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PSY 101 - HW # 2
Please choose the best answer and fill it in on the scantron (70 questions).
1. Professor Seif conducts research on the relationship between the limbic system and sexual
motivation. Her research interests best represent the psychological specialty known as:
A) biological psychology.
B) psychoanalysis.
C) cognitive psychology.
D) behavior genetics.
2. The cells that serve as the basic building blocks of the body's information processing system are
called:
A) neurons.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) vesicles.
D) genes.
3. The branching extensions of nerve cells that receive incoming signals from sensory receptors or
from other neurons are called the:
A) axons.
B) synapses.
C) dendrites.
D) neurotransmitters.
4. The part of a neuron that transmits neural messages to other neurons or to muscles or glands is
called the:
A) dendrite.
B) synapse.
C) axon.
D) cell body.
5. Which part of a neuron is often encased by the myelin sheath?
A) axon
B) synaptic gap
C) cell body
D) dendrite
6. An action potential refers to a:
A) neural impulse.
B) synaptic gap.
C) neurotransmitter.
D) reflex.
7. Neurotransmitter receptor sites are primarily located on the:
A) dendrites.
B) myelin sheath.
C) synapses.
D) axon terminals.
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8. The reuptake of a neurotransmitter such as serotonin would involve the reabsorption of serotonin
into a(n):
A) axon terminal.
B) receiving neuron.
C) myelin sheath.
D) cell body.
9. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that:
A) causes sleepiness.
B) lessens physical pain.
C) reduces depressed moods.
D) triggers muscle contractions.
10. The tremors of Parkinson's disease result from the death of nerve cells that produce the
neurotransmitter:
A) serotonin.
B) ACh.
C) GABA.
D) dopamine.
11. Prozac is an antidepressant drug that increases the level of the neurotransmitter:
A) GABA.
B) ACh.
C) serotonin.
D) dopamine.
12. Seizures are likely to be associated with an:
A) undersupply GABA and an oversupply of glutamate.
B) oversupply GABA and an undersupply of glutamate.
C) undersupply GABA and an undersupply of glutamate.
D) oversupply GABA and an oversupply of glutamate.
13. Agonists are chemicals that may mimic the activity of:
A) motor neurons.
B) sensory neurons.
C) synapses.
D) neurotransmitters.
14. A drug that inhibits the release of a particular neurotransmitter into the synaptic gap is called
a(n):
A) opiate.
B) agonist.
C) antagonist
D) glutamate.
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15. The parasympathetic nervous system is a division of the ________ nervous system.
A) autonomic
B) somatic
C) central
D) sympathetic
16. The sympathetic nervous system:
A) stimulates digestion and slows heartbeat.
B) inhibits digestion and accelerates heartbeat.
C) stimulates digestion and accelerates heartbeat.
D) inhibits digestion and slows heartbeat.
17. When Mr. Valdez thought his 1-year-old daughter had fallen down the stairs, his heartbeat
accelerated, his blood pressure rose, and he began to perspire heavily. Mr. Valdez's state of
arousal was activated by his ________ nervous system.
A) parasympathetic
B) sympathetic
C) somatic
D) central
18. People can simultaneously process many aspects of sensory information such as color, shape, and
size. This best illustrates the functioning of multiple:
A) ACh agonists.
B) reflexes.
C) neural networks.
D) ACh antagonists.
19. The body's chemical communication system that is much slower than the nervous system is
called the:
A) sympathetic division.
B) autonomic system.
C) parasympathetic division.
D) endocrine system.
20. A brain lesion refers to ________ of brain tissue.
A) electrical stimulation
B) x-ray photography
C) radioactive bombardment
D) destruction
21. Recording electrodes are placed directly on the scalp to produce a(n):
A) EEG.
B) PET scan.
C) MRI.
D) fMRI.
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22. The concentration of glucose in active regions of the brain underlies the usefulness of a(n):
A) MRI.
B) brain lesion.
C) EEG.
D) PET scan.
23. Which technique involves the use of magnetic fields and radio waves to produce computergenerated images of the brain's soft tissues?
A) MRI
B) EEG
C) hemispherectomy
D) PET scan
24. In order to monitor the sequence of activity in a variety of different regions of the brain,
researchers are most likely to make use of a(n):
A) brain lesion.
B) fMRI.
C) electroencephalograph.
D) hemispherectomy.
25. A loss of physical coordination and balance is most likely to result from damage to the:
A) hypothalamus.
B) cerebellum.
C) corpus callosum.
D) amygdala.
26. The amygdala and hypothalamus are part of the:
A) brainstem.
B) limbic system.
C) reticular formation.
D) cerebral cortex.
27. If Professor Kosiba lesions the amygdala of a laboratory rat, it is most likely that the rat will
become:
A) hungry.
B) sexually aroused.
C) physically uncoordinated.
D) less aggressive.
28. Animal research has revealed a general reward system that triggers the release of the
neurotransmitter:
A) ACh.
B) GABA.
C) dopamine.
D) epinephrine.
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29. Nerve cells in the brain receive life-supporting nutrients and insulating myelin from:
A) glial cells.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) the reticular formation.
D) Broca's area.
30. Alana suffered a brain disease that destroyed major portions of her temporal lobes. Alana is most
likely to suffer some loss of:
A) auditory perception.
B) hunger and thirst.
C) pain sensations.
D) muscular coordination.
31. The parietal lobes are to ________ as the occipital lobes are to ________.
A) hearing; speaking
B) sensing touch; seeing
C) tasting; smelling
D) speaking; seeing
32. In order to trigger a person's hand to make a fist, José Delgado stimulated the individual's:
A) motor cortex.
B) hypothalamus.
C) sensory cortex.
D) reticular formation.
33. After she suffered a stroke, Mrs. Jacobitz had so much difficulty speaking that she had to
communicate by writing. This suggests that her cortex was damaged in:
A) the occipital lobe.
B) Broca's area.
C) the angular gyrus.
D) Wernicke's area.
34. The part of the left temporal lobe that is involved in understanding language is known as:
A) Broca's area.
B) the amygdala.
C) Wernicke's area.
D) the hippocampus.
35. After Terry lost a finger in an industrial accident, the area of his sensory cortex devoted to
receiving input from that finger gradually became very responsive to sensory input from his
adjacent fingers. This best illustrates:
A) hemispherectomy.
B) aphasia.
C) plasticity.
D) tomography.
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36. Information is most quickly transmitted from one cerebral hemisphere to the other by the:
A) corpus callosum.
B) angular gyrus.
C) limbic system.
D) reticular formation.
37. By directly experiencing a thunderstorm, we learn that a flash of lightning signals an impending
crash of thunder. This best illustrates:
A) operant conditioning.
B) physiological psychology.
C) observational learning.
D) classical conditioning.
38. The researcher most closely associated with the study of classical conditioning is:
A) Thorndike.
B) Skinner.
C) Bandura.
D) Pavlov.
39. John B. Watson emphasized that:
A) learning depends on how predictably rather than how frequently events are associated.
B) unlike lower animals, humans learn through a process of cognition.
C) both humans and lower animals learn to expect that a CS will be followed by a US.
D) learning should be explained without any reference to mental processes.
40. If a ringing bell causes a dog to salivate because the bell has been regularly associated with food
in the mouth, the UR is the:
A) ringing bell.
B) salivation to the ringing bell.
C) food in the mouth.
D) salivation to the food in the mouth.
41. In Pavlov's experiments on the salivary conditioning of dogs, a CR was:
A) salivation to the sound of a tone.
B) salivation to the taste of food.
C) the sound of a tone.
D) the taste of food.
42. If the sound of an electric can opener causes a cat to salivate because the can opener has been
associated with the presentation of food, the cat's salivation to the sound of the can opener is
a(n):
A) conditioned response.
B) unconditioned response.
C) conditioned stimulus.
D) unconditioned stimulus.
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43. The infant Albert developed a fear of rats after a white rat was associated with a loud noise. In
this example, fear of the white rat was the:
A) US.
B) UR.
C) CS.
D) CR.
44. In Aldous Huxley's Brave New World, infants develop a fear of roses after roses are presented
with electric shock. In this fictional example, the presentation of the roses is the:
A) conditioned stimulus.
B) unconditioned stimulus.
C) unconditioned response.
D) conditioned response.
45. The initial stage of classical conditioning during which a response to a neutral stimulus is
established and gradually strengthened is called:
A) association.
B) acquisition.
C) observational learning.
D) shaping.
46. Two-year-old Philip was recently clawed by the neighbor's cat. Philip's newly developed
tendency to fear all small animals demonstrates the process of:
A) generalization.
B) shaping.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) secondary responding.
47. Some of Pavlov's dogs learned to salivate to the sound of one particular tone and not to other
tones. This illustrates the process of:
A) shaping.
B) acquisition.
C) secondary responding.
D) discrimination.
48. In classical conditioning, an organism forms associations between:
A) stimuli that resemble each other.
B) events that it doesn't control.
C) primary and secondary reinforcers.
D) its own behavior and resulting outcomes.
49. Ever since his mother began to give Julio gold stars for keeping his bed dry all night, Julio
discontinued his habit of bedwetting. His change in behavior best illustrates the value of:
A) primary reinforcement.
B) classical conditioning.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) operant conditioning.
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50. Both classical conditioning and operant conditioning involve acquisition. More specifically, in
operant conditioning, acquisition involves:
A) the reappearance of an extinguished response.
B) the association between a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus, eliciting a
conditioned response.
C) the strengthening of a reinforced response.
D) a response to similar stimuli.
51. Dr. Raheja places a rat in a small, glass-enclosed chamber where it learns to press a bar to obtain
a food pellet. Obviously, Dr. Raheja is using a ________ to study learning.
A) Skinner box
B) variable-ratio schedule
C) Tolman maze
D) cognitive map
52. A negative reinforcer ________ the behavior it follows.
A) strengthens
B) eliminates
C) suppresses but does not eliminate
D) has an unpredictable effect on
53. Jacinda has a glass of wine after work because it relieves her anxiety. Her wine drinking is likely
to continue because it is followed by a ________ reinforcer.
A) secondary
B) partial
C) negative
D) positive
54. Which of the following is the best example of a primary reinforcer?
A) applause for an excellent trumpet solo
B) a grade of “A” for an excellent essay
C) $5.00 for washing the car
D) a cold root beer for mowing the lawn on a hot day
55. An event that decreases the behavior that precedes it is a:
A) negative reinforcer.
B) punishment.
C) conditioned stimulus.
D) secondary reinforcer.
56. After receiving a couple of traffic tickets for speeding, Masako no longer drives faster than the
legal speed limit. This best illustrates the impact of:
A) observational learning.
B) negative reinforcement.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) positive punishment.
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57. A spanking is to ________ as the suspension of TV viewing privileges is to ________.
A) positive punishment; negative reinforcement
B) negative reinforcement; positive punishment
C) positive punishment; negative punishment
D) negative punishment; positive punishment
58. Punishment is a potentially hazardous way for teachers to control young children's behaviors
because:
A) the more severely children are punished for undesirable behaviors, the more likely they will
exhibit those behaviors.
B) children will forget how to perform punished behaviors even when the behaviors may be
justified and necessary.
C) the use of punishment could condition children to fear and avoid school.
D) punishment cannot even temporarily restrain undesirable behaviors.
59. Elijah has learned to expect that whenever he studies diligently for tests, he will receive good
grades. This suggests that associative learning involves:
A) respondent behavior.
B) cognitive processes.
C) primary reinforcers.
D) intermittent reinforcement.
60. The process by which we perceive and respond to events that threaten or challenge us is called:
A) stress.
B) psychophysiological illness.
C) spontaneous remission.
D) biofeedback.
61. The faster-track stress response system releases ________, whereas the slower-track stressresponse system releases ________.
A) epinephrine; norepinephrine
B) norepinephrine; epinephrine
C) epinephrine; cortisol
D) cortisol; epinephrine
62. After Georgiana learns that a tornado has destroyed her house, her brain probably directed the
outer part of her adrenal glands to react by:
A) releasing testosterone.
B) producing androgens.
C) increasing the production of lymphocytes.
D) secreting cortisol.
63. The “fight-or-flight” response is to ________ as the general adaptation syndrome is to ________.
A) Cannon; Friedman
B) Friedman; Selye
C) Selye; Cannon
D) Cannon; Selye
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64. During which phase of the general adaptation syndrome are organisms best able to physically
cope with stress?
A) resistance
B) appraisal
C) adjustment
D) fight or flight
65. Prolonged stress due to sustained child abuse is associated with reductions in the size of the:
A) adrenal cortex.
B) temporal lobe.
C) cerebellum.
D) hippocampus.
66. Who is the best example of a Type A personality?
A) Mara, an irritable, impatient teacher
B) Rashida, a highly intelligent, introverted librarian
C) Wilma, a friendly, altruistic social worker
D) Charisse, a fun-loving, self-indulgent college student
67. Studying initially healthy men over a 10-year period, researchers found that pessimistic adult
men were more than twice as likely as optimistic men to develop:
A) a proliferation of lymphocytes.
B) coronary heart disease.
C) shrinkage of the adrenal cortex.
D) enlargement of the thymus gland.
68. The white blood cells that fight bacterial infections and attack cancer cells and viruses are called:
A) lymphocytes.
B) telomeres.
C) teratogens.
D) glucocorticoids.
69. AIDS is a disorder of the:
A) circulatory system.
B) immune system.
C) reproductive system.
D) endocrine system.
70. Who is the best example of a Type B personality?
A) Tammy, an ambitious, self-confident waitress
B) Mauriucca, a relaxed, understanding social worker
C) Tena, a time-conscious, competitive lawyer
D) Juanita, an impatient, pessimistic librarian
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