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“History of Evolutionary Thought” Game Cards:
3 pts.
3 pts.
Choose one answer: Darwin noted
that fossils in South America more
Darwin collected many organisms from
closely resembled:
these volcanic islands off the coast of a) fossils from the same era in Europe
South America.
b) fossils of other organisms now living
in South America.
(the Galapagos Islands)
(b)
3 pts.
3 pts.
What is the complete title and
publication date of Darwin’s most
significant publication?
(The Origin of Species by Means of
Natural Selection, 1859)
Where did Wallace do his most
significant work?
(in the East Indies/Malaysia)
4 pts.
3 pts.
Darwin acquired his degree in the field
of ____?
Who believed in uniformitarianism—
an off-shoot of gradualism in which it
was theorized that all earth processes
occurred at a fixed rate over time?
(botany)
(Charles Lyell, 1833)
4 pts.
Who claimed that populations have
the potential to grow exponentially due
to the high reproductive potential of all
organisms?
(Malthus,1766-1834)
4pts.
Who believed in the concept of
acquired inheritance, that the use of a
trait allows that trait to develop over
time and be passed on to one’s
offspring? Ex: giraffes
4 pts.
Who believed in gradualism, in which
it was theorized that geological
features were formed by the
weathering of the lithosphere over a
long period of time?
(James Hutton, 1785)
4 pts.
Who developed a nearly identical
theory of natural selection around the
same time as Darwin?
(Wallace, 1823-1913)
(Lamarck, 1745-1828)
4 pts.
Name the two most widely accepted
ideas that Darwin had to overcome in
order to promote his ideas about
natural selection.
(the earth was ~6000 yrs. old; life
was fixed and unchanging)
5 pts.
Who created the binomial
nomenclature classification system for
organisms that is still in use today?
(Linnaeus, 1707-1778)
4 pts.
Name three main ideas of the
creationist viewpoint that differ from
the evolutionist viewpoint.
(the earth is ~6000 yrs. old; all life
forms were individually created by
God; all life forms were created
perfectly and do not change; a
single week was needed to create
the earth and all its life forms)
5 pts.
How long did it take the ground
shaking Ideas proposed by Darwin
and Wallace to become widely
accepted by the scientific community?
(~10 yrs.)
6 pts.
5 pts.
What language was the system of
nomenclature proposed by Linnaeus
written in, and why was it chosen?
(Latin, it is a dead language so meanings
won’ change over time as the language
evolves through common use)
Darwin noted that plants and animals
of South American temperate regions
more closely resembled plants and
animals from _____ rather than those
found in the same climate of _____.
(other regions of S. America,
Europe)
6 pts.
6 pts.
Name the approximate years which
Darwin’s and Wallace’s main thesis
ideas were recorded on paper
What was Cuvier’s belief called, in
which periodic natural disasters wiped
out large groups of organisms that
were eventually replaced by
organisms from another region?
(Darwin 1844, Wallace 1858)
(catastrophism)
6 pts.
Who believed in the view of nature
that assumed organisms were fixed
and not evolving and could be placed
on a ladder of increasing complexity?
(Aristotle, 384-322 B.C.)
6 pts.
Name two reasons the publication of
Origin of the Species succeeded in
changing the direction of scientific
thought when other proposals by other
men had failed?
(1. It gave a logical stepwise presentation
of ideas
2. the examples involved domesticated
animals and plants, which were familiar
and readily observable
3. there were many, many, detailed case
examples given for support)
6 pts.
Name two of the five scientists from
the 1940s credited with bringing
together genetics, paleontology,
biogeography, taxonomy and the
biology of specific organisms to create
the “Modern Synthesis”.
(E. Mayer, T. Dobzhansky, S.Wright,
G. Gaylord Simpson, G. Ledyard
Stebbins)
6 pts.
Who developed paleontology when he
realized that the order and layers of
rocks could be used to determine the
relative ages of fossilized
organisms?
(Cuvier, 1769-1832)
6 pts.
Give Darwin’s age at each of the
following points in his life:
a) going to college (16)
b) setting sail on the Beagle (22)
c) publishing his book. (68)
Origin of Life and the Fossil Record” Game Cards:
3 pts.
Which taxonomic group listed is the
oldest: Fungi, Bacteria, Protists,
Archeabacteria, Plants, Animals?
(bacteria)
3pts.
Approximately how old is the earth,
according to geologic dating?
(4.6 billionyears old)
4 pts.
3 pts.
What are protobionts?
Approximately when did life on earth
first appear in the geologic record?
(droplets of polymers packaged in a
membrane where the internal and
external environments are different)
(~3.7– 3.8 bya)
4 pts.
4 pts.
Name one of the energy sources
thought to drive the anabolic reactions
of the first molecules of life?
(lightening or ultraviolet radiation)
What molecule was most likely the first
hereditary material—DNA, RNA or
proteins?
(RNA – because of its link between
proteins and DNA, the fact that it
can function as an enzyme and its
property of spontaneously pairing
free bases)
4 pts.
4 pts.
A reducing atmosphere would cause
______ reactions while an oxidizing
atmosphere would cause ______
reactions.
What is the two-word term for life
being created from non-living things?
(spontaneous generation)
(anabolic, catabolic)
4 pts.
5 pts.
What is the term for the theory that
living things only come from other
living things?
According to the most recent
hypothesis, what would the first
organic monomers have been?
(biogenesis)
(amino acids or nucleotides)
5 pts.
Name two things that are “lifelike” that
protobionts can do spontaneously.
(1. they can absorb substrates and
release products like an enzyme
2. form bilayers like a cell
membrane
3. selectively take items from their
surroundings
4. swell or shrink due to osmosis
5. create an action potential
6. create new protobionts)
5 pts.
What were the first multicellular
eukaryotes?
(algae)
5 pts.
5 pts.
When did the first eukaryotes
(endosymbionts) evolve?
(2.1 bya)
In what two places in our solar system
are scientists looking for evidence of
life (past or present)?
(Mars and Europa—both have/had
water and carbon dioxide)
5 pts.
5 pts.
Describe two traits of the planet earth
during it first 1 billion years?
(no life, earth was bombarded by
meteors, all water was in vapor
form (no surface water), very
hot surface, dramatic storms and a
reducing atmosphere)
Animals emerged in the Precambrian
era, but species richness occurred in
which era?
(Paleozoic era–the Cambrian
period)
6 pts.
Besides the reducing atmosphere
hypothesis, name two other ways or
places in which the first organic
molecules are speculated to have
formed.
(deep sea vents, meteorites from
space)
6 pts.
In which period did plants, fungi and
animals appear, according to the fossil
record?
(Cambrian period)
4 pts.
6 pts.
Explain why there are no fossils of
organisms to support the connection
Name the two men who independently of N. America, Greenland & Eurasia to
came up with the reducing
Gondwanaland (the southern part of
atmosphere hypothesis.
Pangaea).
(Oparin and Haldane)
(These areas were very cold & no
warm blooded organisms had
evolved yet)
5 pts.
5 pts.
Explain what is theorized to have cause the
mass extinction at the end of the Permian
period.
(Throughout the Paleozoic era, marine life
dominated, as Pangaea formed it
eliminated millions of miles of coastline –
estuaries and reefs are the most species
diverse areas in the ocean & reducing
them significantly eliminated habitat for
the majority of organisms alive at that
time.
5 pts.
What major class of animals did the
fossils showing the landmasses linked
to form Gondwanaland (the southern
portion of Pangaea) belong to, and
why were they the dominant organism
of the time?
(Reptiles – they were evolved to live
their whole life on land & it was a
tropical area, which favored them &
their cold-blooded systems)
Explain what is theorized to have caused the
shift in dominant species during/after the
Cretaceous-Tertiary extinctions & why.
(a huge meteor impacted the planet
causing huge dust plumes, this blocked
the sun & cooled the planet significantly.
Reptiles were the dominant forms of life
at the time, but were cold blooded &
couldn’t survive as easily. Mammals were
not yet dominant, but since they were
warn-blooded had the adaptations to be
successful & w/o competition they took
over.
4 pts.
Name the dominant class of organisms in each of
the following eras of Earth’s history and give the
geologic conditions that favored each type of
organism & allowed their dominance.
Paleozoic era (fish/marine invertebrates –
Earth was mostly ocean w/ many land
masses all scattered = much coastline)
Mesozoic era (Reptiles -one large land mass
with little water, most of it was tropical so it
was hot & dry)
Cenozoic era (Mammals – climate shifted
towards cooler & temperate, so organisms
who could survive despite temperature
changes had an advantage.)
6 pts.
6 pts.
Describe two traits of the earth
between 3.5-2.0 bya?
(prokaryotic life; oxygen began to
accumulate due to photosynthesis
by cyanobacteria; there were large
oceans and lakes; rocks with iron
began to oxidize; prokaryotes
began cell respiration)
6 pts.
Name the two scientists to simulate
the conditions on earth as it might
have been 4 bya, in order to see if
they could produce organic
molecules from inorganic substances.
(Miller and Urey)
Describe a circumstance in which
organic monomers may have formed
polymers without the use of enzymes
and cellular components.
(on hot clay or rocks; rain on lava
beds; sea droplets on lava; deep at
sea vents, or places on the ocean
floor with heat and pressure)
“Processes of Evolution” Game Cards:
3 pts.
3 pts.
According to the biological species
concept, what is a species?
(a group of organisms that can
interbreed to produce live, fertile
offspring)
What is the term that means the
evolution of a new species?
(speciation)
3 pts.
3 pts.
Those organisms who are more fit to
survive are more likely to reproduce.
True or false?
A trait must allow an organism to be
stronger, faster or otherwise more able
in order for it to be called an
advantageous adaptation. True or
false?
(true)
(false)
3 pts.
Organisms will evolve into better,
stronger, more intelligent or more
complex organisms
over time. True or false?
(false)
3 pts.
Whatever trait is advantageous today
will be advantageous in the future as
well. True or false?
(false)
3 pts.
Acquired somatic characteristics can
be inherited. True or false?
(false)
4 pts.
Name two ways the fossil record
conflicts with the creationist concept.
(1. the oldest rocks on earth are
dated from 3.5 bya
2. fossils are sequential—the first
fossils are of prokaryotes, followed
millions of years later by
multicellular animals
3. there are fossils of organisms
with transitional anatomy)
3 pts.
Two closely related species share a
common ___.
(ancestor)
4 pts.
Animal husbandry and cultivated
plants are examples of what type of
selection?
(artificial selection)
4 pts.
Natural selection occurs at what level
– the individual, population,
community, ecosystem or
biosphere?
(population)
4 pts.
Name two hypotheses that Darwin
incorporated from Hutton and Lyell.
(gradualism and the approximate
age of the earth)
4 pts.
4 pts.
What fact of nature, pointed out by
Malthus, is responsible for the struggle
for existence among organisms?
(reproductive potential exceeds
carrying capacity)
Darwin’s theory of natural selection
lacked a critical piece of support,
which was supplied by the work of
what man: Malthus, Lyell, Wallace,
Mendel, Lamarck, or Hutton?
(Mendel)
4 pts.
4 pts.
The idea that speciation occurs in
relatively fast spurts over time rather
than by steady, accumulated change
over a long period of
time is called…?
What do we call the process that
results in the evolution of a new
taxonomic group?
(macroevolution)
(punctuated equilibrium)
5 pts.
Name two types of species for which
the biological species concept is
inaccurate or does not apply.
(Ex. Asexual species; bacteria;
extinct species; species in which
biological information is unknown)
5 pts.
Name the species concept that
defines a species as a set of
organisms with a unique genetic
history.
(genealogical species concept)
5 pts.
Name the species concept that
defines a species according to its
physical characteristics.
(morphological species concept)
5 pts.
Name the species concept that
defines a species in terms of its niche.
(ecological species concept)
5 pts.
5 pts.
What term is used when a taxonomic
group branches out to fill a new niche,
speciating in the process?
(adaptive radiation)
Name two prezygotic barriers that
impede mating between similar but
distinct species.
(habitat isolation, behavior
isolation, temporal isolation,
mechanical isolation, gametic
isolation)
5 pts.
5 pts.
What is the name for the class of
genes that controls the placement and
spatial organization of the body parts?
What is the term for the type of
speciation that occurs when a
population is geographically
separated?
(homeotic genes)
(allopatric speciation)
5 pts.
Name the term that describes a
change in the growth rate genes that
allows sexual maturity in a juvenile
body form.
(paedomorphosis)
5 pts.
What is the term for the type of
speciation that occurs when
populations diverge due to
biologic factors?
(sympatric speciation)
5 pts.
Give the term for similarities in genes
or structures inherited from a common
ancestor.
(homologies)
5 pts.
What phrase did Darwin use that has
the same
meaning as “evolution”?
(“descent with modification”)
5 pts.
5 pts.
Environmental obstacles do not cause
adaptation; ____ is already present in
the population and allows adaptation
to occur over generations.
What is the name for a structure with
no apparent function, that exists
simply because it was passed down
from an ancestor?
(genetic diversity or variation)
(vestigal structure)
5 pts.
What were the two main points in
Darwin’s book?
(1. variation exists in a population
2. natural selection allows some
characteristics to persist in a
population)
5 pts.
What is the term for the geographic
distribution of organisms in which it
was proven that organisms located
closer to one another on earth are
more similar than organisms that are
located away from each other?
(biogeography)
6 pts.
6 pts.
Name two types of postzygotic
barriers that prevent two species from
merging through interbreeding.
(reduced hybrid viability; reduced
hybrid fertility; hybrid breakdown)
Give an example of a genotype or a
phenotype that could be detrimental in
one environment and advantageous in
another.
(ex:houseflies that are resistant to
DDT also have a reduced growth
rate; sickle cell anemia & malaria
resistance)
6 pts.
5 pts.
Give one example of a complex organ
or mechanism that has evolved in
small steps over time.
What phrase did Darwin use that has
the same meaning as “evolution”?
(eyes; flight; ears; binocular vision)
(“descent with modification”)
6 pts.
6 pts.
What is the term for the growth that
causes huge differences in limbs,
skulls and other parts of the body and
that can occur by changing only a few
genes that control the rate of growth of
an embryo, fetus, juvenile or
adolescent?
Describe one observable example of
evolutionary survival of the fittest.
(allometric growth)
6 pts.
Name a molecular homology that is
common in all mammals.
(ex: hemoglobin genes)
(ex: some pests’ resistance to
insecticides; pepper moths;
bacterial resistance to
antibiotics; plants’ resistant to
pathogens)
“Population Genetics” Game Cards:
3 pts.
3 pts.
Mutations in an organism’s heritable
DNA (their gametes) is likely or
unlikely to be beneficial?
What happens to populations when
they do not meet all 5 criteria of
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
(unlikely)
(they evolve)
3 pts.
3 pts.
How do fast generation rates (such as
those for bacteria) correlate with
mutation rates?
(faster generation rates = higher
mutation rates)
4 pts.
What is the term that means the total
aggregate of genes in a population at
any given time?
(gene pool)
Most mutations alter protein synthesis.
True or false?
(false)
4 pts.
What is the only source of new
alleles?
(mutation)
4 pts.
What is the key difference between
microevolution and macroevolution?
(macroevolution results in a new
species)
4 pts.
What term is used when a small
population colonizes a new habitat,
limiting the genetic variation in that
population?
(the founder effect)
4 pts.
What is the term for the effect
disasters, earthquakes, floods or
storms have when they wipe out a
significant portion of the population,
leaving only a small portion of the
alleles?
4 pts.
What do you call a localized group of
interbreeding individuals?
(a population)
(the founder effect)
4 pts.
4 pts.
Name the mechanism that allows
populations to adapt to their
environment over generations.
What type of natural selection favors
variants of opposite extremes in a
population, splitting the population into
two morphs?
(natural selection)
(diversifying natural selection)
4 pts.
What type of selection favors the most
common morph, culling extreme
morphs from either end of the
spectrum and thus limiting the
phenotypic variation in a population?
(stabilizing natural selection)
4 pts.
What term is used to describe genetic
exchange caused by migration of
organisms or the gametes of
organisms?
(gene flow)
4 pts.
4 pts.
How often are natural populations in
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
What type of natural selection favors
variants of one extreme and thereby
shifts the overall makeup of a
population?
(never)
(directional natural selection)
4 pts.
4 pts.
What do we call small changes in
gene frequencies from generation to
generation?
What is the type of selection that
occurs between a male and female of
a species regarding mate choice?
(microevolution)
(intersexual selection)
5 pts.
4 pts.
What evolutionary mechanism
accounts for a change in a
population’s allele frequency due to
chance?
Name the type of natural selection that
occurs when intra-specific competition
is very intense, such that the members
of a population must divide the niche
and its resources among
themselves.
(genetic drift)
(diversifying natural selection)
5 pts.
Name the term that describes the
physical differences between two
sexes.
(sexual dimorphism)
5 pts.
What term is used to describe a
population in which 2 or more distinct
morphs are represented in high
enough frequencies to be noticeable?
(polymorphic)
5 pts.
5 pts.
What do you call differences between
gene pools of physically separated
populations?
What do you call the differences in
phenotype caused by changes along a
geographic axis like altitude or
longitude?
(geographic variation)
(clinal variation)
5 pts.
Selection only acts on: genotype,
phenotype, the entire genome, each
allele or the entire gene pool?
(phenotype)
5 pts.
Name the type of selection that occurs
most often in unchanging conditions
(stabilizing natural selection)
5 pts.
How is sexual reproduction an
advantage over
asexual reproduction?
(sexual reproduction provides
genetic variation)
5 pts.
What is the Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium equation?
(p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1)
5 pts.
5 pts.
What type of characteristics vary along
a continuum (such as height) within a
population and are controlled by 2+
gene loci?
What theorem describes a
nonevolving population’s gene pool?
(Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium)
(quantitative characters)
5 pts.
5 pts.
What is competition between
members of the same sex within the
same species called?
Describe the mathematical
relationship between
“p” and “q” if they represent the
frequency of two
alleles at a single locus that displays
simple Mendelian genetics.
(intrasexual selection)
(p + q = 1
and p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1)
6 pts.
6 pts.
Describe 2 qualities or characteristics
that would make one organism more
“fit” than another organism.
Name the type of selection that most
commonly occurs during periods of
environmental change or when
members of a population migrate to
a new habitat with new conditions.
(ex: faster maturation; more potent
gametes; higher fertility;
nutritionally satisfied; longevity)
(directional natural selection)
6 pts.
Name two mechanisms that prevent
natural selection from eliminating
unfavorable genotypes.
(diploidy (hides recessive alleles);
heterozygote advantage; frequency
dependent selection; neutral
variation)
6 pts.
A population has two alleles, B and b.
If the frequency of B=0.8, what is the
frequency of b?
(b=0.2)
6 pts.
Survival of the fittest is usually a
passive competition between
individuals rather than a physical
competition. Give an example of this
passive competition.
(ex:moth coloration for camouflage;
bird coloration in mate attraction; a
tree’s location in wind dispersal of
gametes)
6 pts.
Name one reason that natural
selection does not create the most
perfect organism (faster, smarter,
more complex...) over time.
(all change is based on what
starting material is available in the
DNA; adaptations are often
compromises; not all evolution is
adaptive; chance is a big factor;
selection only edits existing
variations from the phenotypes
available in that population)
6 pts.
How much gene diversity exists
between two
humans?
(14%)
6 pts.
In a population that is in HardyWeinberg equilibrium, 16% of the
individuals show the recessive
phenotype. What is the frequency of
the dominant allele in the population?
(0.6)
6 pts.
What are the five conditions necessary
to meet Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium?
(no migration; very large population
size; no mutation; random mating;
no natural selection in offspring
production)
6 pts.
Two alleles, B and b, exist in a
population where B has the frequency
of 0.7. What is the frequency of
heterozygotes if the population is in
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
(0.42, or 42%)
6 pts.
How much nucleotide diversity exists
between two humans?
(0.1%)