Download Biochemistry

BUZZWORDS PHYSIOLOGY
CELL PHYSIOLOGY
1
Which of the following does NOT have
membrane-bound organelles?
a.) Prokaryote
b.) Eukaryote
EUKARYOTES
2
Give two examples of prokaryotes.
Bacteria and Archea
3
Human cells are eukaryotic cells. YES or
NO?
YES
4
What are the parts of the Cell Cycle?
G0, G1, D, G2, M
(P,M,A,T)
5
Let’s discuss the functions of the different
parts of the Prokaryotic Cell. What are
the three components and functions of
the Cell Envelope?
1. Capsule – antiphagocytic
2. Cell Wall – protection
against osmotic pressure
3. Cell Membrane –
permeability barrier, acts
as the mitochondria
6
How about plasmids?
Encodes for EXOtoxin,
antibiotic-resistance
7
How about Pili?
For attachment AND
bacterial
CONJUGATION
8
Differentiate Prokaryotic Nucleoid Body
from Eukaryotic Nucleus:
Nucleoid body – 1 bacterial
chromosome, CIRCULAR, no
nuclear DNA
9
Differentiate Prokaryotic Ribosome from
Eukaryotic Ribosome:
Prokaryotic Ribosome –
30, 50s, 70s
10
Let’s discuss the parts of the eukaryotic
cell. Differentiate DNA, Histones,
Nucleosome, Nucleofilaments,
Chromosomes, Nucleus:
B, S, P  DNA DNA + Histone
 Nucleosome 
nucleofilament 
chromosome  46
chromosome  inside the
nucleus
11
What is the function of the mitochondria?
Powerhouse of the cell
12
What are the Buzzwords associated with
the mitochondria?
3 Parts: Outer Mitochondrial
Membrane, Inner Mitochondrial
Membrane, Mitochondiral
Matrix. Mitochondrial DNA,
Does NOT follow the genertic
code, Leber’s Optic Degeneration
13
What is the function of the Smooth
Endoplasmic Reticulum?
Detoxification, Fatty Acid
and Cholesterol
Formation
14
What are the two types of ribosomes?
1. RER Ribosomes
2. Free-floating
Ribosomes
15
Which ribosome produces proteins bound
for the mitochondria(e.g. Krebs cycle
enzymes)?
Free-floating ribosomes
16
Which ribosome produces proteins bound
for the cytoplasm(e.g. Glycolysis
enzymes)?
Free-floating ribosomes
17
Which ribosome produces proteins bound
for the cell membrane, lysosomes, and
the outside of the cell(e.g. hormones)?
RER ribosomes
18
What is the buzzword associated with the
Golgi Apparatus?
Packaging
19
What are the SPECIFIC functions of the
Golgi Apparatus?
20
What is the composition of the cell
membrane?
Phospholipid bilayer,
cholesterol,
glycolipid,
glycoprotein, water
21
The cell membrane is permeable to NONPOLAR molecules – TRUE or FALSE?
TRUE
22
The cell membrane is permeable to LIPIDSOLUBLE substances – TRUE or FALSE?
TRUE
23
Let’s discuss water transport. What’s the
most common compound in your body?
(60% of your body weight)
Water
24
Very Good. =) What’s the most common
protein in your body?
Collagen
25
Very Good uli. =) What’s the most
common amino acid in your body?
Glycine
26
Ang galing!!! =) Tell me what happens to
the ECF in the following situations…
Infusion of plain NSS to a patient –
Increase or Decrease?
Increases
27
Diarrhea – Increase or Decrease?
Decreases
28
Seawater Ingestion – Increase or
Decrease?
Increases
29
Sweating– Increase or Decrease?
Decreases
30
Fever – Increase or Decrease?
Decreases
31
Diabetes Insipidus – Increase or
Decrease?
Decreases
32
SIADH – Increase or Decrease?
Increases
33
Adrenal Insufficiency – Increase or
Decrease?
Decreases
34
Let’s discuss INTERcellular transport.
Which of the following are used to
transport solutes – Tight junctions or Gap
junctions?
Tight Junctions
35
Which of the following are used for
intercellular communication – Tight
junctions or Gap junctions?
Gap Junctions
36
Which of the following are found in
Cardiac muscle cells – Tight junctions or
Gap junctions?
Gap Junctions
37
Which of the following are found in
Smooth muscle cells – Tight junctions or
Gap junctions?
Gap Junctions
38
Let’s discuss transport mechanisms.
Which transport mechanism is used by
oxygen, nitrogen and lipid-soluble
hormones to enter the cell?
Simple Diffusion
39
Non-carrier mediated, “downhill”?
Simple Diffusion
40
Carrier-mediated, used ATP:
Primary Active Transport
41
Na-K-ATPase pump:
Primary Active Transport
42
Na-K-2Cl pump:
Secondary Active
Transport
43
Carrier-mediated, uses Na instead of ATP,
indirectly relies on Na-K-ATPase pump
Secondary Active
Transport
44
Carrier-mediated, “downhill”, does NOT
use ATP
Facilitated Diffusion
45
Absorption of glucose into the muscle and
adipose tissues:
Facilitated Diffusion
46
Absorption of glucose into the small
intestinal cells:
Secondary Active
Transport
47
Stereospecificity, Saturation and
Competition are Hallmarks of carrier- or
non-carrier mediated transport?
Carrier-Mediated
Transport
48
What’s the difference between osmosis
and diffusion?
1. Osmosis – movement
of water
2. Diffusion –
movement of solutes
49
Let’s discuss nerve action potential. What
causes depolarization?
Sodium entry due to
opening of Sodium
ACTIVATION gates
50
Which is responsible for REpolarization?
1. Prevention of sodium entry
– closure of Na Inactivation
Gates
2. Potassium exit – opening of
potassium gated channels
51
What is the normal nerve resting
membrane potential?
-70 mV
52
What is the threshold?
-30 mV
52
What is the membrane potential during
depolarization?
+40 mV
53
No further action potentials can be
elicited – ARP or ERP?
ARP
54
More inward current needed to generate
action potentials – ARP or ERP?
ERP
NEURO PHYSIOLOGY
55
What are the three main parts of a
neuron?
Cell Body, Axons,
Dendrites
56
Let’s discuss neurotransmitters. Which
neutrotransmitter is found in the preganglionic and neuro-muscular junction?
Acetylcholine
57
VMA is the waste product:
Epinephrine,
Norepinephrine
58
Found in post-ganglionic sympathetic
neurons:
Norepinephrine
59
Main secretion of the adrenal medulla:
Epinephrine
60
Parkinson’s Disease:
Dopamine
61
Schizophrenia:
Dopamine
62
Main Excitatory Neurotransmitter of the
brain:
Glutamate
63
Main Inhibitory Neurotransmitter of the
brain:
GABA
64
Main Inhibitory Neurotransmitter of the
Spinal Cord:
Glycine
65
Phenylalanine and Tyrosine would yield
which neurotransmitters?
Dopamine,
Norepinephrine,
Epinephrine
66
Let’s discuss the brain. Tell me which part
of the brain is responsible for the
following… Hearing and balance?
Temporal Lobe
67
Vision?
Occipital Lobe
68
Judgment, calculation, personality:
Frontal Lobe
69
Motor:
Frontal Lobe
70
Sensory:
Parietal Lobe
71
Sex, Thirst, Appetite, Body Clock
(circadian rhythm), Temperature:
Hypothalamus
72
Coughing, Vomiting, Swallowing:
Medulla
73
Apneustic and Pneumotaxic Centers:
Pons
74
Micturition:
Midbrain
75
Emotions:
Limbic System
76
Broca’s Area:
Inferior Frontal Lobe
77
Wernicke’s Area:
Superior Temporal Lobe
78
Balance:
Cerebellum
79
Basic EEG naman. What waves are found
in those who are alert?
Beta wave
80
Sleeping?
Delta/slow waves
81
Relaxed individuals:
Alpha waves
82
Let’s discuss parts of the hypothalamus.
Which part is responsible for ADH
secretion?
Supraoptic Nuclei
83
Which part is responsible for oxytocin
secretion?
Paraventricular Nuclei
84
Which part is responsible for appetite?
Lateral Nucleus
85
Which part is responsible for satiety?
Ventromedial Nucleus
86
Differentiate anterior vs posterior nuclei
of the hypothalamus
Anterior – dissipation of
heat. Posterior –
conservation of heat
87
What is the main mechanism for heat
loss?
Radiation
88
What is the main mechanism for heat
conservation?
Shivering
89
Give at least three buzzwords for
malignant hyperthermia:
Succinylcholine,
halothane, dantrolene,
calcium channel
blocker, not responsive
to NSAIDs
90
Give the parts of the basal ganglia:
Striatum, globus
pallidus, subthalamic
nuclei
91
Crosses the midline immediately, pain and
temperature: ALS or DC?
ALS
92
Light touch: ALS or DC?
Both ALS and DC
93
The following are correctly matched, EXCEPT:
a.) Pacinian corpuscle – onion-like, vibration
b.) Meissner’s Corpuscle – velocity
c. ) Ruffini’s Corpuscle – position
d.) Merkel’s disk - tapping
Merkel’s disk - location
94
How do I correct for the following:
myopia, hyperopia, astigmatism,
presbyopia?
Biconcave, convex,
cylindrical, convex
lens
95
Maximal loudness allowed in the
workplace for 8 hours:
85-90 dB
96
Level of Loudness that can cause pain:
120 dB
97
Part of the vestibular system responsible
for linear acceleration:
Utricle and saccule
98
Let’s discuss cranial nerves. Which cranial
nerve is responsible for opening of the
eyelids?
Cranial Nerve III
99
Closing of the eyelids?
Cranial Nerve VII
100
Pupillary constriction?
Cranial Nerve III
101
Smiling?
Cranial Nerve VII
102
Facial Sensation?
Cranial Nerve V
103
Sticking out the tongue?
Cranial Nerve XII
104
Taste, Anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
Cranial Nerve VII
105
General Sensation, Pain, Anterior 2/3 of
the tongue?
Cranial Nerve V
106
Longest cranial nerve of the body:
Cranial Nerve X
107
Let’s move on to the ANS. Identify if
sympathetic, parasympathetic or both.
Uses acetylcholine:
Both
108
Sweating:
Sympathetic
109
Uses norepinephrine:
Sympathetic
110
Salivation:
Both
111
Increased heart rate:
Sympathetic
112
Bronchoconstriction
Parasympathetic
113
Mydriasis:
Sympathetic
114
Uterine contraction:
Sympathetic
115
Uterine relaxation:
Sympathetic
116
Reuptake of norepinephrine:
Sympathetic
Muscle Physiology
117
Identify if Skeletal, Smooth or Cardiac…
voluntary:
Skeletal Muscle
118
Uses MLCK, calmodulin:
Smooth Muscle
119
Has Gap junctions
Cardiac AND smooth
Muscle
120
Most number of sarcoplasmic reticulum:
Skeletal Muscle
121
Does NOT have T-tubules
Smooth Muscle
122
Does NOT have surface membrane
calcium channels:
Skeletal Muscle
123
Has no sarcomeres, no striations, no
troponin:
Smooth Muscle
124
Identify if Fast-twitch (white-muscle fiber)
or slow-twitch (red-muscle fiber) muscle
fiber… larger:
Fast-twitch muscle fiber
125
More enzymes for phosphagen and
glycogen-lactic acid system:
Fast-twitch muscle fiber
126
Has more mitochondria, myoglobin,
capillaries:
Slow-twitch muscle fiber
127
Gastrocnemius is an example:
Fast-twitch muscle fiber
128
Which part of the sarcomere SHORTENS
during muscle contraction?
H-zone, I-band
129
What muscle reflex is characterized by
ipsilateral flexion and contralateral
extension?
Flexor-Withdrawal
Reflex
RESPIRATORY PHYSIOLOGY
130
What type of bronchiole is capable of gas
exchange?
Respiratory Bronchiole
131
What is our mnemonic for Lung Volumes?
ITER
132
IRV + TV = ________
Inspiratory Capacity
133
ERV + RV = _______
Functional Residual
Capacity
134
So what are the volumes that compose
the Vital Capacity?
IRV, TV, ERV
135
What Lung Volume maintains oxygenation
whenever one holds his breath?
Residual Volume
136
Differentiate anatomic dead space, alveoli
dead space and physiologic space.
Physiologic dead
space = anatomic
dead space + alveoli
dead space
137
What happens to recoil force and
intrapleural pressure during inspiration?
Recoil force
increases,
intrapleural pressure
decreases
138
Which of the following stimulates
inspiration – apneustic center,
pneumotaxic center?
Apneustic Center
139
What type of gas stimulates the central
chemoreceptors to increase the
respiratory rate?
Carbon Dioxide (CSF H+)
140
What is the normal FEV1/FVC ratio?
80%
141
What is the normal V/Q ratio?
>80%
142
What happens to FEV1/FVC ratio in
Obstructive Lung Disease?
Decreases
143
Give an example of obstructive lung
disease
Asthma, COPD, polio
144
In obstructive lung disease, what happens
to PCO2 – increase or decrease?
Increases
Problem in
the…
pO2
pCO pH
Cause
2
Restrictive lung disease
signs of :dyspnea, and
tachypnea
presenting as SOB &
weakness
Interstitial

Can’t breath in


Everything
else
Virus, fungus,
etc…
Obstructive lung disease
increased respiratory rate
dyspnea and tachypnea
presenting as SOB &
weakness
Airway
Can’t breath
out


Bacterial
Infections →
Mucus Plugs
Nor
mal
145
What is Laplace Law?
P = 2T/r
146
Let’s talk about surfactant. What type of
alveolar cell produces surfactant?
Type II
147
What week does it mature?
Week 35
148
What do we give to those less than 35
weeks AOG?
Dexamethasone
149
What is the L:S ratio that is indicative of
mature levels?
2:1
150
What are the diseases associated with
deficiency of surfactant?
Respiratory Distress
Syndrome (RLD),
Bronchopulmonary
Dysplasia (OLD)
151
Let’s discuss Hemoglobin-O2 dissociation
curves. An increase in _______ will lead
to a shift to the left
Carbon Monoxide (CO)
152
An increase in temperature will lead to a
shift to the ________.
Right
153
An increase in 2,3 BPG will lead to a shift
to the ________.
Right
154
An increase in pH will lead to a shift to the
_______.
Left
155
What do you call the phenomenon
associated with unloading of oxygen
secondary to increased H+?
Bohr Effect
156
What do you call the phenomenon
associated with unloading of carbon
dioxide secondary to increased oxygen?
Haldane Effect
157
Differentiate carboxyhemoglobin with
carbaminohemoglobin.
Carboxyhemoglobin –
Carbon monoxide.
Carbaminohemoglobin –
Carbon dioxide
158
What is the most ventilated area of the
lung?
Base
159
What is the most perfused area of the
lung?
Base
160
What area of the lung has the highest
ventilation-perfusion ratio?
Apex
161
What happens to arterial PO2 and PCO2
during exercise?
No change
162
What happens to venous PCO2 during
exercise?
Increases
163
What happens to ventilation-perfusion
ratio during exercise?
more evenly distributed
164
What happens to arterial pH in high
altitude?
Increases
165
What happens to 2,3 BPH in high altitude?
Increases
166
What happens to Hemoglobin-O2
dissociation curve in high altitude?
Shift to the right
RENAL PHYSIOLOGY
167
Where is erythroipoietin produced?
Peritubular capillaries of
the kidney
168
What enzyme is present in the kidney to
convert Vitamin D to its active form?
1 alpha hydroxylase
169
What is the net gain of water per day?
Zero
Total Fluid Gains and Losses
Water Gain
• Liquids – 1500ml
• Solid foods – 800ml
• Water of oxidation
(metabolism waste
product) – 300ml
• Total daily fluid gain:
2.6L
Water Loss
• Skin – 600ml
• Lungs – 400ml
• Kidneys – 1500ml
• Intestines – 100ml
• Total daily fluid loss:
2.6L
170
What is the normal protein content of
urine?
zero
171
What is the normal glucose content of
urine?
zero
172
Mild glucosuria maybe normal in _______.
Pregnant patients
173
What is the most vascular part of the
kidney? – cortex, medulla, pelvis, capsule?
Renal Cortex
174
Choose between cortical or
juxtamedullary nephron. Predominant:
Cortical Nephron
175
Contains vasa recta:
Juxtamedullary Nephron
176
Longer loops of Henle:
Juxtamedullary nephron
177
Peritubular capillaries:
Both
178
What is the usual daily urine output?
720-1440 ml
179
What bladder muscle is responsible for
urination?
Detrusor Muscle
180
Let’s discuss the RAA system. Before the
RAA system is activated, what neurologic
mechanism is activated to increase the HR
and consequently the BP?
Baroreceptor reflex
181
If the baroreceptor reflex does not work,
RAAS kicks in. What renal cells senses
changes in BP?
Macula densa of the JGA
182
What substance would be secreted in
response to changes in BP by the JG cells
of the afferent arteriole?
Renin
183
What is the action of renin?
Converts
angiotensinogen
(from the liver) to
angiotensin I
184
What happens next?
Angiotensin I is
converted to
Angiotensin II in the
lungs by ACE
185
What is the other effect of ACE?
Inhibition of bradykinin
186
What is the effect of angiotensin II on
sympathetic activity – increase or
decrease?
Increases
187
What is the effect of angiotensin II on
arterioles?
Vasoconstriction
188
What is the effect of angiotensin II on
ADH secretion?
increases
189
What is the effect of angiotensin II on
aldosterone secretion?
increases
190
Where is aldosterone produced
specifically?
Zona glomerulosa of the
adrenal cortex
191
What is the effect of aldosterone on
PLASMA levels of sodium, potassium and
hydrogen?
Increase, decrease,
decrease
192
What is the effect of the baroreceptor
reflex, ADH, angiotensin II and
aldosterone on blood pressure?
Increases BP
193
What are side effects of high aldosterone
levels?
Metabolic ALKALOSIS,
hypokalemia
194
What are the two main parts of the
Nephron?
Renal Corpuscle and the
Tubular System
195
What is the specific action of ADH on the
kidney?
Causes insertion of
aquaporin/water
channels on the distal
tubules
196
Describe what happens to inulin based on
filtration, reabsorption, secretion:
It is filtered but NOT
reabsorbed, NOT
secreted
197
Describe what happens to PAH in terms of
filtration, reabsorption, secretion:
It is filtered and secreted
but NOT reabsorbed
198
Describe what happens to glucose in
terms of filtration, reabsorption and
secretion
It is filtered and
reabsorbed but NOT
secreted
199
Between PAH, inulin, glucose and
albumin, which of them has the highest
clearance?
PAH
200
What happens to GFR when I dilate my
afferent arteriole – increase or decrease?
Increase
201
What happens to GFR when I constrict my
efferent arteriole – increase or decrease?
Increase
202
The clearance of _______ is used to
estimate renal blood flow and renal
plasma flow.
PAH
203
The clearance of _______ is used to
estimate GFR.
Inulin
204
What is the renal threshold for glucose?
180mg/dl
205
The descending LH is impermeable to
water or electrolytes?
electrolytes
206
The ascending LH is impermeable to water
or electrolytes?
water
207
What is the countercurrent multiplier of
the kidney?
Loop of Henle
208
What is the countercurrent exchanger of
the kidney?
Peritubular capillaries
209
What are the three urinary buffers?
NaHCO3, NaHPO4, NH4
210
Let’s discuss acid-base abnormalities.
Identify based on the buzzword.
Hyperventilation is the respiratory
compensation:
Metabolic acidosis
211
Characterized by decreased respiratory
rate and has renal compensation:
Respiratory acidosis
212
Diarrhea, RTA, Chronic renal failure:
Metabolic acidosis
213
Vomiting, hyperaldosteronism, loop or
thiazide diuretics:
Metabolic alkalosis
214
Pneumonia, pulmonary embolus, high
altitude, psychogenic, salicylate
intoxication:
Respiratory alkalosis
215
GBS, polio, ALS, MS, Airway obstruction:
Respiratory acidosis
CARDIOVASCULAR PHYSIOLOGY
216
Where will you find the ductus venosus,
ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale in
the fetus?
Liver, pulmonary arteryaorta, L-R atrium
217
How many umbilical veins are found in
the fetus?
One
218
What coronary artery is most susceptible
to atherosclerosis?
Left Anterior Descending
(LAD)
219
What organ is the most efficient extractor
of oxygen?
Heart
220
What is the site of highest resistance in
the circulatory system?
Medium-sized arterioles
221
Reservoir of blood in the circulatory
system:
Veins
222
What would happen to the Reynold’s
number if there is decreased blood
viscosity or increased blood velocity –
increase or decrease?
Increase
223
What is the significance of a high
Reynold’s number?
Higher possibility of
turbulence
224
Which has greater
capacitance/compliance – arteries or
veins?
Veins
225
Herring’s nerve or carotid sinus nerve is
actually cranial nerve ___.
IX
226
What is the hormone that counteracts the
effect of aldosterone and ADH?
ANP
227
The plateau in cardiac action potential is
found in what phase?
Phase 2
228
What causes phase 2 in cardiac action
potential?
Entry of calcium (opening
of calcium channels)
AND closure of
potassium voltagegated channels
229
What causes depolarization in pacemaker
action potential?
Calcium entry
230
Differentiate chronotrophic vs
dromotrophic effect:
Chronotrophic – change in
heart rate.
Dromotrophic – change
in conduction velocity.
231
What is the normal ejection fraction?
55%
232
What happens to heart rate when preload
is increased?
Increases
233
What happens to heart contractility when
afterload is decreased?
Increases
234
What happens to cardiac output when
heart rate slows down?
decreases
234
What is the other name for preload?
Venous return
235
Local control of blood flow is best
explained by which of the following –
myogenic or metabolic hypothesis?
Metabolic hypothesis
236
Which prostaglandins act as
vasoconstrictors?
PGF, TXA/PGA2
237
Midsystolic click:
MVP
238
“Opening snap”:
MS, TS
239
Fixed, wide S2 splitting:
ASD
240
What is the most common cause of S4?
Hypertension
241
What happens to BP and HR whenever
you stand from a sitting position?
Decrease, increase
242
What happens to TPR during exercise –
increase or decrease?
Decreases
243
What happens to venous blood volume
during hemorrhage?
Decreases
GASTROINTESTINAL PHYSIOLOGY
244
Function of Auerbach’s plexus:
Motility
245
What is the location of the
Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone?
Roof of the 4th Ventricle
246
The upper 1/3 of the esophagus contains
smooth or skeletal muscles?
Skeletal Muscles
247
Slow waves are generated by what type of
pacemaker cells?
Interstitial Cells of Cajal
248
The “migrating myoelectric complex” is
mediated by what hormone?
Motilin
249
Increasing the intra-abdominal pressure
against a closed glottis is otherwise
known as:
Valsalva Maneuver
250
What is the specific site of production of
gastrin?
G cells of the gastric
antrum
251
What is the effect of CCK on the
gallbladder and sphincter of Oddi – relax
or contract?
GB contraction,
Sphincter of Oddi
Relaxation
252
What is the effect of Secretin?
Counteracts HCl
253
What GI hormone stimulates insulin
release?
GIP
254
Buzzwords associated with saliva:
Hypotonic, high in
potassium, high in
bicarbonate, both
sympathetic and
parasympathetic
255
What is the innervation of the parotid
gland?
Cranial Nerve IX
256
True or False. The following are
associated with duodenal ulcers:
hyperacidity:
True
257
More associated with H.pylori
True
258
NOT relieved by food intake
False
259
Associated with Blood Type O, MEN I, ZES,
Cirrhosis, COPD:
True
260
What enzyme converts pancreatic
trypsinogen to trypsin?
Enterokinase
261
Give two examples of primary bile acids:
Cholic acid and
chenodeoxycholic
acid
262
What is the main site of iron absorption?
Duodenum
263
What is the main site of carbohydrate,
protein and fat absorption?
Jejenum
264
What is the main site of Vitamin B12,
Vitamin ADEK, IF, Bile acid absorption?
Ileum
ENDOCRINE PHYSIOLOGY
265
What is the 2nd messenger system for
thyroid hormone?
None
266
What is the 2nd messenger system for
glucagon?
cAMP
267
What is the 2nd messenger system for
insulin?
Tyrosine Kinase
268
Cortisol attaches to which of the following
– cytoplasmic receptor or nuclear
membrane receptor?
Cytoplasmic Receptor
269
What is the effect of somatostatin on
Growth Hormone – increase or decrease?
Decreases
270
What is the Effect of PIF/Dopamine on
Prolactin – increase or decrease?
Decreases
271
If the pituitary stalk is damaged, all
pituitary hormones would decrease
EXCEPT _______.
Prolactin
272
Is Growth Hormone catabolic or anabolic?
Both
273
How does GH increase growth?
Through IGF production
274
What hormone is responsible for milk
production?
Prolactin
275
Where is ADH synthesized and stored?
Hypothalamus, Posterior
Pituitary
276
Where will you find your thyroglobulin –
thyroid gland or plasma?
Thyroid Gland
277
Which of the following is predominant in
the plasma – T4 or T3?
T4
278
Is thyroid hormone anabolic or catabolic?
Both
279
What is the effect of thyroid hormone on
the CNS?
Causes maturation
during the perinatal
period
280
What is the effect of Thyroid Hormone on
vitamins?
Converts carotene to
Vitamin A
281
What is the specific site of production of
cortisol?
Zona Fasciculata of the
Adrenal Cortex
282
Chronic High Cortisol levels may cause
diabetes and HPN. True or False?
True
283
Addison’s disease is due to high levels of
aldosterone. True or false?
False
284
21B Hydroxylase Deficiency causes
virilization. True or False?
True
285
Which protein serves as a marker for
endogenously released insulin when a Pt
is given insulin exogenously?
C-peptide
286
What is the effect of PTH on the plasma
levels of the following – vitamin D,
calcium, Phosphate
Increase, increase,
decrease
287
What is the active form of vitamin D?
1,25
dihydroxycholecalcif
erol
288
Which cells produces testosterone –
Leydig Cells or Sertoli Cells?
Leydig Cells
289
How many degree Celcius cooler is the
testes compared to the abdominal cavity?
4
290
Main hormone involved in the follicular
phase:
Estrogen
291
How does prolactin inhibit ovulation?
Inhibition of GnRH
292
What is the Strength per square
centimeter of x-sec area for both men and
women?
3-4 kg/cm2
293
During exercise, when is power maximal?
During the first 8-10
seconds
294
Muscles undergo which of the following –
hypertrophy or hyperplasia?
Hypertrophy
295
What is the cardiac reserve?
400%
296
What is the effect of testosterone on
athletic performance?
Increases muscle size,
muscle strength and
aggression
297
What is the effect of cocaine on athletic
performance?
None
298
Acute effects of hypoxia begin at _______
feet.
12,000
299
Seizures begin at _______ feet.
18,000
300
Naturally acclimatized people have
_______ hearts, _______ chest, _______
body mass
Larger, larger, smaller
301
Maximum Positive G force before you lose
consciousness:
+6G
302
Effect of weightlessness on the bones:
Loss of calcium and
phosphate
303
First symptom at 120 feet below sea level:
Joviality
304
Most common symptom of
decompression sickness:
“bends”
305
Used as a substitute for nitrogen in deep
dives:
Helium
Thank You Very Much! Study Well! =)