Download Click to Sample

Lecturer Testbank
This testbank has been created to supplement Field and Cartwright-Hatton’s Essential
Abnormal and Clinical Psychology.
The questions have been split out by chapter. Correct answers are marked with an
asterisks.
Chapter 1: The big issues in classification, diagnosis, and research into psychological
disorders
1. Which of the following is not one of the ‘four Ds’ that can be used to define what
makes somebody ‘abnormal’?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Deviance
Distress
Difficult*
Dangerous
2. When was the fifth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
Disorders (DSM 5) published?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1990
2000
2010
2013*
3. Which of the following assumptions are not made by classification systems for
psychological disorders, such as DSM-5 and ICD-10?
A. Different psychological disorders are distinct from each other
B. Diagnosis is possible only if the ultimate causes of symptoms are understood*
C. Diagnosis of a specific disorder will ensure that a person will receive the most
appropriate treatment
D. Two patients with the same diagnosis (e.g. ‘Schizophrenia’) are likely to be similar to
each other.
4. Which of the following criticisms were made of DSM 5?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The number of different psychological disorders was reduced
The threshold for being diagnosed with a psychological disorder was lowered*
The symptom-based approach was adopted
Fewer people would receive medication for their psychological disorder
5. Psychological (or case) formulation….
A.
B.
C.
D.
Usually takes place alongside diagnosis of a specific disorder*
Is based on the psychoanalytic approach
Is not suitable for patients who are seriously mentally ill
All of the above
6. What does the implicit association test (IAT) measure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The strength of automatic associations between different categories of objects*
Beliefs about a certain object, e.g. spiders
Working memory capacity
The likelihood that a person will behave in a certain way
7. What can functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) tell us?
A. Which parts of the brain have abnormal structure.
B. If levels of neurotransmitters in the brain are within normal levels
C. Which areas of the brain are relatively active, and which relatively underactive, at
that moment in time *
D. The pattern of electrical activity on the scalp
8. Which of the following statements about qualitative research methods are true?
A. The aim is to gather a deep understanding of human experience
B. Findings from qualitative research can be used to develop theories and hypotheses
that can be tested in future research
C. Caution is required before generalising the findings to people other than those who
were studied
D. All of the above *
9. Which of the following is a disadvantage of cross-sectional research methods?
A. They do not allow us to characterise psychological disorders accurately
B. They do not allow us to identify the causes or consequences of psychological
disorders*
C. They do not allow us to demonstrate associations between different psychological
constructs
D. They do not enable us to quantify human behaviour or subjective experience
10. Studies that use prospective (or longitudinal) research methods can inform us….
A. Which symptoms cluster together
B. If one symptom causes a different symptom
C. Which psychological characteristics predict who will develop a psychological disorder
in the future*
D. If one treatment is better than another
Chapter 2: How are Psychological Disorders Treated?
1. Which of these is not a benefit of prescribing medications for psychological
disorders?
A. Medications usually have long-lasting effects that are maintained once the
medication is withdrawn*
B. Medications are usually cheaper to provide than therapies
C. There are not enough qualified therapists to give therapy to all who need it.
Medication can help people who don’t have access to therapy
D. Taking medication takes less time and effort than engaging in therapy
2. What is a randomised controlled trial (RCT)?
A. An experiment where participants take part in a number of interventions in a
randomised order
B. An experiment where some of the participants will be randomly assigned to receive
the intervention of interest, and the others will receive no treatment or a control
treatment *
C. An experiment where all participants trial a new treatment, followed by a control
treatment
D. None of the above
3. Which of the following is not a difficulty of running an RCT?
A. It is difficult to know whether improvements in treated clients were due to the new
intervention or simply the passage of time*
B. Drop-out rates are often very high
C. It is difficult to make sure that outcome assessments are objective and unbiased
D. The researcher’s excitement about an intervention may result in that intervention
doing better than it’s comparison
4. What does it mean to have a “double-blind” trial?
A. The participant doesn’t know whether or not they are receiving the treatment of
interest
B. The researcher doesn’t know whether or not the participant is receiving the
treatment of interest
C. Neither the participant or the researcher knows whether or not the participant is
receiving the treatment of interest*
D. Both the participant and the researcher know whether or not the participant is
receiving the treatment of interest
5. Why might meta-analyses of treatment trials be used in the context of intervention
evaluation?
A. Meta-analyses test whether it is feasible to carry out a trial of a new intervention
B. Meta-analyses enable the pooling of results from a number of trials, to give a more
powerful insight into the effectiveness of new interventions*
C. Meta-analyses of treatment trials identify why new interventions are or are not
effective
D. Both B and C
6. Which of the following describes the theoretical framework of Freud’s
psychodynamic theory?
A. People are influenced by early traumatic experiences
B. People are influenced by ‘unconscious desires’
C. Characters and situations in people’s dreams are symbolic of other things, such as
the individual’s feelings of resentment or sexual desires
D. All of the above*
7. Which of the following is true of Freud’s psychodynamic approach to treatment of
psychological disorders?
A. Freud identified the role of the unconscious and early life experiences, leading to the
later development of other models of psychological treatment*
B. It has been shown, in rigorous RCTs, to be superior to CBT for most psychological
disorders
C. It is based on sound scientific understanding
D. None of the above
8. Why are clients given homework as part of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)?
A. To test the client on what they have learnt during the session
B. To check that the client is engaged with the therapy
C. To practice what they have learnt during the session within the outside world*
D. None of the above
9. Which of the following is not an ethical principle from the Code of Ethics and
Conduct (2009)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dependability*
Competence
Integrity
Respect
10. In which of the following scenarios would it be appropriate to break the
confidentiality agreement with a client?
A. It would never be appropriate to break the confidentiality agreement with a client
B. If a client tells you that they have a clear plan to kill themselves after leaving the
session
C. If a client tells you that they have abused a child
D. Both B and C*
Chapter 3: Childhood Disorders
1. Which of the following anxiety disorders are specific to childhood, according to the
ICD-10 classification system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Generalised Anxiety Disorder
Separation Anxiety Disorder*
Panic Disorder
None of the above
2. Anxiety disorders run in families. Does this mean that anxiety is heritable?
A. Yes. Based on this information, anxiety disorders are probably heritable
B. Maybe, but it could be because anxious people behave in a way that means that
their relatives are more likely to become anxious
C. Maybe, but it could be because of the shared environment between relatives that
makes them all more prone to anxiety
D. Both B and C*
3. What effect may overprotection have on children?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It gives children a sense of safety and boosts their confidence
It gives children opportunities to take risks
It gives children subtle messages that they can’t cope on their own*
It improves anxiety symptoms in sensitive or cautious children
4. What is the optimum treatment for children with anxiety disorders, according to
evidence from the large medication and therapy for anxiety study by Walkup et al.
(2008)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT)
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI) medication
A combination of CBT and SSRI medication*
Psychodynamic therapy
5. At what age does depression begin to have a moderately large genetic component?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Infancy
Adolescence*
Early childhood
Pre-adolescence
6. According to the systematic review by McLeod et al., (2007), which parenting style
accounts for the largest proportion of variance in childhood depression?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Parental withdrawal
Parental aversiveness*
Parental warmth
Parental control
7. Which of the following do children with behavioural problems have an increased risk
of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Poor job prospects
Poor interpersonal relations
Substance misuse
All of the above*
8. Which of the following is a problematic consequence of harsh, ineffective
punishments by parents:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Children get lots of attention for unpleasant behaviour
Children are less likely to learn the behaviour that the parent is attempting to teach
It is damaging to the parent-child relationship
All of the above*
9. Which of the following is not a technique used in parenting skills training
programmes for children with behaviour problems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Relationship-building play
Positive reinforcement of good behaviours
Attending to unwanted behaviours*
Setting limits
10. Are parents to blame for childhood psychological disorders?
A. Maybe – the small amount of variance explained by parenting may be due to
differences in children’s sensitivity towards parenting, or because research has not
yet considered the right aspects of parenting
B. Maybe – parenting interventions work, so parenting probably plays an important
role in maintaining the disorder
C. Definitely not. There is no convincing evidence to say that they are to blame
D. Both A and B*
Chapter 4: Schizophrenia
1. Which of the following is not a category of symptoms of Schizophrenia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aggressive*
Dysfunctional
Positive
Negative
2. Which of the following events, if experienced during childhood, is associated with
increased risk of developing Schizophrenia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Divorce of parents
Bullying
Sexual abuse
All of the above*
3. What is the primary action of antipsychotic drugs in the brain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
They increase serotonin activity
They increase dopamine activity
They reduce dopamine activity*
They reduce serotonin activity
4. Antipsychotic drugs primarily affect which symptoms of schizophrenia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Positive symptoms*
Negative symptoms
Disorganised symptoms
All of the above
5. What is the relationship between dissociative symptoms and auditory
hallucinations?
A. Auditory hallucinations trigger dissociative symptoms
B. Auditory hallucinations are more likely to occur shortly after people experience an
increase in dissociative symptoms*
C. Negative symptoms trigger both dissociative symptoms and auditory hallucinations
D. There is no relationship
6. Enlargement of the ventricles is particularly associated with which symptoms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Positive
Negative*
Disorganised
All symptoms
7. What percentage of patients with Schizophrenia show some improvement in
symptoms if they take antipsychotic drugs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0%
30%
70%*
100%
8. Which of the following is a side-effect of antipsychotic drugs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Weight gain
Sedation
Extrapyramidal symptoms
All of the above*
9. Social-skills training for patients with Schizophrenia has beneficial effects on
A.
B.
C.
D.
Psychosocial functioning and independent living*
Positive symptoms
The risk of relapse
Dopamine activity in the brain
10. In order to reduce auditory hallucinations, transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
should be directed which region of the brain?
A. Striatum
B. Hippocampus
C. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
D. Temperoparietal junction*
Chapter 5: Mood disorders
1. What is the lifetime prevalence of bipolar disorder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Less than 0.01%
About 0.5%
About 1%*
More than 5%
2. What is the heritability of depression?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0% (not heritable at all)
10-20%
30-40%*
70%
3. The kindling hypothesis of mood disorders predicts that…..
A. People become more sensitive to stress after experiencing a traumatic life event*
B. People become more resilient to stress after experiencing a traumatic life event
C. Stressful life events lead to depressive episodes in people who have a family history
of depression
D. Stressful life events have no influence on depressive episodes in people who have a
family history of depression
4. Neuroimaging and post-mortem studies of depressed patients’ brains reveal that
they have….
A. Fewer dopamine receptors
B. Fewer serotonin receptors*
C. More dopamine receptors
D. More serotonin receptors
5. Patients with mood disorders have reduced grey matter volume and glucose
metabolism in the….
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
Amygdala
Anterior Cingulate Cortex*
Olfactory bulb
6. In depression, interpretive bias refers to the tendency to….
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perceive harmless bodily sensations as a sign of an impending heart attack
Shift the attention to negative information in the environment
Preferentially recall negative information
Infer negative information from ambiguous scenarios*
7. Which of the following types of studies have been used to test predictions about the
causal role of depressogenic cognitive styles in mood disorders?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Attentional bias modification studies
Brain imaging studies
Mood priming studies*
All of the above
8. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Most depressed patients find that their symptoms get worse if they take an
antidepressant
B. Antidepressants do not work
C. Many depressed patients experience an improvement in their symptoms if they are
given a placebo*
D. Antidepressants are no more effective than placebo
9. Which of the following techniques are not normally used in cognitive behaviour
therapy for depression?
A. Thought catching
B. Reality testing
C. Cognitive rehearsal
D. Social-skills training*
10. Cognitive behaviour therapy is an effective treatment for depression because….
A. Cognitive change occurs first, and leads to an improvement in mood*
B. An improvement in mood occurs first, and this leads to a change in cognition
C. Patients imitate the therapist’s cognitive style, and this leads to an improvement in
mood
D. It prevents people from experiencing negative mood ever again
Chapter 6: Generalised anxiety disorder
1. What percentage of GAD sufferers will also have another psychological disorder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1%
5%
50%
90%*
2. What is the ratio of female to male sufferers of GAD?
E.
F.
G.
H.
1:1
2:1*
3:1
4:1
3. What is the heritability of GAD?
E.
F.
G.
H.
0% (not heritable at all)
Between 15 and 30%*
Between 45 and 60%
Between 75 and 90%
4. How might parents increase the likelihood that their children will develop GAD?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Attachment style
Modelling
Parenting style
All of the above*
5. Which part of the brain is hyper-responsive in GAD?
E.
F.
G.
H.
Amygdala*
Hippocampus
Thalamus
Olfactory bulb
6. What distinguishes worry in GAD from worry in people who do not have the
disorder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The content of worries
The anxiety associated with worry
The controllability of the worry*
All of the above
7. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Cognitive behaviour therapy is not an effective treatment for GAD
B. Cognitive behaviour is an effective treatment for GAD, but is no more effective
than other forms of psychological therapy
C. Cognitive behaviour therapy should be combined with anxiolytic medication for
maximum effectiveness
D. Cognitive behaviour therapy is an effective treatment for GAD, and is more
effective than other forms of psychological therapy*
8. Why are doctors cautious when prescribing benzodiazepines for patients with GAD?
A.
B.
C.
D.
They are addictive*
They are not effective
They cause incontinence
They are expensive
9. Which treatments for GAD lead to changes in cognitive biases?
E.
F.
G.
H.
Cognitive behaviour therapy
Drugs such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
Cognitive bias modification
All of the above*
10. What is a potential advantage of cognitive bias modification compared to
conventional cognitive behaviour therapy for the treatment of GAD?
A. It is more effective
B. It can be delivered over the internet*
C. It has no side-effects
D. It is more enjoyable for patients
Chapter 7: Specific Phobia
1. Which of the following is not classed as a specific phobia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Arachnophobia (fear of spiders)
Agoraphobia (fear of being in public places where escape may be difficult)
Acrophobia (fear of heights)
None of the above
2. Which of the following is not a sub-type of specific phobia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Animal
Social*
Blood, injection, injury
None of the above
3. Seligman’s (1971) preparedness theory suggests that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
People are born with a predisposition to learn to fear certain stimuli*
People are born with certain phobias
People develop certain phobias because of a negative experience of a stimulus
People only develop fears about fear-relevant stimuli
4. Which of the following is not a limitation of Seligman’s preparedness theory
A.
B.
C.
D.
People can develop phobias of stimuli that are non-threatening to humans
Certain phobias are more common than others*
Elephant and woolly-mammoth phobias are rare
It is not possible to prove what posed specific threats to our ancestors
5. What does Mowrer’s (1960) theory suggest about the learning of fear?
A. A person associates a stimulus with an unpleasant outcome, resulting in a fear
response
B. A person learns to avoid a feared stimulus, to reduce their fear response
C. Relief at avoiding a feared stimulus acts as an incentive for further avoidance,
D. All of the above*
6. What information does a cognitive behaviour therapist need, in order to formulate a
client’s specific phobia?
A. Information on what triggers the client’s phobia
B. Information on what the client does when they feel afraid
C. Information on whether anyone else does anything that helps or hinders when the
client is afraid?
D. All of the above*
7. Which of the following does the human body not do during the fight-flight response
to fear?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The heart pumps oxygen-rich blood to the muscles
Blocks the secretion of adrenaline*
Takes blood away from the stomach and intestines
Heightens the senses
8. How is modern cognitive-behavioural exposure to a feared stimulus (e.g. dogs)
typically conducted?
A. Asking the client to imagine that they are stroking a dog
B. Gradually exposing the client to a mildly fearful version of the stimulus (e.g. pictures
of dogs) and working gradually up to the most fearful version (e.g. stroking a large
dog)*
C. Asking the client to stand in a room with lots of dogs, early in therapy.
D. Giving the client lots of written information about dogs
9. Why do clients relapse after treatment for specific phobias?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Therapy does not generalise from the psychologist’s office to other situations
The client does not practice their confident behaviour
Both of the above*
Clients rarely relapse after treatment
10. How effective are exposure-based therapies for treating specific phobias?
A. Very effective – so much so that there has been little change in how specific phobias
are treated since the 1960s*
B. Reasonably effective – about 40% of people treated using exposure-based therapies
recover
C. A little bit effective – about 25% of people treated using exposure-based therapies
recover, but many relapse
D. Not at all effective – recovery rates are very low
Chapter 8: Panic Disorder and Social Anxiety Disorder
1. Which of the following statements about panic disorder diagnosis is false?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Panic attacks should be predictable*
Panic attacks should be recurrent
Panic attacks are discrete episodes of intense fear or discomfort
Panic attacks should reach a crescendo within a few minutes
2. Which of the following statements about social anxiety disorder is false?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Social anxiety disorder may include panic attacks
Sufferers of social anxiety disorder cannot interact comfortably with anyone*
Social anxiety disorder involves fear about being the focus of attention
Social anxiety disorder involves the avoidance of situations in which there is fear of
behaving in an embarrassing way
3. When are panic disorder and social anxiety disorder though to most commonly have
their onset?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Infancy
Childhood
Adolescence*
Adulthood
4. Which of the following is not part of Clark and Wells’ (1995) cognitive model of social
anxiety disorder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pre-Mortem of possible negative outcomes
Post-mortem of the social situation
Amygdala hyperactivity*
Negative assumptions about the self
5. According to Clark and Wells’ (1995) cognitive model of social anxiety disorder,
which of the following factors affect the socially anxious individual during a social
interaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Somatic and cognitive symptoms
Safety behaviours
Processing of the self as a social object
All of the above*
6. What happened when socially anxious participants were instructed not to use their
safety behaviours in Wells et al.’s (1995) study?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Participants felt less anxious compared to when they used the safety behaviours*
Parents felt more anxious compared to when they used the safety behaviours
Participants had greater fears that their feared catastrophe would come true
Participants were not able to stop using their safety behaviours
7. What is the purpose of behavioural experiments in CBT for social anxiety disorder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To reduce avoidance behaviours and to demonstrate why they are problematic*
To measure the effectiveness of the CBT treatment
To assess the client’s performance in social situations
All of the above
8. Which of the following might be included in CBT for panic disorder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Challenging of troublesome beliefs
Testing out catastrophic misinterpretations of bodily sensations
Removal of safety behaviours
All of the above*
9. What is involved in a behavioural experiment for social anxiety disorder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback on performance
Outcome predictions
Elicitation of feared catastrophes
All of the above*
10. Compared to group-based CBT, how effective is internet-based CBT according to
findings by Bergström et al. (2010)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Internet-based CBT is more effective than group-based CBT
Internet-based CBT is less effective than group-based CBT
Internet-based CBT is equally as effective as group-based CBT*
Internet-based CBT is equally as effective as group-based CBT in the short term, but
in the long term internet-based CBT is less effective than group-based CBT
Chapter 9: Substance use disorder
1. What is the prevalence of alcohol dependence in the United Kingdom?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1%
2%
5%*
10%
2. Which of the following statements is true?
A. When substances increase in price, consumption of those substances decreases*
B. When substances increase in price, consumption of those substances increases
C. When substances increase in price, consumption of those substances does not
change
D. When substances increase in price, consumption of those substances decreases, but
only in people who are not dependent
3. Which of the following are criticisms of choice theories of substance use disorders?
A.
B.
C.
D.
They minimise the suffering associated with the disorder
People are often unaware of the processes that influence their behaviour
They ignore the roles of compulsion and cravings
All of the above*
4. According to incentive-sensitization theory, changes in dopamine function in the
addicted brain are related to adapations in
A.
B.
C.
D.
Liking of drug effects
Mood
Salience attribution*
Intoxication
5. The suppressed dopamine activity in the brain reward system that is seen in people
with substance use disorders is consistent with which theory?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Incentive-sensitization theory
Dual process theory
Automaticity theory
Hedonic homeostatic dysregulation theory*
6. According to Jentsch & Taylor (1999), which part of the brain normally exercises
control over motivational states?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Prefrontal cortex*
Nucleus accumbens
Parahippocampal gyrus
Hippocampus
7. To what extent does nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) help smokers to quit?
A. It does not help smokers to quit
B. It doubles the chance of successfully quitting, compared to those who do not seek
any help at all*
C. It trebles the chance of successfully quitting, compared to those who do not seek
any help at all.
D. It quadruples the chance of successfully quitting, compared to those who do not
seek any help at all.
8. The drug buprenorphine is prescribed to people with which type of substance use
disorder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Opioid (heroin)*
Alcohol
Nicotine
Cocaine
9. Which of the following forms of psychological treatment for substance use disorders
is not effective?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cognitive behaviour therapy
Motivational interviewing
Cue exposure therapy*
Alcoholics Anonymous
10. Project MATCH revealed that the most effective psychological therapy for alcohol
dependence was….
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cognitive behaviour therapy
Motivational interviewing
Twelve step therapy
All therapies were equally effective*
Chapter 10: Eating disorders
1. Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of bulimia nervosa but not binge
eating disorder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Recurrent episodes of overeating
Persistent preoccupation with overeating
Compensatory behaviours such as vomiting or excessive exercise*
Strong desire or craving to eat
2. Which eating disorder has the lowest prevalence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Anorexia nervosa*
Bulimia nervosa
Binge eating disorder
Eating disorder not otherwise specified
3. Dissatisfaction with one’s own body shape and aspirations to be thinner (‘drive for
thinness’) are….
A.
B.
C.
D.
Symptoms, but not ultimate causes, of eating disorders
Ultimate causes, but not symptoms, of eating disorders
Unrelated to eating disorders
Both symptoms and ultimate causes of eating disorders*
4. Excessive concern with body weight and shape is a reliable predictor of…
A.
B.
C.
D.
The onset of eating disorder symptoms
The current severity of eating disorder symptoms
Recurrence of eating disorder symptoms after treatment
All of the above*
5. How do patients with anxiety disorders typically respond to the sight and smell of
food?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fear*
Depression
Impulsivity
All of the above
6. Poor emotion regulation is seen in….
A.
B.
C.
D.
Patients with anorexia nervosa and their close family members*
Patients with anorexia nervosa, but not their close family members
Patients with binge eating disorder and their close family members
Patients with binge eating disorder, but not their close family members
7. According to Fairburn’s (1999) theory, perfectionism and inflexibility are closely
associated with which eating disorder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Anorexia nervosa*
Binge eating disorder
Bulimia nervosa
Eating disorder not otherwise specified
8. What is the most effective psychological therapy for bulimia nervosa?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Family therapy
Cognitive Behaviour Therapy*
Psychodynamic psychotherapy
Cue exposure therapy
9. What is the most effective psychological therapy for anorexia nervosa?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Family therapy*
Cognitive Behaviour Therapy
Psychodynamic psychotherapy
Cue exposure therapy
10. What is the typical duration of family therapy for anorexia nervosa?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Up to one month
3-6 months
9-12 months*
More than one year
Chapter 11: Personality disorders
1. How many specific personality disorders are described in DSM 5?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3
7
10*
12
2. The personality disorder referred to as ‘antisocial’ in DSM 5 is known by which name
in ICD-10?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Paranoid
Dissocial*
Anankastic
Histrionic
3. Which of the following is an indicator of psychopathy, but not antisocial personality
disorder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Antisocial and criminal behaviour
Poverty of emotions*
Deceitfulness
Reckless disregard for safety of self and others
4. What is the upper estimate for the prevalence of antisocial personality disorder in
forensic settings?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20%
60%
80%*
100%
5. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Both personality disorder diagnoses, and dimensions of personality disorders, are
stable over time
B. Both personality disorder diagnoses, and dimensions of personality disorders, are
unstable over time
C. Personality disorder diagnoses are stable over time, but dimensions of personality
disorders are unstable
D. Personality disorder diagnoses are unstable over time, but dimensions of personality
disorders are stable*
6. According to Blair’s theory, psychopathic traits can be broken down into which two
components?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Antagonistic-aggressive and withdrawn-passive
Callous-unemotional and impulsive-antisocial*
Antagonistic-aggressive and impulsive-antisocial
Callous-unemotional and withdrawn-passive
7. According to Blair’s theory of psychopathy, reduced empathy for emotional distress
in others is associated with….
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increased activity in both amygdala and ventromedial prefrontal cortex
Increased activity in amygdala and reduced activity in ventromedial prefrontal cortex
Reduced activity in both amygdala and ventromedial prefrontal cortex*
Reduced activity in amygdala and increased activity in ventromedial prefrontal
cortex
8. Which hormone has been implicated in borderline personality disorder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Melatonin
Galanin
Oxytocin*
Ghrelin
9. Which psychological therapy for borderline personality disorder incorporates
elements of ‘mindfulness’?
A. Schema therapy
B. Transference focussed therapy
C. Therapeutic communities
D. Dialectical behaviour therapy*
10. Cognitive and behavioural interventions for antisocial personality disorder can lead
to reductions in….
A.
B.
C.
D.
Criminal offending*
Impulsivity
Disregard for others
All of the above