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Transcript
Biology Review
Cell Structure and Function Review
1. Cell specialization means that cells in an
organism are uniquely suited to
a) carry on reproduction.
b) respond to changing conditions.
c) react with the environment.
d) perform a specific function.
Cell Structure and Function Review
2. Which organisms are composed of cells that
do not contain nuclei?
a) eukaryotes
b) prokaryotes
c) animals
d) plants
Cell Structure and Function Review
3. Which two organelles occur in plant cells but
not animal cells?
a) nuclear envelopes and nuclei
b) cell membranes and chromosomes
c) cell walls and chloroplasts
d) ribosomes and chloroplasts
Cell Structure and Function Review
4. Of the following, the term that includes all the
others is
a) nucleolus.
b) nuclear envelope.
c) nucleus.
d) chromosome.
Cell Structure and Function Review
5. If a more concentrated salt solution is on one
side of a membrane and a less concentrated salt
solution is on the other side, water molecules tend
to pass through the membrane
a) from the less concentrated to the more
concentrated solution.
b) from the more concentrated to the less
concentrated solution.
c) equally in both directions.
d) until the cell membrane is broken down.
Cell Structure and Function Review
6. All of the following are types of tissues
EXCEPT
a) muscle.
b) fat.
c) stomach.
d) blood.
Cell Structure and Function Review
8. All cells contain a
a) cell wall.
b) cell membrane.
c) nucleus.
d) mitochondrion.
Cell Structure and Function Review
9. Which of the following statements about the
cell membrane is CORRECT?
a) It prevents the exit of all materials from the
cell.
b) It has a rigid structure composed of cellulose.
c) It is a two-layered structure composed of
lipids and proteins.
d) It is a fluid-filled organelle that surrounds the
nucleolus.
Photosynthesis Review
1. Chlorophyll is important in the
a) formation of carbon dioxide.
b) reactions of the Calvin cycle.
c) formation of ADP from NADP+.
d) absorption of light energy.
Photosynthesis Review
2. The reactants of photosynthesis are
a) CO2 and H2O.
b) CO2 and H2.
c) C and O2.
d) C and H2.
Photosynthesis Review
3. The major products of the light-dependent
reactions are
a) ATP and NADPH.
b) oxygen and water.
c) carbon dioxide and water.
d) ATP and sugars.
Photosynthesis Review
5. The release of energy in an organism depends
on the conversion of
a) AMP to ADP.
b) ADP to ATP.
c) ATP to ADP.
d) ATP to AZP.
Photosynthesis Review
6. All of the following are true about the
thylakoid membrane EXCEPT that it
a) is the site of chlorophyll molecules.
b) contains photosystems I and II.
c) is the site of the Calvin cycle.
d) is composed of lipids and proteins.
Photosynthesis Review
7. At the end of the electron transport chain in
photosynthesis, high-energy electrons are
passed to
a) NADPH.
b) NADP+.
c) ATP.
d) AMP.
Photosynthesis Review
8. The synthesis and breakdown of ATP within
the cells is controlled by
a) active transport.
b) the cell membrane.
c) the nucleus.
d) enzymes.
Photosynthesis Review
10. During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is
used to make sugars in the
a) thylakoids.
b) Calvin cycle.
c) light-dependent reactions.
d) Electron transport chain.
Respiration Review
1. In the Krebs cycle,
a) glucose is broken down into CO2 and H2O.
b) ATP is broken down into ADP and AMP.
c) CO2 is converted into pyruvic acid.
d) pyruvic acid is broken down into CO2 and
H2O.
Respiration Review
2. Cellular respiration benefits organisms by
a) forming carbon dioxide.
b) breaking down glucose.
c) transferring energy to ATP.
d) consuming oxygen.
Respiration Review
3. The most important product of the electron
transport chain in cellular respiration is
a) ATP.
b) NADH.
c) ADP.
d) NAD+.
Respiration Review
4. The first set of reactions in cellular respiration
is
a) the Calvin cycle.
b) the Krebs cycle.
c) electron transport.
d) glycolysis.
Respiration Review
5. Which compounds are produced by the two
main types of fermentation?
a) NAD+ or ATP
b) alcohol or lactic acid
c) glucose or carbon dioxide
d) ADP or ATP
Respiration Review
6. In cellular respiration, the final electron
acceptor is
a) carbon dioxide.
b) oxygen.
c) water.
d) ATP.
Respiration Review
7. The energy that is released during cellular
respiration is stored as
a) ATP and NADH.
b) ATP and NAD+.
c) ADP and NADH.
d) ADP and NAD+.
Respiration Review
8. In glycolysis, each glucose molecule is broken
down into
a) six molecules of carbon dioxide.
b) four molecules of ATP.
c) two molecules of pyruvic acid.
d) two molecules of ATP.
Respiration Review
9. Each of the following processes releases
energy from glucose EXCEPT
a) photosynthesis.
b) glycolysis.
c) cellular respiration.
d) fermentation.
Cell Growth and Division Review
1. In the cell cycle, DNA replication occurs during
the
a) S phase.
b) G1 phase.
c) G2 phase.
d) M phase.
Cell Growth and Division Review
2. In mitosis, sister chromatids separate during
a) metaphase.
b) prophase.
c) anaphase.
d) telophase.
Cell Growth and Division Review
5. Chromosomes are made up of
a) nuclear RNA.
b) DNA and protein.
c) protein.
d) DNA.
Cell Growth and Division Review
6. At the end of mitosis, each daughter cell has
a) the same number and kinds of chromosomes as
in the parent cell.
b) the same number but different kinds of
chromosomes as in the parent cell.
c) twice the number of chromosomes as in the
parent cell.
d) half the number of chromosomes as in the
parent cell.
Cell Growth and Division Review
7. In mitosis, each of the following is correct
EXCEPT that the
a) spindle forms during telophase.
b) nucleolus disappears during prophase.
c) chromosomes line up across the equator
during metaphase.
d) sister chromatids become separate
chromosomes during anaphase.
Cell Growth and Division Review
8. Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have
lost the ability to control their
a) size.
b) weight.
c) mass.
d) growth.
Cell Growth and Division Review
9. As a cell grows larger, its volume increases
a) at the same rate as its surface area.
b) more slowly than its surface area.
c) more quickly than its surface area.
d) with no relationship to surface area.
Cell Growth and Division Review
10. The rate at which waste products are
produced by a cell depends on its
a) weight.
b) mass.
c) volume.
d) surface area.
Heredity Review
1. Offspring produced by crossing parents that
have different characteristics are called
a) alleles.
b) F2.
c) homologs.
d) hybrids.
Heredity Review
2. A Punnett square is used to determine the
a) result of meiosis I.
b) result of segregation.
c) probable outcome of a cross.
d) actual outcome of a cross.
Heredity Review
3. The probability that an event will occur in a
certain number of trials is calculated by dividing
the number of times the event occurs by the
a) number of times the event is expected to
occur.
b) number of times the event occurred
previously.
c) number of times the event does not occur.
d) number of trials when the event could occur.
Heredity Review
4. Meiosis produces
a) two genetically identical haploid cells.
b) four genetically identical haploid bodies.
c) four genetically different diploid cells.
d) four genetically different haploid cells.
Heredity Review
5. What assorts independently during meiosis?
a) chromosomes
b) genes
c) alleles
d) phenotypes
Heredity Review
6. If a hybrid has a phenotype that is midway
between the phenotypes of its true-breeding
parents, the trait being studied is probably
controlled by
a) incompletely dominant alleles.
b) codominant alleles.
c) multiple alleles.
d) linked genes.
Heredity Review
7. An important function of meiosis is to
a) increase the diploid chromosome number of
a species.
b) maintain the diploid chromosome number of
a species.
c) increase the number of dominant alleles.
d) increase the number of recessive alleles.
Heredity Review
8. The genetic makeup of an individual is its
a) genotype.
b) phenotype.
c) F1.
d) F2.
Heredity Review
9. In guinea pigs, black color is dominant. When
two hybrid black guinea pigs are crossed, the
probability of producing a white guinea pig is
a) 1/2.
b) 1/4.
c) 1/3.
d) 3/4.
Heredity Review
10. The effects of a dominant allele are seen
a) only if both alleles are dominant.
b) only if the other allele is recessive.
c) regardless of the other allele.
d) only in female offspring.
DNA Review
1. If one strand of DNA has the sequence of
nitrogenous bases AACTG, its complementary
strand has the sequence
a) TTGAC.
b) AACTG.
c) UUBAC.
d) AACUC.
DNA Review
3. Transfer RNA is important in
a) synthesizing RNA codons.
b) assembling ribosomes.
c) transporting messenger RNA.
d) adding amino acids to a polypeptide.
DNA Review
4. A frameshift mutation usually produces a
a) change in the structure of ribosomal RNA.
b) more drastic change than a point mutation.
c) change in the appearance of a chromosome.
d) new segment of DNA in several genes.
DNA Review
5. The DNA that results from replication consists
of
a) one molecule with two new strands and one
molecule with the two original strands.
b) two molecules that each contain one new
strand and one original strand.
c) two molecules composed of new strands.
d) two molecules composed of old strands.
DNA Review
6. The information that directs protein synthesis
is contained in DNA's
a) sugars.
b) phosphate groups.
c) nitrogenous bases.
d) enzymes.
DNA Review
7. The Hershey-Chase experiments on
bacteriophages showed that the genetic
information is carried in
a) proteins.
b) bacteria.
c) DNA.
d) RNA.
DNA Review
8. A single strand of DNA acts as a template for
a) RNA.
b) cytoplasmic DNA.
c) nuclear DNA.
d) ribosomes.
DNA Review
9. Proteins that bind to DNA regulate gene
expression in
a) eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes.
b) prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes.
c) neither eukaryotes nor prokaryotes.
d) both eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
DNA Review
10. All nucleotides contain each of the following
EXCEPT a
a) protein.
b) nitrogenous base.
c) sugar.
d) phosphate group.
Evolution Review
1. Most genetic variation is due to
a) mutation and natural selection.
b) mutation and genetic shuffling.
c) artificial selection and natural selection.
d) founder effects and sexual recombination.
Evolution Review
2. A change in climate that makes the
environment drier is likely to result in
a) disruptive selection.
b) directional selection.
c) artificial selection.
d) stabilizing selection.
Evolution Review
3. A population that satisfies the conditions of
the Hardy-Weinberg principle will experience
a) directional selection.
b) stabilizing selection.
c) a founder effect.
d) no natural selection.
Evolution Review
4. Speciation cannot take place without
a) homologous structures.
b) disruptive selection.
c) geographic isolation.
d) reproductive isolation.
Evolution Review
5. The likely effect of natural selection on a
single-gene trait is
a) selection by genetic drift.
b) genetic equilibrium.
c) reproductive isolation.
d) a change in allele frequencies.
Evolution Review
6. Which of the following is LEAST likely to affect
genetic equilibrium?
a) migration
b) selective mating
c) population size
d) mutation
Evolution Review
7. Natural selection operates only on an
individual's
a) gene pool.
b) gene frequency.
c) phenotype.
d) genotype.
Evolution Review
8. Among the finch populations of the
Galápagos Islands, the founder effect,
reproductive isolation, and competition all
contributed to
a) speciation.
b) genetic equilibrium.
c) stabilizing selection.
d) genetic drift.
Evolution Review
9. A trait that has many phenotypes is probably
controlled by
a) many genes and environmental factors.
b) one gene that has only two alleles.
c) environmental factors and not by genes.
d) one gene and one environmental factor.
Evolution Review
10. Genetic drift is most likely to occur in
populations that are
a) at genetic equilibrium.
b) experiencing directional selection.
c) small in size.
d) large in size.
All of these questions and more are
found on:
• http://phschool.com/webcodes10/index.cfm?
wcprefix=cbk&wcsuffix=9999&area=view
Which of course is linked from:
• http://www.upsd.wednet.edu/Page/789