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Study Union Final Exam Review BSC 2010 Review Time: 04/26/2017 from 8:00-10:00pm in Cape Florida Ballroom SI Leader: Taylor P. Disclaimer: I have made this review to the best of my ability, however it is not an entirely comprehensive exam, and should not be used as a supplement. Not all information is guaranteed to be correct. Exam Tips: - I have taken each question from various chapter exams throughout the year. The rest of the questions as well as helpful videos for each chapter can be found on my original site at ucfsi.wordpress.com. - Make sure to get lots of rest, eat, and take time for yourself while studying for finals! It sounds so simple, but can make a huge difference when it comes to actually taking the test. - Try to practice problems without looking at the answers right away. You will have a better chance of remembering information if you look it up in the book or in your notes rather than looking at the answer key directly. Questions: 1. The number of ______ differs in isotopes. a. Neutrons b. Protons c. Electrons 2. What is the mass number of an atom? a. Protons + electrons b. Electrons + neutrons c. Only protons d. Protons + neutrons 3. What are the four essential elements of life? a. Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Helium b. Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Carbon, and Fluorine c. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Nitrogen d. Sodium, Nitrogen, Phosphorous, and Sulfur 4. Which of the following describes an atom that has lost an electron and is positively charged? a. Anion b. Cation c. This does not describe an ion d. This could be A or B 5. What kind of bond will form in the following molecules/compounds? (polar or nonpolar, covalent, ionic, hydrogen) a. CO2, nonpolar covalent b. H2, nonpolar covalent c. BaS, ionic d. H2O, polar covalent e. H2O bonded to NH3, hydrogen bonding 6. What characteristics below are those of a hydrogen bond? a. Weak b. Extremely important to the specific properties of water c. Temporary d. Partially positive atom of one polar molecule covalently bonded to electronegative atom of another polar molecule e. all of the above 7. A small sample of NaCl is added to water to create a new mixture. Which of the following is the solvent? a. The NaCl sample b. The water c. The new mixture of NaCl and water d. None of the above 8. Which of the following is most hydrophilic? a. CH3OH b. CH4 c. CO2 d. Fats and Oils 9. What does pH measure? a. OH- concentration b. The amount of energy in a solution c. H+ concentration d. H2O concentration 10. Which of the following is an acid? a. [H+] = 1 x 10-14 b. [H+] = 1 x 10-7 c. [H+] = 1 x 10-9 d. [H+] = 1 x 10-6 11. How many times greater is the [H+] concentration of a solution of pH 7 than that of pH 11? a. 10 times greater b. 100 times greater c. 1000 times greater d. 10000 times greater 12. What differs among isomers of the same element? a. The number of protons b. The number of neutrons c. The arrangement of the molecules d. The molecular formula 13. What functional groups are present in the following molecule (you can select more than one if applicable) a. Hydroxyl b. Carbonyl c. Carboxyl d. Methyl e. Phosphate f. Amino g. Sulfhydryl 14. Which of the following refers to the process in which a water molecule is added to separate monomers? a. Dehydration Reaction b. Glycosidic Linkage c. Hydrolysis d. Peptide Bond 15. Which of the following does not have a specific polymer? a. Carbohydrate b. Lipid c. Protein d. Nucleic Acid 16. Which of the following represents a proper ratio for Carbohydrates? a. C4H8O4 b. C2H5O2 c. CHO2 d. CH2O e. Both a and d 17. Which of the following is a type of polysaccharide that is extensively branched and made by animals? a. Glucose b. Starch c. Glycogen d. Cellulose e. Chitin 18. What type of lipid is shown in the picture below? a. Steroid b. Unsaturated fat c. Saturated fat d. Phospholipid 19. T or F. Some types of lipids will mix with water due to being hydrophilic. a. True b. False 20. Which of the following is not a component of an amino acid? a. Amino Group b. R Group c. Carboxyl d. Hydrogen Atom e. Carbonyl 21. Which of the following molecules orient themselves into sandwichlike membranes because of hydrophobic components within the membrane? a. Amylose b. Glycogen c. Cellulose d. Phospholipid e. Protein 22. Which type of structure shows the linear chain of amino acids joined together by covalent bonds? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary 23. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine? a. Adenine b. Thymine c. Cytosine d. Uracil 24. If a DNA sample was composed of 40% Adenine, how much Guanine is present? a. 40% b. 60% c. 20% d. 10% 25. Deoxyribose and Ribose refers to the ______ in DNA and RNA. a. Hydrogen Bonds b. Phosphate Group c. Pentose Sugar d. Nitrogenous Base 26. If a DNA strand has a sequence 3’ AGT CGC ATC CGC 5’, what would be the polarity and sequence of the other DNA strand? a. 3’ TCA GCG TAG GCG 5’ b. 3’ GCG TAG GCG GGG 5’ c. 5’ TCA GCG TAG GCG 3’ d. 3’ UCa GCG UAG GCG 5’ 27. When classifying organisms, which of the following is the most specific? a. Family b. Domain c. Class d. Phylum 28. When comparing plant and animal cells, which of the following is not a unique characteristic to plants? a. Cell Wall b. Central Vacuole c. Cytosol d. Chloroplasts 29. Which of the following terms refers to the selective barrier that controls what can enter and leave a cell and contains cytoplasm? a. Golgi Apparatus b. Endoplasmic Reticulum c. Intermediate Filaments d. Plasma Membrane 30. Which type of ribosomes usually make proteins that are to be sent out of the cell? a. Free b. Bound c. Neither d. Both 31. Which organ would you expect to have the most Smooth ER due to its detoxifying properties? a. Heart b. Intestines c. Liver d. Lungs 32. Which organelle contains enzymes that can digest organelles which no longer work (Autophagy)? a. Vacuole b. Vesicle c. Transport Protein d. Lysosome 33. T or F. Mitochondria contain a single membrane, and are the site of cellular respiration. a. True b. False 34. Phagocytosis refers more specifically to what type of lysosome breakdown? a. Food b. Organelles c. Enzymes d. All of the above 35. What role does O2 play in aerobic respiration? a. It plays no role b. It combines with acetyl coA at the start of the Krebs cycle c. It is given off as a byproduct during the oxidation of pyruvate d. It combines with H2O to help drive the formation of ATP e. It is the final electron acceptor at the end of the Electron Transport Chain 36. What does it mean for the cell membrane to amphipathic? a. The membrane has a hydrophobic region b. The membrane has a hydrophilic region c. Both A and B d. Neither A or B 37. Which of the following is a characteristic of an integral protein? a. Binds to the hydrophobic region of the cell membrane b. Can be Transmembrane c. Will penetrate the nonpolar region of the cell membrane d. All of the above 38. Which of the following is not true regarding carbohydrates found in the cell membrane? a. They are found on the extracellular side of the membrane b. They can attach to lipids and proteins to make glycolipids and glycoproteins c. They aid in cell to cell recognition d. They are transmembrane 39. What is pinocytosis? a. "Cell eating" b. Taking large chunks of stuff into a cell at one time c. "Cell drinking" d. Take small chunks of stuff into a cell at one time, usually liquid e. A and B f. C and D 40. What facilitates the movement of water in a membrane? a. Lipids called aquaporins b. Proteins called aquaporins c. Lipids called hydroglycins d. Proteins called hydroglycins 41. Is the animal cell in the following picture hypertonic, hypotonic, or isotonic, and what will happen to the cell? a. Hypertonic, lyse b. Hypertonic, shrivel c. Hypotonic, lyse d. Hypotonic, shrivel e. Isotonic 42. What are the products of glycolysis (net)? a. 2 pyruvate, 1 FADH2, 2 ATP b. 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH, 4 ATP c. 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH, 2 ATP d. 4 pyruvate, 2 FADH2, 4 ATP 43. What is the purpose of electron carriers NADH and FADH2? a. To transport electrons out of the mitochondria b. To deliver electrons to the electron transport chain c. To create water by delivering electrons to oxygen d. To neutralize charge by removing electrons from reactions 44. Which of the following is the substance that is produced by the oxidation of pyruvate, and is then fed into the citric acid cycle? a. Pyruvate b. Glucose c. acetyl-CoA d. O2 e. CO2 45. Photosynthesis takes place in the membranes of small sacs called a. Thylakoids b. Grana c. Photosystems d. Photons 46. What type of phosphorylation is responsible for the majority of ATP production during cellular respiration? a. Substrate Level Phosphorylation b. Oxidative Phosphorylation c. Chemiosmosis d. None of the above 47. Which of the following occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast? a. Light dependent reaction b. Electron Transport Chain c. Calvin Cycle d. Glycolysis 48. Which of the following is not a product of the light dependent reaction? a. Oxygen b. ATP c. NADPH d. Sugar 49. If a new found animal has a haploid number of 60, what is its diploid number, and would the diploid number be the number of chromosomes found in gametes or somatic cells? a. The diploid number would be n=120, and these are somatic cells b. The diploid number would be 2n=120, and these are gametes cells c. The diploid number would be n=30, and these are gametes cells d. The diploid number would be 2n=120, and these are somatic cells 50. In a karyotype, how many pairs of autosomes does a human have? a. 22 b. 23 c. 24 d. 46 51. During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate? a. Prophase b. Telophase c. Anaphase d. Metaphase 52. Which choice below properly matches the stage of mitosis with its description? a. Telophase: Formation of two nuclei b. Metaphase: The cell elongates and cohesion proteins begin to denature c. Prophase: Chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate d. Anaphase: Chromatin condenses and microtubules form 53. T or F. Gametes are diploid cells such as egg and sperm, and there is only one pair of each chromosome. a. True b. False 54. Which of the following is the complex of proteins at which the mitotic spindle will attach to the chromosomes, one microtubule from each side? a. Centrosome b. Centromere c. Cohesion d. Kinetechore 55. The mature form of a newly discovered species of eukaryote contains 12 chromosomes and exists in the diploid state (2n=12). In this new species, how many chromosomes are present in a mitotic cell immediately after anaphase? a. 12 b. 6 c. 24 d. 18 56. During which of the following mitotic phases will a cell be haploid? a. Prophase b. Anaphase c. Metaphase d. Telophase e. None of the above 57. T or F. The mitotic phase is where the cell spends most of its time during cell division. a. True b. False 58. Which of the following is not one of the things the Gap1 checkpoint looks for? a. Growth factors b. DNA damage c. Cell size d. Nutrients e. Attachment of kinetochores f. All of the above are correct g. More than one answer is incorrect 59. When referring to the paternal and maternal versions of chromosome 3, we can call them _____ in relation to each other. a. Sister Chromatids b. Homologous c. Exactly identical d. None of the above 60. A scientist is interested in studying the event of crossing over (recombination) in mouse gametes. She wants to label some of the mice with fluorescent dyes to better visualize it. During what phase of the cell cycle should she look at these fluorescent DNA strands to most effectively study recombination? a. Anaphase 2 b. Telophase 1 c. Prophase 1 d. Metaphase 2 e. Anaphase 1 61. Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is correct? a. Mitosis only occurs in prokaryotes, including all bacteria, while meiosis occurs in higher life forms. b. Mitosis results in higher genetic variability than meiosis c. Both A and B are correct d. In the human body, mitosis occurs in somatic cells whereas meiosis occurs in sex cells. 62. Which of the following is true of both meiosis 1 and meiosis 2? a. Both produce haploid cells. b. Sister chromatids separate in anaphase of meiosis 1, but not in meiosis 2. c. The G2 phase precedes both. d. Both include crossing over. e. Both produce haploid cells. 63. A cell has 40 chromosomes during G1 phase. How many sister chromatids does that cell have during prophase 1 of meiosis? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. 80 64. A human cell has 46 total or 23 pairs of chromosomes. Following mitosis, the daughter cells would each have a total of ____ chromosomes. After meiosis I, the two daughter cells would have ____ chromosomes, and after meiosis II, the four daughter cells would each have ____ chromosomes. a. 46, 46, 46 b. 46, 23, 23 c. 23, 23, 23 d. 46, 12, 23 65. Which of the following is a source of genetic variation in meiosis? a. Crossing Over b. Independent Assortment c. Random Fertilization d. All of the above 66. What is the original source of all new alleles? a. Mitosis b. Mutations c. Environmental hazards d. Random fertilization 67. Which of the following explains why XXX females usually go undiagnosed? a. The life expectancy is very low, so there usually is not enough time to recognize and treat the disorder b. All but one X chromosome can be inactivated c. We do not currently have the technology to know for sure if a female has an additional X chromosome or not d. It is the Y chromosome that creates observable defect, not the X chromosome e. All of the above 68. In Mendel’s F2 generation of the purple and white flower crossing, the dominant to recessive ratio was a. 1:3:3:1 b. 3:1 c. 1:1 d. 9:3:3:1 69. Where two alternatives for a trait are tall and short, and tall is dominant, the phenotype of a heterozygous individual would be expressed as… a. sS b. ss c. SS d. Ss e. Tall 70. In the cross MMnn x mmNN, what proportion of the resulting F1 would be homozygous dominant for both genes? a. none b. 1/16 c. 3/16 d. 9/16 71. Which of the following describes multiple genes affecting one trait? a. Polygenic Trait b. Pleitropy c. Epistasis d. X inactivation 72. Black hair for horses (B) is dominant over brown (b). However, when a homozygous dominant haired female is crossed with a homozygous dominant male, a few offspring show a whitish/ tan color. What could be the explanation? a. Epistasis b. Incomplete Dominance c. Codominance d. Complete Dominance 73. Marfan Syndrome, a dominant single-gene defect, is characterized by lens dislocation, long limbs, spindly fingers, a caved-in chest, and a weakened aorta. This is an example of a (an) ____ trait. a. Multifactoral b. Pleitropic c. Epistatic d. Polygenic 74. A homozygous red and homozygous white flower are crossed, and the offspring are all pink. What is this an example of? a. Incomplete Dominance b. Complete Dominance c. Codominance d. X linked 75. What is the purpose of topoisomerase during DNA replication? a. Hold the DNA polymerases in place during replication b. Bring new nucleotides to the replication fork c. Cut the phosphate backbone ahead of the replication fork to prevent the DNA from getting overwound d. Identify unwanted isomers of nucleotides 76. Which of the following refers to the correct model of DNA replication, where a newly synthesized strand of DNA is half the parent strand and half newly synthesized? a. Semiconservative b. Dispersive c. Conservative d. Random 77. T or F. DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 5’ end of the DNA strand. a. True b. False 78. T or F. The two sides of the double helix structure of DNA are held together with weak hydrogen bonds. a. True b. False 79. Dense packing of the heterochromatin makes it difficult for the cell to do what? a. The DNA will no longer be able to replicate b. This dense packing happens only in prokaryotes, so it makes it difficult for the cell to keep DNA inside the nucleolus c. To express genetic information coded in regions d. Elongate telomeres 80. DNA is the genetic material of all living organisms. Which of the following describes a difference between prokaryotic DNA and eukaryotic DNA? a. Eukaryotic DNA is antiparallel while prokaryotic is not b. Prokaryotic DNA uses uracil while eukaryotic DNA uses thymine c. Prokaryotic DNA is haploid while eukaryotic DNA is diploid d. Prokaryotic DNA is circular while eukaryotic DNA is linear 81. DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase have similar functions. Which statement is an incorrect description of these enzymes? a. Both enzymes require a primer. b. DNA polymerase is used in replication while RNA polymerase is used in transcription c. Both enzymes add nucleotides to the 3’ end of a chain d. The binding of RNA polymerase is preceded by the binding of transcription factors 82. The codon chart shows that there is redundancy but not ambiguity in the genetic code. How can this statement be explained? a. One codon can code for several amino acids. b. Any mistakes are corrected during the proofreading process. c. Individual amino acids can have more than one codon, but each codon only translates one amino acid d. The same 20 amino acids are used repeatedly. but in different combinations, to create different proteins, accounting for the necessary genetic diversity of life 83. Which enzyme is essential for transcription and has functions such as unwinding the double helix and synthesizing mRNA? a. DNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase c. Primase d. Transcription Factor 84. In Eukaryotes we make pre-mRNA that must be edited before being released into the cytoplasm. How is the pre-mRNA prepared? a. A polyadenylation (AAUAAA) tail is added to one end b. Splicing occurs and introns are removed from the mRNA strand, leaving exons behind c. A 5’ end cap is added d. All of the above 85. At which site of the large ribosomal subunit does the first tRNA bind? a. A site b. P site c. E site 86. If a sequence initially reading Met-Lys-Phe-Stop is mutated, and you are left with Met-Stop, what kind of mutation can you assume has occurred? a. Nonsense b. Missense c. Silent d. Frameshift mutation 87. Which of the following is an effect of methylation in a cell’s DNA? a. Those genes will not be expressed b. The rate of transcription will increase c. Methylated genes are expressed d. Methylating genes is not a reversible process 88. In a species of lab mice, there is a gene with 2 alleles that determines fur color with the black (B) allele dominant over the brown (b) allele. There is another gene with 2 alleles that determines if the mouse is bald or not bald with the not bald (E) allele dominant over the bald (e) allele. This second gene is recessively epistatic over the fur color gene. If you breed a black mouse that is homozygous black for the fur color gene but heterozygous for the epistatic gene with a brown mouse who is also heterozygous for the epistatic gene, what is the expected phenotypes in the offspring? Assume independent assortment of the 2 genes. 89. If you crossed a parent who was heterozygote for both gene A and B with a parent who was homozygous recessive for both gene A and B, what is the chance their offspring will be homozygous recessive for both genes? 90. A mom with blood type O has children with a man with Type AB blood. What are the possible blood types of their children? 91. The following pedigree shows a recessively inherited disease with the filled in shapes indicating individuals who have the disease. What are the genotypes of the different family members? 92. In eggplants, there are true breeding deep purple eggplants (CPCP) and true breeding white egg plants (CWCW). If you breed a purple and white eggplant, you get all lavender (pale purple) eggplants (CPCW). If you breed these lavender eggplants with each other, what is the expected colors and ratios of the offspring?