from being overwhelmed by the bodies of
these organisms?
A. Rainwater washes them away.
B. Other organisms use them as food.
C. Sunlight releases energy from their tissues.
D. Natural and controlled fires burn them.
____ 14. Which relationship is represented when a hyena eats a rodent that it has caught?
F. scavenger/carrion
H. predator/prey
herbivore/consumer
G.
J. host/parasite
____ 15. Clown fish are small reef fish that seek protection from predators by sheltering themselves among
the stinging tentacles of sea anemones. Clown fish are very territorial and can potentially scare
off predators of sea anemones. This relationship is an example of —
A. neutralism
C. mutualism
B. parasitism
D. commensalism
____ 16. An oakworm caterpillar feeds on the leaves of an oak tree. This type of interaction is —
F. mutualistic
G. commensalistic
H. competitive
J. parasitic
____ 17. An oleander is a type of evergreen shrub. The tissues of oleanders contain chemicals that are
poisonous to many mammals, including humans, horses, cattle, and sheep. The production of
poisonous chemicals most likely benefits oleanders by deterring or even killing many types of —
A. bacteria
C. pollinators
B. herbivores
D. scavengers
____ 18. Which of the following is an example of mutualism?
F. A wasp injects its eggs inside the body of a caterpillar. The eggs hatch and eat the
caterpillar.
G. A bird builds a nest in a tree.
H. A human uses a dog to protect a flock of sheep. The dog is given food and shelter.
J. A flower grows next to a bush.
____ 19. Which situation best represents a parasitic relationship?
A. A tapeworm absorbing nutrients from the intestine of a dog
B. An orchid being pollinated by a nectar-collecting wasp
C. Bacteria aiding humans in digestion.
D. An armadillo rooting in the soil at the base of an oak tree
____ 20. This relationship is an example of —
F. mutualism
G. commensalism
H. parasitism
J. predation
____ 21. Which two kingdoms contain members that are photosynthetic?
A. Eubacteria and Fungi
C. Plantae and Protista
B. Protista and Animalia
D. Animalia and Fungi
____ 22. A laboratory investigation included examining prepared slides of pond water. Single-celled
organisms with a nucleus and either cilia or flagella were visible. These organisms probably
belong to the kingdom —
F. Animalia
G. Fungi
H. Protista
J. Plantae
____ 23. Multicellular eukaryotes that are usually mobile and obtain food from other organisms probably
belong to the kingdom —
A. Plantae
B. Fungi
C. Animalia
D. Protista
____ 24. The cell above most likely belongs to an organism of the kingdom —
F. Animalia
G. Plantae
H. Fungi
J. Eubacteria
____ 25. Which group of organisms can live in the human intestine and aid in the digestive process?
A. bacteria
B. fungi
C. protozoa
D. viruses
____ 26. Cholera-causing bacteria have a single flagellum that allows these bacteria to —
F. move
H. excrete water
G. reproduce
J. produce sugar
____ 27. Which of these does a virus need in order to multiply?
A. Chloroplasts from a host cell
B. A host cell to provide oxygen for the virus
C. New ADP from a host cell
D. A host cell to replicate the virus’s DNA
____ 28. Streptococcus infection in a person’s throat can cause pain and fever. Streptococcus can be
controlled by antibiotics. Streptococcusis a —
F. virus
G. bacterium
H. protozoan
J. fungus
____ 29. Viruses can only replicate
A. inside a host cell.
B. along a cellular membrane.
C. outside a nucleus.
D. between host cells.
____ 30. Which is a characteristic of members of the plant kingdom that distinguishes them from members
of the animal kingdom?
F. Storage of energy in chemical bonds
G. Exchange of H2O with the environment
H. Use of mRNA during protein production
J. Use of chlorophyll for solar-energy transformation
____ 31. Which of these is a function of the cell membrane in all cells?
A. Producing cellular nutrients
C. Neutralizing chemicals
B. Preserving cellular wastes
D. Maintaining homeostasis
____ 32. Which organelle has the most control over a cell’s functions?
F. cell membrane
H. nucleus
G. ribosomes
J. vacuole
____ 33. Which process occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells?
A. cellular respiration
C. reproduction
B. photosynthesis
D. protein synthesis
____ 34. The apparatus above was used to collect the oxygen that was produced by Elodea. Which factor
was most responsible for the production of oxygen by Elodea?
F. Sugar was present in the liquid.
G. The liquid contained enough oxygen for the plant to absorb.
H. The presence of light stimulated photosynthesis.
J. The plant contained a large number of mitochondria.
____ 35. Energy conversion within an animal cell would be severely limited by removal of the cell’s —
A. mitochondria.
B. chloroplasts.
C. plastids.
D. lysosomes.
____ 36. Energy conversion within a plant cell would be severely limited by removal of the cell’s —
F. cell wall.
G. lysosomes.
H. nucleus.
J. chloroplast.
____ 37. Why are photosynthesis and cellular respiration often considered opposites?
A. Photosynthesis produces twice as manyATP molecules as cellular respiration does.
B. Water is released during photosynthesis and consumed during cellular respiration.
C. Photosynthesis occurs during the day, and cellular respiration occurs at night.
D. Oxygen is produced during photosynthesis and used during cellular respiration.
____ 38. Which of these is a characteristic of body cells that require large amounts of energy?
F. They have a large number of mitochondria.
G. They have a supplementary Y chromosome.
H. They have a two-layer membrane.
J. They have a storage area for albumin proteins.
____ 39. Which of the following cannot metabolize nutrients?
A.
C.
B.
D.
____ 40. Which molecule resembles the shape of a twisted ladder?
F. DNA
G. sugar
H. ATP
J. lipid
____ 41. Mutations in DNA molecules can occur when —
A. replication of DNA is exact
B. a DNA enzyme attaches to an RNA codon
C. RNA codons are replaced by DNA nucleotides
D. a change occurs in DNA nucleotide bases
____ 42. An inheritable mutation may occur if an organism has a change in its
F. appendages.
H. DNA structure in gametes.
G. internal organs.
J. ATP production rates.
____ 43. DNA molecules separate into single strands, which are then used to construct two identical
strands of DNA. This process ensures that the —
A. cytoplasm is in equilibrium
B. mitochondria are genetically identical to the chloroplasts
C. parent cells use little ATP
D. daughter cells are genetically identical to the parent cells
____ 44. Which series of bases will complete this strand of DNA?
F. CCTGAT
G. ACTGGC
H. GTAGGC
J. TCAGGG
____ 45. In DNA, which of the following determines the traits of an organism?
A. Amount of adenine
C. Strength of hydrogen bonds
B. Number of sugars
D. Sequence of nitrogen bases
____ 46. Which mRNA sequence complements the above section of DNA?
F. CUAGGA
G. TCGAAG
H. CTAGGC
J. AGCUUC
____ 47. Which of these represents the DNA segmentfrom which this section of mRNA was transcribed?
A. ACTAAG
B. TCUTTG
C. GAAUCU
D. UCCTGA
____ 48. The structures marked 3 in the diagram are responsible for
F. absorbing oxygen.
H. lining up amino acids.
G. carrying genetic codes.
J. serving as an anticodon.
____ 49. Which cellular process is modeled in this diagram?
A. Replication, in which DNA is copied before mitosis occurs
B. Deletion, in which a chromosome breaks and a piece of DNA is lost
C. Transcription, in which the information stored in DNA is copied to mRNA
D. Translation, in which the information stored in mRNA is used to synthesize a protein
____ 50. Which cellular function does this model represent?
F. Respiration
H. DNA replication
G. Protein Synthesis
J. Photosynthesis
____51.If an organism has the genotype RrSsTtUu, what proportion of its gametes will be RSTU?
a. 1/2
b. 1/4
c. 1/8
d. 1/16
____ 52. The body cells of an individual plant have 50 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be
found in the gametes produced by this plant?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 25
d. 50
____ 53. Square 4 of this Punnett square represents the genotype of the offspring if
a. ovule T is fertilized by pollen grain T
c. ovule T is fertilized by pollen grain t
b. ovule t is fertilized by pollen grain T
d. ovule t is fertilized by pollen grain t
____ 54. What trait will most likely be observed in all offspring of the above set of parents?
a. Green feathers
c. Long beak
b. Yellow feathers
d. Short beak
____ 55. If a cat has 38 chromosomes in each of its body cells, how many chromosomes will be in each
daughter cell after mitosis?
a. 11
b. 19
c. 38
d. 78
____ 56. According to the table, which of the following phenotypes would probably occur in all the
offspring from the parents shown above?
a. Solid gray fur
c. Green eyes
b. Striped gray fur
d. Blue eyes
____ 57. A pea plant with the genotype TtWW is crossed with a pea plant with the genotype ttWw. How
many different genotypes can be expressed in the offspring?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
____ 58. An agricultural scientist wants to develop a variety of corn that will mature rapidly and will
produce high yields. Which genotypes should the scientist cross to produce the most plants with
the desired characteristics?
a.
c.
b.
d.
____ 59. What are the expected genotypes and phenotypes of coat color in the F2 generation?
a. All F2 mice have BB genotypes and black phenotypes.
b. All F2 mice have bb genotypes and white phenotypes.
c. The genotypes of the F2 mice are 25% BB, 50% Bb, and 25% bb. The phenotypes are
75% black and 25% white.
d. The genotypes of the F2 mice are 50% BB and 50% bb. The phenotypes are 50% black
and 50% white.
____ 60. If a plant that is homozygous tall and wrinkled is crossed with a short, wrinkled plant, which
percentage of genotypes would most likely be found in the first-generation offspring?
a.
c.
b.
d.
____ 61. All these systems help bring materials to the cells except the a. digestive system
c. excretory system
b. respiratory system
d. circulatory system
____ 62. On a hot summer day, a road crew worker perspires and then feels thirsty as her body temperature
increases. This response is an example of
a. releasing enzymes.
c. assimilation proteins.
b. decreasing respiration.
d. maintaining homeostasis.
____ 63. Which of these statements describes the vertebrate circulatory system and its primary function?
a. A web of structures that provide support while protecting vital organs
b. A series of ductless glands that secrete hormones directly into the blood
c. A network of tissues that carry nutrients and oxygen through the body
d. A complex of cytoplasmic cell membranes that transport materials made by the cell
____ 64. The list shows the most important systems used when a horse takes a step. Which of these should
also be included in the list?
a. Endocrine
b. Reproductive
c. Digestive
d. Nervous
____ 65. In order to develop safe products, designers of scuba diving equipment must be aware of the
needs of the circulatory systen and the
a. digestive system.
c. lymphatic system.
b. respiratory system.
d. endocrine system.
____ 66. Which structure in the upper arm is responsible for raising the lower arm?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
____ 67. Which system is responsible for producing enzymes that aid in breaking down substances to be
absorbed for the body’s growth and repair?
a. Digestive system
c. Respiratory system
b. Reproductive system
d. Skeletal system
____ 68. A portion of the human excretory system is represented in the diagram. The order in which urine
flows through the system is —
a.
b.
c.
d.
____ 69. Nutrients from digested food move from the digestive system directly into the —
a. circulatory system
c. excretory system
b. integumentary system
d. endocrine system
____ 70.When a person is frightened by a wild animal, some organ systems immediately become active,
while others are suppressed. Which of these systems is likely to be suppressed?
a. Muscular system
c. Endocrine system
b. Respiratory system
d. Digestive system
Saturday Review - Biology
Answer Key
1. B
2. J
3. B
4. H
5. D
6. F
7. D
8. H
9. D
10. J
11. C
12. F
13. B
14. H
15. C
16. J
17. B
18. H
19. A
20. F
21. C
22. H
23. C
24. G
25. A
26. F
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
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60.
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C
D
C
D
B
C
A
C
A
D
27.
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29.
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31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
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47.
48.
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50.
1.
61.
62.
63.
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65.
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70.
D
G
A
J
D
H
B
H
A
J
D
F
B
F
D
H
D
H
D
F
A
G
A
G
ANS :D
ANS:C
ANS:D
ANS:A
ANS:C
ANS:A
ANS:D
ANS:A
ANS:C
ANS:C