Download Pathophysiology Name Homework for Chapter 7, Part 2

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Name
Homework for Chapter 7, Part 2 - Hypersensitivities
Instructions:
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Use your lecture notes and textbook to find the answers to these questions.
When finished, enter your answers on the electronic version of the homework posted on
Canvas.
You may do this as many times as you want until you are happy with your grade.
1. The most severe type I hypersensitivity response is:
A) eczema.
B) allergic rhinitis.
C) serous otitis.
D) anaphylaxis.
2. Which cells are stimulated by the presence of antibodies in a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Mast cells
B) Macrophages
C) B lymphocytes
D) T lymphocytes
3. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following antibodies?
A) IgG
B) IgD
C) IgM
D) IgE
4. What is the effect of repeated exposure to an allergen in an atopic individual?
A) The allergic response gets worse.
B) Antibody production is suppressed.
C) Antibody formation remains constant.
D) Tc cell activity increases significantly.
5. Desensitization therapy improves allergies by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Producing IgG blocking antibodies that prevent the allergen from binding to IgE
B) Decreasing the amount of IgE in the body
C) Decreasing the amount of antigen in the bloodstream
D) Decreasing the responsiveness of the bronchi and blood vessels to histamine
6. In type II hypersensitivity, tissue injury is caused by:
A) autoantibody activation of complement and subsequent destruction of target cells.
B) autoantibody stimulation of NK cells that destroy target cells.
C) autoantibody opsonization of target cells and subsequent phagocytosis.
D) all of the above.
7. Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disease caused by autoantibodies that:
A) stimulate the production of thyroid hormone.
B) block the effects of thyroid hormone.
C) destroy the thyroid gland.
D) destroy cells that normally respond to thyroid hormone.
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8. Raynaud phenomenon is an example of a:
A) type I hypersensitivity.
B) type II hypersensitivity.
C) type III hypersensitivity.
D) type IV hypersensitivity.
9. Type IV hypersensitivities, such as poison ivy reactions, are initiated by:
A) B cells that release IgD 24 to 48 hours after exposure.
B) the release of neutrophil chemotactic factor.
C) the stimulation of cytotoxic T cells.
D) the release of large quantities of IgE.
10. Which of the following features is characteristic of a type IV hypersensitivity?
A) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated toxicity
B) Delayed response
C) Usually life-threatening
D) Mediated by the complement system
11. A positive tuberculin skin test for detecting the presence of tuberculosis is indicative of which type of
hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
12. Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions involves the formation of antibodies against tissuespecific antigen?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
13. Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions is mediated by Tc and Td cells?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
14. When a person has an allergic reaction to a bee sting, which type of hypersensitivity response is
occurring?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
15. Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions involves the formation of antigen-antibody
(immune) complexes that get deposited on vessel walls or in extravascular tissue?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
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16. What is the effect of histamine when it binds to H1 receptors?
A) Bronchodilation
B) Vasodilation and bronchoconstriction
C) Release of neurotransmitters
D) Increased gastric acid secretion
17. Which of the following receptors, when bound to histamine, stimulates gastric acid secretion in the
stomach?
A) H1
B) H2
C) H3
D) H4
18. Which of the following clusters of symptoms would likely indicate the presence of atopic (allergic)
disease from pollen exposure?
A) Chest pain, shortness of breath, and abdominal cramping
B) Weight loss, anxiety, and tremors
C) Rhinorrhea, watery eyes, and headache
D) Jaundice, fatigue, and decreased urine output
19. Autoimmunity can result from all of the following hypersensitivities except:
A) type I.
B) type II.
C) type III.
D) type IV.
20. Which of the following factors are known triggers for those who have a genetic predisposition for
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
A) Alcohol and intravenous drug use
B) Viral infections and UV light
C) Pollens and food allergens
D) Stress and anxiety
21. Disease characteristics of SLE include:
A) Tc cell destruction of lung tissue and the gastrointestinal lining.
B) deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys, brain, and heart.
C) autoantibody destruction of the thyroid gland.
D) Tc cell damage to the liver.
22. Manifestations of the autoimmune disease SLE include:
A) wheezing, eczema, and itching.
B) pulmonary edema, leg swelling, and vein distention.
C) arthritic joint pain, pleuritic chest pain, and rash.
D) nasal polyps, headache, and rhinorrhea.
23. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what
type of immune reaction occurs?
A) Autoimmune
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Alloimmune
D) Allergic
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24. A person with type O blood has which of the following antigens present on their red blood cells?
A) A and B
B) Rh
C) O
D) None of the above
25. If a person has type AB blood, she is likely to have:
A) high titers (levels) of anti-A antibodies.
B) high titers (levels) of anti-B antibodies.
C) no antibodies against A or B antigen.
D) high titers (levels) of anti-A antibodies and anti-B antibodies.
26. A person with type AB blood is a universal:
A) bone marrow transplant donor.
B) bone marrow transplant recipient.
C) blood donor.
D) blood recipient.
27. Transfusion of A-negative blood to an O-positive individual will have which of the following results?
A) Improved red blood cell count
B) Clumping and lysis of red blood cells
C) Production of anti-B antibodies
D) An Rh incompatibility reaction
28. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a lethal condition caused by the destruction of fetal blood by
maternal antibodies. This condition involves an immune reaction against which of the following
antigens on the fetal red blood cell?
A) A
B) B
C) O
D) Rh D
29. What type of reaction occurs when the body mounts an aggressive response against an organ
transplanted from another person?
A) Type I hypersensitivity
B) Autoimmune
C) Alloimmune
D) Immunosuppressive
30. Hyperacute allograft rejection is caused by:
A) cytokines and growth factors produced by trauma to vascular endothelial cells.
B) preformed antibodies that react immediately with the graft.
C) Tc and NK cell destruction of the graft.
D) production of antibodies to the new graft by B lymphocytes.
31. Which pair of relatives has the highest chance of sharing both HLA haplotypes, making them a good
match for an organ transplant from one to the other?
A) Mother and daughter
B) Father and son
C) Siblings
D) Mother and father
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Critical Thinking Questions
32. A woman is allergic to cat hair. Which of the following is CORRECT?
A) If she repeatedly exposes herself to cat hair she will gradually become less allergic.
B) Other members of her family probably don’t suffer any more allergies than the general population.
C) She probably makes more IgE than normal.
D) Her allergy symptoms are probably due to a deficiency of mast cells.
32. A patient diagnosed with Raynaud phenomenon, in which antigen-antibody complexes deposit in
small capillaries when the temperature drops. Which of the following would you be likely to observe
in this patient?
A) difficulty breathing in cold weather
B) abnormally slow hair growth during the winter
C) kidney problems when body temperature drops at night
D) blue coloration in the tips of the fingers and nose in cold weather
33. A biopsy of tissues from a patient with kidney disease reveals deposition of immune complexes
containing antinuclear antibodies. Further tests reveal that the same complexes have also been
deposited in the brain, heart and other organs. This patient is probably suffering from:
A) Hashimoto disease
B) Grave disease
C) severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
D) systemic lupus erythematosus
34. Which of the following is most likely to lead to development of an autoimmune disease?
A) intolerance of self-antigens
B) decline in numbers of lymphocytes
C) atrophy of the thymus after puberty
D) inability to produce immunoglobulins
35. Blood tests of a pregnant woman reveal the presence of Rh-D antigens on her red blood cells. Which
of the following is CORRECT?
A) Her fetus could develop hemolytic disease of the newborn.
B) She would not test positive for anti-Rh antibody.
C) She would develop anti-Rh antibodies if exposed to Rh+ blood.
D) She should be treated with RhoGAM after birth of the baby.