Download EOC Practice Quiz (3) - Duplin County Schools

EOC HW Quiz #3
Objective 1.2.1 Diffusion, Cell Membrane
1..Which organism is most likely to have a cell wall made primarily of cellulose?
a. Algae b. animals
c. molds d. protozoans
2. How do non-vascular plants like moss obtain and transport water?
a. Xylem tubes b. phloem tubes
c. diffusion
d. direct osmosis through plant itself
3. The diagram below shows the same type of molecule on side A and side B. Over time,
what is the likely result?
a.
b.
c.
d.
More molecules will be on Side B than Side A.
More molecules will be on Side A than Side B.
Equal number of molecules will be on Side A and B.
All of the molecules will move towards the membrane.
4.2.1. Photosynthesis /4.2.2 Cellular Respiration
4. Which occurs when ATP is formed?
a. Energy is lost b. energy is stored c. energy is destroyed d. energy is released
5. Which organic molecule is most important in satisfy the energy needs of animals?
a. Carbohydrates b. proteins
c. lipids
d. nucleic acids
6. What waste product of photosynthesis is crucial to the existence of life on earth?
a. CO2 b. C6H12O6 c. O2 c. ATP
7. Lactobacillus acidophilus is a bacteria that carries out lactic acid fermentation in yogurt.
The lactic acid provides the yogurt with its sour taste. How many ATP were produced?
a. 0
b. 2
c. 36
8. In bread making and alcohol beverage making the waste products of anaerobic
fermentation provided the favor and effervescence. Name the products
a. O2 , water b. CO2 and water c. ethanol and CO2 d. sugar and O2
9. How does the process of photosynthesis in plants provide energy for animals?
a. The water and carbon dioxide used in photosynthesis are converted into glucose and
ATP for animals.
b. The glucose and ATP used in photosynthesis are converted into water and carbon
dioxide for animals.
c. The glucose and carbon dioxide used in photosynthesis are converted into proteins
For animals.
d. The oxygen and glucose produced through photosynthesis are converted into lipids
For animals.
10. The concentration of a certain molecule is greater inside the cell than outside the cell.
If the cell needs more of that molecule, what is the best process to move of this molecule
Inside the cell?
a. Active transport b. passive transport c. diffusion d. osmosis
Objective 1.1.3 Cell Specialization, Gene Expression
11. The human body has millions of genes, they all cannot be read at the same time, so when
one gene is read or transcribe and its trait produced it is known as
a. An expressed gene b. nonsense gene
c. hox gene
d. repressor
12. A small section of DNA that codes for one certain trait such as eye color is known as a
a. Base pair
b. promotor
c. TATA box
d. gene
13. A gene that controls the differentiation of cells and tissues in embryos is known as a
a. Hox gene
b. TATA box
c. repressor
d. operon
14. Transcription of mRNA has regulatory sites that serve
a. To Start or stop transcription c. to switch transcription off and on
b. As Proteins beside the promoter on DNA
d. a, b, and c
15. When looking at a template Strand of DNA to be copied (transcribed) by mRNA the starting
point is a 30 base TATATATATA sequence known as
a. Hox gene
b. TATA box
c. lac operon
16. Gene Regulation is different in prokaryote cells and eukaryote cells, which of the following
is incorrect
a. prokaryotes use promoter, regulatory sites, operons, operators, and repressors
b. Eukaryotes cells use promoter sequences, TATA box introns an extrons
c. Gene regulation is much more complex in prokaryote cells than eukaryote cells
d. Gene regulation is much more complex in eukaryote cells than prokaryote cells
17. Nerve cells and bone cells are specialized cells that descend from the same single cell
(fertilized egg). Which statement best explains how each type of cell results in a different
structure with a specialized function?
a. Nerve cells and boone cells begin with the same structure; however, bone cells harden
over time.
b. Nerve cells and bone cells receive different DNA that determines the structure and
function that each will perform.
c. Nerve cells and bone cells receive the same DNA; however, only specific parts of the
DNA are activated in each cell.
d. Nerve cells and bone cells receive the same DNA; however, bone cells receive more to
make the protective outer covering.
Objective 1.2.2 Cell Cycle, Mitosis
18. A student observes a typical onion root tip where many of the cells have just successfully
completed mitosis. Which statement best explains what must have happened to result in
cells that only have half as many chromosomes as all of the other cells in the same section
of the tip?
a. The parent cell completed mitosis after undergoing interphase.
b. The parent cell completed mitosis after undergoing cytokinesis.
c. The parent cell completed mitosis before undergoing cytokinesis.
d. The parent cell completed mitosis before undergoing interphase.
19. Cell cycle checkpoints are proteins that monitor and regulated the progress of the cell cycle
In eukaryotic cells. Which statement best describes what would most likely happen if a cell
is permitted to progress to mitosis without the preparation stage of interphase?
a. The new cells would have all of the organelles except the nucleus.
b. The new cells would have all of the organelles except the mitochondria.
c. The number of chromosomes in the daughter cells would be the same as the number of
chromosomes in the parent cell.
d. The number of chromosomes in the daughter cells would be different from the number of
chromosomes in the parent cell.
20. Which of the following is NOT a location of mitosis
a. Ovary and testes
b. onion root tip
c. developing embryo d. meristem of plants
21. The following hormone regulates the timing of the cell cycle in eukaryotes
a. estrogen
b. insulin
c. cyclin
d. adrenaline
22. Cancer is a cell cycle disease causing uncontrolled cell division. A. True B. False
23. In which structure does cell division begin?
a. nucleus
b. mitochondria
c. ribosome
d. vacuole
24. Mitosis results in a. 2 haploid gametes b. 2 diploid gametes
c. 4 haploid body cells
d. 4 diploid body cells d. 2 haploid body cells e. 4 diploid gametes f. 2 diploid body cells
25. If an error occurs in a cell lining of the stomach during mitosis, which cells will this change
affect? A. all the cells in the stomach lining
b. all the cells in the body c. all the cells
produced from the altered cells
d. the stomach cells of the organism’s offspring
26. Which of these types of body cells needs to carry out mitosis at the highest rate?
a. Fat b. skin c. nerve
d. bone
27. A bone cell of a goat contains 60 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be in each
daughter cell after mitosis? A. 15 b. 30 c. 60
d. 120
28. A daughter cell that resulted from a mitotic division has 24 chromosomes. How many
chromosomes did the parent cell have? A. 5 b. 12 c. 24 d. 48
29. Is binary fission an example of a. mitosis b. meiosis c. neither d. both
Objective 3.2.1. Meiosis, Genetic Variation, Reproduction
30. Why is the process of meiosis important to sexual reproduction?
a. It provides genetic variation in offspring.
b. it doubles the number of chromosomes in offspring.
c. it reduces the number of alleles from parent to offspring.
d. It produces a hybrid of all genetic traits in offspring.
31. The skin cell of an adult female rat has 40 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes. A healthy
egg cell would contain which number and type of chromosomes?
a. 20 autosomes and 1 X chromosome
b. 20 autosomes and 1 Y chromosome
c. 40 autosomes and 2 X chromosome
d. 40 autosomes and 2 Y chromosome
32. What is the process that occurs during meiosis that causes genetic variation?
a. Cytokinesis
b. prophase 1
c. crossing-over
d. genetic mutations
33. When compared to mitosis, meiosis makes what kind of cells?
a. 4 genetically similar diploid cells
c. 2 genetically different haploid cells
b. 2 genetically similar haploid cells
d. 2 genetically different haploid cells
34. During which phase of mitosis do chromosome first become visible?
a. Interphase b. prophase c. metaphase
d. telophase
35. During which phase does the DNA make a copy of itself?
a. Prophase
b. metaphase
c. interphase
d. anaphase
36. Which phase occurs directly after metaphase?
a. Prophase
b. interphase
c. anaphase
d. cytokinesis
37. A fruit fly has 8 chromosomes in each body cell, how many chromosomes would a fruit fly
have in their wings cells? A. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16
38. Cytokinesis begins in which phase of mitosis?
a. Metaphase b. telophase c. prophase d. anaphase
39. Sexual reproduction provides for what to occur?
a. Cloning
b. budding
c. genetic stability
d. genetic variation
40. Which would most likely favor species survival in changing environmental condition?
a. genetic recombination
c. energy involvement in gamete production
b. length of life cycle
d. number of offspring produced
41. Cells will generally divide when? a. they are 10 hours old c. they become infected
b.they become too large d. they have no food
42. Which reproductive adaptation is more characteristic of mammals than amphibians?
a. External fertilization with internal development
b. Internal fertilization with internal development
c. External fertilization with external development
d. Internal fertilization with external development
43. For wind-pollinated plants, how would the number of pollen grains produced compare to
the number of ovules?
a. Many times more b. a few more c. a few less d. many times less
44. What is the main reason that male birds of many species are brightly colored?
a. To appear dangerous to competitors
c. to be more attractive to potential mates
b. To camouflage themselves
d. to be easily identified by females when they
bring food to the nest
45. Nondisjunction is the failure of chromatids to separate during meiosis, causing what
possible condition in an offspring?
a. Cystic fibrosis b. Down syndrome c. Tay-Sachs
d. PKU
46. Nondisjunction in animals results in a. too many chromosomes b. crossed over
chromosomes c. mutated chromosomes d. linked chromosomes
47. Sometimes genes are exchanged between chromosomes of a cell. How can this crossingover benefit a species?
a. It produces greater numbers of individuals. c. It corrects errors in chromosomes.
b. It makes individuals genetically stronger.
d. It increases the genetic variability.
48. Genetic variation is due to “reshuffling of the genes” and can come from several sources,
which of the following causes genetic variation in organisms?
a. Crossing-over b. independent assortment c. random fertilization d. a, b, and c
49.Meiosis contains Homologous chromosomes or homologues, also called tetrads are needed
for crossing-over during. a. prophase 1 b. metaphase 1 c. prophase 2 d. metaphase 2
50. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of
a. Two genetically identical cells
c. four genetically identical cells
b. Four genetically different cells
d. two genetically different cells
51. Gametes have a. homologous chromosomes. b. twice the number of chromosomes
found in body cells. c. two sets of chromosomes. d. one allele for each gene.
43. In most cases, an embryo which has an extra chromosome in each cell develops such severe
abnormalities that the embryo dies, resulting in a miscarriage. A. True B. False
44. The purpose of a karyotype of an unborn baby is for
a. Doctor to diagnose chromosome abnormality c. allowing parents to know sex of baby
b. genetic counseling of parents
d. a and b
45. The Bigleaf Hydrangea flowering plant come in 2 flower colors of pink and blue. Mary
purchased a blue flower hydrangea for her mother but after it was set out in the yard for a
few weeks the flowers started turning pink. Why?
a. Meiosis in flowers b. air pollutes c. pH of soil
d. a, b, and c
46. A DNA nucleotide may be made up of a phosphate group, along with ________________.
a. deoxyribose sugar and uracil
c. deoxyribose sugar and thymine
b. Ribose sugar and adenine
d. ribose sugar and cytosine
47. What occurs when an ADP molecule bonds with a phosphate to become ATP?
a. Energy is stored in the new chemical bond.
c. a muscle contracts
b. Sodium ions are pumped out of the cell.
d. proteins are synthesized
48. In the portions of the DNA molecules below, X represents the base sequence of strand I in
the original DNA molecule and Y represents the base sequence of strand I in the newly formed
DNA molecule. X: A-T-G-C-C-A-T-A-G The base sequence in Y is an example of
Y: A-T-G-C-C-A-A-T-G
a. a gene mutation b. a chromosome deletion
c.translocation
d. polyploidy
49. Which of the following base pairs would not be found in a cell?
a. Adenine—thymine
c. cytosine—guanine
b. Thymine—uracil
d. adenine—uracil
50. If a DNA sequence reads CCGTACT, what would the complementary DNA sequence be?
a. CCGTACT b. GGCATGA c. GGCTGU d. GGCAUGA
51. Any agent that can cause a change in DNA is called a ________________.
a. Gene
b. chromosome
c. ribosome
d. mutagen
Objective 3.1.2 Protein Synthesis
52. This chart represents amino acids that are coded from different combinations of mRNA
codons.
Which amino acid sequence can be coded from the DNA sequence CAG TAG CGA?
a. Valine—Isoleucine—Glycine
b. Valine—Aspartic Acid—Alanine
c. Valine—Isoleucine—Alanine
d. Valine—Phenylalanine—Alanine
53. What is the start codon for protein synthesis?
a. leucine
b. methionine c. proline
d. termination (stop)
54. The main enzyme involved in linking individual nucleotides into DNA molecules is
a. ribose
b. ATPase
C. RNA polymerase d. DNA polymerase
55. Changes in the DNA sequence that affect genetic information are known as
a. replications
b. mutations
c. transformations
d. prokaryotes
56. The process by which one strain of bacteria is apparently changed into another strain is
Called a. replication b. mutation c. transformation d. translation
-----------57. A scientist analyzed several DNA samples from exons to determine the relative proportions
of puring and pyrimidine bases. Her data are summarized in the table below.
Sample
A
B
C
Percentages of Bases
In Three Samples
G
C
A
35
35
15
40
10
40
25
25
25
T
15
10
25
Which Sample(s) support(s) the base-pairing rules?
a. sample A only
b.sample B only c. sample C only d. sample A and C e. sample A,B,C
58. It the scientist had analyzed mRNA rather than DNA, what percentage of uracil would you
expect to find in Sample B?
a. 10
b. 25
c. 35
d. 40
e. 80
---------59. Transfer RNA carries _______________________ to the mRNA.
a. amino acid b. nucleic acids c. ribosome
d. codons
60. Replication is the process of ________________
a. making a protein
b. making enzymes
c. copying DNA
d. copying RNA
61. How many bases make up a condon? a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
62. What is the mRNA sequence for a strand of DNA reading CCGTACT
a. GGCAUGA
b. CCCGTACT
c. GGCATGA
d. GGCUTGU
63. What type of mutation occurs when a single base is added to or deleted from DNA?
a. Inversion b. translocation c. frame shift d. nondisjunction
64. What is the primary function of RNA?
a. Cellular respiration b. protein synthesis c. cell division d. facilitative diffusion
65. If the composition of a strand of DNA is 20 percent adenine what percent of cytosine would
the DNA strand be?
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 60%
66. The lack of an enzyme can cause such disorders as
a. Lactose intolerance b. PKU c. Cystic Fibrosis d. all of the following
67 When a protein is denatured it changes the proteins shape causing
a. The protein to be slower b. speeding the protein up c. causing the protein to no longer
to function d. none of the following
67. Life would not be possible without the presence and activation of enzymes in our cells.
a.True b. false
68._____________ are responsible for the pattern of amino acids in a protein.
a. Lipids
b. carbohydrates
c. peptides
d. nucleic acids
69. Unlike carbohydrates and lipids, protein contain
a. Nitrogen
b. carbon
c. hydrogen
d. oxygen
70. In which organelle does the process of transcription occur?
a. Nucleus
b. ribosome
c. chloroplast
d. mitochondrian
71. Which is the most likely outcome of nitrogen being fixed by bacteria?
a. More usable nitrogen for the synthesis of protein
c. mutations in DNA
b. Increase of atmospheric nitrogen
d. increase in photosynthesis
72. In the DNA molecule, adenine combines with thymine. However, when DNA serves as a
template for RNA, which nitrogen base combines with adenine?
a. Cytosine
b. thymine
c. guanine
d. ribosine e. uracil
73. Our cells make poisonous chemicals all the time as byproducts of chemical reactions. Luckily
our cells do not die because the cells also make enzymes to break down these poisonous
chemicals into harmless substances. Enzymes are
a. Nucleic acids
b. carbohydrates c. lipids
d. proteins
74. Living cells produce hydrogen peroxide which is poisonous to them. Look at the following
equation, 2H2O2 ---> 2H2O + O2 , name the products which result after the enzyme catalase
in the cells breaks hydrogen peroxide down.
a. CO2 and O2 b. H2O2
c. water and oxygen d. carbon dioxide
75. An experiment was performed using fresh beef liver, cooked beef liver, and celery.
Hydrogen peroxide was placed on each sample. The fresh beef liver and celery both fizzled
and foamed up indicating a chemical reaction. Why did the cooked beef liver not react to
H2O2?
a. Catalase only works inside the body
b. there was no hydrogen peroxide to break down
c. Cooking denatured the protein (liver) so no need of enzyme
d. Cooking denatured the liver protein and enzyme catalase so no reaction