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Transcript
“History of Evolutionary Thought” Game Cards: 3 pts. 3 pts. Choose one answer: Darwin noted that fossils in South America more Darwin collected many organisms from closely resembled: these volcanic islands off the coast of a) fossils from the same era in Europe South America. b) fossils of other organisms now living in South America. (the Galapagos Islands) (b) 3 pts. 3 pts. What is the complete title and publication date of Darwin’s most significant publication? (The Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection, 1859) Where did Wallace do his most significant work? (in the East Indies/Malaysia) 4 pts. 3 pts. Darwin acquired his degree in the field of ____? Who believed in uniformitarianism— an off-shoot of gradualism in which it was theorized that all earth processes occurred at a fixed rate over time? (botany) (Charles Lyell, 1833) 4 pts. Who claimed that populations have the potential to grow exponentially due to the high reproductive potential of all organisms? (Malthus,1766-1834) 4pts. Who believed in the concept of acquired inheritance, that the use of a trait allows that trait to develop over time and be passed on to one’s offspring? Ex: giraffes 4 pts. Who believed in gradualism, in which it was theorized that geological features were formed by the weathering of the lithosphere over a long period of time? (James Hutton, 1785) 4 pts. Who developed a nearly identical theory of natural selection around the same time as Darwin? (Wallace, 1823-1913) (Lamarck, 1745-1828) 4 pts. Name the two most widely accepted ideas that Darwin had to overcome in order to promote his ideas about natural selection. (the earth was ~6000 yrs. old; life was fixed and unchanging) 5 pts. Who created the binomial nomenclature classification system for organisms that is still in use today? (Linnaeus, 1707-1778) 4 pts. Name three main ideas of the creationist viewpoint that differ from the evolutionist viewpoint. (the earth is ~6000 yrs. old; all life forms were individually created by God; all life forms were created perfectly and do not change; a single week was needed to create the earth and all its life forms) 5 pts. How long did it take the ground shaking Ideas proposed by Darwin and Wallace to become widely accepted by the scientific community? (~10 yrs.) 6 pts. 5 pts. What language was the system of nomenclature proposed by Linnaeus written in, and why was it chosen? (Latin, it is a dead language so meanings won’ change over time as the language evolves through common use) Darwin noted that plants and animals of South American temperate regions more closely resembled plants and animals from _____ rather than those found in the same climate of _____. (other regions of S. America, Europe) 6 pts. 6 pts. Name the approximate years which Darwin’s and Wallace’s main thesis ideas were recorded on paper What was Cuvier’s belief called, in which periodic natural disasters wiped out large groups of organisms that were eventually replaced by organisms from another region? (Darwin 1844, Wallace 1858) (catastrophism) 6 pts. Who believed in the view of nature that assumed organisms were fixed and not evolving and could be placed on a ladder of increasing complexity? (Aristotle, 384-322 B.C.) 6 pts. Name two reasons the publication of Origin of the Species succeeded in changing the direction of scientific thought when other proposals by other men had failed? (1. It gave a logical stepwise presentation of ideas 2. the examples involved domesticated animals and plants, which were familiar and readily observable 3. there were many, many, detailed case examples given for support) 6 pts. Name two of the five scientists from the 1940s credited with bringing together genetics, paleontology, biogeography, taxonomy and the biology of specific organisms to create the “Modern Synthesis”. (E. Mayer, T. Dobzhansky, S.Wright, G. Gaylord Simpson, G. Ledyard Stebbins) 6 pts. Who developed paleontology when he realized that the order and layers of rocks could be used to determine the relative ages of fossilized organisms? (Cuvier, 1769-1832) 6 pts. Give Darwin’s age at each of the following points in his life: a) going to college (16) b) setting sail on the Beagle (22) c) publishing his book. (68) Origin of Life and the Fossil Record” Game Cards: 3 pts. Which taxonomic group listed is the oldest: Fungi, Bacteria, Protists, Archeabacteria, Plants, Animals? (bacteria) 3pts. Approximately how old is the earth, according to geologic dating? (4.6 billionyears old) 4 pts. 3 pts. What are protobionts? Approximately when did life on earth first appear in the geologic record? (droplets of polymers packaged in a membrane where the internal and external environments are different) (~3.7– 3.8 bya) 4 pts. 4 pts. Name one of the energy sources thought to drive the anabolic reactions of the first molecules of life? (lightening or ultraviolet radiation) What molecule was most likely the first hereditary material—DNA, RNA or proteins? (RNA – because of its link between proteins and DNA, the fact that it can function as an enzyme and its property of spontaneously pairing free bases) 4 pts. 4 pts. A reducing atmosphere would cause ______ reactions while an oxidizing atmosphere would cause ______ reactions. What is the two-word term for life being created from non-living things? (spontaneous generation) (anabolic, catabolic) 4 pts. 5 pts. What is the term for the theory that living things only come from other living things? According to the most recent hypothesis, what would the first organic monomers have been? (biogenesis) (amino acids or nucleotides) 5 pts. Name two things that are “lifelike” that protobionts can do spontaneously. (1. they can absorb substrates and release products like an enzyme 2. form bilayers like a cell membrane 3. selectively take items from their surroundings 4. swell or shrink due to osmosis 5. create an action potential 6. create new protobionts) 5 pts. What were the first multicellular eukaryotes? (algae) 5 pts. 5 pts. When did the first eukaryotes (endosymbionts) evolve? (2.1 bya) In what two places in our solar system are scientists looking for evidence of life (past or present)? (Mars and Europa—both have/had water and carbon dioxide) 5 pts. 5 pts. Describe two traits of the planet earth during it first 1 billion years? (no life, earth was bombarded by meteors, all water was in vapor form (no surface water), very hot surface, dramatic storms and a reducing atmosphere) Animals emerged in the Precambrian era, but species richness occurred in which era? (Paleozoic era–the Cambrian period) 6 pts. Besides the reducing atmosphere hypothesis, name two other ways or places in which the first organic molecules are speculated to have formed. (deep sea vents, meteorites from space) 6 pts. In which period did plants, fungi and animals appear, according to the fossil record? (Cambrian period) 4 pts. 6 pts. Explain why there are no fossils of organisms to support the connection Name the two men who independently of N. America, Greenland & Eurasia to came up with the reducing Gondwanaland (the southern part of atmosphere hypothesis. Pangaea). (Oparin and Haldane) (These areas were very cold & no warm blooded organisms had evolved yet) 5 pts. 5 pts. Explain what is theorized to have cause the mass extinction at the end of the Permian period. (Throughout the Paleozoic era, marine life dominated, as Pangaea formed it eliminated millions of miles of coastline – estuaries and reefs are the most species diverse areas in the ocean & reducing them significantly eliminated habitat for the majority of organisms alive at that time. 5 pts. What major class of animals did the fossils showing the landmasses linked to form Gondwanaland (the southern portion of Pangaea) belong to, and why were they the dominant organism of the time? (Reptiles – they were evolved to live their whole life on land & it was a tropical area, which favored them & their cold-blooded systems) Explain what is theorized to have caused the shift in dominant species during/after the Cretaceous-Tertiary extinctions & why. (a huge meteor impacted the planet causing huge dust plumes, this blocked the sun & cooled the planet significantly. Reptiles were the dominant forms of life at the time, but were cold blooded & couldn’t survive as easily. Mammals were not yet dominant, but since they were warn-blooded had the adaptations to be successful & w/o competition they took over. 4 pts. Name the dominant class of organisms in each of the following eras of Earth’s history and give the geologic conditions that favored each type of organism & allowed their dominance. Paleozoic era (fish/marine invertebrates – Earth was mostly ocean w/ many land masses all scattered = much coastline) Mesozoic era (Reptiles -one large land mass with little water, most of it was tropical so it was hot & dry) Cenozoic era (Mammals – climate shifted towards cooler & temperate, so organisms who could survive despite temperature changes had an advantage.) 6 pts. 6 pts. Describe two traits of the earth between 3.5-2.0 bya? (prokaryotic life; oxygen began to accumulate due to photosynthesis by cyanobacteria; there were large oceans and lakes; rocks with iron began to oxidize; prokaryotes began cell respiration) 6 pts. Name the two scientists to simulate the conditions on earth as it might have been 4 bya, in order to see if they could produce organic molecules from inorganic substances. (Miller and Urey) Describe a circumstance in which organic monomers may have formed polymers without the use of enzymes and cellular components. (on hot clay or rocks; rain on lava beds; sea droplets on lava; deep at sea vents, or places on the ocean floor with heat and pressure) “Processes of Evolution” Game Cards: 3 pts. 3 pts. According to the biological species concept, what is a species? (a group of organisms that can interbreed to produce live, fertile offspring) What is the term that means the evolution of a new species? (speciation) 3 pts. 3 pts. Those organisms who are more fit to survive are more likely to reproduce. True or false? A trait must allow an organism to be stronger, faster or otherwise more able in order for it to be called an advantageous adaptation. True or false? (true) (false) 3 pts. Organisms will evolve into better, stronger, more intelligent or more complex organisms over time. True or false? (false) 3 pts. Whatever trait is advantageous today will be advantageous in the future as well. True or false? (false) 3 pts. Acquired somatic characteristics can be inherited. True or false? (false) 4 pts. Name two ways the fossil record conflicts with the creationist concept. (1. the oldest rocks on earth are dated from 3.5 bya 2. fossils are sequential—the first fossils are of prokaryotes, followed millions of years later by multicellular animals 3. there are fossils of organisms with transitional anatomy) 3 pts. Two closely related species share a common ___. (ancestor) 4 pts. Animal husbandry and cultivated plants are examples of what type of selection? (artificial selection) 4 pts. Natural selection occurs at what level – the individual, population, community, ecosystem or biosphere? (population) 4 pts. Name two hypotheses that Darwin incorporated from Hutton and Lyell. (gradualism and the approximate age of the earth) 4 pts. 4 pts. What fact of nature, pointed out by Malthus, is responsible for the struggle for existence among organisms? (reproductive potential exceeds carrying capacity) Darwin’s theory of natural selection lacked a critical piece of support, which was supplied by the work of what man: Malthus, Lyell, Wallace, Mendel, Lamarck, or Hutton? (Mendel) 4 pts. 4 pts. The idea that speciation occurs in relatively fast spurts over time rather than by steady, accumulated change over a long period of time is called…? What do we call the process that results in the evolution of a new taxonomic group? (macroevolution) (punctuated equilibrium) 5 pts. Name two types of species for which the biological species concept is inaccurate or does not apply. (Ex. Asexual species; bacteria; extinct species; species in which biological information is unknown) 5 pts. Name the species concept that defines a species as a set of organisms with a unique genetic history. (genealogical species concept) 5 pts. Name the species concept that defines a species according to its physical characteristics. (morphological species concept) 5 pts. Name the species concept that defines a species in terms of its niche. (ecological species concept) 5 pts. 5 pts. What term is used when a taxonomic group branches out to fill a new niche, speciating in the process? (adaptive radiation) Name two prezygotic barriers that impede mating between similar but distinct species. (habitat isolation, behavior isolation, temporal isolation, mechanical isolation, gametic isolation) 5 pts. 5 pts. What is the name for the class of genes that controls the placement and spatial organization of the body parts? What is the term for the type of speciation that occurs when a population is geographically separated? (homeotic genes) (allopatric speciation) 5 pts. Name the term that describes a change in the growth rate genes that allows sexual maturity in a juvenile body form. (paedomorphosis) 5 pts. What is the term for the type of speciation that occurs when populations diverge due to biologic factors? (sympatric speciation) 5 pts. Give the term for similarities in genes or structures inherited from a common ancestor. (homologies) 5 pts. What phrase did Darwin use that has the same meaning as “evolution”? (“descent with modification”) 5 pts. 5 pts. Environmental obstacles do not cause adaptation; ____ is already present in the population and allows adaptation to occur over generations. What is the name for a structure with no apparent function, that exists simply because it was passed down from an ancestor? (genetic diversity or variation) (vestigal structure) 5 pts. What were the two main points in Darwin’s book? (1. variation exists in a population 2. natural selection allows some characteristics to persist in a population) 5 pts. What is the term for the geographic distribution of organisms in which it was proven that organisms located closer to one another on earth are more similar than organisms that are located away from each other? (biogeography) 6 pts. 6 pts. Name two types of postzygotic barriers that prevent two species from merging through interbreeding. (reduced hybrid viability; reduced hybrid fertility; hybrid breakdown) Give an example of a genotype or a phenotype that could be detrimental in one environment and advantageous in another. (ex:houseflies that are resistant to DDT also have a reduced growth rate; sickle cell anemia & malaria resistance) 6 pts. 5 pts. Give one example of a complex organ or mechanism that has evolved in small steps over time. What phrase did Darwin use that has the same meaning as “evolution”? (eyes; flight; ears; binocular vision) (“descent with modification”) 6 pts. 6 pts. What is the term for the growth that causes huge differences in limbs, skulls and other parts of the body and that can occur by changing only a few genes that control the rate of growth of an embryo, fetus, juvenile or adolescent? Describe one observable example of evolutionary survival of the fittest. (allometric growth) 6 pts. Name a molecular homology that is common in all mammals. (ex: hemoglobin genes) (ex: some pests’ resistance to insecticides; pepper moths; bacterial resistance to antibiotics; plants’ resistant to pathogens) “Population Genetics” Game Cards: 3 pts. 3 pts. Mutations in an organism’s heritable DNA (their gametes) is likely or unlikely to be beneficial? What happens to populations when they do not meet all 5 criteria of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? (unlikely) (they evolve) 3 pts. 3 pts. How do fast generation rates (such as those for bacteria) correlate with mutation rates? (faster generation rates = higher mutation rates) 4 pts. What is the term that means the total aggregate of genes in a population at any given time? (gene pool) Most mutations alter protein synthesis. True or false? (false) 4 pts. What is the only source of new alleles? (mutation) 4 pts. What is the key difference between microevolution and macroevolution? (macroevolution results in a new species) 4 pts. What term is used when a small population colonizes a new habitat, limiting the genetic variation in that population? (the founder effect) 4 pts. What is the term for the effect disasters, earthquakes, floods or storms have when they wipe out a significant portion of the population, leaving only a small portion of the alleles? 4 pts. What do you call a localized group of interbreeding individuals? (a population) (the founder effect) 4 pts. 4 pts. Name the mechanism that allows populations to adapt to their environment over generations. What type of natural selection favors variants of opposite extremes in a population, splitting the population into two morphs? (natural selection) (diversifying natural selection) 4 pts. What type of selection favors the most common morph, culling extreme morphs from either end of the spectrum and thus limiting the phenotypic variation in a population? (stabilizing natural selection) 4 pts. What term is used to describe genetic exchange caused by migration of organisms or the gametes of organisms? (gene flow) 4 pts. 4 pts. How often are natural populations in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? What type of natural selection favors variants of one extreme and thereby shifts the overall makeup of a population? (never) (directional natural selection) 4 pts. 4 pts. What do we call small changes in gene frequencies from generation to generation? What is the type of selection that occurs between a male and female of a species regarding mate choice? (microevolution) (intersexual selection) 5 pts. 4 pts. What evolutionary mechanism accounts for a change in a population’s allele frequency due to chance? Name the type of natural selection that occurs when intra-specific competition is very intense, such that the members of a population must divide the niche and its resources among themselves. (genetic drift) (diversifying natural selection) 5 pts. Name the term that describes the physical differences between two sexes. (sexual dimorphism) 5 pts. What term is used to describe a population in which 2 or more distinct morphs are represented in high enough frequencies to be noticeable? (polymorphic) 5 pts. 5 pts. What do you call differences between gene pools of physically separated populations? What do you call the differences in phenotype caused by changes along a geographic axis like altitude or longitude? (geographic variation) (clinal variation) 5 pts. Selection only acts on: genotype, phenotype, the entire genome, each allele or the entire gene pool? (phenotype) 5 pts. Name the type of selection that occurs most often in unchanging conditions (stabilizing natural selection) 5 pts. How is sexual reproduction an advantage over asexual reproduction? (sexual reproduction provides genetic variation) 5 pts. What is the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation? (p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1) 5 pts. 5 pts. What type of characteristics vary along a continuum (such as height) within a population and are controlled by 2+ gene loci? What theorem describes a nonevolving population’s gene pool? (Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium) (quantitative characters) 5 pts. 5 pts. What is competition between members of the same sex within the same species called? Describe the mathematical relationship between “p” and “q” if they represent the frequency of two alleles at a single locus that displays simple Mendelian genetics. (intrasexual selection) (p + q = 1 and p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1) 6 pts. 6 pts. Describe 2 qualities or characteristics that would make one organism more “fit” than another organism. Name the type of selection that most commonly occurs during periods of environmental change or when members of a population migrate to a new habitat with new conditions. (ex: faster maturation; more potent gametes; higher fertility; nutritionally satisfied; longevity) (directional natural selection) 6 pts. Name two mechanisms that prevent natural selection from eliminating unfavorable genotypes. (diploidy (hides recessive alleles); heterozygote advantage; frequency dependent selection; neutral variation) 6 pts. A population has two alleles, B and b. If the frequency of B=0.8, what is the frequency of b? (b=0.2) 6 pts. Survival of the fittest is usually a passive competition between individuals rather than a physical competition. Give an example of this passive competition. (ex:moth coloration for camouflage; bird coloration in mate attraction; a tree’s location in wind dispersal of gametes) 6 pts. Name one reason that natural selection does not create the most perfect organism (faster, smarter, more complex...) over time. (all change is based on what starting material is available in the DNA; adaptations are often compromises; not all evolution is adaptive; chance is a big factor; selection only edits existing variations from the phenotypes available in that population) 6 pts. How much gene diversity exists between two humans? (14%) 6 pts. In a population that is in HardyWeinberg equilibrium, 16% of the individuals show the recessive phenotype. What is the frequency of the dominant allele in the population? (0.6) 6 pts. What are the five conditions necessary to meet Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium? (no migration; very large population size; no mutation; random mating; no natural selection in offspring production) 6 pts. Two alleles, B and b, exist in a population where B has the frequency of 0.7. What is the frequency of heterozygotes if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? (0.42, or 42%) 6 pts. How much nucleotide diversity exists between two humans? (0.1%)