Download 1 The weather on Earth suddenly changes and temperatures in the

1
The weather on Earth suddenly changes and
temperatures in the western U.S. get much warmer.
Some rabbits in the region are more adaptive to the
conservation of water than others. These rabbits
survive and reproduce more effectively. This is an
example of
A. speciation
B. adaptive radiation
C. mutation
D. natural selection
E. Lamarckian evolution
2
In order for germination to occur, the seed of the
Calvaria major tree had to pass through the digestive
system of a Dodo bird. When the Dodo bird became
extinct, so too did the tree. This is an example of
A. coevolution
B. competition
C. parasitism
D. niche separation
E. gene flow
3
Which of the following was NOT found in the early
atmosphere of Earth?
A. Hydrogen
B. Water
C. Ammonia
D. Methane
E. Oxygen
4
The appendix of a human and the wings of an ostrich
are both examples of
A. vestigial structures
B. analogous structures
C. frequently used structures
D. homologous structures
E. budding
5
In order for a mutation to be inherited from one
generation to another, it must
A. occur on a sex cell
B. occur on a somatic cell
C. occur on a protein
D. be disease-causing
E. be sex-linked
6
A biologist visiting the Galapagos Islands encounters
ten similar species of finches. The different species all
have different beak widths, which seem to be related to
food choice. It is hypothesized that one common
ancestor came from the mainland to the islands. The
ten species are thought to have evolved from that one
common ancestor. This is an example of
A. Lamarckian evolution
B. convergent evolution
C. genetic drift
D. adaptive radiation
E. artificial selection
7
Which of the following is not required in order for
evolution to occur?
A. More organisms must be
born than can survive.
B. There must be phenotypic
variation among organisms in
a population
C. The phenotypic variations
must be inheritable
D. A better trait must be
acquired over an individual’s
lifetime
E. Some phenotypic variations
must be more beneficial to
survival than others
8
An earthquake creates a large crater that divides one
population into two populations. Over time, the two
populations become so dissimilar that they can no
longer be considered populations of the same species.
What process occurred?
A. Adaptive radiation
B. Allopatric speciation
C. Convergent evolution
D. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
E. Larmackian evolution
9
Evolution occurs at the level of the
A. individual
B. population
C. community
D. ecosystem
E. biome
1
0
A good example of a set of homologous structures is
A. a person’s fingers and toes
B. the paw of a tiger and the
paw of another tiger
C. the wing of an insect and the
fin of a whale
D. the arm of a man and the
wing of a bat
E. the appendix and the tonsils
1
1
The theory that there are short periods of rapid
evolution followed by long periods with little or no
evolution is called
A. gradualism
B. Lamarckism
C. punctuated equilibrium
D. natural selection
E. creationism
1
2
The similar appearance of the wing of an insect and the
wing of a bird are examples of what process?
A. speciation
B. adaptive radiation
C. stabilizing selection
D. convergent evolution
E. divergent evolution
1
3
A. desert
B. sea or ocean
C. tropical rainforest
D. tundra
E. deciduous forest
During the time that layer 3 was deposited, the
environment was most likely a
1
4
A. It is from what was a very
social animal.
B. It is from an ancestor of the
modern day bear.
C. It had a coat made of black
fur.
D. It was a carnivore.
E. It was an herbivore.
What can you say about
this fossil?
1
5
A. big cats
B. large herbivores
C. rodents
D. impossible to tell
E. All of the mammals lived at
the same time.
Which of the following mammals lived earliest in this
area?
1
6
Which of the following events might create a gap in the
fossil record?
I. Mass extinction
II.
Erosion
III.
Volcanic activity
A. I
B. II
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
1
7
The first animals that were fully adapted to live their
entire life cycle on land are the
A. amphibians
B. reptiles
C. birds
D. mammals
E. crustaceans
1
8
Prokaryotes have all of the following EXCEPT
A. circular DNA
B. cell wall
C. cytoplasm
D. ribosomes
E. nucleus
1
9
A scientist uses the rate of change in a protein called
cytochrome c to calculate the point at which humans
and chimpanzees last shared a common ancestor. The
protein is an example of a(n)
A. fossil
B. acquired trait
C. vestigial structure
D. homologous structure
E. molecular clock
2
0
The wings of an eagle and the flippers of a penguin are
examples of
A. acquired traits
B. convergent evolution
C. vestigial structures
D. analogous structures
E. homologous structures
2
1
A population of mountain lions was almost completely
eliminated by a forest fire 50 years ago. The lions that
are currently in the area are genetically very similar to
one another because they are all descendants of the
few individuals that survived the fire. This is an
example of
A. genetic drift
B. non-random mating
C. gene flow
D. natural selection
E. mutation
2
2
A. pesticides are becoming
increasingly ineffective
B. pesticides must be used more
than once over every twentyfour-hour period in order for it
to be effective
C. temperature can affect
pesticides’ effectiveness
D. pesticide’s effectiveness is
Fleas were allowed to breed. After many generations,
indirectly proportional to the
students removed two groups of fleas. Each group was
size of the flea population
exposed to different concentrations of pesticide. Group E. pesticides’ effectiveness is
A was exposed to 0.3% concentration, Group B to 0.5%
directly proportional to
and Group C to 0.7%. After a day, the students
concentration.
counted the percentage of surviving fleas in each group
(Figure I.) The three groups of surviving fleas were
kept separate and allowed to reproduce. The offspring
in each group were then exposed to a pesticide
concentration of 0.5%. The results are in figure II.
From the data in Figure I, it can be inferred that
2
3
What is the best explanation for the results of the
experiment, as depicted in Figure II above?
A. mutation
B. Selection
C. Adaptive radiation
D. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
E. Habituation
2
4
Scientists perform a series of crosses and discover that
resistance to the pesticide in the fleas is a recessive
trait. What would happen if a population of fleas that
were resistant to the pesticide were bred over a series
of generations, along with a population of fleas that
were not resistant?
A. All the offspring would be
resistant to the pesticide.
B. The offspring would develop
fatal mutations.
C. The majority of offspring
would be resistant, while a
minority would not be
resistant.
D. The majority of offspring
would not be resistant, while
a minority would be resistant.
E. Even though the trait is
recessive, the offspring would
become increasingly resistant
since only the resistant fleas
would survive to reproduce.
2
5
A. genetic drift
B. succession
C. speciation
D. convergent evolution
E. stabilizing selection
Fleas were allowed to breed. After many generations,
students removed two groups of fleas. Each group was
exposed to different concentrations of pesticide. Group
A was exposed to 0.3% concentration, Group B to 0.5%
and Group C to 0.7%. After a day, the students
counted the percentage of surviving fleas in each group
(Figure I.) The three groups of surviving fleas were
kept separate and allowed to reproduce. The offspring
in each group were then exposed to a pesticide
concentration of 0.5%. The results are in figure II.
The fleas in Group C are treated with higher and higher
concentrations of pesticide during each successive
generation of offspring. After a year, the fleas are
completely resistant to the pesticide, regardless of its
concentration. The fleas are then returned to the
original culture of fleas and scientists notice that the
completely resistant fleas can only produce viable
offspring with each other. The process that occurred
during the year of the experiment is called
2
6
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Male longhorn beetles compete for entrance into the
burrows of potential female mates. Large males always
outcompete medium-sized males in physical battle.
Small males are able to trick competitors because they
are mistaken for females. The large males and the
small males are able to mate with more females.
Which drawing best depicts the evolution of male size
in longhorn beetles?
1
2
3
4
5
2
7
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4
5
In a particular grassland, short grasses are selected
against because they cannot compete for light. Tall
grasses are selected against because they cannot
withstand winds. Which drawing depicts the evolution
of height in the grasses?
2
8
Short grasses are selected against because they
cannot compete for light. Tall grasses are selected
against because they cannot withstand winds. The
mode of evolution in the case of the grasses is called
A. mutation
B. migration
C. non-random mating
D. natural selection
E. gene flow
2
9
Which of the following is more advanced, in
evolutionary terms, than an amphibian, but more
primitive than a bird?
A. frog
B. polar bear
C. hagfish
D. lizard
E. chicken
3
0
Which of the following is considered a vestigial
structure?
A. ostrich wing
B. wasp wing
C. human gall bladder
D. giraffe neck
E. alligator leg
3
1
Scientists who study evolution consider cytochrome c to A. scientists have determined
be an excellent molecular clock because
when cytochrome c was first
evolved by an organism
B. changes or mutations in
cytochrome c occur at regular
intervals over time
C. cytochrome c has a known
half-life that can be used to
date the time when an
organism lived
D. cytochrome c exists in far
greater quantities on
asteroids than on Earth;
large deposits of cytochrome
c in the fossil record indicate
asteroid impact
E. cytochrome c is the molecule
in bones that hardens and
leaves fossils after death.
3
2
According to the information in the table, which drawing
shows the proper evolutionary tree of phyla A, B, C, D
and E?
3
3
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4
5
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A&C
A&D
C&E
B&D
A&B
Of the choices provided, which two phyla are most
closely related?
3
4
Mineralized remains or traces of prehistoric life are
A. analogous structures
B. vestigial structures
C. fossils
D. comparative embryology
E. molecular clocks
3
5
Bodily structures that evolved in the past but that no
longer serve an apparent function are
A. analogous structures
B. vestigial structures
C. fossils
D. comparative embryology
E. molecular clocks
3
6
Certain genes or proteins in organisms that change at a A. analogous structures
constant rate over time are
B. vestigial structures
C. fossils
D. comparative embryology
E. molecular clocks
3
7
Movement first evolved in which phylum of kingdom
Animalia?
A. Porifera
B. Mollusca
C. Cnidaria
D. Arthropoda
E. Annelida
3
8
Which of the following is the correct listing of kingdom
Plantae from least to most evolutionarily advanced?
A. Gymnosperms,
angiosperms, seedless
vascular plants, bryophytes
B. Bryophytes, seedless
vascular plants,
gymnosperms, angiosperms
C. Bryophytes, seedless
vascular plants, angiosperms,
gymnosperms
D. seedless vascular plants,
bryophytes, gymnosperms,
angiosperms
E. angiosperms, gymnosperms,
seedless vascular plants,
bryophytes
3
9
A still pond contains many strings of jelly-coated eggs.
These eggs were most likely laid by a member of
A. class Mammalia
B. class Aves
C. phylum Reptilia
D. class Reptilia
E. class Amphibia
4
0
A species of turtle was observed by scientists on a
small, isolated island in the Caribbean. Scientists
counted the number of turtles and measured the size of
each turtle. Fifty years later, a second team of
scientists observed the turtles. They again counted and
measured the size. What happened to the population
over time?
A. evolution
B. stabilizing selection
C. disruptive selection
D. directional selection
E. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
4
1
A large turtle can better withstand extreme high winds
than a small turtle. What would most likely happen to
turtle size on an island if the island became subject to
regular and repeated high winds for a decade or more?
4
2
The population of turtles on an island grew from a few
turtles that came to the island from a nearby continent.
In a breeding experiment, scientists discovered that the
turtles from the island can no longer breed with turtles
from the continent. What has
happened?
A. Convergent evolution
B. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
C. mutation
D. allopatric speciation
E. extinction
The diagram is called a
4
3
A. Punnett diagram
B. phylogram
C. karyotype
D. diversity chain
E. phylogenetic tree
4
4
A. Agnatha and Mammalia
B. Reptilia and Osteicthyes
C. Agnatha and Osteicthyes
D. Amphibia and Chondricthyes
E. Reptilia and Aves
Of the provided choices, which pair is most closely
related?
4
5
Sharks (fish) and dolphins (mammal) both have a
dorsal fin. In this instance, the dorsal fin is an example
of a(n)
A. vestigial structure
B. analogous structure
C. homologous trait
D. molecular clock
E. defense structure
4
6
A population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The
frequency of the dominant allele in the population is
p=0.6. What is the frequency of the recessive allele?
A. 36%
B. 0.4
C. 16%
D. 0.6
E. 48%
4
7
The smallest unit in which evolution can occur is a(n)
A. population
B. gene
C. cell
D. community
E. individual
4
8
A volcanic eruption separates a population of birds into
two isolated populations. After many generations, an
individual from each population were brought together
in hopes the would mate. What would NOT be
considered evidence that the two populations had
evolved into different species.
A. The individuals mate, and
offspring are deformed and
die soon after birth.
B. The individuals mate, and the
offspring are sterile.
C. The female does not
recognize the male’s
courtship song and will not
mate with him.
D. The individuals produce fertile
offspring, and the offspring do
not resemble either parent.
E. The individuals try to mate,
but are not physically
compatible.
4
9
In order for germination to occur, the seed of the
Calvaria major tree had to pass through the digestive
system of a Dodo bird. When the Dodo bird became
extinct, so too did the tree. This is an example of
A. coevolution
B. competition
C. parasitism
D. niche separation
E. gene flow
5
0
Which of the following is NOT a condition for HardyWeinberg equilibrium?
A. large population size
B. non-random mating
C. absence of immigration or
emigration
D. random reproductive success
E. no mutation
5
1
A population of mountain lions was almost eliminated
by a forest fire 50 years ago. The lions that are
currently in the area are genetically very similar to one
another because they are all descendants of the few
individuals that survived the fire. This is an example of
A. genetic drift
B. non-random mating
C. gene flow
D. natural selection
E. mutation
5
2
Which of the following was not present in the prebiotic
environment?
A. carbon dioxide
B. ammonio
C. water
D. methane
E. oxygen
5
3
The earliest enzymes are thought to have consisted of
A. RNA
B. protein
C. DNA
D. saccharides
E. triglycerides
5
4
Which of the following is found in modern life forms?
A. L-amino acids
B. D-amino acids
C. L-sugars
D. D-sugars
E. more than one of the above
5
5
Mammals evolved during this geologic period
A. Cambrian
B. Devonian
C. Jurassic
D. Cretaceous
E. Quaternary
5
6
Gymnosperms developed during this geologic period
A. Cambrian
B. Devonian
C. Jurassic
D. Cretaceous
E. Quaternary
5
7
Chordates developed during this geologic period
A. Cambrian
B. Devonian
C. Jurassic
D. Cretaceous
E. Quaternary
5
8
One method of dating organic material involved finding
the ratio of ______________
A. carbon dioxide to carbon
monoxide
B. 18O to 16O
C. water to carbon dioxide
D. 14C to 12C
E. carbon monoxide to oxygen
5 ____________ structures have ____________
9 functions/features and the same evolution origin while
__________ structures have ____________
functions/features but different evolutionary origins
A. analogous; similar;
homologous; different
B. analogous; similar;
homologous; similar
C. homologous; similar;
analogous; different
D. homologous similar;
analogous; similar
E. none of the above
6 Which of the following is NOT a condition of Hardy0 Weinberg equilibrium?
A. no natural selection
B. large population size
C. no mutation
D. no migration into or out of the
population
E. Non-random mating
6
1
What is meant by an organism’s “fitness,” in an
evolutionary sense?
A. The organism uses oxygen
efficiently
B. The organism survives to
adulthood
C. The organism survives to
adulthood and reproduces
D. The organism survives to
adulthood and finds a mate
E. The organism is not killed
before adulthood
6
2
The earliest forms of life were most likely
A. unicellular autotrophs
B. multicellular autotrophs
C. unicellular heterotrophs
D. multicellular heterotrophs
E. photoautotrophs
6
3
Which of the following was not a major constituent of the A. O2
atmosphere of the primitive earth, according to the
B. H2
Oparin-Haldane hypothesis?
C. H2O
D. CH4
E. NH3
6 Which of the following is not a condition of Hardy4 Weinberg equilibrium?
Questions 65 – 74: select the letter that is most closely
related with the phrase or sentence
A. no net mutations
B. isolation from other
populations
C. no natural selection
D. small population size
E. random mating
6
5
Extreme phenotypes are favored
A. bottleneck effect
B. gradualism
C. stabilizing selection
D. punctuated equilibrium
E. disruptive selection
6
6
A small group of individuals is separated from a larger
population
A. bottleneck effect
B. gradualism
C. stabilizing selection
D. punctuated equilibrium
E. disruptive selection
6
7
Evolutionary change occurs in spurts
A. bottleneck effect
B. gradualism
C. stabilizing selection
D. punctuated equilibrium
E. disruptive selection
6
8
The wing of a bat and the forelimb of a cat have similar
bone structure
A. comparative embryology
B. taxonomy
C. comparative anatomy
D. paleontology
E. comparative physiology
6
9
Cytochrome c has the same basic structure in all aerobic A. comparative embryology
species
B. taxonomy
C. comparative anatomy
D. paleontology
E. comparative physiology
7
0
System of naming and classifying organisms
A. comparative embryology
B. taxonomy
C. comparative anatomy
D. paleontology
E. comparative physiology
7
1
water vascular system
A. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidaria
C. Porifera
D. Echinodermata
E. Annelida
7
2
gastrovascular cavity
A. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidaria
C. Porifera
D. Echinodermata
E. Annelida
7
3
spongocoel
A. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidaria
C. Porifera
D. Echinodermata
E. Annelida
7
4
flame-cell excretory system
A. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidaria
C. Porifera
D. Echinodermata
E. Annelida
7 In a certain pea plant, green pea color is dominan to
5 yellow pea color. A farmer has a field of pea plants In this
field, 34% of the peas are yellow, and 64% of the peas
are green. He randomly selects 6 plants and interbreeds
them. In the first generation of plants from this cross,
54% of the peas are yellow and 46% of the peas are
green. This is an example of
A. gradualism
B. punctuated equilibrium
C. stabilizing selection
D. bottleneck effect
E. sympatric speciation
7 A large lake evaporates slowly over time, leaving many
6 small ponds. The large lake had been inhabited by one
species of fish, but over time, each small pond is
inhabited by a different species of fish, each species a
descendant of the species which inhabited the large lake.
This is an example of
A. punctuated equilibrium
B. disruptive selection
C. allopatric speciation
D. sympatric speciation
E. mutation
7 Two closely related species share the same habitat, but
7 the sperm of one species cannot fertilize the egg of
another species, and vice versa. This is an example of
A. gametic isolation
B. behavioral isolation
C. habitat isolation
D. temporal isolation
E. mechanical isolation
7 The earliest forms of life were most likely
8
A. multicellular animals
B. multicellular plants capable of
photosynthesis
C. unicellular organisms with
mitochondria
D. unicellular organisms with
chloroplasts
E. unicellular heterotrophs which
consumed organic molecules
7 Which of the following is a correct statement of a
9 condition of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A. nonrandom mating
B. natural selection favors some
phenotypes over others
C. large population size
D. migration into and out of the
population
E. mutations which alter alleles
8 Which experiment did Oparin and Haldane perform to
0 simulate conditions of the early Earth?
A. They applied electric charge to
a mixture of hydrogen gas, water,
methane, and ozone.
B. They applied electric charge to
a mixture of hydrogen gas, water,
methane, and ammonia.
C. They added DNA to a mixture
of hydrogen gas, water, methane,
and ozone
D. They added RNA to a mixture
of hydrogen gas, water, methane,
and ozone
E. They added RNA to a mixture
of hydrogen gas, water , methane,
and ammonia.
8 Which of the following organelles is thought to have
1 originally been a free-living prokaryotic organism?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. endoplasmic reticulum
C. lysosomes
D. chloroplasts
E. centrioles
8 It is believed that early life forms differed from modern life A. early life forms used proteins
2 forms in that
both as enzymes and as genetic
material
B. modern life forms use proteins
as both enzymes and genetic
material
C. early life forms used proteins
as genetic material while modern
life forms use DNA as genetic
material
D. early life forms used RNA both
as enzymes and as genetic
material
E. early life forms used DNA both
as enzymes and as genetic
material
8 In contrast to the environment today, the prebiotic
3 environment on Earth
A. contained a great deal of O2
B. contained a great deal of
ozone
C. had an oxidizing atmosphere
D. had a reducing atmosphere
E. contained no carbon
8 A certain species of plant which lives in a hot, dry desert
4 environment in Arizona developed a type of protective
covering with spines which protect it from predators. An
unrelated species which lives in a similar hot, dry desert
environment in Africa developed a similar protective
covering with spines which protect it from predators. This
is an example of
A. homologous structures
B. codominance
C. convergent evolution
D. punctuated equilibrium
E. taxonomy
8 Which of the following was most responsible for ending
5 chemical evolution?
A. Natural selection
B. Heterotrophic prokaryotes
C. Photosynthesis
D. Viruses
E. The absence of oxygen in the
atmosphere
8 Which of the following generates the formation of
6 adaptations?
A. Genetic drift
B. Mutations
C. Gene flow
D. Sexual reproduction
E. Natural selection
8 The B blood-type allele probably originated in Asia and
7 subsequently spread to Europe and other regions of the
world. This is an example of
A. artificial selection
B. natural selection
C. genetic drift
D. gene flow
E. sexual reproduction
8 The appearance of a new mutation is
8
A. a random event
B. the result of natural selection
C. the result of artificial selection
D. the result of sexual
reproduction
E. usually a beneficial event
8
9
Which of the following is an example of sexual selection? A. Dark-colored peppered moths
in London at the beginning of the
industrial revolution
B. The main of a lion
C. Insecticide resistance in
insects
D. Darwin’s finches in the
Galapagos Islands
E. The ability of certain insects to
avoid harm when consuming toxic
plants
9 A population consists of 9% white sheep and 91% black
0 sheep. What is the frequency of the black-wool allele if
the black-wool allele is dominant and the white-wool
allele is recessive?
A. 0.09
B. 0.3
C. 0.42
D. 0.49
E. 0.7
9 After test-cross experiments, it was determined that the A. are 0.2 and 0.8, respectively
1 frequencies of homozygous dominant, heterozygous, and B. are 0.32 and 0.68, respectively
homozygous recessive individuals for a particular trait
C. are 0.36 and 0.64, respectively
were 32%, 64%, and 4% respectively. The dominant and D. are √0.32 and 1- √0.32,
recessive allele frequencies
respectively
E. cannot be determined because
the population is not in HardyWeinberg equilibrium
9 Cepaea nermoralis is a land snail. Individual snails have
2 shells with zero to five dark bands on a yellow, pink, or
dark brown background. The various shell patterns could
have occurred by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. convergent evolution
B. natural selection
C. a balanced polymorphism
D. chance
E. mutations
9 All of the following are homologous structures EXCEPT: A. a bat wing
3
B. a bird wing
C. a butterfly wing
D. a human arm
E. a penguin flipper
9 Because of human predation, the sizes of and genetic
4 variation in populations of most whale species are
declining.
A. Bottleneck
B. Adaptive radiation
C. Directional selection
D. Sexual reproduction
E. Sympatric speciation
9 Progeny possess new combinations of alleles every
5 generation
A. Bottleneck
B. Adaptive radiation
C. Directional selection
D. Sexual reproduction
E. Sympatric speciation
9 Many strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the
6 bacterium that causes tuberculosis, are resistant to
standard drug therapy.
A. Bottleneck
B. Adaptive radiation
C. Directional selection
D. Sexual reproduction
E. Sympatric speciation
9 There are more than 750,000 named species of insects
7 inhabiting a wide range of habitats.
A. Bottleneck
B. Adaptive radiation
C. Directional selection
D. Sexual reproduction
E. Sympatric speciation
9 A recently introduced species of seed-eating birds
8 occupies an island where small and large seeds are
available. Beak size in the bird population varies from
small to large, allowing some birds to be more successful
at eating small seeds, while others are more successful
at eating large seeds. Birds with intermediate beak size
must exert additional effort to eat seeds.
A. Bottleneck
B. Adaptive radiation
C. Directional selection
D. Sexual reproduction
E. Sympatric speciation
9 All of the following are examples of evolution EXCEPT:
9
A. mutations in an individual
B. changes in an allele frequency
in a population
C. changes in an allele frequency
in a species
D. divergence of a species into
two species
E. adaptive radiation
1
0
0
Which of the following best describes the pattern of
punctuated equilibrium in evolution?
A. Speciation events occur
relatively rapidly.
B. Small changes that accumulate
over long periods of time lead to
the formation of a new species
and the extinction of the old
species.
C. Small changes that accumulate
over long periods of time lead to
the divergence of one species into
two or more species.
D. Speciation occurs when
random changes accumulate over
long periods of time.
E. Geographic isolation is the
predominant mechanism of
speciation.
1
0
1
A recessive trait appears in 81% of the individuals in a
population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. What
percent of the population in the next generation is
expected to homozygous dominant?
A. 1%
B. 9%
C. 18%
D. 19%
E. 81%
1
0
2
A severe storm forms a new river that divides a
A. hybridization
population of mice. After 500 years, a drought causes the B. adaptive radiation
river to dry up, allowing the two populations of mice to
C. balanced polymorphism
mix. Mating between mice from the two populations does D. sympatric speciation
not yield any offspring. This is an example of
E. allopatric speciation
1
0
3
Two sympatric species of pine trees release their pollen
during different months. This is an example of
1
0
4
Kangaroo rats live in desert habitats. Which of the
A. Frequent drinking
following physiological or behavioral adaptations increase B. Frequent urination
their survival in this hot and dry environment?
C. Nephrons with long loops of
Henle
D. Numerous sweat glands in their
skin
E. Diurnal activity
1
0
5
The frequency of individuals better able to survive in a
A. mutation
new habitat increases in a population over time. The best B. natural selection
explanation for this is
C. genetic drift
D. gene flow
E. the founder effect
1
0
6
An experiment to replicate the production of organic
molecules in an environment similar to earth’s
environment before life appeared would require all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. ammonia gas
B. carbon dioxide gas
C. oxygen gas
D. ultraviolet light
E. water vapor
1
0
7
Two species of finches living on separate islands have
beaks of the same size. On one island where both
species live together, beak sizes are different.
A. Genetic drift
B. Coevolution
C. Character displacement
D. Sexual selection
E. Kin selection
1
0
8
In an ant colony, sterile sisters are workers who maintain A. Genetic drift
the nest and provide care for their reproducing mother, B. Coevolution
the queen.
C. Character displacement
D. Sexual selection
E. Kin selection
1
0
9
A devastating blizzard dramatically reduces the size of a A. Genetic drift
population and results in the disappearance of several
B. Coevolution
alleles from the gene pool.
C. Character displacement
D. Sexual selection
E. Kin selection
1
1
0
In many animal species, males and females look
different.
A. habitat isolation
B. temporal isolation
C. behavioral isolation
D. mechanical isolation
E. geographic isolation
A. Genetic drift
B. Coevolution
C. Character displacement
D. Sexual selection
E. Kin selection
1
1
1
A host plant produces a toxin that is lethal to aphids
feeding on its leaves. Over time, some of the aphids
become immune to the toxin. In response, the host plant
begins to produce a different toxin that is lethal to aphids.
This is an example of
A. parasitism
B. commensalism
C. predation
D. mutualism
E. coevolution
1
1
2
Which of the following represents the correct order of
appearance of different vertebrate groups in the fossil
record?
A. fish, birds, reptiles, mammals
B. amphibians, reptiles, fish,
mammals
C. fish, reptiles, amphibians,
mammals
D. fish, amphibians, reptiles,
mammals
E. fish, amphibians, mammals,
reptiles
1
1
3
Evidence validating the theory of evolution based on the A. comparative homology
study of structures that appear during the development of B. comparative endocrinology
different organisms is known as
C. comparative morphology
D. comparative anatomy
E. comparative embryology
1
1
4
The concept that the gene pool of an idealized, nonevolving population remains constant over generations
forms the basis of
1
1
5
The process by which species from different evolutionary A. adaptive radiation
lineages come to resemble each other as a result of living B. convergent evolution
to very similar environments is known as
C. sympatric speciation
D. allopatric speciation
E. punctuated equilibrium
A. Mendel’s principle of
segregation
B. Mendel’s principle of
independent assortment
C. Darwin’s theory of natural
selection
D. Darwin’s theory of survival of
the fittest
E. the principle of Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium
Questions 116-117 refer to the following population in
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:
Approximately 4% of the turtle population in the local
pond show the recessive phenotype – long nose (nn)
1
1
6
What is the frequency of the dominant allele (N) in the
population?
A. 0.16
B. 0.20
C. 0.40
D. 0.32
E. 0.80
1
1
7
What is the frequency of heterozygotes in the population? A. 0.08
B. 0.24
C. 0.32
D. 0.48
E. 0.64
1
1
8
Which of the following statements does NOT contribute to A. Sequences of fossils have
the evidence in support of evolution?
been found that show a gradual
series of changes in form among
organisms
B. Species thought to be related
through evolution from a common
ancestor show many anatomical
similarities
C. The stages of embryological
development in animals are quite
similar among highly diverse types
of organisms
D. Similarities in chromosome
structure, DNA sequence, and
amino acid sequences suggest
relationships among organisms
descending through evolution
from a common ancestor.
E. The most well adapted
individuals do not always produce
the most fit offspring.
1
1
9
Which of the following statements suggests that all
A. There is much evidence for the
organisms descended through evolution from a common occurrence of convergent
ancestor?
evolution
B. It is widely accepted that
natural selection leads to
evolution.
C. Despite the diversity of
organisms on Earth, all share the
same genetic code.
D. All populations experience
mutation and natural selection
E. Selection acts on individuals,
but only populations evolve.
1
2
0
Which of the following pairs represents homologous
structures?
A. human arm and octopus
tentacle
B. human arm and sea star arm
C. human arm and bird wing
D. bird wing and fly wing
E. fly wing and bat wing
1
2
1
Darwin’s natural selection includes all of the following
except
1
2
2
Evidence validating the theory of evolution based on the A. biogeography
study of similarities and differences in body structure
B. natural selection
among various species is known as __________
C. comparative anatomy
D. comparative embryology
E. molecular biology
1
2
3
Evidence validating the theory of evolution based on the A. biogeography
study of local, regional, and global distributions of species B. natural selection
is known as __________
C. comparative anatomy
D. comparative embryology
E. molecular biology
1
2
4
Evidence validating the theory of evolution based on the A. biogeography
study of structures that appear during the development of B. natural selection
different organisms is known as ____________
C. comparative anatomy
D. comparative embryology
E. molecular biology
1
2
5
Evidence validating the theory of evolution based on the A. biogeography
study of the genetic makeup of species at the DNA level B. natural selection
is known as ______________
C. comparative anatomy
D. comparative embryology
E. molecular biology
A. Variation can be due to
mutations
B. The difference in survivability
between organisms may be due to
variation
C. Not all organisms may survive,
due to competition
D. Organisms produce more
offspring than can survive
E. Some organisms will be more
fit to survive than others
1
2
6
Which of the following statements is NOT part of Darwin’s A. Genetic variation exists amont
theory of natural selection?
individuals in a population.
B. The size of most populations
remains relatively constant,
despite the fact that more
offspring are produced than are
needed to maintain it.
C. Early settlers saved seed only
from the most productive crop
plants to plant the following year.
D. Disease, competition, and
other environmental forces tend to
eliminate the individuals in a
population that are less adapted
to their environment.
E. Individuals that are best
adapted to their environment tend
to pass on heritable advantageous
characteristics to their offspring.
Questions 127 – 128 refer to the Hardy-Weinberg
equation used to reflect genotypic frequencies in a
population, as given below.
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
1
2
7
Which of the following is reflected by the value of p2?
A. the frequency of individuals in
the population with the dominant
phenotype
B. the frequency of individuals in
the population with the
homozygous dominant genotype
C. the frequency of the dominant
allele in the population
D. the frequency of individuals in
the population with the
homozygous recessive genotype
E. the frequency of individuals in
the population that are
heterozygous
1
2
8
The term 2pq indicates that
A. there are two alleles for that
gene in the population
B. there are two genes in the
population
C. there are twice as many
dominant alleles as recessive
alleles in the population
D. there are twice as many
heterozygotes as homozygotes in
the population.
E. there are two separate
reproductive combinations that
can result in the formation of a
heterozygous individual.
1
2
9
A small isolated population found on a remote island is
more likely to undergo speciation than a large
widespread population because a small isolated
population
A. is more susceptible to genetic
drift
B. inherently contains much
greater genetic diversity
C. is more readily adaptable to
extreme environmental changes
D. is more likely to migrate to
other islands or the nearest
mainland.
E. has a greater likelihood of
containing sterile hybrid
individuals.
1
3
0
Which of the following represents the correct order of
eras, from most ancient to most recent, along the
geological time scale?
A. Paleozoic – Precambrian –
Mesozoic – Cenozoic
B. Precambrian – Cenozoic –
Paleozoic – Mesozoic
C. Precambrian – Mesozoic –
Paleozoic – Cenozoic
D. Precambrian – Paleozoic –
Mesozoic – Cenozoic
E. Cenozoic – Mesozoic –
Paleozoic – Precambrian
Questions 131-132 refer to the following population in
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:
Within the squirrel population at City Park, 16% show the
recessive phenotype of a curled tail (tt)
1
3
1
What is the frequency of the dominant allele in the
population?
1
3
2
What is the frequency of heterozygotes in the population? A. 0.08
B. 0.24
C. 0.36
D. 0.48
E. 0.64
1
3
3
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a
population to be maintained in Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium through several generations of intermating?
A. nonrandom mating among
individuals
B. no net mutations
C. large population size
D. isolation from other populations
(no migration into or out of the
population)
E. no natural selection occurring
1
3
4
Which of the following statements is NOT one of the
principle observations upon which Darwin based his
theory of natural selection?
A. The population size of a
species would increase
exponentially if all individuals that
were born reproduced
successfully
B. Populations tend to remain
stable in size, aside from seasonal
fluctuations.
C. Environmental resources are
limited
D. Individuals in a population vary
extensively in their characteristics
E. Most of the variation observed
among individuals in a population
is due to environmental causes;
thus, very little variation is
heritable (passed on from parent
to offspring)
1
3
5
One of the earliest theories pertaining to the origin of life
on earth suggested that life began in shallow pools.
Recent studies have led to extensive debate regarding
the origin of life, with some researchers suggesting that
life may have originated
A. near deep sea vents
B. as viral particles
C. in mudflats
D. from debris left behind when
meteorites crashed to earth
E. from naked strands of RNA
A. 0.40
B. 0.16
C. 0.26
D. 0.60
E. 0.32
1
3
6
All of the following ideas are essential to Charles
Darwin’s theory of natural selection except
1
3
7
Which of the following factors does not favor a change in A. large population
gene frequency, and, therefore, evolution?
B. mutations
C. emigration
D. genetic drift
E. all of the above
1
3
8
The number of people in certain regions of Africa that
suffer from sickle cell anemia is 16 percent. This genetic
disorder is caused by a mutation in which homozygous
recessive results in sickle cell anemia, but in the
heterozygote condition causes the sickle cell trait. The
gene frequency for that allele is _________, and the
percentage of people that are heterozygotes is
___________.
A. 0.6, 24
B. 0.4, 24
C. 0.6, 48
D. 0.4, 48
E. 0.6, 72
1
3
9
All of the following could be considered evidences of
evolution except
A. the structural homology
between the forearms of bats and
humans.
B. the DNA sequence of the
cytochrome-c gene for bats and
birds.
C. the dorsal nerve chord of
crayfish and birds.
D. fossils of dinosaurs
E. a wasp embedded in amber
1
4
0
The gas that was least present in the atmosphere of the A. methane
Earth over 2 billion years ago was
B. oxygen
C. nitrogen
D. carbon dioxide
E. carbon monoxide
A. individuals tend to produce
more offspring than can survive.
B. variation is present in all
populations.
C. characteristics acquired by one
parent can be passed on to their
offspring.
D. resources are usually limited.
E. those individuals who produce
the most fertile offspring are the
most fit.
1
4
1
Lynn Margulis’s endosymbiotant theory is supported by
the fact(s) that
A. mitochondrial DNA is more like
that of bacteria than nuclear DNA
in human cells
B. chloroplasts replicate on their
own time schedule, not under
nuclear control.
C. mitochondria and chloroplasts
are about the same size as
prokaryotes
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
1
4
2
Darwin’s finches are a group of about twelve species of
birds that live on the Galapagos Islands. The fact that
they have different size beaks is regarded as a
consequence of
A. genetic drift
B. coevolution
C. competition
D. chance
E. behavioral modification
1
4
3
If 9 percent of all cicadas exhibit the homozygous
A. cannot be determined
recessive condition known as “flippant wings,” what is the B. 91 percent
gene frequency for that gene in the general population? C. 0.9
D. 0.3
E. 0.03
1
4
4
The wings of a bird and those of an insect are a good
example of
A. adaptive radiation
B. coevolution
C. convergent evolution
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
1
4
5
Choose the most Darwinian reason to describe how
camels came to have flat, broad hooves.
1
4
6
Let X represent an atom and X* its radioactive isotope. A. as much as a living organism
Assume both are taken up by living organisms. If the half- B. 4 times as much
life of X* is 4,000 years, how much X* will be present in C. ¼ as much
the remains of an organism that is 16,000 years old?
D. 1/16
E. indeterminate given the lack of
climatic data
A. The camels that ventured
further into the desert acquired
broader feet, which were passed
along to their offspring.
B. Those animals that had the
broadest hooves were the most
attractive to the opposite sex
C. The animals that had the
broadest hooves were able to
travel farther and wind water more
easily than those that couldn’t and
subsequently perished.
D. Those animals with the
broadest feet are descended from
the camels that got broad feet
from stomping out the forest fires
that created the desert in the first
place.
E. In the game of life, random
events will move evolution toward
the most successful adaptations
possible.
Questions 147-148 refer to the series of graphs below.
1
4
7
Which of the above graphs best illustrates the concept of
stabilizing selection (selection that favors intermediate
variants by acting against individuals with extreme
phenotypes)?
A. Graph I only
B. Graph II only
C. both Graph I and Graph II
D. Graph III only
E. both Graph II and Graph III
1
4
8
Which of the above graphs best illustrates the concept of A. Graph I only
diversifying selection (selection that favors extreme
B. Graph II only
phenotypes over intermediate phenotypes)?
C. both Graph I and Graph II
D. Graph III only
E. both Graph II and Graph III
1
d
2
a
3
e
4
a
5
a
6
d
7
d
8
b
9
b
10 d
11 c
12 d
13 b
14 d
15 c
16 d
17 b
18 e
19 e
20 e
It is impossible for an individual to acquire or lose genetic traits over its lifetime.
21 a
Genetic drift occurs in small populations. Events such as disease could eliminate a
gene from the gene pool.
22 e
23 b
24 d
Be careful. Do not assume the fleas are in an environment exposed to pesticides.
25 c
26 a
27 c
28 d
29 d
30 a
31 b
32 d
33 d
34 c
35 b
36 e
37 c
38 b
39 e
40 b
41 5
42 d
43 e
44 e
45 b
46 b
tree shows closeness between organisms. Phylum with fewest traits in the chart will
be the least advanced and appear first in the tree
47 a
48 d
49 a
50 d
51 b
52 e
53 a
54 e
55 c
56 b
57 a
58 d
59 d
60 e
61 c
62 c
63 a
64 d
65 e
66 a
67 d
68 c
69 e
70 b
71 d
72 b
73 c
74 a
75 d
76 c
77 a
78 e
79 c
80 b
81 d
82 d
83 d
84 c
85 c
86 e
87 d
88 a
89 b
90 e
91 e
92 a
93 c
94 a
95 d
96 c
97 b
98 e
99 a
100
a
101
a
102
e
103
b
104
c
105
b
106
c
107
c
108
e
109
a
110
d
111
e
112
d
113
e
114
e
115
b
116
e
117
c
118
e
119
c
120
c
121
a
122
c
123
a
124
d
125
e
126
c
127
b
128
e
129
a
130
d
131
d
132
d
133
a
134
e
135
a
136
c
137
a
138
d
139
c
140
b
141
d
142
c
143
d
144
c
145
c
146
d
147
a
148
d