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Transcript
BUZZWORDS PHYSIOLOGY CELL PHYSIOLOGY 1 Which of the following does NOT have membrane-bound organelles? a.) Prokaryote b.) Eukaryote EUKARYOTES 2 Give two examples of prokaryotes. Bacteria and Archea 3 Human cells are eukaryotic cells. YES or NO? YES 4 What are the parts of the Cell Cycle? G0, G1, D, G2, M (P,M,A,T) 5 Let’s discuss the functions of the different parts of the Prokaryotic Cell. What are the three components and functions of the Cell Envelope? 1. Capsule – antiphagocytic 2. Cell Wall – protection against osmotic pressure 3. Cell Membrane – permeability barrier, acts as the mitochondria 6 How about plasmids? Encodes for EXOtoxin, antibiotic-resistance 7 How about Pili? For attachment AND bacterial CONJUGATION 8 Differentiate Prokaryotic Nucleoid Body from Eukaryotic Nucleus: Nucleoid body – 1 bacterial chromosome, CIRCULAR, no nuclear DNA 9 Differentiate Prokaryotic Ribosome from Eukaryotic Ribosome: Prokaryotic Ribosome – 30, 50s, 70s 10 Let’s discuss the parts of the eukaryotic cell. Differentiate DNA, Histones, Nucleosome, Nucleofilaments, Chromosomes, Nucleus: B, S, P DNA DNA + Histone Nucleosome nucleofilament chromosome 46 chromosome inside the nucleus 11 What is the function of the mitochondria? Powerhouse of the cell 12 What are the Buzzwords associated with the mitochondria? 3 Parts: Outer Mitochondrial Membrane, Inner Mitochondrial Membrane, Mitochondiral Matrix. Mitochondrial DNA, Does NOT follow the genertic code, Leber’s Optic Degeneration 13 What is the function of the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum? Detoxification, Fatty Acid and Cholesterol Formation 14 What are the two types of ribosomes? 1. RER Ribosomes 2. Free-floating Ribosomes 15 Which ribosome produces proteins bound for the mitochondria(e.g. Krebs cycle enzymes)? Free-floating ribosomes 16 Which ribosome produces proteins bound for the cytoplasm(e.g. Glycolysis enzymes)? Free-floating ribosomes 17 Which ribosome produces proteins bound for the cell membrane, lysosomes, and the outside of the cell(e.g. hormones)? RER ribosomes 18 What is the buzzword associated with the Golgi Apparatus? Packaging 19 What are the SPECIFIC functions of the Golgi Apparatus? 20 What is the composition of the cell membrane? Phospholipid bilayer, cholesterol, glycolipid, glycoprotein, water 21 The cell membrane is permeable to NONPOLAR molecules – TRUE or FALSE? TRUE 22 The cell membrane is permeable to LIPIDSOLUBLE substances – TRUE or FALSE? TRUE 23 Let’s discuss water transport. What’s the most common compound in your body? (60% of your body weight) Water 24 Very Good. =) What’s the most common protein in your body? Collagen 25 Very Good uli. =) What’s the most common amino acid in your body? Glycine 26 Ang galing!!! =) Tell me what happens to the ECF in the following situations… Infusion of plain NSS to a patient – Increase or Decrease? Increases 27 Diarrhea – Increase or Decrease? Decreases 28 Seawater Ingestion – Increase or Decrease? Increases 29 Sweating– Increase or Decrease? Decreases 30 Fever – Increase or Decrease? Decreases 31 Diabetes Insipidus – Increase or Decrease? Decreases 32 SIADH – Increase or Decrease? Increases 33 Adrenal Insufficiency – Increase or Decrease? Decreases 34 Let’s discuss INTERcellular transport. Which of the following are used to transport solutes – Tight junctions or Gap junctions? Tight Junctions 35 Which of the following are used for intercellular communication – Tight junctions or Gap junctions? Gap Junctions 36 Which of the following are found in Cardiac muscle cells – Tight junctions or Gap junctions? Gap Junctions 37 Which of the following are found in Smooth muscle cells – Tight junctions or Gap junctions? Gap Junctions 38 Let’s discuss transport mechanisms. Which transport mechanism is used by oxygen, nitrogen and lipid-soluble hormones to enter the cell? Simple Diffusion 39 Non-carrier mediated, “downhill”? Simple Diffusion 40 Carrier-mediated, used ATP: Primary Active Transport 41 Na-K-ATPase pump: Primary Active Transport 42 Na-K-2Cl pump: Secondary Active Transport 43 Carrier-mediated, uses Na instead of ATP, indirectly relies on Na-K-ATPase pump Secondary Active Transport 44 Carrier-mediated, “downhill”, does NOT use ATP Facilitated Diffusion 45 Absorption of glucose into the muscle and adipose tissues: Facilitated Diffusion 46 Absorption of glucose into the small intestinal cells: Secondary Active Transport 47 Stereospecificity, Saturation and Competition are Hallmarks of carrier- or non-carrier mediated transport? Carrier-Mediated Transport 48 What’s the difference between osmosis and diffusion? 1. Osmosis – movement of water 2. Diffusion – movement of solutes 49 Let’s discuss nerve action potential. What causes depolarization? Sodium entry due to opening of Sodium ACTIVATION gates 50 Which is responsible for REpolarization? 1. Prevention of sodium entry – closure of Na Inactivation Gates 2. Potassium exit – opening of potassium gated channels 51 What is the normal nerve resting membrane potential? -70 mV 52 What is the threshold? -30 mV 52 What is the membrane potential during depolarization? +40 mV 53 No further action potentials can be elicited – ARP or ERP? ARP 54 More inward current needed to generate action potentials – ARP or ERP? ERP NEURO PHYSIOLOGY 55 What are the three main parts of a neuron? Cell Body, Axons, Dendrites 56 Let’s discuss neurotransmitters. Which neutrotransmitter is found in the preganglionic and neuro-muscular junction? Acetylcholine 57 VMA is the waste product: Epinephrine, Norepinephrine 58 Found in post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons: Norepinephrine 59 Main secretion of the adrenal medulla: Epinephrine 60 Parkinson’s Disease: Dopamine 61 Schizophrenia: Dopamine 62 Main Excitatory Neurotransmitter of the brain: Glutamate 63 Main Inhibitory Neurotransmitter of the brain: GABA 64 Main Inhibitory Neurotransmitter of the Spinal Cord: Glycine 65 Phenylalanine and Tyrosine would yield which neurotransmitters? Dopamine, Norepinephrine, Epinephrine 66 Let’s discuss the brain. Tell me which part of the brain is responsible for the following… Hearing and balance? Temporal Lobe 67 Vision? Occipital Lobe 68 Judgment, calculation, personality: Frontal Lobe 69 Motor: Frontal Lobe 70 Sensory: Parietal Lobe 71 Sex, Thirst, Appetite, Body Clock (circadian rhythm), Temperature: Hypothalamus 72 Coughing, Vomiting, Swallowing: Medulla 73 Apneustic and Pneumotaxic Centers: Pons 74 Micturition: Midbrain 75 Emotions: Limbic System 76 Broca’s Area: Inferior Frontal Lobe 77 Wernicke’s Area: Superior Temporal Lobe 78 Balance: Cerebellum 79 Basic EEG naman. What waves are found in those who are alert? Beta wave 80 Sleeping? Delta/slow waves 81 Relaxed individuals: Alpha waves 82 Let’s discuss parts of the hypothalamus. Which part is responsible for ADH secretion? Supraoptic Nuclei 83 Which part is responsible for oxytocin secretion? Paraventricular Nuclei 84 Which part is responsible for appetite? Lateral Nucleus 85 Which part is responsible for satiety? Ventromedial Nucleus 86 Differentiate anterior vs posterior nuclei of the hypothalamus Anterior – dissipation of heat. Posterior – conservation of heat 87 What is the main mechanism for heat loss? Radiation 88 What is the main mechanism for heat conservation? Shivering 89 Give at least three buzzwords for malignant hyperthermia: Succinylcholine, halothane, dantrolene, calcium channel blocker, not responsive to NSAIDs 90 Give the parts of the basal ganglia: Striatum, globus pallidus, subthalamic nuclei 91 Crosses the midline immediately, pain and temperature: ALS or DC? ALS 92 Light touch: ALS or DC? Both ALS and DC 93 The following are correctly matched, EXCEPT: a.) Pacinian corpuscle – onion-like, vibration b.) Meissner’s Corpuscle – velocity c. ) Ruffini’s Corpuscle – position d.) Merkel’s disk - tapping Merkel’s disk - location 94 How do I correct for the following: myopia, hyperopia, astigmatism, presbyopia? Biconcave, convex, cylindrical, convex lens 95 Maximal loudness allowed in the workplace for 8 hours: 85-90 dB 96 Level of Loudness that can cause pain: 120 dB 97 Part of the vestibular system responsible for linear acceleration: Utricle and saccule 98 Let’s discuss cranial nerves. Which cranial nerve is responsible for opening of the eyelids? Cranial Nerve III 99 Closing of the eyelids? Cranial Nerve VII 100 Pupillary constriction? Cranial Nerve III 101 Smiling? Cranial Nerve VII 102 Facial Sensation? Cranial Nerve V 103 Sticking out the tongue? Cranial Nerve XII 104 Taste, Anterior 2/3 of the tongue? Cranial Nerve VII 105 General Sensation, Pain, Anterior 2/3 of the tongue? Cranial Nerve V 106 Longest cranial nerve of the body: Cranial Nerve X 107 Let’s move on to the ANS. Identify if sympathetic, parasympathetic or both. Uses acetylcholine: Both 108 Sweating: Sympathetic 109 Uses norepinephrine: Sympathetic 110 Salivation: Both 111 Increased heart rate: Sympathetic 112 Bronchoconstriction Parasympathetic 113 Mydriasis: Sympathetic 114 Uterine contraction: Sympathetic 115 Uterine relaxation: Sympathetic 116 Reuptake of norepinephrine: Sympathetic Muscle Physiology 117 Identify if Skeletal, Smooth or Cardiac… voluntary: Skeletal Muscle 118 Uses MLCK, calmodulin: Smooth Muscle 119 Has Gap junctions Cardiac AND smooth Muscle 120 Most number of sarcoplasmic reticulum: Skeletal Muscle 121 Does NOT have T-tubules Smooth Muscle 122 Does NOT have surface membrane calcium channels: Skeletal Muscle 123 Has no sarcomeres, no striations, no troponin: Smooth Muscle 124 Identify if Fast-twitch (white-muscle fiber) or slow-twitch (red-muscle fiber) muscle fiber… larger: Fast-twitch muscle fiber 125 More enzymes for phosphagen and glycogen-lactic acid system: Fast-twitch muscle fiber 126 Has more mitochondria, myoglobin, capillaries: Slow-twitch muscle fiber 127 Gastrocnemius is an example: Fast-twitch muscle fiber 128 Which part of the sarcomere SHORTENS during muscle contraction? H-zone, I-band 129 What muscle reflex is characterized by ipsilateral flexion and contralateral extension? Flexor-Withdrawal Reflex RESPIRATORY PHYSIOLOGY 130 What type of bronchiole is capable of gas exchange? Respiratory Bronchiole 131 What is our mnemonic for Lung Volumes? ITER 132 IRV + TV = ________ Inspiratory Capacity 133 ERV + RV = _______ Functional Residual Capacity 134 So what are the volumes that compose the Vital Capacity? IRV, TV, ERV 135 What Lung Volume maintains oxygenation whenever one holds his breath? Residual Volume 136 Differentiate anatomic dead space, alveoli dead space and physiologic space. Physiologic dead space = anatomic dead space + alveoli dead space 137 What happens to recoil force and intrapleural pressure during inspiration? Recoil force increases, intrapleural pressure decreases 138 Which of the following stimulates inspiration – apneustic center, pneumotaxic center? Apneustic Center 139 What type of gas stimulates the central chemoreceptors to increase the respiratory rate? Carbon Dioxide (CSF H+) 140 What is the normal FEV1/FVC ratio? 80% 141 What is the normal V/Q ratio? >80% 142 What happens to FEV1/FVC ratio in Obstructive Lung Disease? Decreases 143 Give an example of obstructive lung disease Asthma, COPD, polio 144 In obstructive lung disease, what happens to PCO2 – increase or decrease? Increases Problem in the… pO2 pCO pH Cause 2 Restrictive lung disease signs of :dyspnea, and tachypnea presenting as SOB & weakness Interstitial Can’t breath in Everything else Virus, fungus, etc… Obstructive lung disease increased respiratory rate dyspnea and tachypnea presenting as SOB & weakness Airway Can’t breath out Bacterial Infections → Mucus Plugs Nor mal 145 What is Laplace Law? P = 2T/r 146 Let’s talk about surfactant. What type of alveolar cell produces surfactant? Type II 147 What week does it mature? Week 35 148 What do we give to those less than 35 weeks AOG? Dexamethasone 149 What is the L:S ratio that is indicative of mature levels? 2:1 150 What are the diseases associated with deficiency of surfactant? Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RLD), Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (OLD) 151 Let’s discuss Hemoglobin-O2 dissociation curves. An increase in _______ will lead to a shift to the left Carbon Monoxide (CO) 152 An increase in temperature will lead to a shift to the ________. Right 153 An increase in 2,3 BPG will lead to a shift to the ________. Right 154 An increase in pH will lead to a shift to the _______. Left 155 What do you call the phenomenon associated with unloading of oxygen secondary to increased H+? Bohr Effect 156 What do you call the phenomenon associated with unloading of carbon dioxide secondary to increased oxygen? Haldane Effect 157 Differentiate carboxyhemoglobin with carbaminohemoglobin. Carboxyhemoglobin – Carbon monoxide. Carbaminohemoglobin – Carbon dioxide 158 What is the most ventilated area of the lung? Base 159 What is the most perfused area of the lung? Base 160 What area of the lung has the highest ventilation-perfusion ratio? Apex 161 What happens to arterial PO2 and PCO2 during exercise? No change 162 What happens to venous PCO2 during exercise? Increases 163 What happens to ventilation-perfusion ratio during exercise? more evenly distributed 164 What happens to arterial pH in high altitude? Increases 165 What happens to 2,3 BPH in high altitude? Increases 166 What happens to Hemoglobin-O2 dissociation curve in high altitude? Shift to the right RENAL PHYSIOLOGY 167 Where is erythroipoietin produced? Peritubular capillaries of the kidney 168 What enzyme is present in the kidney to convert Vitamin D to its active form? 1 alpha hydroxylase 169 What is the net gain of water per day? Zero Total Fluid Gains and Losses Water Gain • Liquids – 1500ml • Solid foods – 800ml • Water of oxidation (metabolism waste product) – 300ml • Total daily fluid gain: 2.6L Water Loss • Skin – 600ml • Lungs – 400ml • Kidneys – 1500ml • Intestines – 100ml • Total daily fluid loss: 2.6L 170 What is the normal protein content of urine? zero 171 What is the normal glucose content of urine? zero 172 Mild glucosuria maybe normal in _______. Pregnant patients 173 What is the most vascular part of the kidney? – cortex, medulla, pelvis, capsule? Renal Cortex 174 Choose between cortical or juxtamedullary nephron. Predominant: Cortical Nephron 175 Contains vasa recta: Juxtamedullary Nephron 176 Longer loops of Henle: Juxtamedullary nephron 177 Peritubular capillaries: Both 178 What is the usual daily urine output? 720-1440 ml 179 What bladder muscle is responsible for urination? Detrusor Muscle 180 Let’s discuss the RAA system. Before the RAA system is activated, what neurologic mechanism is activated to increase the HR and consequently the BP? Baroreceptor reflex 181 If the baroreceptor reflex does not work, RAAS kicks in. What renal cells senses changes in BP? Macula densa of the JGA 182 What substance would be secreted in response to changes in BP by the JG cells of the afferent arteriole? Renin 183 What is the action of renin? Converts angiotensinogen (from the liver) to angiotensin I 184 What happens next? Angiotensin I is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs by ACE 185 What is the other effect of ACE? Inhibition of bradykinin 186 What is the effect of angiotensin II on sympathetic activity – increase or decrease? Increases 187 What is the effect of angiotensin II on arterioles? Vasoconstriction 188 What is the effect of angiotensin II on ADH secretion? increases 189 What is the effect of angiotensin II on aldosterone secretion? increases 190 Where is aldosterone produced specifically? Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex 191 What is the effect of aldosterone on PLASMA levels of sodium, potassium and hydrogen? Increase, decrease, decrease 192 What is the effect of the baroreceptor reflex, ADH, angiotensin II and aldosterone on blood pressure? Increases BP 193 What are side effects of high aldosterone levels? Metabolic ALKALOSIS, hypokalemia 194 What are the two main parts of the Nephron? Renal Corpuscle and the Tubular System 195 What is the specific action of ADH on the kidney? Causes insertion of aquaporin/water channels on the distal tubules 196 Describe what happens to inulin based on filtration, reabsorption, secretion: It is filtered but NOT reabsorbed, NOT secreted 197 Describe what happens to PAH in terms of filtration, reabsorption, secretion: It is filtered and secreted but NOT reabsorbed 198 Describe what happens to glucose in terms of filtration, reabsorption and secretion It is filtered and reabsorbed but NOT secreted 199 Between PAH, inulin, glucose and albumin, which of them has the highest clearance? PAH 200 What happens to GFR when I dilate my afferent arteriole – increase or decrease? Increase 201 What happens to GFR when I constrict my efferent arteriole – increase or decrease? Increase 202 The clearance of _______ is used to estimate renal blood flow and renal plasma flow. PAH 203 The clearance of _______ is used to estimate GFR. Inulin 204 What is the renal threshold for glucose? 180mg/dl 205 The descending LH is impermeable to water or electrolytes? electrolytes 206 The ascending LH is impermeable to water or electrolytes? water 207 What is the countercurrent multiplier of the kidney? Loop of Henle 208 What is the countercurrent exchanger of the kidney? Peritubular capillaries 209 What are the three urinary buffers? NaHCO3, NaHPO4, NH4 210 Let’s discuss acid-base abnormalities. Identify based on the buzzword. Hyperventilation is the respiratory compensation: Metabolic acidosis 211 Characterized by decreased respiratory rate and has renal compensation: Respiratory acidosis 212 Diarrhea, RTA, Chronic renal failure: Metabolic acidosis 213 Vomiting, hyperaldosteronism, loop or thiazide diuretics: Metabolic alkalosis 214 Pneumonia, pulmonary embolus, high altitude, psychogenic, salicylate intoxication: Respiratory alkalosis 215 GBS, polio, ALS, MS, Airway obstruction: Respiratory acidosis CARDIOVASCULAR PHYSIOLOGY 216 Where will you find the ductus venosus, ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale in the fetus? Liver, pulmonary arteryaorta, L-R atrium 217 How many umbilical veins are found in the fetus? One 218 What coronary artery is most susceptible to atherosclerosis? Left Anterior Descending (LAD) 219 What organ is the most efficient extractor of oxygen? Heart 220 What is the site of highest resistance in the circulatory system? Medium-sized arterioles 221 Reservoir of blood in the circulatory system: Veins 222 What would happen to the Reynold’s number if there is decreased blood viscosity or increased blood velocity – increase or decrease? Increase 223 What is the significance of a high Reynold’s number? Higher possibility of turbulence 224 Which has greater capacitance/compliance – arteries or veins? Veins 225 Herring’s nerve or carotid sinus nerve is actually cranial nerve ___. IX 226 What is the hormone that counteracts the effect of aldosterone and ADH? ANP 227 The plateau in cardiac action potential is found in what phase? Phase 2 228 What causes phase 2 in cardiac action potential? Entry of calcium (opening of calcium channels) AND closure of potassium voltagegated channels 229 What causes depolarization in pacemaker action potential? Calcium entry 230 Differentiate chronotrophic vs dromotrophic effect: Chronotrophic – change in heart rate. Dromotrophic – change in conduction velocity. 231 What is the normal ejection fraction? 55% 232 What happens to heart rate when preload is increased? Increases 233 What happens to heart contractility when afterload is decreased? Increases 234 What happens to cardiac output when heart rate slows down? decreases 234 What is the other name for preload? Venous return 235 Local control of blood flow is best explained by which of the following – myogenic or metabolic hypothesis? Metabolic hypothesis 236 Which prostaglandins act as vasoconstrictors? PGF, TXA/PGA2 237 Midsystolic click: MVP 238 “Opening snap”: MS, TS 239 Fixed, wide S2 splitting: ASD 240 What is the most common cause of S4? Hypertension 241 What happens to BP and HR whenever you stand from a sitting position? Decrease, increase 242 What happens to TPR during exercise – increase or decrease? Decreases 243 What happens to venous blood volume during hemorrhage? Decreases GASTROINTESTINAL PHYSIOLOGY 244 Function of Auerbach’s plexus: Motility 245 What is the location of the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone? Roof of the 4th Ventricle 246 The upper 1/3 of the esophagus contains smooth or skeletal muscles? Skeletal Muscles 247 Slow waves are generated by what type of pacemaker cells? Interstitial Cells of Cajal 248 The “migrating myoelectric complex” is mediated by what hormone? Motilin 249 Increasing the intra-abdominal pressure against a closed glottis is otherwise known as: Valsalva Maneuver 250 What is the specific site of production of gastrin? G cells of the gastric antrum 251 What is the effect of CCK on the gallbladder and sphincter of Oddi – relax or contract? GB contraction, Sphincter of Oddi Relaxation 252 What is the effect of Secretin? Counteracts HCl 253 What GI hormone stimulates insulin release? GIP 254 Buzzwords associated with saliva: Hypotonic, high in potassium, high in bicarbonate, both sympathetic and parasympathetic 255 What is the innervation of the parotid gland? Cranial Nerve IX 256 True or False. The following are associated with duodenal ulcers: hyperacidity: True 257 More associated with H.pylori True 258 NOT relieved by food intake False 259 Associated with Blood Type O, MEN I, ZES, Cirrhosis, COPD: True 260 What enzyme converts pancreatic trypsinogen to trypsin? Enterokinase 261 Give two examples of primary bile acids: Cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid 262 What is the main site of iron absorption? Duodenum 263 What is the main site of carbohydrate, protein and fat absorption? Jejenum 264 What is the main site of Vitamin B12, Vitamin ADEK, IF, Bile acid absorption? Ileum ENDOCRINE PHYSIOLOGY 265 What is the 2nd messenger system for thyroid hormone? None 266 What is the 2nd messenger system for glucagon? cAMP 267 What is the 2nd messenger system for insulin? Tyrosine Kinase 268 Cortisol attaches to which of the following – cytoplasmic receptor or nuclear membrane receptor? Cytoplasmic Receptor 269 What is the effect of somatostatin on Growth Hormone – increase or decrease? Decreases 270 What is the Effect of PIF/Dopamine on Prolactin – increase or decrease? Decreases 271 If the pituitary stalk is damaged, all pituitary hormones would decrease EXCEPT _______. Prolactin 272 Is Growth Hormone catabolic or anabolic? Both 273 How does GH increase growth? Through IGF production 274 What hormone is responsible for milk production? Prolactin 275 Where is ADH synthesized and stored? Hypothalamus, Posterior Pituitary 276 Where will you find your thyroglobulin – thyroid gland or plasma? Thyroid Gland 277 Which of the following is predominant in the plasma – T4 or T3? T4 278 Is thyroid hormone anabolic or catabolic? Both 279 What is the effect of thyroid hormone on the CNS? Causes maturation during the perinatal period 280 What is the effect of Thyroid Hormone on vitamins? Converts carotene to Vitamin A 281 What is the specific site of production of cortisol? Zona Fasciculata of the Adrenal Cortex 282 Chronic High Cortisol levels may cause diabetes and HPN. True or False? True 283 Addison’s disease is due to high levels of aldosterone. True or false? False 284 21B Hydroxylase Deficiency causes virilization. True or False? True 285 Which protein serves as a marker for endogenously released insulin when a Pt is given insulin exogenously? C-peptide 286 What is the effect of PTH on the plasma levels of the following – vitamin D, calcium, Phosphate Increase, increase, decrease 287 What is the active form of vitamin D? 1,25 dihydroxycholecalcif erol 288 Which cells produces testosterone – Leydig Cells or Sertoli Cells? Leydig Cells 289 How many degree Celcius cooler is the testes compared to the abdominal cavity? 4 290 Main hormone involved in the follicular phase: Estrogen 291 How does prolactin inhibit ovulation? Inhibition of GnRH 292 What is the Strength per square centimeter of x-sec area for both men and women? 3-4 kg/cm2 293 During exercise, when is power maximal? During the first 8-10 seconds 294 Muscles undergo which of the following – hypertrophy or hyperplasia? Hypertrophy 295 What is the cardiac reserve? 400% 296 What is the effect of testosterone on athletic performance? Increases muscle size, muscle strength and aggression 297 What is the effect of cocaine on athletic performance? None 298 Acute effects of hypoxia begin at _______ feet. 12,000 299 Seizures begin at _______ feet. 18,000 300 Naturally acclimatized people have _______ hearts, _______ chest, _______ body mass Larger, larger, smaller 301 Maximum Positive G force before you lose consciousness: +6G 302 Effect of weightlessness on the bones: Loss of calcium and phosphate 303 First symptom at 120 feet below sea level: Joviality 304 Most common symptom of decompression sickness: “bends” 305 Used as a substitute for nitrogen in deep dives: Helium Thank You Very Much! Study Well! =)