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Final Exam Review Honors Key– June, 2012
(Chapters - 8, 9, 12, 11, 14, 15, 16, 17, 3, 4, 5, 6)
Chapters 8 & 9
1. What is the energy source in all cells? ATP
2. When a phosphate group is removed from ATP, what is released? Energy
Removing this phosphate group from ATP creates ADP
3. Cellular respiration releases energy by breaking down food/glucose molecules.
Cellular respiration occurs in all eukaryotic cells.
4. Write the balanced equation for cellular respiration below:
C6H1206 + 602  6CO2 + 6H20 + Energy
5. List the 3 stages of cellular respiration in order.
a. glycolysis
b. Kreb’s cycle
c. electron transport chain
6. What does glycolysis break down? Glucose.
What is glucose broken down into during cellular respiration? Pyruvate, NADH and ATP
7. Where does glycolysis take place in the cell? Cytoplasm
Where does cellular respiration take place in the cell? Mitochondrion
8. How many ATP molecules does glycolysis YIELD? 2 How many ATP molecules are gotten from
cellular respiration? 36
9. Cellular respiration is considered an aerobic process because it requires presence of oxygen. An
anaerobic respiration does not.
10. What is the name of the anaerobic breakdown of glucose? Fermentation
11. What are the two main types of fermentation? alcoholic and lactic acid
12. Where does lactic acid fermentation occur in animals? Muscles.
What does it cause? pain and burning
13. What type of fermentation occurs in bread dough? Alcoholic
14. What is the balanced equation for photosynthesis?
6CO2 + 6H20 + Energy  C6H1206 + 602
15. What organelle captures sunlight in plants? Chloroplast
16. What pigment gives green plants their color? Chlorophyll
17. Most plants appear green because chlorophyll does not absorb green light.
18. What gas is produced as a by-product of photosynthesis? Oxygen
19. Describe the light-dependent and light-independent reactions and know where they occur.
The light dependent reaction uses light energy to produce ATP and oxygen (as a waste product). It
occurs in the thylakoids of the chloroplast.
The light-independent reactions use the ATP from the light-dependent reactions, carbon dioxide and
water to produce high energy sugars (glucose). It occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast. It is also
known as the Calvin cycle.
20. What structure is shown below in Figure 8-6 – Chloroplast
21. Look at Figure 8-6. What are the products of the light-dependent reactions? Oxygen, ATP, NADPH
22. In the picture below, carbon dioxide is represented by the letter B, glucose (sugars) are represented by
the letter F and thylakoids are represented by the letter C.
Figure 8-6
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23. The diagram below shows an example of interdependence among aquatic organisms.
During the day, the organisms either use or give off substance A or B, as shown by the arrows. Which
substances are represented by A and B? oxygen and carbon dioxide
Comparison of Photosynthesis and Respiration
Raw Materials
Products
Purpose
Photosynthesis
water and CO2
glucose and oxygen
store energy
Respiration
glucose and oxygen
water and CO2
release energy
24. The process of photosynthesis and respiration can be thought of as a cycle because -the products of one are used as the raw materials of the other
25. The graph below shows how dissolved O2 and CO2 levels changed in a pond over a 24-hour period.
What caused the decrease in O2 concentration during the night?
Decreased photosynthesis
Plants
1. The plants that have flowers are called as Angiosperms
2. The plants that do not have fruit that covers the seeds are called as Gymnosperms
3. The female reproductive part of the flower is called as Pistil and the male reproductive part of the
flower is called as Stamen (it contains Pollen)
4.
What is the purpose of xylem? vascular tissue made of dead plant cells that transports water and
dissolved minerals
5. What is the purpose of phloem? vascular tissue made of living cells that transports sugars
synthesized in the leaves to other parts of the plant.
6. Phototropism: Plants respond to light by bending towards it.
7. Geotropism: Plants respond to gravity (stem goes upwards & roots go downwards).
8. Thigmotropism: Plants respond to touch (Vines develop tendrils that coil around support).
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Chapter 12
Figure 12-1
1. The structure labeled X in Figure 12-1 is a(an) nucleotide (monomer).
Monomers connect to form nucleic acid which is a polymer.
2. What does DNA stand for? Deoxyribonucleic acid
3. The Watson and Crick model of DNA is a(an) double helix, in which two strands are wound around
each other.
4. In eukaryotes, DNA is located in the nucleus
5. During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases
GATCCA
6. A change in a DNA sequence that affects genetic information is mutation.
7. What are the four main types of chromosomal mutations and what happens during each?
inversion – a piece breaks off and attaches in the reverse order
duplication – a piece of a chromosome is copied
deletion – a piece of a chromosome is left out
translocation – a piece of a chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome
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Figure 12-3
8. In Figure 12-3, A, B, and C are three types of RNA.
9. What is molecule B in Figure 12-3, and what is its function? Transfer RNA (tRNA)
– carries amino acids to ribososomes
10. What are the three main parts of an RNA nucleotide? Ribose sugar, phosphate group, nitrogen base
11. Unlike DNA, RNA contains nitrogen base called uracil.
Figure 12-2
12. According to Figure 12-2, what codons specify the amino acid arginine? CGG, CGA, CGC, CGU
13. How many bases are needed to make each codon? 3 bases
14. How many codons are needed to specify one amino acids? One
15. The order of nitrogenous bases in DNA determines the order of amino acids in proteins.
16. Genes contain instructions for assembling proteins.
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Chapters 11 & 14
1. The plants that Gregor Mendel crossed to produce the F1 generation made up the Parental (P) generation.
2. Chemical factors that determine traits are called as genes.
3. The different forms of a gene are called alleles.
4. Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be homozygous
5. Probability is the likelihood that a particular event will occur.
6. The principles of probability can be used to predict the traits of the offspring produced by genetic crosses.
7. When you flip a coin, what is the probability that it will come up tails? 1/2
8. A Punnett square is a diagram that shows the genotypes of the offspring, the alleles in the gametes of
each parent, all possible results of a genetic cross, but does not show the actual results of a genetic cross.
9. A phenotype is the physical characteristic of an organism.
Tt
T
T
t
TT
Tt
TT
T
TT
T
=
tall
t
=
short
Tt
Figure 11-1
10. In the Punnett square shown in Figure 11-1, the genotypes of the offspring are TT and Tt and phenotypes
of all the offspring is tall.
11. Pea plants that are TT, Tt or tt have same/different genotypes.
12. Crossing a pure-bred green-podded (dominant trait) plant with a pure-bred yellow-podded (recessive trait)
plant is symbolized by: GG x gg
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13. When Gregor Mendel crossed true-breeding tall plants (TT) with true-breeding short plants (tt), the
offspring were tall (Tt) because the allele for tallness is dominant
14. If you made a Punnett square showing Gregor Mendel’s cross between true-breeding tall plants and truebreeding short plants, the square would show that the offspring had a genotype that was same/different
from that of both parents.
15. In the P generation, a heretozygous tall plant is crossed with a homozygous short plant. The probability
that an F1 plant will be tall is 50 %
16. The principle of independent assortment states that genes for different traits can segregate independently
during the formation of gametes.
17. The principle of dominance states that some alleles are dominant and others are recessive.
18. How many recessive alleles for a trait must an organism inherit in order to show that trait? 2
19. How many different allele combinations would be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant whose
genotype was RrYY? 2
20. If a pea plant that is heterozygous for round, yellow peas (RrYy) is crossed with a pea plant that is
homozygous for round peas but heterozygous for yellow peas (RRYy), how many different kinds of
phenotypes are their offspring expected to show?2
21. Incomplete dominance is when one allele is not completely dominant over another.
22. Codominance is when both alleles show up in the phenotype
23. Multiple alleles - for e.g. Human genes for blood types.
24. Polygenic traits - for e.g. wide range of skin color in humans
25. What are Gametes? sex cells; They combine during sexual reproduction; examples are egg, sperm
26. Gametes or sex cells have one complete set of chromosomes (one allele for each gene) that means the
gametes have only half the number of chromosomes as compared to the organism’s all other body cells.
27. All the regular body cells (somatic cells) are diploid (have 2 complete sets of chromosomes). The diploid
number is indicated by 2N). The gametes are haploid (haploid number is indicated by N or 1N)
Mitosis
All somatic cells result from mitosis
Meiosis
Only sex cells result from meiosis
2 daughter cells – exactly identical to each other
and parent cell
4 daughter cells – genetically different from each
other and parent cell
# of chromosomes remains same
Diploid Diploid
4 phases
# of chromosomes is cut in half
Diploidhaploid
8 phases
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28. A chromosome consists of many genes.
29. What are all the chromosomes except the sex chromosomes called? autosomes.
30. What chromosomes are needed to produce a female? XX male? XY
31. Give three examples of sex-linked disorders.
color blindness
hemophilia
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
32. Three copies of chromsome 21 (Down’s Syndrome) is known as Trisomy 21.
33. What chromosomes do people with Turner syndrome have? Only 1 X
34. Males with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (karyotype 47,XXY).
35. Sickle cell anemia is a disorder that involves codominant alleles and it results in production
of abnormal red blood cells.
36. Hemophilia may cause excessive bleeding.
37. What does the following picture show? Crossing over
38. The farther apart two genes are located on a chromosome, the more/less likely they are to be inherited
together
RrYy
RY
Ry
rY
ry
RY
RRYY
RRYy
RrYY
RrYy
Ry
RRYy
RRyy
RrYy
Rryy
RrYy
rY
RrYY
RrYy
rrYY
rrYy
ry
RrYy
Rryy
X
Y
Seed Shape
R – round
r – wrinkled
Seed Color
Y – yellow
y – green
Figure 11-2
39. What is the phenotype ratio of the offspring in the Punnett square shown in Figure 11-2? 9:3:3:1
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40. Identify the phenotype of the offspring represented in the square labeled X in Figure 11-2? wrinkled
yellow
41. How many of the offspring will be Round, Yellow? 9
42. What will be genotype of the offspring represented in the square labeled Y in Figure 11-2? rryy
Figure 11-5
43. In Figure 11-5, what is the genotype of the pink-flowered snapdragons? RI
44. What do the alleles in Figure 11-5 show? incomplete dominance
45. According to Figure 11-5, if red-flowered snapdragons and ivory-flowered snapdragons are crossed, what
percentage of their offspring would be expected to be pink-flowered? 100%
46. According to Figure 11-5, if two pink-flowered snapdragons are crossed, what percentage of their
offspring would be expected to be pink-flowered? 50%
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Chapters 15, 16 and 17
1. Charles Darwin proposed the theory of natural selection.
2. According to Darwin, early giraffes probably had necks of same/different lengths and the ones that were
better adapted, survived.
3. What was Darwin’s ship named and what country was he from? HMS Beagle; England
4. Whose theory was “use or lose.” Lamarck.
5. According to Lamarck’s theory aquired traits are passed on to offspring.
6. Structures that are reduced in size and have no apparent function are called as vestigial structure
7. The appendix is an example of a vestigial structure.
8. The wing of a bird and the wing of an insect are examples of analogous structures because they have the
same function, but different structure.
9. The flipper of a dolphin and the leg of a dog are examples of homologous structures because they have
same basic structure (have different mature forms but develop from same embryonic tissues)
but different function.
10. What is evolution? Change in organisms over long periods of time
11. What are fossils? The remains of organisms that lived in the past.
12. The scientists who study fossils and interpret the fossil record are known as Paleontologists.
13. The oldest fossils would normally be found in the lowest rock layers.
14. What are three types of evidence for the theory of evolution?
a. biochemical
b. embryology
c. fossils
15. The similarity between embryos indicates that some organisms have a common ancestor.
16. What is the half-life of an element? Time it takes ½ the element to decay
17. The half-life of Carbon-14 is 5,730 years. How much of the original C-14 in an organism would remain in
a fossil that is 11,460 years old? ¼
18. If the half life of an element is 2,000 years, and I started out with a sample that originally had 60 grams of
that element in it and now I have 15 grams, how old is the sample? 4000years
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19. Geographic isolation is when populations are separated from each other by a mountain range, new river,
etc.
20. Separation of populations by geographic barriers can lead to speciation.
21. Define “Species”. A group of similar individuals who can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.
22. Members of the same species that live in the same area are called as population.
23. What is a gene pool? All the alleles of all the genes in a population
24. The Hardy-Weinberg Principle explains how often alleles occur in a population.
25. What is an organism’s fitness? Its ability to survive and reproduce.
26. The white or light colored peppered moth is the most “fit” in its environment when the trees were light
colored.
27. What turned the peppered moths from light to dark? Industrial Revolution (industrial melanism).
28. What is genetic drift? small gene changes due to random events or chance
29. Earth’s first atmosphere contained little or no oxygen.
30. A mutation can change a gene.
31. What is needed for genetic equilibrium?
1. no mutations
2. random mating
3. no natural selection
4. large populations
5. no immigration
32. When genetic equilibrium is reached, the allele frequencies remain constant. The evolution occurs when
genetic equilibrium is disrupted.
33. When unrelated species begin to look alike because they occupy the same environment, this is convergent
evolution.
34. Darwin’s finches were an example of adaptive radiation, which is when many species evolve from a
common ancestor and one specific trait is improved in each species in order to adapt to the environment.
35. Extinction is the death or disappearance of all members of a species in the wild.
36. An endangered species is a group of organisms near extinction.
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Chapters 3, 4, 5 and 6
1. Another word for producer is autotroph.
2. Green plants or algae are examples of autotrophs.
3. In which way are green plants in a sunny mountain meadow and sulfur bacteria in a deep-sea volcanic vent
alike?
They both are autotrophs and produce carbohydrates
4. The organism which can not make their own food are known as heterotrophs.
5. What does a heterotrophic organism need to do in order to get the energy? Consume other organisms
6. A decomposer that obtains nutrients by breaking down dead and decaying matter.
7. A carnivore feeds only on meat; a herbivore feeds only on plants;
an omnivore feeds on both.
8. Only 10% of the energy stored in an organism can be passed onto the next trophic level. Of the remaining
energy, some is used for the organism’s life processes and the rest is given off as heat.
9. A biomass pyramid shows the amount of living tissue at each trophic level.
10. Why can matter recycle through the biosphere? because matter is not used; it’s transformed (changed)
11. Of the following, water, nitrogen, carbon and energy, which one is not recycled in the biosphere? Energy
– it is used
12. Define the following:
a. denitrification – conversion of nitrates into nitrogen gas
b. nitrogen fixation – conversion of nitrogen gas into ammonia
13. Why do organisms need nutrients? essential life functions
14. What are three factors that contribute to Earth’s climate?
a. Temperature
b. latitude
c. shape and elevation of land masses
d. transport of heat
e. ocean current
15. Define the following:
a. microclimate – the climate within a small area that differs from the climate around it
b. demography – scientific study of populations
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c. niche - the range of physical and biological conditions in which an organism lives and the way
it uses those conditions
d. immigration – moving into a population
e. soil erosion – the wearing away of surface soil by wind and water
f. abiotic- the nonliving elements of an ecosystem
g. biotic – the living elements of an ecosystem
h. photic zone – the region of the ocean that receives light
i. aphotic zone – the region of the ocean that does not receive light
j. deciduous – a tree that loses its leaves in the fall
16. Sulfur and nitrogen compounds in smog combine with water to form acid rain.
17. What happens as DDT moves up the trophic levels in a food chain or web? its levels increase
18. Which factor(s) increase the size of a population?
a. number of births
b. number of individuals immigration
19. When an environment has reached the maximum number of individuals it can support, it has reached its
carrying capacity.
20. The types of Species Interaction (Symbiosis)
Predation (+/-) – predator kills and eats prey; there is a consumer and a resource
Competition (-/-) – species and organisms compete over the same limited resources
Parasitism (+/-) – a parasite is an organism that lives in or on another organism; a host is an organism
that provides nutrients to the parasite; most parasites do not kill their hosts
Mutualism (+ / +) – cooperative partnership between 2 species; both species can benefit
Commensalism - (+ / 0) – one species benefits and the other species is neither helped nor harmed
Biomes
1. Which biome receives less than 25 cm of rain per year? Desert
2. Which biome has permafrost? Tundra
3. Which biome receives at least 250 cm of rain per year? Tropical rain forest
4. Which aquatic Ecosystem includes rivers, ponds and lakes? Freshwater
5. Which aquatic Ecosystem has a mix of fresh and saltwater? Estuaries
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6. In which aquatic Ecosystem the soil is wet part of the year? Wetlands
7. Which biome is found in the Pacific NW & also known as the Temperate Rain Forest? NW Coniferous
Forest
8. Which Biome has shrubs that contain flammable oil & catch fire easily? Temperate Woodland and
Shrubland
9. Which Biome has trees that lose leaves in fall? Temperate Deciduous Forest
10. Which Biome is also known as also known as boreal forest? Taiga
11. Which biome has large herbivores, like rhinos, hippos, etc.? Tropical Savanna
12. Which biome is inland and has perennial grasses (e.g. Midwest U.S.)? Temperate Grassland
13. Which zone in the ocean extends from the low-tide mark to outer edge of continental shelf; has kelp
forests? coastal ocean
14. Which zone in the ocean has warm, shallow water of coastal, tropical oceans and organisms that have
symbiotic relationship with algae? Coral Reefs
15. Which zone in the ocean is permanently dark? Aphotic zone
Genetic Engineering
1. What are restriction enzymes?
The enzyme that recognizes and cuts DNA at a specific sequence of nucleotides by making
incisions, through each sugar-phosphate backbone (i.e. each strand) of the DNA double helix.
2. During Gel Electrophoresis, in which direction will the DNA fragments travel?
The DNA fragments move toward the positive pole of the gel.
3. Why do the DNA fragments travel in this direction?
DNA is negatively charged molecule.
4. Where do the shorter DNA fragments (bands) end up reaching on a completed gel (at the completion of gel
electrophoresis)?
At the end of the gel – close to the positive pole.
5. DNA that does not exist naturally, but is created artificially by combining a gene taken from one organism
and attaching it to the DNA of another organism is called as Recombinant DNA (rDNA).
6. What is a transgenic organism?
Organisms that contain DNA from other species.
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