Download Study Union Final Exam Review BSC 2010

Study Union Final Exam Review BSC 2010
Review Time:​ 04/26/2017 from 8:00-10:00pm in Cape Florida Ballroom
SI Leader:​ Taylor P.
Disclaimer:​ I have made this review to the best of my ability, however it is not an entirely
comprehensive exam, and should not be used as a supplement. Not all information is guaranteed
to be correct.
Exam Tips:
- I have taken each question from various chapter exams throughout the year. The rest of
the questions as well as helpful videos for each chapter can be found on my original site
at ​ucfsi.wordpress.com​.
- Make sure to get lots of rest, eat, and take time for yourself while studying for finals! It
sounds so simple, but can make a huge difference when it comes to actually taking the
test.
- Try to practice problems without looking at the answers right away. You will have a
better chance of remembering information if you look it up in the book or in your notes
rather than looking at the answer key directly.
Questions:
1. The number of ______ differs in isotopes.
a. Neutrons
b. Protons
c. Electrons
2. What is the mass number of an atom?
a. Protons + electrons
b. Electrons + neutrons
c. Only protons
d. Protons + neutrons
3. What are the four essential elements of life?
a. Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Helium
b. Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Carbon, and Fluorine
c. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Nitrogen
d. Sodium, Nitrogen, Phosphorous, and Sulfur
4. Which of the following describes an atom that has lost an electron and is positively
charged?
a. Anion
b. Cation
c. This does not describe an ion
d. This could be A or B
5. What kind of bond will form in the following molecules/compounds? (polar or nonpolar,
covalent, ionic, hydrogen)
a. CO​2​, nonpolar covalent
b. H​2​, nonpolar covalent
c. BaS, ionic
d. H​2​O, polar covalent
e. H​2​O bonded to NH​3​, hydrogen bonding
6. What characteristics below are those of a hydrogen bond?
a. Weak
b. Extremely important to the specific properties of water
c. Temporary
d. Partially positive atom of one polar molecule covalently bonded to
electronegative atom of another polar molecule
e. all of the above
7. A small sample of NaCl is added to water to create a new mixture. Which of the
following is the solvent?
a. The NaCl sample
b. The water
c. The new mixture of NaCl and water
d. None of the above
8. Which of the following is most hydrophilic?
a. CH​3​OH
b. CH​4
c. CO​2
d. Fats and Oils
9. What does pH measure?
a. OH- concentration
b. The amount of energy in a solution
c. H+ concentration
d. H​2​O concentration
10. Which of the following is an acid?
a. [H+] = 1 x 10​-14
b. [H+] = 1 x 10​-7
c. [H+] = 1 x 10​-9
d. [H+] = 1 x 10​-6
11. How many times greater is the [H+] concentration of a solution of pH 7 than that of pH
11?
a. 10 times greater
b. 100 times greater
c. 1000 times greater
d. 10000 times greater
12. What differs among isomers of the same element?
a. The number of protons
b. The number of neutrons
c. The arrangement of the molecules
d. The molecular formula
13. What functional groups are present in the following molecule (you can select more than
one if applicable)
a. Hydroxyl
b. Carbonyl
c. Carboxyl
d. Methyl
e. Phosphate
f. Amino
g. Sulfhydryl
14. Which of the following refers to the process in which a water molecule is added to
separate monomers?
a. Dehydration Reaction
b. Glycosidic Linkage
c. Hydrolysis
d. Peptide Bond
15. Which of the following does ​not​ have a specific polymer?
a. Carbohydrate
b. Lipid
c. Protein
d. Nucleic Acid
16. Which of the following represents a proper ratio for Carbohydrates?
a. C​4​H​8​O​4
b. C​2​H​5​O​2
c. CHO​2
d. CH​2​O
e. Both a and d
17. Which of the following is a type of polysaccharide that is extensively branched and made
by animals?
a. Glucose
b. Starch
c. Glycogen
d. Cellulose
e. Chitin
18. What type of lipid is shown in the picture below?
a. Steroid
b. Unsaturated fat
c. Saturated fat
d. Phospholipid
19. T or F. Some types of lipids will mix with water due to being hydrophilic.
a. True
b. False
20. Which of the following is not a component of an amino acid?
a. Amino Group
b. R Group
c. Carboxyl
d. Hydrogen Atom
e. Carbonyl
21. Which of the following molecules orient themselves into sandwichlike membranes
because of hydrophobic components within the membrane?
a. Amylose
b. Glycogen
c. Cellulose
d. Phospholipid
e. Protein
22. Which type of structure shows the linear chain of amino acids joined together by covalent
bonds?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quaternary
23. Which of the following is ​not ​a pyrimidine?
a. Adenine
b. Thymine
c. Cytosine
d. Uracil
24. If a DNA sample was composed of 40% Adenine, how much Guanine is present?
a. 40%
b. 60%
c. 20%
d. 10%
25. Deoxyribose and Ribose refers to the ______ in DNA and RNA.
a. Hydrogen Bonds
b. Phosphate Group
c. Pentose Sugar
d. Nitrogenous Base
26. If a DNA strand has a sequence 3’ AGT CGC ATC CGC 5’, what would be the polarity
and sequence of the other DNA strand?
a. 3’ TCA GCG TAG GCG 5’
b. 3’ GCG TAG GCG GGG 5’
c. 5’ TCA GCG TAG GCG 3’
d. 3’ UCa GCG UAG GCG 5’
27. When classifying organisms, which of the following is the most specific?
a. Family
b. Domain
c. Class
d. Phylum
28. When comparing plant and animal cells, which of the following is ​not​ a unique
characteristic to plants?
a. Cell Wall
b. Central Vacuole
c. Cytosol
d. Chloroplasts
29. Which of the following terms refers to the selective barrier that controls what can enter
and leave a cell and contains cytoplasm?
a. Golgi Apparatus
b. Endoplasmic Reticulum
c. Intermediate Filaments
d. Plasma Membrane
30. Which type of ribosomes usually make proteins that are to be sent out of the cell?
a. Free
b. Bound
c. Neither
d. Both
31. Which organ would you expect to have the most Smooth ER due to its detoxifying
properties?
a. Heart
b. Intestines
c. Liver
d. Lungs
32. Which organelle contains enzymes that can digest organelles which no longer work
(Autophagy)?
a. Vacuole
b. Vesicle
c. Transport Protein
d. Lysosome
33. T or F. Mitochondria contain a single membrane, and are the site of cellular respiration.
a. True
b. False
34. Phagocytosis refers more specifically to what type of lysosome breakdown?
a. Food
b. Organelles
c. Enzymes
d. All of the above
35. What role does O2 play in aerobic respiration?
a. It plays no role
b. It combines with acetyl coA at the start of the Krebs cycle
c. It is given off as a byproduct during the oxidation of pyruvate
d. It combines with H2O to help drive the formation of ATP
e. It is the final electron acceptor at the end of the Electron Transport Chain
36. What does it mean for the cell membrane to amphipathic?
a. The membrane has a hydrophobic region
b. The membrane has a hydrophilic region
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A or B
37. Which of the following is a characteristic of an integral protein?
a. Binds to the hydrophobic region of the cell membrane
b. Can be Transmembrane
c. Will penetrate the nonpolar region of the cell membrane
d. All of the above
38. Which of the following is not true regarding carbohydrates found in the cell membrane?
a. They are found on the extracellular side of the membrane
b. They can attach to lipids and proteins to make glycolipids and glycoproteins
c. They aid in cell to cell recognition
d. They are transmembrane
39. What is pinocytosis?
a. "Cell eating"
b. Taking large chunks of stuff into a cell at one time
c. "Cell drinking"
d. Take small chunks of stuff into a cell at one time, usually liquid
e. A and B
f. C and D
40. What facilitates the movement of water in a membrane?
a. Lipids called aquaporins
b. Proteins called aquaporins
c. Lipids called hydroglycins
d. Proteins called hydroglycins
41. Is the animal cell in the following picture hypertonic, hypotonic, or isotonic, and what
will happen to the cell?
a. Hypertonic, lyse
b. Hypertonic, shrivel
c. Hypotonic, lyse
d. Hypotonic, shrivel
e. Isotonic
42. What are the products of glycolysis (net)?
a. 2 pyruvate, 1 FADH2, 2 ATP
b. 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH, 4 ATP
c. 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH, 2 ATP
d. 4 pyruvate, 2 FADH2, 4 ATP
43. What is the purpose of electron carriers NADH and FADH​2​?
a. To transport electrons out of the mitochondria
b. To deliver electrons to the electron transport chain
c. To create water by delivering electrons to oxygen
d. To neutralize charge by removing electrons from reactions
44. Which of the following is the substance that is produced by the oxidation of pyruvate,
and is then fed into the citric acid cycle?
a. Pyruvate
b. Glucose
c. acetyl-CoA
d. O2
e. CO2
45. Photosynthesis takes place in the membranes of small sacs called
a. Thylakoids
b. Grana
c. Photosystems
d. Photons
46. What type of phosphorylation is responsible for the majority of ATP production during
cellular respiration?
a. Substrate Level Phosphorylation
b. Oxidative Phosphorylation
c. Chemiosmosis
d. None of the above
47. Which of the following occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast?
a. Light dependent reaction
b. Electron Transport Chain
c. Calvin Cycle
d. Glycolysis
48. Which of the following is ​not​ a product of the light dependent reaction?
a. Oxygen
b. ATP
c. NADPH
d. Sugar
49. If a new found animal has a haploid number of 60, what is its diploid number, and would
the diploid number be the number of chromosomes found in gametes or somatic cells?
a. The diploid number would be n=120, and these are somatic cells
b. The diploid number would be 2n=120, and these are gametes cells
c. The diploid number would be n=30, and these are gametes cells
d. The diploid number would be 2n=120, and these are somatic cells
50. In a karyotype, how many pairs of autosomes does a human have?
a. 22
b. 23
c. 24
d. 46
51. During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate?
a. Prophase
b. Telophase
c. Anaphase
d. Metaphase
52. Which choice below properly matches the stage of mitosis with its description?
a. Telophase: Formation of two nuclei
b. Metaphase: The cell elongates and cohesion proteins begin to denature
c. Prophase: Chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate
d. Anaphase: Chromatin condenses and microtubules form
53. T or F. Gametes are diploid cells such as egg and sperm, and there is only one pair of
each chromosome.
a. True
b. False
54. Which of the following is the complex of proteins at which the mitotic spindle will attach
to the chromosomes, one microtubule from each side?
a. Centrosome
b. Centromere
c. Cohesion
d. Kinetechore
55. The mature form of a newly discovered species of eukaryote contains 12 chromosomes
and exists in the diploid state (2n=12). In this new species, how many chromosomes are
present in a mitotic cell immediately after anaphase?
a. 12
b. 6
c. 24
d. 18
56. During which of the following mitotic phases will a cell be haploid?
a. Prophase
b. Anaphase
c. Metaphase
d. Telophase
e. None of the above
57. T or F. The mitotic phase is where the cell spends most of its time during cell division.
a. True
b. False
58. Which of the following is not one of the things the Gap1 checkpoint looks for?
a. Growth factors
b. DNA damage
c. Cell size
d. Nutrients
e. Attachment of kinetochores
f. All of the above are correct
g. More than one answer is incorrect
59. When referring to the paternal and maternal versions of chromosome 3, we can call them
_____ in relation to each other.
a. Sister Chromatids
b. Homologous
c. Exactly identical
d. None of the above
60. A scientist is interested in studying the event of crossing over (recombination) in mouse
gametes. She wants to label some of the mice with fluorescent dyes to better visualize it.
During what phase of the cell cycle should she look at these fluorescent DNA strands to
most effectively study recombination?
a. Anaphase 2
b. Telophase 1
c. Prophase 1
d. Metaphase 2
e. Anaphase 1
61. Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is correct?
a. Mitosis only occurs in prokaryotes, including all bacteria, while meiosis occurs in
higher life forms.
b. Mitosis results in higher genetic variability than meiosis
c. Both A and B are correct
d. In the human body, mitosis occurs in somatic cells whereas meiosis occurs in sex
cells.
62. Which of the following is true of both meiosis 1 and meiosis 2?
a. Both produce haploid cells.
b. Sister chromatids separate in anaphase of meiosis 1, but not in meiosis 2.
c. The G2 phase precedes both.
d. Both include crossing over.
e. Both produce haploid cells.
63. A cell has 40 chromosomes during G1 phase. How many sister chromatids does that cell
have during prophase 1 of meiosis?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
e. 80
64. A human cell has 46 total or 23 pairs of chromosomes. Following mitosis, the daughter
cells would each have a total of ____ chromosomes. After meiosis I, the two daughter
cells would have ____ chromosomes, and after meiosis II, the four daughter cells would
each have ____ chromosomes.
a. 46, 46, 46
b. 46, 23, 23
c. 23, 23, 23
d. 46, 12, 23
65. Which of the following is a source of genetic variation in meiosis?
a. Crossing Over
b. Independent Assortment
c. Random Fertilization
d. All of the above
66. What is the original source of all new alleles?
a. Mitosis
b. Mutations
c. Environmental hazards
d. Random fertilization
67. Which of the following explains why XXX females usually go undiagnosed?
a. The life expectancy is very low, so there usually is not enough time to recognize
and treat the disorder
b. All but one X chromosome can be inactivated
c. We do not currently have the technology to know for sure if a female has an
additional X chromosome or not
d. It is the Y chromosome that creates observable defect, not the X chromosome
e. All of the above
68. In Mendel’s F2 generation of the purple and white flower crossing, the dominant to
recessive ratio was
a. 1:3:3:1
b. 3:1
c. 1:1
d. 9:3:3:1
69. Where two alternatives for a trait are tall and short, and tall is dominant, the phenotype of
a heterozygous individual would be expressed as…
a. sS
b. ss
c. SS
d. Ss
e. Tall
70. In the cross MMnn x mmNN, what proportion of the resulting F1 would be homozygous
dominant for both genes?
a. none
b. 1/16
c. 3/16
d. 9/16
71. Which of the following describes multiple genes affecting one trait?
a. Polygenic Trait
b. Pleitropy
c. Epistasis
d. X inactivation
72. Black hair for horses (B) is dominant over brown (b). However, when a homozygous
dominant haired female is crossed with a homozygous dominant male, a few offspring
show a whitish/ tan color. What could be the explanation?
a. Epistasis
b. Incomplete Dominance
c. Codominance
d. Complete Dominance
73. Marfan Syndrome, a dominant single-gene defect, is characterized by lens dislocation,
long limbs, spindly fingers, a caved-in chest, and a weakened aorta. This is an example of
a (an) ____ trait.
a. Multifactoral
b. Pleitropic
c. Epistatic
d. Polygenic
74. A homozygous red and homozygous white flower are crossed, and the offspring are all
pink. What is this an example of?
a. Incomplete Dominance
b. Complete Dominance
c. Codominance
d. X linked
75. What is the purpose of topoisomerase during DNA replication?
a. Hold the DNA polymerases in place during replication
b. Bring new nucleotides to the replication fork
c. Cut the phosphate backbone ahead of the replication fork to prevent the DNA
from getting overwound
d. Identify unwanted isomers of nucleotides
76. Which of the following refers to the correct model of DNA replication, where a newly
synthesized strand of DNA is half the parent strand and half newly synthesized?
a. Semiconservative
b. Dispersive
c. Conservative
d. Random
77. T or F. DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 5’ end of the DNA strand.
a. True
b. False
78. T or F. The two sides of the double helix structure of DNA are held together with weak
hydrogen bonds.
a. True
b. False
79. Dense packing of the heterochromatin makes it difficult for the cell to do what?
a. The DNA will no longer be able to replicate
b. This dense packing happens only in prokaryotes, so it makes it difficult for the
cell to keep DNA inside the nucleolus
c. To express genetic information coded in regions
d. Elongate telomeres
80. DNA is the genetic material of all living organisms. Which of the following describes a
difference between prokaryotic DNA and eukaryotic DNA?
a. Eukaryotic DNA is antiparallel while prokaryotic is not
b. Prokaryotic DNA uses uracil while eukaryotic DNA uses thymine
c. Prokaryotic DNA is haploid while eukaryotic DNA is diploid
d. Prokaryotic DNA is circular while eukaryotic DNA is linear
81. DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase have similar functions. Which statement is an
incorrect ​description of these enzymes?
a. Both enzymes require a primer.
b. DNA polymerase is used in replication while RNA polymerase is used in
transcription
c. Both enzymes add nucleotides to the 3’ end of a chain
d. The binding of RNA polymerase is preceded by the binding of transcription
factors
82. The codon chart shows that there is redundancy but not ambiguity in the genetic code.
How can this statement be explained?
a. One codon can code for several amino acids.
b. Any mistakes are corrected during the proofreading process.
c. Individual amino acids can have more than one codon, but each codon only
translates one amino acid
d. The same 20 amino acids are used repeatedly. but in different combinations, to
create different proteins, accounting for the necessary genetic diversity of life
83. Which enzyme is essential for transcription and has functions such as unwinding the
double helix and synthesizing mRNA?
a. DNA polymerase
b. RNA polymerase
c. Primase
d. Transcription Factor
84. In ​Eukaryotes ​we make pre-mRNA that must be edited before being released into the
cytoplasm. How is the pre-mRNA prepared?
a. A polyadenylation (AAUAAA) tail is added to one end
b. Splicing occurs and introns are removed from the mRNA strand, leaving exons
behind
c. A 5’ end cap is added
d. All of the above
85. At which site of the large ribosomal subunit does the first tRNA bind?
a. A site
b. P site
c. E site
86. If a sequence initially reading Met-Lys-Phe-Stop is mutated, and you are left with
Met-Stop, what kind of mutation can you assume has occurred?
a. Nonsense
b. Missense
c. Silent
d. Frameshift mutation
87. Which of the following is an effect of methylation in a cell’s DNA?
a. Those genes will not be expressed
b. The rate of transcription will increase
c. Methylated genes are expressed
d. Methylating genes is not a reversible process
88. In a species of lab mice, there is a gene with 2 alleles that determines fur color with the
black (B) allele dominant over the brown (b) allele. There is another gene with 2 alleles
that determines if the mouse is bald or not bald with the not bald (E) allele dominant over
the bald (e) allele. This second gene is recessively epistatic over the fur color gene. If you
breed a black mouse that is homozygous black for the fur color gene but heterozygous for
the epistatic gene with a brown mouse who is also heterozygous for the epistatic gene,
what is the expected phenotypes in the offspring? Assume independent assortment of the
2 genes.
89. If you crossed a parent who was heterozygote for both gene A and B with a parent who
was homozygous recessive for both gene A and B, what is the chance their offspring will
be homozygous recessive for both genes?
90. A mom with blood type O has children with a man with Type AB blood. What are the
possible blood types of their children?
91. The following pedigree shows a recessively inherited disease with the filled in shapes
indicating individuals who have the disease. What are the genotypes of the different
family members?
92. In eggplants, there are true breeding deep purple eggplants (C​P​C​P​) and true breeding
white egg plants (C​W​C​W​). If you breed a purple and white eggplant, you get all lavender
(pale purple) eggplants (C​P​C​W​). If you breed these lavender eggplants with each other,
what is the expected colors and ratios of the offspring?