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1 The weather on Earth suddenly changes and temperatures in the western U.S. get much warmer. Some rabbits in the region are more adaptive to the conservation of water than others. These rabbits survive and reproduce more effectively. This is an example of A. speciation B. adaptive radiation C. mutation D. natural selection E. Lamarckian evolution 2 In order for germination to occur, the seed of the Calvaria major tree had to pass through the digestive system of a Dodo bird. When the Dodo bird became extinct, so too did the tree. This is an example of A. coevolution B. competition C. parasitism D. niche separation E. gene flow 3 Which of the following was NOT found in the early atmosphere of Earth? A. Hydrogen B. Water C. Ammonia D. Methane E. Oxygen 4 The appendix of a human and the wings of an ostrich are both examples of A. vestigial structures B. analogous structures C. frequently used structures D. homologous structures E. budding 5 In order for a mutation to be inherited from one generation to another, it must A. occur on a sex cell B. occur on a somatic cell C. occur on a protein D. be disease-causing E. be sex-linked 6 A biologist visiting the Galapagos Islands encounters ten similar species of finches. The different species all have different beak widths, which seem to be related to food choice. It is hypothesized that one common ancestor came from the mainland to the islands. The ten species are thought to have evolved from that one common ancestor. This is an example of A. Lamarckian evolution B. convergent evolution C. genetic drift D. adaptive radiation E. artificial selection 7 Which of the following is not required in order for evolution to occur? A. More organisms must be born than can survive. B. There must be phenotypic variation among organisms in a population C. The phenotypic variations must be inheritable D. A better trait must be acquired over an individual’s lifetime E. Some phenotypic variations must be more beneficial to survival than others 8 An earthquake creates a large crater that divides one population into two populations. Over time, the two populations become so dissimilar that they can no longer be considered populations of the same species. What process occurred? A. Adaptive radiation B. Allopatric speciation C. Convergent evolution D. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium E. Larmackian evolution 9 Evolution occurs at the level of the A. individual B. population C. community D. ecosystem E. biome 1 0 A good example of a set of homologous structures is A. a person’s fingers and toes B. the paw of a tiger and the paw of another tiger C. the wing of an insect and the fin of a whale D. the arm of a man and the wing of a bat E. the appendix and the tonsils 1 1 The theory that there are short periods of rapid evolution followed by long periods with little or no evolution is called A. gradualism B. Lamarckism C. punctuated equilibrium D. natural selection E. creationism 1 2 The similar appearance of the wing of an insect and the wing of a bird are examples of what process? A. speciation B. adaptive radiation C. stabilizing selection D. convergent evolution E. divergent evolution 1 3 A. desert B. sea or ocean C. tropical rainforest D. tundra E. deciduous forest During the time that layer 3 was deposited, the environment was most likely a 1 4 A. It is from what was a very social animal. B. It is from an ancestor of the modern day bear. C. It had a coat made of black fur. D. It was a carnivore. E. It was an herbivore. What can you say about this fossil? 1 5 A. big cats B. large herbivores C. rodents D. impossible to tell E. All of the mammals lived at the same time. Which of the following mammals lived earliest in this area? 1 6 Which of the following events might create a gap in the fossil record? I. Mass extinction II. Erosion III. Volcanic activity A. I B. II C. I and III D. II and III E. I, II and III 1 7 The first animals that were fully adapted to live their entire life cycle on land are the A. amphibians B. reptiles C. birds D. mammals E. crustaceans 1 8 Prokaryotes have all of the following EXCEPT A. circular DNA B. cell wall C. cytoplasm D. ribosomes E. nucleus 1 9 A scientist uses the rate of change in a protein called cytochrome c to calculate the point at which humans and chimpanzees last shared a common ancestor. The protein is an example of a(n) A. fossil B. acquired trait C. vestigial structure D. homologous structure E. molecular clock 2 0 The wings of an eagle and the flippers of a penguin are examples of A. acquired traits B. convergent evolution C. vestigial structures D. analogous structures E. homologous structures 2 1 A population of mountain lions was almost completely eliminated by a forest fire 50 years ago. The lions that are currently in the area are genetically very similar to one another because they are all descendants of the few individuals that survived the fire. This is an example of A. genetic drift B. non-random mating C. gene flow D. natural selection E. mutation 2 2 A. pesticides are becoming increasingly ineffective B. pesticides must be used more than once over every twentyfour-hour period in order for it to be effective C. temperature can affect pesticides’ effectiveness D. pesticide’s effectiveness is Fleas were allowed to breed. After many generations, indirectly proportional to the students removed two groups of fleas. Each group was size of the flea population exposed to different concentrations of pesticide. Group E. pesticides’ effectiveness is A was exposed to 0.3% concentration, Group B to 0.5% directly proportional to and Group C to 0.7%. After a day, the students concentration. counted the percentage of surviving fleas in each group (Figure I.) The three groups of surviving fleas were kept separate and allowed to reproduce. The offspring in each group were then exposed to a pesticide concentration of 0.5%. The results are in figure II. From the data in Figure I, it can be inferred that 2 3 What is the best explanation for the results of the experiment, as depicted in Figure II above? A. mutation B. Selection C. Adaptive radiation D. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium E. Habituation 2 4 Scientists perform a series of crosses and discover that resistance to the pesticide in the fleas is a recessive trait. What would happen if a population of fleas that were resistant to the pesticide were bred over a series of generations, along with a population of fleas that were not resistant? A. All the offspring would be resistant to the pesticide. B. The offspring would develop fatal mutations. C. The majority of offspring would be resistant, while a minority would not be resistant. D. The majority of offspring would not be resistant, while a minority would be resistant. E. Even though the trait is recessive, the offspring would become increasingly resistant since only the resistant fleas would survive to reproduce. 2 5 A. genetic drift B. succession C. speciation D. convergent evolution E. stabilizing selection Fleas were allowed to breed. After many generations, students removed two groups of fleas. Each group was exposed to different concentrations of pesticide. Group A was exposed to 0.3% concentration, Group B to 0.5% and Group C to 0.7%. After a day, the students counted the percentage of surviving fleas in each group (Figure I.) The three groups of surviving fleas were kept separate and allowed to reproduce. The offspring in each group were then exposed to a pesticide concentration of 0.5%. The results are in figure II. The fleas in Group C are treated with higher and higher concentrations of pesticide during each successive generation of offspring. After a year, the fleas are completely resistant to the pesticide, regardless of its concentration. The fleas are then returned to the original culture of fleas and scientists notice that the completely resistant fleas can only produce viable offspring with each other. The process that occurred during the year of the experiment is called 2 6 A. B. C. D. E. Male longhorn beetles compete for entrance into the burrows of potential female mates. Large males always outcompete medium-sized males in physical battle. Small males are able to trick competitors because they are mistaken for females. The large males and the small males are able to mate with more females. Which drawing best depicts the evolution of male size in longhorn beetles? 1 2 3 4 5 2 7 A. B. C. D. E. 1 2 3 4 5 In a particular grassland, short grasses are selected against because they cannot compete for light. Tall grasses are selected against because they cannot withstand winds. Which drawing depicts the evolution of height in the grasses? 2 8 Short grasses are selected against because they cannot compete for light. Tall grasses are selected against because they cannot withstand winds. The mode of evolution in the case of the grasses is called A. mutation B. migration C. non-random mating D. natural selection E. gene flow 2 9 Which of the following is more advanced, in evolutionary terms, than an amphibian, but more primitive than a bird? A. frog B. polar bear C. hagfish D. lizard E. chicken 3 0 Which of the following is considered a vestigial structure? A. ostrich wing B. wasp wing C. human gall bladder D. giraffe neck E. alligator leg 3 1 Scientists who study evolution consider cytochrome c to A. scientists have determined be an excellent molecular clock because when cytochrome c was first evolved by an organism B. changes or mutations in cytochrome c occur at regular intervals over time C. cytochrome c has a known half-life that can be used to date the time when an organism lived D. cytochrome c exists in far greater quantities on asteroids than on Earth; large deposits of cytochrome c in the fossil record indicate asteroid impact E. cytochrome c is the molecule in bones that hardens and leaves fossils after death. 3 2 According to the information in the table, which drawing shows the proper evolutionary tree of phyla A, B, C, D and E? 3 3 A. B. C. D. E. 1 2 3 4 5 A. B. C. D. E. A&C A&D C&E B&D A&B Of the choices provided, which two phyla are most closely related? 3 4 Mineralized remains or traces of prehistoric life are A. analogous structures B. vestigial structures C. fossils D. comparative embryology E. molecular clocks 3 5 Bodily structures that evolved in the past but that no longer serve an apparent function are A. analogous structures B. vestigial structures C. fossils D. comparative embryology E. molecular clocks 3 6 Certain genes or proteins in organisms that change at a A. analogous structures constant rate over time are B. vestigial structures C. fossils D. comparative embryology E. molecular clocks 3 7 Movement first evolved in which phylum of kingdom Animalia? A. Porifera B. Mollusca C. Cnidaria D. Arthropoda E. Annelida 3 8 Which of the following is the correct listing of kingdom Plantae from least to most evolutionarily advanced? A. Gymnosperms, angiosperms, seedless vascular plants, bryophytes B. Bryophytes, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, angiosperms C. Bryophytes, seedless vascular plants, angiosperms, gymnosperms D. seedless vascular plants, bryophytes, gymnosperms, angiosperms E. angiosperms, gymnosperms, seedless vascular plants, bryophytes 3 9 A still pond contains many strings of jelly-coated eggs. These eggs were most likely laid by a member of A. class Mammalia B. class Aves C. phylum Reptilia D. class Reptilia E. class Amphibia 4 0 A species of turtle was observed by scientists on a small, isolated island in the Caribbean. Scientists counted the number of turtles and measured the size of each turtle. Fifty years later, a second team of scientists observed the turtles. They again counted and measured the size. What happened to the population over time? A. evolution B. stabilizing selection C. disruptive selection D. directional selection E. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium 4 1 A large turtle can better withstand extreme high winds than a small turtle. What would most likely happen to turtle size on an island if the island became subject to regular and repeated high winds for a decade or more? 4 2 The population of turtles on an island grew from a few turtles that came to the island from a nearby continent. In a breeding experiment, scientists discovered that the turtles from the island can no longer breed with turtles from the continent. What has happened? A. Convergent evolution B. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium C. mutation D. allopatric speciation E. extinction The diagram is called a 4 3 A. Punnett diagram B. phylogram C. karyotype D. diversity chain E. phylogenetic tree 4 4 A. Agnatha and Mammalia B. Reptilia and Osteicthyes C. Agnatha and Osteicthyes D. Amphibia and Chondricthyes E. Reptilia and Aves Of the provided choices, which pair is most closely related? 4 5 Sharks (fish) and dolphins (mammal) both have a dorsal fin. In this instance, the dorsal fin is an example of a(n) A. vestigial structure B. analogous structure C. homologous trait D. molecular clock E. defense structure 4 6 A population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The frequency of the dominant allele in the population is p=0.6. What is the frequency of the recessive allele? A. 36% B. 0.4 C. 16% D. 0.6 E. 48% 4 7 The smallest unit in which evolution can occur is a(n) A. population B. gene C. cell D. community E. individual 4 8 A volcanic eruption separates a population of birds into two isolated populations. After many generations, an individual from each population were brought together in hopes the would mate. What would NOT be considered evidence that the two populations had evolved into different species. A. The individuals mate, and offspring are deformed and die soon after birth. B. The individuals mate, and the offspring are sterile. C. The female does not recognize the male’s courtship song and will not mate with him. D. The individuals produce fertile offspring, and the offspring do not resemble either parent. E. The individuals try to mate, but are not physically compatible. 4 9 In order for germination to occur, the seed of the Calvaria major tree had to pass through the digestive system of a Dodo bird. When the Dodo bird became extinct, so too did the tree. This is an example of A. coevolution B. competition C. parasitism D. niche separation E. gene flow 5 0 Which of the following is NOT a condition for HardyWeinberg equilibrium? A. large population size B. non-random mating C. absence of immigration or emigration D. random reproductive success E. no mutation 5 1 A population of mountain lions was almost eliminated by a forest fire 50 years ago. The lions that are currently in the area are genetically very similar to one another because they are all descendants of the few individuals that survived the fire. This is an example of A. genetic drift B. non-random mating C. gene flow D. natural selection E. mutation 5 2 Which of the following was not present in the prebiotic environment? A. carbon dioxide B. ammonio C. water D. methane E. oxygen 5 3 The earliest enzymes are thought to have consisted of A. RNA B. protein C. DNA D. saccharides E. triglycerides 5 4 Which of the following is found in modern life forms? A. L-amino acids B. D-amino acids C. L-sugars D. D-sugars E. more than one of the above 5 5 Mammals evolved during this geologic period A. Cambrian B. Devonian C. Jurassic D. Cretaceous E. Quaternary 5 6 Gymnosperms developed during this geologic period A. Cambrian B. Devonian C. Jurassic D. Cretaceous E. Quaternary 5 7 Chordates developed during this geologic period A. Cambrian B. Devonian C. Jurassic D. Cretaceous E. Quaternary 5 8 One method of dating organic material involved finding the ratio of ______________ A. carbon dioxide to carbon monoxide B. 18O to 16O C. water to carbon dioxide D. 14C to 12C E. carbon monoxide to oxygen 5 ____________ structures have ____________ 9 functions/features and the same evolution origin while __________ structures have ____________ functions/features but different evolutionary origins A. analogous; similar; homologous; different B. analogous; similar; homologous; similar C. homologous; similar; analogous; different D. homologous similar; analogous; similar E. none of the above 6 Which of the following is NOT a condition of Hardy0 Weinberg equilibrium? A. no natural selection B. large population size C. no mutation D. no migration into or out of the population E. Non-random mating 6 1 What is meant by an organism’s “fitness,” in an evolutionary sense? A. The organism uses oxygen efficiently B. The organism survives to adulthood C. The organism survives to adulthood and reproduces D. The organism survives to adulthood and finds a mate E. The organism is not killed before adulthood 6 2 The earliest forms of life were most likely A. unicellular autotrophs B. multicellular autotrophs C. unicellular heterotrophs D. multicellular heterotrophs E. photoautotrophs 6 3 Which of the following was not a major constituent of the A. O2 atmosphere of the primitive earth, according to the B. H2 Oparin-Haldane hypothesis? C. H2O D. CH4 E. NH3 6 Which of the following is not a condition of Hardy4 Weinberg equilibrium? Questions 65 – 74: select the letter that is most closely related with the phrase or sentence A. no net mutations B. isolation from other populations C. no natural selection D. small population size E. random mating 6 5 Extreme phenotypes are favored A. bottleneck effect B. gradualism C. stabilizing selection D. punctuated equilibrium E. disruptive selection 6 6 A small group of individuals is separated from a larger population A. bottleneck effect B. gradualism C. stabilizing selection D. punctuated equilibrium E. disruptive selection 6 7 Evolutionary change occurs in spurts A. bottleneck effect B. gradualism C. stabilizing selection D. punctuated equilibrium E. disruptive selection 6 8 The wing of a bat and the forelimb of a cat have similar bone structure A. comparative embryology B. taxonomy C. comparative anatomy D. paleontology E. comparative physiology 6 9 Cytochrome c has the same basic structure in all aerobic A. comparative embryology species B. taxonomy C. comparative anatomy D. paleontology E. comparative physiology 7 0 System of naming and classifying organisms A. comparative embryology B. taxonomy C. comparative anatomy D. paleontology E. comparative physiology 7 1 water vascular system A. Platyhelminthes B. Cnidaria C. Porifera D. Echinodermata E. Annelida 7 2 gastrovascular cavity A. Platyhelminthes B. Cnidaria C. Porifera D. Echinodermata E. Annelida 7 3 spongocoel A. Platyhelminthes B. Cnidaria C. Porifera D. Echinodermata E. Annelida 7 4 flame-cell excretory system A. Platyhelminthes B. Cnidaria C. Porifera D. Echinodermata E. Annelida 7 In a certain pea plant, green pea color is dominan to 5 yellow pea color. A farmer has a field of pea plants In this field, 34% of the peas are yellow, and 64% of the peas are green. He randomly selects 6 plants and interbreeds them. In the first generation of plants from this cross, 54% of the peas are yellow and 46% of the peas are green. This is an example of A. gradualism B. punctuated equilibrium C. stabilizing selection D. bottleneck effect E. sympatric speciation 7 A large lake evaporates slowly over time, leaving many 6 small ponds. The large lake had been inhabited by one species of fish, but over time, each small pond is inhabited by a different species of fish, each species a descendant of the species which inhabited the large lake. This is an example of A. punctuated equilibrium B. disruptive selection C. allopatric speciation D. sympatric speciation E. mutation 7 Two closely related species share the same habitat, but 7 the sperm of one species cannot fertilize the egg of another species, and vice versa. This is an example of A. gametic isolation B. behavioral isolation C. habitat isolation D. temporal isolation E. mechanical isolation 7 The earliest forms of life were most likely 8 A. multicellular animals B. multicellular plants capable of photosynthesis C. unicellular organisms with mitochondria D. unicellular organisms with chloroplasts E. unicellular heterotrophs which consumed organic molecules 7 Which of the following is a correct statement of a 9 condition of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A. nonrandom mating B. natural selection favors some phenotypes over others C. large population size D. migration into and out of the population E. mutations which alter alleles 8 Which experiment did Oparin and Haldane perform to 0 simulate conditions of the early Earth? A. They applied electric charge to a mixture of hydrogen gas, water, methane, and ozone. B. They applied electric charge to a mixture of hydrogen gas, water, methane, and ammonia. C. They added DNA to a mixture of hydrogen gas, water, methane, and ozone D. They added RNA to a mixture of hydrogen gas, water, methane, and ozone E. They added RNA to a mixture of hydrogen gas, water , methane, and ammonia. 8 Which of the following organelles is thought to have 1 originally been a free-living prokaryotic organism? A. Golgi apparatus B. endoplasmic reticulum C. lysosomes D. chloroplasts E. centrioles 8 It is believed that early life forms differed from modern life A. early life forms used proteins 2 forms in that both as enzymes and as genetic material B. modern life forms use proteins as both enzymes and genetic material C. early life forms used proteins as genetic material while modern life forms use DNA as genetic material D. early life forms used RNA both as enzymes and as genetic material E. early life forms used DNA both as enzymes and as genetic material 8 In contrast to the environment today, the prebiotic 3 environment on Earth A. contained a great deal of O2 B. contained a great deal of ozone C. had an oxidizing atmosphere D. had a reducing atmosphere E. contained no carbon 8 A certain species of plant which lives in a hot, dry desert 4 environment in Arizona developed a type of protective covering with spines which protect it from predators. An unrelated species which lives in a similar hot, dry desert environment in Africa developed a similar protective covering with spines which protect it from predators. This is an example of A. homologous structures B. codominance C. convergent evolution D. punctuated equilibrium E. taxonomy 8 Which of the following was most responsible for ending 5 chemical evolution? A. Natural selection B. Heterotrophic prokaryotes C. Photosynthesis D. Viruses E. The absence of oxygen in the atmosphere 8 Which of the following generates the formation of 6 adaptations? A. Genetic drift B. Mutations C. Gene flow D. Sexual reproduction E. Natural selection 8 The B blood-type allele probably originated in Asia and 7 subsequently spread to Europe and other regions of the world. This is an example of A. artificial selection B. natural selection C. genetic drift D. gene flow E. sexual reproduction 8 The appearance of a new mutation is 8 A. a random event B. the result of natural selection C. the result of artificial selection D. the result of sexual reproduction E. usually a beneficial event 8 9 Which of the following is an example of sexual selection? A. Dark-colored peppered moths in London at the beginning of the industrial revolution B. The main of a lion C. Insecticide resistance in insects D. Darwin’s finches in the Galapagos Islands E. The ability of certain insects to avoid harm when consuming toxic plants 9 A population consists of 9% white sheep and 91% black 0 sheep. What is the frequency of the black-wool allele if the black-wool allele is dominant and the white-wool allele is recessive? A. 0.09 B. 0.3 C. 0.42 D. 0.49 E. 0.7 9 After test-cross experiments, it was determined that the A. are 0.2 and 0.8, respectively 1 frequencies of homozygous dominant, heterozygous, and B. are 0.32 and 0.68, respectively homozygous recessive individuals for a particular trait C. are 0.36 and 0.64, respectively were 32%, 64%, and 4% respectively. The dominant and D. are √0.32 and 1- √0.32, recessive allele frequencies respectively E. cannot be determined because the population is not in HardyWeinberg equilibrium 9 Cepaea nermoralis is a land snail. Individual snails have 2 shells with zero to five dark bands on a yellow, pink, or dark brown background. The various shell patterns could have occurred by all of the following EXCEPT: A. convergent evolution B. natural selection C. a balanced polymorphism D. chance E. mutations 9 All of the following are homologous structures EXCEPT: A. a bat wing 3 B. a bird wing C. a butterfly wing D. a human arm E. a penguin flipper 9 Because of human predation, the sizes of and genetic 4 variation in populations of most whale species are declining. A. Bottleneck B. Adaptive radiation C. Directional selection D. Sexual reproduction E. Sympatric speciation 9 Progeny possess new combinations of alleles every 5 generation A. Bottleneck B. Adaptive radiation C. Directional selection D. Sexual reproduction E. Sympatric speciation 9 Many strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the 6 bacterium that causes tuberculosis, are resistant to standard drug therapy. A. Bottleneck B. Adaptive radiation C. Directional selection D. Sexual reproduction E. Sympatric speciation 9 There are more than 750,000 named species of insects 7 inhabiting a wide range of habitats. A. Bottleneck B. Adaptive radiation C. Directional selection D. Sexual reproduction E. Sympatric speciation 9 A recently introduced species of seed-eating birds 8 occupies an island where small and large seeds are available. Beak size in the bird population varies from small to large, allowing some birds to be more successful at eating small seeds, while others are more successful at eating large seeds. Birds with intermediate beak size must exert additional effort to eat seeds. A. Bottleneck B. Adaptive radiation C. Directional selection D. Sexual reproduction E. Sympatric speciation 9 All of the following are examples of evolution EXCEPT: 9 A. mutations in an individual B. changes in an allele frequency in a population C. changes in an allele frequency in a species D. divergence of a species into two species E. adaptive radiation 1 0 0 Which of the following best describes the pattern of punctuated equilibrium in evolution? A. Speciation events occur relatively rapidly. B. Small changes that accumulate over long periods of time lead to the formation of a new species and the extinction of the old species. C. Small changes that accumulate over long periods of time lead to the divergence of one species into two or more species. D. Speciation occurs when random changes accumulate over long periods of time. E. Geographic isolation is the predominant mechanism of speciation. 1 0 1 A recessive trait appears in 81% of the individuals in a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. What percent of the population in the next generation is expected to homozygous dominant? A. 1% B. 9% C. 18% D. 19% E. 81% 1 0 2 A severe storm forms a new river that divides a A. hybridization population of mice. After 500 years, a drought causes the B. adaptive radiation river to dry up, allowing the two populations of mice to C. balanced polymorphism mix. Mating between mice from the two populations does D. sympatric speciation not yield any offspring. This is an example of E. allopatric speciation 1 0 3 Two sympatric species of pine trees release their pollen during different months. This is an example of 1 0 4 Kangaroo rats live in desert habitats. Which of the A. Frequent drinking following physiological or behavioral adaptations increase B. Frequent urination their survival in this hot and dry environment? C. Nephrons with long loops of Henle D. Numerous sweat glands in their skin E. Diurnal activity 1 0 5 The frequency of individuals better able to survive in a A. mutation new habitat increases in a population over time. The best B. natural selection explanation for this is C. genetic drift D. gene flow E. the founder effect 1 0 6 An experiment to replicate the production of organic molecules in an environment similar to earth’s environment before life appeared would require all of the following EXCEPT: A. ammonia gas B. carbon dioxide gas C. oxygen gas D. ultraviolet light E. water vapor 1 0 7 Two species of finches living on separate islands have beaks of the same size. On one island where both species live together, beak sizes are different. A. Genetic drift B. Coevolution C. Character displacement D. Sexual selection E. Kin selection 1 0 8 In an ant colony, sterile sisters are workers who maintain A. Genetic drift the nest and provide care for their reproducing mother, B. Coevolution the queen. C. Character displacement D. Sexual selection E. Kin selection 1 0 9 A devastating blizzard dramatically reduces the size of a A. Genetic drift population and results in the disappearance of several B. Coevolution alleles from the gene pool. C. Character displacement D. Sexual selection E. Kin selection 1 1 0 In many animal species, males and females look different. A. habitat isolation B. temporal isolation C. behavioral isolation D. mechanical isolation E. geographic isolation A. Genetic drift B. Coevolution C. Character displacement D. Sexual selection E. Kin selection 1 1 1 A host plant produces a toxin that is lethal to aphids feeding on its leaves. Over time, some of the aphids become immune to the toxin. In response, the host plant begins to produce a different toxin that is lethal to aphids. This is an example of A. parasitism B. commensalism C. predation D. mutualism E. coevolution 1 1 2 Which of the following represents the correct order of appearance of different vertebrate groups in the fossil record? A. fish, birds, reptiles, mammals B. amphibians, reptiles, fish, mammals C. fish, reptiles, amphibians, mammals D. fish, amphibians, reptiles, mammals E. fish, amphibians, mammals, reptiles 1 1 3 Evidence validating the theory of evolution based on the A. comparative homology study of structures that appear during the development of B. comparative endocrinology different organisms is known as C. comparative morphology D. comparative anatomy E. comparative embryology 1 1 4 The concept that the gene pool of an idealized, nonevolving population remains constant over generations forms the basis of 1 1 5 The process by which species from different evolutionary A. adaptive radiation lineages come to resemble each other as a result of living B. convergent evolution to very similar environments is known as C. sympatric speciation D. allopatric speciation E. punctuated equilibrium A. Mendel’s principle of segregation B. Mendel’s principle of independent assortment C. Darwin’s theory of natural selection D. Darwin’s theory of survival of the fittest E. the principle of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium Questions 116-117 refer to the following population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium: Approximately 4% of the turtle population in the local pond show the recessive phenotype – long nose (nn) 1 1 6 What is the frequency of the dominant allele (N) in the population? A. 0.16 B. 0.20 C. 0.40 D. 0.32 E. 0.80 1 1 7 What is the frequency of heterozygotes in the population? A. 0.08 B. 0.24 C. 0.32 D. 0.48 E. 0.64 1 1 8 Which of the following statements does NOT contribute to A. Sequences of fossils have the evidence in support of evolution? been found that show a gradual series of changes in form among organisms B. Species thought to be related through evolution from a common ancestor show many anatomical similarities C. The stages of embryological development in animals are quite similar among highly diverse types of organisms D. Similarities in chromosome structure, DNA sequence, and amino acid sequences suggest relationships among organisms descending through evolution from a common ancestor. E. The most well adapted individuals do not always produce the most fit offspring. 1 1 9 Which of the following statements suggests that all A. There is much evidence for the organisms descended through evolution from a common occurrence of convergent ancestor? evolution B. It is widely accepted that natural selection leads to evolution. C. Despite the diversity of organisms on Earth, all share the same genetic code. D. All populations experience mutation and natural selection E. Selection acts on individuals, but only populations evolve. 1 2 0 Which of the following pairs represents homologous structures? A. human arm and octopus tentacle B. human arm and sea star arm C. human arm and bird wing D. bird wing and fly wing E. fly wing and bat wing 1 2 1 Darwin’s natural selection includes all of the following except 1 2 2 Evidence validating the theory of evolution based on the A. biogeography study of similarities and differences in body structure B. natural selection among various species is known as __________ C. comparative anatomy D. comparative embryology E. molecular biology 1 2 3 Evidence validating the theory of evolution based on the A. biogeography study of local, regional, and global distributions of species B. natural selection is known as __________ C. comparative anatomy D. comparative embryology E. molecular biology 1 2 4 Evidence validating the theory of evolution based on the A. biogeography study of structures that appear during the development of B. natural selection different organisms is known as ____________ C. comparative anatomy D. comparative embryology E. molecular biology 1 2 5 Evidence validating the theory of evolution based on the A. biogeography study of the genetic makeup of species at the DNA level B. natural selection is known as ______________ C. comparative anatomy D. comparative embryology E. molecular biology A. Variation can be due to mutations B. The difference in survivability between organisms may be due to variation C. Not all organisms may survive, due to competition D. Organisms produce more offspring than can survive E. Some organisms will be more fit to survive than others 1 2 6 Which of the following statements is NOT part of Darwin’s A. Genetic variation exists amont theory of natural selection? individuals in a population. B. The size of most populations remains relatively constant, despite the fact that more offspring are produced than are needed to maintain it. C. Early settlers saved seed only from the most productive crop plants to plant the following year. D. Disease, competition, and other environmental forces tend to eliminate the individuals in a population that are less adapted to their environment. E. Individuals that are best adapted to their environment tend to pass on heritable advantageous characteristics to their offspring. Questions 127 – 128 refer to the Hardy-Weinberg equation used to reflect genotypic frequencies in a population, as given below. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 1 2 7 Which of the following is reflected by the value of p2? A. the frequency of individuals in the population with the dominant phenotype B. the frequency of individuals in the population with the homozygous dominant genotype C. the frequency of the dominant allele in the population D. the frequency of individuals in the population with the homozygous recessive genotype E. the frequency of individuals in the population that are heterozygous 1 2 8 The term 2pq indicates that A. there are two alleles for that gene in the population B. there are two genes in the population C. there are twice as many dominant alleles as recessive alleles in the population D. there are twice as many heterozygotes as homozygotes in the population. E. there are two separate reproductive combinations that can result in the formation of a heterozygous individual. 1 2 9 A small isolated population found on a remote island is more likely to undergo speciation than a large widespread population because a small isolated population A. is more susceptible to genetic drift B. inherently contains much greater genetic diversity C. is more readily adaptable to extreme environmental changes D. is more likely to migrate to other islands or the nearest mainland. E. has a greater likelihood of containing sterile hybrid individuals. 1 3 0 Which of the following represents the correct order of eras, from most ancient to most recent, along the geological time scale? A. Paleozoic – Precambrian – Mesozoic – Cenozoic B. Precambrian – Cenozoic – Paleozoic – Mesozoic C. Precambrian – Mesozoic – Paleozoic – Cenozoic D. Precambrian – Paleozoic – Mesozoic – Cenozoic E. Cenozoic – Mesozoic – Paleozoic – Precambrian Questions 131-132 refer to the following population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium: Within the squirrel population at City Park, 16% show the recessive phenotype of a curled tail (tt) 1 3 1 What is the frequency of the dominant allele in the population? 1 3 2 What is the frequency of heterozygotes in the population? A. 0.08 B. 0.24 C. 0.36 D. 0.48 E. 0.64 1 3 3 Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a population to be maintained in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium through several generations of intermating? A. nonrandom mating among individuals B. no net mutations C. large population size D. isolation from other populations (no migration into or out of the population) E. no natural selection occurring 1 3 4 Which of the following statements is NOT one of the principle observations upon which Darwin based his theory of natural selection? A. The population size of a species would increase exponentially if all individuals that were born reproduced successfully B. Populations tend to remain stable in size, aside from seasonal fluctuations. C. Environmental resources are limited D. Individuals in a population vary extensively in their characteristics E. Most of the variation observed among individuals in a population is due to environmental causes; thus, very little variation is heritable (passed on from parent to offspring) 1 3 5 One of the earliest theories pertaining to the origin of life on earth suggested that life began in shallow pools. Recent studies have led to extensive debate regarding the origin of life, with some researchers suggesting that life may have originated A. near deep sea vents B. as viral particles C. in mudflats D. from debris left behind when meteorites crashed to earth E. from naked strands of RNA A. 0.40 B. 0.16 C. 0.26 D. 0.60 E. 0.32 1 3 6 All of the following ideas are essential to Charles Darwin’s theory of natural selection except 1 3 7 Which of the following factors does not favor a change in A. large population gene frequency, and, therefore, evolution? B. mutations C. emigration D. genetic drift E. all of the above 1 3 8 The number of people in certain regions of Africa that suffer from sickle cell anemia is 16 percent. This genetic disorder is caused by a mutation in which homozygous recessive results in sickle cell anemia, but in the heterozygote condition causes the sickle cell trait. The gene frequency for that allele is _________, and the percentage of people that are heterozygotes is ___________. A. 0.6, 24 B. 0.4, 24 C. 0.6, 48 D. 0.4, 48 E. 0.6, 72 1 3 9 All of the following could be considered evidences of evolution except A. the structural homology between the forearms of bats and humans. B. the DNA sequence of the cytochrome-c gene for bats and birds. C. the dorsal nerve chord of crayfish and birds. D. fossils of dinosaurs E. a wasp embedded in amber 1 4 0 The gas that was least present in the atmosphere of the A. methane Earth over 2 billion years ago was B. oxygen C. nitrogen D. carbon dioxide E. carbon monoxide A. individuals tend to produce more offspring than can survive. B. variation is present in all populations. C. characteristics acquired by one parent can be passed on to their offspring. D. resources are usually limited. E. those individuals who produce the most fertile offspring are the most fit. 1 4 1 Lynn Margulis’s endosymbiotant theory is supported by the fact(s) that A. mitochondrial DNA is more like that of bacteria than nuclear DNA in human cells B. chloroplasts replicate on their own time schedule, not under nuclear control. C. mitochondria and chloroplasts are about the same size as prokaryotes D. all of the above E. none of the above 1 4 2 Darwin’s finches are a group of about twelve species of birds that live on the Galapagos Islands. The fact that they have different size beaks is regarded as a consequence of A. genetic drift B. coevolution C. competition D. chance E. behavioral modification 1 4 3 If 9 percent of all cicadas exhibit the homozygous A. cannot be determined recessive condition known as “flippant wings,” what is the B. 91 percent gene frequency for that gene in the general population? C. 0.9 D. 0.3 E. 0.03 1 4 4 The wings of a bird and those of an insect are a good example of A. adaptive radiation B. coevolution C. convergent evolution D. all of the above E. none of the above 1 4 5 Choose the most Darwinian reason to describe how camels came to have flat, broad hooves. 1 4 6 Let X represent an atom and X* its radioactive isotope. A. as much as a living organism Assume both are taken up by living organisms. If the half- B. 4 times as much life of X* is 4,000 years, how much X* will be present in C. ¼ as much the remains of an organism that is 16,000 years old? D. 1/16 E. indeterminate given the lack of climatic data A. The camels that ventured further into the desert acquired broader feet, which were passed along to their offspring. B. Those animals that had the broadest hooves were the most attractive to the opposite sex C. The animals that had the broadest hooves were able to travel farther and wind water more easily than those that couldn’t and subsequently perished. D. Those animals with the broadest feet are descended from the camels that got broad feet from stomping out the forest fires that created the desert in the first place. E. In the game of life, random events will move evolution toward the most successful adaptations possible. Questions 147-148 refer to the series of graphs below. 1 4 7 Which of the above graphs best illustrates the concept of stabilizing selection (selection that favors intermediate variants by acting against individuals with extreme phenotypes)? A. Graph I only B. Graph II only C. both Graph I and Graph II D. Graph III only E. both Graph II and Graph III 1 4 8 Which of the above graphs best illustrates the concept of A. Graph I only diversifying selection (selection that favors extreme B. Graph II only phenotypes over intermediate phenotypes)? C. both Graph I and Graph II D. Graph III only E. both Graph II and Graph III 1 d 2 a 3 e 4 a 5 a 6 d 7 d 8 b 9 b 10 d 11 c 12 d 13 b 14 d 15 c 16 d 17 b 18 e 19 e 20 e It is impossible for an individual to acquire or lose genetic traits over its lifetime. 21 a Genetic drift occurs in small populations. Events such as disease could eliminate a gene from the gene pool. 22 e 23 b 24 d Be careful. Do not assume the fleas are in an environment exposed to pesticides. 25 c 26 a 27 c 28 d 29 d 30 a 31 b 32 d 33 d 34 c 35 b 36 e 37 c 38 b 39 e 40 b 41 5 42 d 43 e 44 e 45 b 46 b tree shows closeness between organisms. Phylum with fewest traits in the chart will be the least advanced and appear first in the tree 47 a 48 d 49 a 50 d 51 b 52 e 53 a 54 e 55 c 56 b 57 a 58 d 59 d 60 e 61 c 62 c 63 a 64 d 65 e 66 a 67 d 68 c 69 e 70 b 71 d 72 b 73 c 74 a 75 d 76 c 77 a 78 e 79 c 80 b 81 d 82 d 83 d 84 c 85 c 86 e 87 d 88 a 89 b 90 e 91 e 92 a 93 c 94 a 95 d 96 c 97 b 98 e 99 a 100 a 101 a 102 e 103 b 104 c 105 b 106 c 107 c 108 e 109 a 110 d 111 e 112 d 113 e 114 e 115 b 116 e 117 c 118 e 119 c 120 c 121 a 122 c 123 a 124 d 125 e 126 c 127 b 128 e 129 a 130 d 131 d 132 d 133 a 134 e 135 a 136 c 137 a 138 d 139 c 140 b 141 d 142 c 143 d 144 c 145 c 146 d 147 a 148 d