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Transcript
Name: ________________________________ Date: ______________ Period: _______ Score: +_________
Chapter 16 & 17 Test Review
Print using .5” margins and 11pt font. Highlight all of your answers before turning it in. Worth up to 5pts of extra credit.
1. Which of the following is true concerning abnormal behavior?
A) Definitions of abnormal behavior are culture-dependent. B) A behavior cannot be defined as abnormal unless it is
considered harmful to society. C) Abnormal behavior can be defined as any behavior that is atypical.
D) Definitions of abnormal behavior are based on physiological factors.
2. The criteria for classifying behavior as psychologically disordered: A) vary from culture to culture. B) vary from
time to time. C) are characterized by both a. and b. D) have remained largely unchanged over the course of history.
3. Behavior is classified as disordered when it is:
A) atypical. B) maladaptive. C) unjustifiable.
D) disturbing.
E) all of the above.
4. Our early ancestors commonly attributed disordered behavior to:
A) “bad blood.” B) evil spirits. C) brain injury. D) laziness.
5. The French reformer who insisted that madness was not demon possession and who called for humane treatment of
patients was: A) Nadel. B) Freud. C) Szasz. D) Spanos. E) Pinel.
6. Which of the following is true of the medical model? A) In recent years, it has been in large part discredited.
B) It views psychological disorders as sicknesses that are diagnosable and treatable. C) It emphasizes the role of
psychological factors in disorders over that of physiological factors. D) It focuses on cognitive factors.
7. Most mental health workers today take the view that disordered behaviors: A) are usually genetically triggered.
B) are organic diseases. C) arise from the interaction of nature and nurture. D) are the product of learning.
8. The fact that disorders such as schizophrenia are universal and influenced by heredity, whereas other disorders such as
anorexia nervosa are culture-bound provides evidence for the ________ model of psychological disorders.
A) medical B) bio-psycho-social C) social-cultural D) psychoanalytic
9. Evidence of environmental effects on psychological disorders is seen in the fact that certain disorders, such as
________, are universal, whereas others, such as ________ are culture-bound. A) schizophrenia; depression
B) depression; schizophrenia C) antisocial personality; neurosis D) depression; anorexia nervosa
10. Many psychologists dislike using DSM-IV because of its: A) failure to emphasize observable behaviors in the
diagnostic process. B) learning theory bias. C) medical model bias. D) psychoanalytic bias
11. The diagnostic reliability of DSM-IV:
A) is unknown. B) depends on the age of the patient.
C) is very low.
D) is relatively high.
12. Which of the following statements concerning the labeling of disordered behaviors is not true?
A) Labels interfere with effective treatment of psychological disorders. B) Labels promote research studies of
psychological disorders. C) Labels may create preconceptions that bias people's perceptions.
D) Labels may influence behavior by creating self-fulfilling prophecies.
13. The term insanity refers to:
A) legal definitions. B) psychotic disorders only.
personality disorders.
C) personality disorders only.
14. Phobias and obsessive-compulsive behaviors are classified as:
A) anxiety disorders. B) mood disorders. C) dissociative disorders.
D) both psychotic disorders and
D) personality disorders.
15. Sharon is continually tense, jittery, and apprehensive for no specific reason. She would probably be diagnosed as
suffering a(n):
A) phobia. B) major depressive disorder. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) generalized anxiety disorder.
16. Irene occasionally experiences unpredictable episodes of intense dread accompanied by chest pains and a sensation of
smothering. Since her symptoms have no apparent cause, they would probably be classified as indicative of:
A) schizophrenia. B) bipolar disorder. C) post-traumatic stress disorder. D) panic attack.
17. Joe has an intense, irrational fear of snakes. He is suffering from a(n): A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) phobia. D) mood disorder. E) bipolar disorder.
18. Jason is so preoccupied with staying clean that he showers as many as ten times each day. Jason would be diagnosed
as suffering from a(n): A) dissociative disorder. B) generalized anxiety disorder. C) personality disorder.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
19. The psychoanalytic perspective would most likely view phobias as: A) conditioned fears. B) displaced responses
to incompletely repressed impulses. C) biological predispositions. D) manifestations of self-defeating thoughts.
20. Julia's psychologist believes that Julia's fear of heights can be traced to a conditioned fear she developed after falling
from a ladder. This explanation reflects a ______ perspective.
A) medical B) psychoanalytic C) social-cognitive D) learning
21. Although she escaped from war-torn Bosnia two years ago, Zheina still has haunting memories and nightmares.
Because she is also severely depressed, her therapist diagnoses her condition as:
A) dissociative identity disorder. B) bipolar disorder. C) schizophrenia. D) post-traumatic stress disorder.
22. Before he can study, Rashid must arrange his books, pencils, paper, and other items on his desk so that they are “just
so.” The campus counselor suggests that Rashid's compulsive behavior may help alleviate his anxiety about failing in
school, which reinforces the compulsive actions. This explanation of obsessive-compulsive behavior is most consistent
with which perspective? A) learning B) psychoanalytic C) humanistic D) social-cognitive
23. To which of the following is a person most likely to acquire a phobia?
A) heights B) being in public C) being dirty D) All of the above are equally likely.
24. After falling from a ladder, Joseph is afraid of airplanes, although he has never flown. This demonstrates that some
fears arise from:
A) observational learning. B) reinforcement. C) stimulus generalization. D) stimulus discrimination.
25. Which of the following provides evidence that human fears have been subjected to the evolutionary process?
A) Compulsive acts typically exaggerate behaviors that contributed to our species' survival. B) Most phobias focus on
objects that our ancestors also feared. C) It is easier to condition some fears than others.
D) All of the above provide evidence.
26. Which of the following was presented in the text as evidence of biological influences on anxiety disorders?
A) Identical twins often develop similar phobias. B) PET scans of persons with obsessive-compulsive disorder reveal
unusually high activity in an area of the frontal lobes. C) Drugs that dampen fear-circuit activity in the amygdala also
alleviate OCD. D) All of the above were presented. E) None of the above was presented.
27. Which of the following is the most pervasive of the psychological disorders?
A) depression B) schizophrenia C) bipolar disorder D) generalized anxiety disorder
28. For the past six months, a woman has complained of feeling isolated from others, dissatisfied with life, and
discouraged about the future. This woman could be diagnosed as suffering from:
A) bipolar disorder. B) major depressive disorder. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) dissociative disorder.
29. On Monday, Matt felt optimistic, energetic, and on top of the world. On Tuesday, he felt hopeless and lethargic, and
thought that the future looked very grim. Matt would most likely be diagnosed as having:
A) bipolar disorder. B) major depressive disorder. C) schizophrenia. D) panic disorder.
30. In general, women are more vulnerable than men to ________ disorders such as ________.
A) active; anxiety B) passive; depression C) active; antisocial conduct D) passive; alcohol abuse
31. Which of the following is not true concerning depression? A) Depression is more common in females than in
males. B) Most depressive episodes appear not to be preceded by any particular factor or event. C) Most depressive
episodes last less than three months. D) Most people recover from depression without professional therapy.
32. Gender differences in the prevalence of depression may be partly due to the fact that when stressful experiences
occur, women tend to ________ while men tend to ________.
A) act; think B) think; act C) distract themselves by drinking; delve into their work
D) delve into their work; distract themselves by drinking
33. Connie's therapist has suggested that her depression stems from unresolved anger toward her parents. Evidently,
Connie's therapist is working within the ________ perspective.
A) learning B) social-cognitive C) biological D) psychoanalytic
34. According to psychoanalytic theory, memory of losses, especially in combination with internalized anger, is likely to
result in: A) learned helplessness. B) the self-serving bias. C) weak ego defense mechanisms. D) depression.
35. In treating depression, a psychiatrist would probably prescribe a drug that would:
A) increase levels of acetylcholine. B) decrease levels of dopamine. C) increase levels of norepinephrine.
D) decrease levels of serotonin.
36. Which neurotransmitter is present in overabundant amounts during the manic phase of bipolar disorder?
A) dopamine B) serotonin C) epinephrine D) norepinephrine
37. Alicia's doctor, who thinks that Alicia's depression has a biochemical cause, prescribes a drug that:
A) reduces norepinephrine. B) increases norepinephrine. C) reduces serotonin. D) increases acetylcholine.
38. According to the social-cognitive perspective, a person who experiences unexpected aversive events may develop
helplessness and manifest a(n):
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) dissociative disorder. C) personality disorder. D) mood disorder.
39. Social-cognitive theorists contend that depression is linked with:
A) negative moods. B) maladaptive explanations of failure. C) self-defeating beliefs.
D) all of the above.
40. Ken's therapist suggested that his depression is a result of his self-defeating thoughts and negative assumptions about
himself, his situation, and his future. Evidently, Ken's therapist is working within the ________ perspective.
A) learning B) social-cognitive C) biological D) psychoanalytic
41. Hussein, who suffers from chronic loneliness, probably attributes his unsatisfactory social relationships to:
A) an inherited trait. B) his own inadequacies. C) a cultural norm. D) the social incompetence of other people.
42. Dr. Jekyll, whose second personality was Mr. Hyde, had a(n) ________ disorder.
A) anxiety B) dissociative C) mood D) personality
43. As a child, Monica was criticized severely by her mother for not living up to her expectations. This criticism was
always followed by a beating with a whip. As an adult, Monica is generally introverted and extremely shy. Sometimes,
however, she acts more like a young child, throwing tantrums if she doesn't get her way. At other times, she is a flirting,
happy-go-lucky young lady. Most likely, Monica is suffering from:
A) a phobia. B) dissociative schizophrenia. C) dissociative identity disorder. D) bipolar disorder.
44. Nicholas Spanos considers dissociative identity disorder to be:
A) a genuine disorder. B) merely role-playing. C) a disorder that cannot be explained according to the learning
perspective. D) both a. and c.
45. Psychoanalytic and learning theorists both agree that dissociative and anxiety disorders are symptoms that represent
the person's attempt to deal with:
A) unconscious conflicts. B) anxiety. C) unfulfilled wishes. D) unpleasant responsibilities.
46. Claiming that she heard a voice commanding her to warn other people that eating is harmful, Sandy attempts to
convince others in a restaurant not to eat. The psychiatrist to whom she is referred finds that Sandy's thinking and speech
are often fragmented and incoherent. In addition, Sandy has an unreasonable fear that someone is “out to get her” and
consequently trusts no one. Her condition is most indicative of: A) schizophrenia. B) generalized anxiety disorder.
C) a phobia. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder. E) personality disorder.
47. Which of the following is not a symptom of schizophrenia?
A) inappropriate emotions B) disturbed perceptions C) panic attacks
D) disorganized thinking
48. Most of the hallucinations of schizophrenia patients involve the sense of:
A) smell. B) vision. C) hearing. D) touch.
49. Hearing voices would be a(n) ________; believing that you are Napoleon would be a(n) ________.
A) obsession; compulsion B) compulsion; obsession C) delusion; hallucination D) hallucination; delusion
50. Many psychologists believe the disorganized thoughts of people with schizophrenia result from a breakdown in:
A) selective attention. B) memory storage. C) motivation. D) memory retrieval. E) memory encoding.
51. When schizophrenia is slow to develop, called ________ schizophrenia, recovery is ________.
A) reactive; unlikely B) process; likely C) process; unlikely D) reactive; likely
52. The effect of drugs that block receptors for dopamine is to: A) alleviate schizophrenia symptoms.
depression. C) increase schizophrenia symptoms. D) increase depression.
B) alleviate
53. Wayne's doctor attempts to help Wayne by prescribing a drug that blocks receptors for dopamine. Wayne has
apparently been diagnosed with:
A) a mood disorder. B) an anxiety disorder. C) a personality disorder. D) schizophrenia.
54. Janet, whose class presentation is titled “Current Views on the Causes of Schizophrenia,” concludes her talk with the
statement:
A) “Schizophrenia is caused by intolerable stress.” B) “Schizophrenia is inherited.” C) “Genes may predispose some
people to react to particular experiences by developing schizophrenia.” D) “As of this date, schizophrenia is completely
unpredictable and its causes are unknown.”
55. Among the following, which is generally accepted as a possible cause of schizophrenia?
A) an excess of endorphins in the brain B) being a twin C) extensive learned helplessness D) a genetic predisposition
56. Which of the following is not true regarding schizophrenia? A) It occurs more frequently in people born in winter
and spring months. B) It occurs less frequently as infectious disease rates have declined. C) It occurs more frequently
in lightly populated areas. D) It usually appears during adolescence or early adulthood.
57. Research evidence links the brain abnormalities of schizophrenia to ________ during prenatal development.
A) maternal stress B) a viral infection contracted C) abnormal levels of certain hormones D) the weight of the
unborn child E) alcohol use
58. The early warning signs of schizophrenia, based on studies of high-risk children, include all but which of the
following? A) having a severely schizophrenic mother B) having been separated from parents C) having a short
attention span D) having matured physically at a very early age
59. Bob has never been able to keep a job. He's been in and out of jail for charges such as theft, sexual assault, and spousal
abuse. Bob would most likely be diagnosed as having:
A) a dissociative identity disorder. B) major depressive disorder. C) schizophrenia. D) an antisocial personality.
60. When expecting to be electrically shocked, people with an antisocial disorder, as compared to normal people, show:
A) less fear and greater arousal of the autonomic nervous system. B) less fear and less autonomic arousal. C) greater
fear and greater autonomic arousal. D) greater fear and less autonomic arousal.
61. An eclectic psychotherapist is one who: A) takes a nondirective approach in helping clients solve their problems.
B) views psychological disorders as usually stemming from one cause, such as a biological abnormality. C) uses one
particular technique, such as psychoanalysis or counterconditioning, in treating disorders. D) uses a variety of
techniques, depending on the client and the problem.
62. The technique in which a person is asked to report everything that comes to his or her mind is called ________; this
technique is favored by ________ therapists. A) active listening; cognitive B) spontaneous remission; humanistic
C) free association; psychoanalytic D) systematic desensitization; behavior
63. During a session with his psychoanalyst, Jamal hesitates while describing a highly embarrassing thought. In the
psychoanalytic framework, this is an example of:
A) transference. B) insight. C) mental repression. D) resistance.
64. During psychoanalysis, Jane has developed strong feelings of hatred for her therapist. The analyst interprets Jane's
behavior in terms of a ________ of her feelings toward her father.
A) projection B) resistance C) regression D) transference
65. Of the following therapists, who would be most likely to interpret a person's psychological problems in terms of
repressed impulses?
A) a behavior therapist B) a cognitive therapist C) a humanistic therapist D) a psychoanalyst
66. Which type(s) of psychotherapy would be most likely to use the interpretation of dreams as a technique for bringing
unconscious feelings into awareness?
A) psychoanalysis B) psychodynamic therapy C) cognitive therapy D) all of the above E) both a. and b.
67. Which of the following is not a common criticism of psychoanalysis?
A) It emphasizes the existence of repressed memories. B) It provides interpretations that are hard to disprove.
C) It is generally a very expensive process. D) It gives therapists too much control over patients.
68. Unlike traditional psychoanalytic therapy, interpersonal psychotherapy:
A) helps people gain insight into the roots of their problems. B) offers interpretations of patients' feelings.
C) focuses on current relationships. D) does all of the above.
69. Of the following categories of psychotherapy, which is known for its nondirective nature?
A) psychoanalysis B) humanistic therapy C) behavior therapy D) cognitive therapy
70. Given that Jim's therapist attempts to help him by offering genuineness, acceptance, and empathy, she is probably
practicing: A) psychoanalysis. B) behavior therapy. C) cognitive therapy. D) client-centered therapy.
71. Carl Rogers was a ________ therapist who was the creator of ________.
A) behavior; systematic desensitization B) psychoanalytic; insight therapy C) humanistic; client-centered therapy
D) cognitive; cognitive therapy for depression
72. Which type of psychotherapy emphasizes the individual's inherent potential for self-fulfillment?
A) behavior therapy B) psychoanalysis C) humanistic therapy D) biomedical therapy
73. The technique in which a therapist echoes and restates what a person says in a nondirective manner is called:
A) active listening. B) free association. C) systematic desensitization. D) meta-analysis. E) interpretation.
74. Which type of psychotherapy focuses on changing unwanted behaviors rather than on discovering their underlying
causes? A) behavior therapy B) cognitive therapy C) humanistic therapy D) psychoanalysis E) family therapy
75. The techniques of counterconditioning are based on principles of:
A) observational learning. B) classical conditioning. C) operant conditioning.
D) behavior modification.
76. Leota is startled when her therapist says that she needs to focus on eliminating her problem behavior rather than
gaining insight into its underlying cause. Most likely, Leota has consulted a ________ therapist.
A) behavior B) humanistic C) cognitive D) psychoanalytic
77. The technique of systematic desensitization is based on the premise that maladaptive symptoms are:
A) a reflection of irrational thinking. B) conditioned responses. C) expressions of unfulfilled wishes. D) all of the above.
78. In order to help him overcome his fear of flying, Duane's therapist has him construct a hierarchy of anxiety-triggering
stimuli and then learn to associate each with a state of deep relaxation. Duane's therapist is using the technique called:
A) systematic desensitization. B) aversive conditioning. C) shaping. D) free association.
79. In which of the following does the client learn to associate a relaxed state with a hierarchy of anxiety-arousing
situations? A) cognitive therapy B) aversive conditioning C) counterconditioning D) systematic desensitization
80. To help Sam quit smoking, his therapist blew a blast of smoke into Sam's face each time Sam inhaled. Which
technique is the therapist using?
A) exposure therapy B) behavior modification C) systematic desensitization D) aversive conditioning
81. Using techniques of classical conditioning to develop an association between unwanted behavior and an unpleasant
experience is known as:
A) aversive conditioning. B) systematic desensitization. C) transference. D) electroconvulsive therapy.
82. One reason that aversive conditioning may only be temporarily effective is that:
A) for ethical reasons, therapists cannot use sufficiently intense unconditioned stimuli to sustain classical conditioning.
B) patients are often unable to become sufficiently relaxed for conditioning to take place. C) patients know that outside
the therapist's office they can engage in the undesirable behavior without fear of aversive consequences.
D) most conditioned responses are elicited by many nonspecific stimuli and it is impossible to countercondition them all.
83. A patient in a hospital receives poker chips for making her bed, being punctual at meal times, and maintaining her
physical appearance. The poker chips can be exchanged for privileges, such as television viewing, snacks, and magazines.
This is an example of the ________ therapy technique called ________. A) psychodynamic; systematic desensitization
B) behavior; token economy C) cognitive; token economy D) humanistic; systematic desensitization
84. Principles of operant conditioning underlie which of the following techniques? A) counterconditioning
B) systematic desensitization C) stress inoculation training D) aversive conditioning E) the token economy
85. The operant conditioning technique in which desired behaviors are rewarded with points or poker chips that can later
be exchanged for various rewards is called:
A) counterconditioning. B) systematic desensitization. C) a token economy. D) exposure therapy.
86. Which of the following is not a common criticism of behavior therapy?
A) Clients may not develop intrinsic motivation for their new behaviors. B) Behavior control is unethical.
C) Although one symptom may be eliminated, another may replace it unless the underlying problem is treated.
D) All of the above are criticisms of behavior therapy.
87. After Darnel dropped a pass in an important football game, he became depressed and vowed to quit the team because
of his athletic incompetence. The campus psychologist challenged his illogical reasoning and pointed out that Darnel's
“incompetence” had earned him an athletic scholarship. The psychologist's response was most typical of a ________
therapist. A) behavior B) psychoanalytic C) client-centered D) cognitive
88. Which type of therapy focuses on eliminating irrational thinking?
A) EMDR B) client-centered therapy C) cognitive therapy D) behavior therapy
89. One variety of ________ therapy is based on the finding that depressed people often attribute their failures to
________. A) humanistic; themselves B) behavior; external circumstances C) cognitive; external circumstances
D) cognitive; themselves
90. Which form of therapy is most likely to be successful in treating depression?
A) behavior therapy B) psychoanalysis C) cognitive therapy D) humanistic therapy
91. Ben is a cognitive-behavior therapist. Compared to Rachel, who is a behavior therapist, Ben is more likely to:
A) base his therapy on principles of operant conditioning. B) base his therapy on principles of classical conditioning.
C) address clients' attitudes as well as behaviors. D) focus on clients' unconscious urges.
92. Cognitive-behavior therapy aims to: A) alter the way people act. B) make people more aware of their irrational
negative thinking. C) alter the way people think and act. D) countercondition anxiety-provoking stimuli.
93. Which of the following types of therapy does not belong with the others?
A) cognitive therapy B) family therapy C) self-help group D) support group
94. Family therapy differs from other forms of psychotherapy because it focuses on:
A) using a variety of treatment techniques. B) conscious rather than unconscious processes.
C) the present instead of the past. D) how family tensions may cause individual problems.
95. Before 1950, the main mental health providers were:
A) psychologists. B) paraprofessionals. C) psychiatrists.
D) the clergy.
E) social workers.
96. The effectiveness of psychotherapy has been assessed both through clients' perspectives and through controlled
research studies. What have such assessments found?
A) Clients' perceptions and controlled studies alike strongly affirm the effectiveness of psychotherapy.
B) Whereas clients' perceptions strongly affirm the effectiveness of psychotherapy, studies point to more modest results.
C) Whereas studies strongly affirm the effectiveness of psychotherapy, many clients feel dissatisfied with their progress.
D) Clients' perceptions and controlled studies alike paint a very mixed picture of the effectiveness of psychotherapy.
97. Which of the following best describes the results of the 30-year follow-up study of 500 Massachusetts boys who had
been considered predelinquents?
A) Predelinquent boys who received counseling had fewer problems as adults than untreated predelinquent boys.
B) Predelinquent boys who did not receive counseling had slightly fewer problems as adults than boys who received
counseling. C) Predelinquent boys who underwent behavior therapy had fewer problems as adults than boys who
underwent psychoanalysis. D) Predelinquent boys who underwent psychoanalysis had fewer problems as adults than
boys who underwent behavior therapy.
98. The following are some of the conclusions drawn in the text regarding the effectiveness of psychotherapy. For which
of these conclusions did the Massachusetts study of predelinquent boys provide evidence?
A) Clients' perceptions of the effectiveness of therapy usually are very accurate. B) Clients' perceptions of the
effectiveness of therapy differ somewhat from the objective findings. C) Individuals who receive treatment do
somewhat better than individuals who do not. D) Overall, no one type of therapy is a “winner,” but certain therapies are
more suited to certain problems.
99. A person can derive benefits from psychotherapy simply by believing in it. This illustrates the importance of:
A) spontaneous remission. B) the placebo effect. C) the transference effect. D) interpretation.
100. Nick survived a car accident in which another passenger died. Feeling anxious and guilty, he sought treatment from
an alternative therapist, who used eye movement desensitization and reprocessing to help Nick return to his normally
upbeat, optimistic frame of mind. After several months of treatment Nick began feeling better. Although Nick is
convinced that the alternative therapy was responsible for his improvement, it is also possible that it was the result of:
A) regression toward the mean. B) a placebo effect. C) merely seeking treatment from any practitioner who provided
an empathic, trusting environment. D) all of the above.
101. Which of the following is not necessarily an advantage of group therapies over individual therapies?
A) They tend to take less time for the therapist. B) They tend to cost less money for the client.
C) They are more effective. D) They allow the client to test new behaviors in a social context.
102. A relative wants to know which type of therapy works best. You should tell your relative that:
A) psychotherapy does not work. B) behavior therapy is the most effective. C) cognitive therapy is the most
effective. D) group therapy is best for his problem. E) no one type of therapy is consistently the most successful.
103. The results of meta-analysis of the effectiveness of different psychotherapies reveals that: A) no single type of
therapy is consistently superior. B) behavior therapies are most effective in treating specific problems, such as phobias.
C) cognitive therapies are most effective in treating depressed emotions. D) all of the above are true.
104. In one research study of therapeutic touch, the experimenter placed a hand over one of the practitioner's unseen
hands to see if the practitioner could detect the hovering hand's purported energy field. The results demonstrated that the
practitioners were able to do so: A) 100 percent of the time. B) about 75 percent of the time. C) less than 50
percent of the time. D) only if the experimenter mentally concentrated on which hand was being “stimulated.”
105. A close friend who for years has suffered from wintertime depression is seeking your advice regarding the
effectiveness of light-exposure therapy. What should you tell your friend? A) “Don't waste your time and money. It
doesn't work.” B) “A more effective treatment for seasonal affective disorder is eye movement desensitization and
reprocessing.” C) “You'd be better off with a prescription for lithium.” D) “It might be worth a try. There is some
evidence that morning light exposure affects the secretion of melatonin, which helps regulate the body's circadian
rhythm.”
106. Light-exposure therapy has proven useful as a form of treatment for people suffering from:
A) bulimia. B) seasonal affective disorder. C) schizophrenia. D) dissociative identity disorder.
107. Among the common ingredients of the psychotherapies is:
A) the offer of a therapeutic relationship. B) the expectation among clients that the therapy will prove helpful.
C) the chance to develop a fresh perspective on oneself and the world. D) all of the above.
108. A meta-analysis of research studies comparing the effectiveness of professional therapists with paraprofessionals
found that: A) the professionals were much more effective than the paraprofessionals. B) the paraprofessionals were
much more effective than the professionals. C) except in treating depression, the paraprofessionals were about as
effective as the professionals. D) the paraprofessionals were about as effective as the professionals.
109. Seth enters therapy to talk about some issues that have been upsetting him. The therapist prescribes some medication
to help him. The therapist is most likely a:
A) psychologist. B) psychiatrist. C) psychiatric social worker. D) clinical social worker.
110. Which biomedical therapy is most likely to be practiced today? A) psychosurgery B) electroconvulsive therapy
C) drug therapy D) counterconditioning E) aversive conditioning
111. In an experiment testing the effects of a new antipsychotic drug, neither Dr. Cunningham nor her patients know
whether the patients are in the experimental or the control group. This is an example of the ________ technique.
A) meta-analysis B) within-subjects C) double-blind D) single-blind
112. Linda's doctor prescribes medication that blocks the activity of dopamine in her nervous system. Evidently, Linda is
being treated with an ________ drug. A) antipsychotic B) antianxiety C) antidepressant D) anticonvulsive
113. The antipsychotic drugs appear to produce their effects by blocking the receptor sites for:
A) dopamine. B) epinephrine. C) norepinephrine. D) serotonin.
114. Abraham's doctor prescribes medication that increases the availability of norepinephrine in his nervous system.
Evidently, Abraham is being treated with an ________ drug.
A) antipsychotic B) antianxiety C) antidepressant D) anticonvulsive
115. Antidepressant drugs are believed to work by affecting serotonin or:
A) dopamine. B) lithium. C) norepinephrine. D) acetylcholine.
116. The type of drugs criticized for reducing symptoms without resolving underlying problems are the:
A) antianxiety drugs. B) antipsychotic drugs. C) antidepressant drugs. D) amphetamines.
117. Electroconvulsive therapy is most useful in the treatment of:
A) schizophrenia. B) depression. C) personality disorders. D) anxiety disorders.
E) bipolar disorder.
118. A psychiatrist has diagnosed a patient as having bipolar disorder. It is likely that she will prescribe:
A) an antipsychotic drug. B) lithium. C) an antianxiety drug. D) a drug that blocks receptor sites for serotonin.
119. Which of the following is the drug most commonly used to treat bipolar disorder?
A) Valium B) chlorpromazine C) Xanax D) lithium
120. In concluding her talk entitled “Psychosurgery Today,” Ashley states that: A) “Psychosurgery is still widely used
throughout the world.” B) “Electroconvulsive therapy is the only remaining psychosurgical technique that is widely
practiced.” C) “With advances in psychopharmacology, psychosurgery has largely been abandoned.” D) “Although
lobotomies remain popular, other psychosurgical techniques have been abandoned.”
121. Although Moniz won the Nobel prize for developing the lobotomy procedure, the technique is not widely used today
because: A) it produces a lethargic, immature personality. B) it is irreversible. C) calming drugs became available
in the 1950s. D) of all of the above reasons.
122. Psychologists who advocate a ________ approach to mental health contend that many psychological disorders could
be prevented by changing the disturbed individual's ________. A) biomedical; diet B) family; behavior C)
humanistic; feelings D) psychoanalytic; behavior E) preventive; environment
123. A psychotherapist who believes that the best way to treat psychological disorders is to prevent them from
developing would be most likely to view disordered behavior as:
A) maladaptive thoughts and actions. B) expressions of unconscious conflicts. C) conditioned responses.
D) an understandable response to stressful social conditions.
Essays on the next page.
Essays: For both essays completely answer all parts of the question. Use complete sentences and fully explain your
answers. These are worth 5pts each toward your total extra credit.
Describe how a therapist might use both aversive conditioning and operant conditioning techniques in order to help a
client overcome a compulsive habit of smoking more than three packs of cigarettes a day. Be clear about the exact
procedures that would be used.
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In the movie “Sybil” the main character suffers from Dissociative Identity Disorder. Explain how an individual might get
this rare disorder, what sort of behaviors individuals who have this disorder exhibit, and how it can be treated. Also,
describe three of Sybil’s personalities, how each of them helped Sybil and what triggered them to come out or take over.
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