Download 1st Semester Final Exam Study Guide (excluding DNA/protein

1st Semester Final Exam Study Guide
(excluding DNA/protein synthesis)
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
Use the following information to answer the following questions.
Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. The
reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted
upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid
reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid.
1. Based on this information, which of the following is correct?
a) Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and fumarate is the substrate.
b) Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and malonic acid is the substrate.
c) Succinate is the substrate, and fumarate is the product.
d) Fumarate is the product, and malonic acid is a noncompetitive inhibitor.
e) Malonic acid is the product, and fumarate is a competitive inhibitor.
2. What is the purpose of using malonic acid in this experiment?
a) It is a competitive inhibitor.
b) It blocks the binding of fumarate.
c) It is a noncompetitive inhibitor.
d) It is able to bind to succinate.
e) It replaces the usual enzyme.
3. Which of the following triggers the cell's passage past the G2 checkpoint into mitosis?
a) PDGF
b) MPF
c) protein kinase
d) cyclin
e) Cdk
4. All of the following statements concerning saturated fats are true except
a) They are more common in animals than in plants.
b) They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
c) They generally solidify at room temperature.
d) They contain more hydrogen than saturated fats having the same number of carbon
atoms.
e) They are one of several factors that contribute to atherosclerosis.
5. Grana, thylakoids, and stroma are all components found in
a) vacuoles.
b) chloroplasts.
c) mitochondria.
d) lysosomes.
e) nuclei.
6. Which of the following store and transmit hereditary information?
a) carbohydrates
b) lipids
c) proteins
d) nucleic acids
7. When hydrogen ions are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix across the inner
membrane and into the intermembrane space, the result is the
a) formation of ATP.
b) reduction of NAD.
c) restoration of the Na/K balance across the membrane.
d) creation of a proton gradient.
e) lowering of pH in the mitochondrial matrix.
8. If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
e) 80
9. DNA is replicated at this time of the cell cycle:
a) GO
b) G1
c) S
d) G2
e) M
10. Pure, freshly-distilled water has a pH of 7. This means that
a) there are no H ions in the water.
b) there are no OH ions in the water.
c) the concentration of H ions in the water equals the concentration of OH ions in the
water.
d) the concentration of H ions in the water is 7 times the concentration of OH ions in the
water.
e) The concentration of OH ions in the water is 7 times the concentration of H ions in
the water.
11. From the perspective of the cell receiving the message, the three stages of cell
signaling are
a) the paracrine, local, and synaptic stages.
b) signal reception, signal transduction, and cellular response.
c) signal reception, nucleus disintegration, and new cell generation.
d) the alpha, beta, and gamma stages.
e) signal reception, cellular response, and cell division.
12. Which of these often serve as receptors or cell recognition molecules on cell
surfaces?
a) transmembrane proteins
b) integral proteins
c) peripheral proteins
d) integrins
e) glycoproteins
13. Approximately how many molecules of ATP are produced from the complete
oxidation of two molecules of glucose (C6H12O6) in cellular respiration?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 15
d) 38
e) 76
14. The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which
process or event?
a) glycolysis
b) accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain
c) the citric acid cycle
d) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
e) the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP
15. Which of the following normally occurs whether or not oxygen (O 2) is present?
a) glycolysis
b) fermentation
c) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
d) citric acid cycle
e) oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis)
16. In glycolysis, for each molecule of glucose oxidized to pyruvate
a) 2 molecules of ATP are used and 2 molecules of ATP are produced.
b) 2 molecules of ATP are used and 4 molecules of ATP are produced.
c) 4 molecules of ATP are used and 2 molecules of ATP are produced.
d) 2 molecules of ATP are used and 6 molecules of ATP are produced.
e) 6 molecules of ATP are used and 6 molecules of ATP are produced.
17. The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires
a) the release of a water molecule.
b) the release of a carbon dioxide molecule.
c) the addition of a nitrogen atom.
d) the addition of a water molecule.
e) both B and C
18. Which of the following contains its own DNA and ribosomes?
a) lysosome
b) vacuolec
c) mitochondrion
d) Golgi apparatus
e) peroxisome
19. A molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6 is probably a
a) carbohydrate.
b) lipid.
c) monosaccharide
d) A and B only.
e) A, B, and C.
20. What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxyl ion [OH] concentration of 10 M?
a) pH 2
b) pH 4
c) pH 10
d) pH 12
e) pH 14
21. In the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by fermentation, resulting in
the production of
a) ATP,CO2 , and ethanol (ethyl alcohol).
b) ATP, CO2, and lactate.
c) ATP, NADH, and pyruvate.
d) ATP, pyruvate, and oxygen.
e) ATP, pyruvate, and acetyl CoA.
22. Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics?
a) Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
b) The entropy of the universe is decreasing.
c) The entropy of the universe is constant.
d) Kinetic energy is stored energy that results from the specific arrangement of matter.
e) Energy cannot be transferred or transformed.
23. You are working on a team that is designing a new drug. In order for this drug to
work, it must enter the cytoplasm of specific target cells. Which of the following would
be a factor that determines whether the molecule enters the cell?
a) blood or tissue type of the patient
b) non-polarity of the drug molecule
c) lack of charge on the drug molecule
d) similarity of the drug molecule to other molecules transported by the target cells
e) lipid composition of the target cells' plasma membrane
24. Which of the following hydrocarbons has a double bond in its carbon skeleton?
a) C3H8
b) C2H6
c) CH4
d) C2H4
e) C2H2
25. A covalent chemical bond is one in which
a) electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two
atoms become oppositely charged.
b) protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of
both atoms.
c) outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill the outer
electron shells of both atoms.
d) outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to the inner electron shells of
another atom.
e) the inner-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to the outer shell of another
atom.
26. When biological membranes are frozen and then fractured, they tend to break along
the middle of the bilayer. The best explanation for this is that
a) the integral membrane proteins are not strong enough to hold the bilayer together.
b) water that is present in the middle of the bilayer freezes and is easily fractured.
c) hydrophilic interactions between the opposite membrane surfaces are destroyed on
freezing.
d) the carbon-carbon bonds of the phospholipid tails are easily broken.
e) the hydrophobic interactions that hold the membrane together are weakest at this
point.
27. Which of the following is likely to lead to an increase in the concentration of ATP in a
cell?
a) an increase in a cell's anabolic activity
b) an increase in a cell's catabolic activity
c) an increased influx of cofactor molecules
d) an increased amino acid concentration
e) the cell's increased transport of materials to the environment
28. Calcium has an atomic number of 20 and an atomic mass of 40. Therefore, a
calcium atom must have
a) 20 protons.
b) 40 electrons.
c) 40 neutrons.
d) A and B only
e) A, B, and C
29. Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the
middle of a cell and nuclei re-forming on either side of the cell plate. This cell is most
likely
a) an animal cell in the process of cytokinesis.
b) a plant cell in the process of cytokinesis.
c) an animal cell in the S phase of the cell cycle.
d) a bacterial cell dividing.
e) a plant cell in metaphase.
30. Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large
molecules into smaller ones?
a) catalysis
b) metabolism
c) anabolism
d) dehydration
e) catabolism
31. How many molecules of glucose ( molecular mass =180 daltons) would be present
in one mole of glucose?
a) 24
b) 342
c) 23 x 1014
d)180 x 1014
e) 6.02 x 1023
32. Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is not
correct?
a) Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane-bound nucleus.
b) Prokaryotic cells contain small membrane-enclosed organelles.
c) Eukaryotic cells contain a membrane-bound nucleus.
d) DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is present in both prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic
cells.
e) DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid is present in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
33. A small molecule that specifically binds to another molecule, usually a larger one
a) is called a signal transducer.
b) is called a ligand.
c) is called a polymer.
d) seldom is involved in hormonal signaling.
e) usually terminates a signal reception.
34. In chemiosmotic phosphorylation, what is the most direct source of energy that is
used to convert ADP + to ATP?
a) energy released as electrons flow through the electron transport system
b) energy released from substrate-level phosphorylation
c) energy released from ATP synthase pumping hydrogen ions from the mitochondrial
matrix
d) energy released from movement of protons through ATP synthase
e) No external source of energy is required because the reaction is exergonic.
35. Whenever energy is transformed, there is always an increase in the
a) free energy of the system.
b) free energy of the universe.
c) entropy of the system.
d) entropy of the universe.
e) enthalpy of the universe.
The following questions are based on the reaction A + B ® C + D shown in Figure 8.2.
Figure 8.2
36. Which of the following represents the activation energy required for the enzymecatalyzed reaction?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e
37. Which of the following would be the same in an enzyme-catalyzed or noncatalyzed
reaction?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e
38. Which of the following represents the activation energy required for a noncatalyzed
reaction?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e
39. Where does glycolysis takes place?
a) mitochondrial matrix
b) mitochondrial outer membrane
c) mitochondrial inner membrane
d) mitochondrial intermembrane space
e) cytosol
40. Which of the following correctly lists the order in which cellular components will be
found in the pellet when homogenized cells are treated with increasingly rapid spins in a
centrifuge?
a) ribosomes, nucleus, mitochondria
b) chloroplasts, ribosomes, vacuoles
c) nucleus, ribosomes, chloroplastsd)vacuoles, ribosomes, nucleus
e) nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes
41. Which of the following statements is true concerning catabolic pathways?
a) They combine molecules into more energy-rich molecules.
b) They are usually coupled with anabolic pathways to which they supply energy in the
form of ATP.
c) They are endergonic.
d) They are spontaneous and do not need enzyme catalysis.
e) They build up complex molecules such as protein from simpler compounds.
42. A type of protein critical to all cells is organic catalysts called
a) feedback activators.
b) feedback inhibitors.
c) enzymes.
d) metabolites.
e) nutrients.
43. All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except
a) DNA.
b) a cell wall.
c) a plasma membrane.
d) ribosomes.
e) an endoplasmic reticulum.
44. Ions diffuse across membranes down their
a) chemical gradients.
b) concentration gradients.
c) electrical gradients.
d) electrochemical gradients.
e) A and B are correct.
45. Sucrose is a disaccharide, composed of the monosaccharides glucose and fructose.
The hydrolysis of sucrose by the enzyme sucrase results in
a) bringing glucose and fructose together to form sucrose.
b) the release of water from sucrose as the bond between glucose and fructose is
broken.
c) breaking the bond between glucose and fructose and forming new bonds from the
atoms of water.
d) production of water from the sugar as bonds are broken between the glucose
monomers.
e) utilization of water as a covalent bond is formed between glucose and fructose to
form sucrase.
46. Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Catabolism is to
anabolism as ____ is to ____.
a) exergonic; spontaneous
b) exergonic; endergonic
c) free energy; entropy
d) work; energy
e) entropy; enthalpy
47. When you have a severe fever, what may be a grave consequence if this is not
controlled?
a) destruction of your enzymes' primary structure
b) removal of amine groups from your proteins
c) change in the folding of enzymes
d) removal of the amino acids in active sites
e) binding of enzymes to inappropriate substrates
48. If a modern electron microscope (TEM) can resolve biological images to the
nanometer level, as opposed to the best light microscope, this is due to which of the
following?
a) The focal length of the electron microscope is significantly longer.
b) Contrast is enhanced by staining with atoms of heavy metal.
c) Electron beams have much shorter wavelengths than visible light.
d) The electron microscope has much greater ratio of image size to real size.
e) The electron microscope cannot image whole cells at one time.
Refer to Figure 8.1 to answer the following questions.
Figure 8.1
49. Which curve represents the behavior of an enzyme taken from a bacterium that lives
in hot springs at temperatures of 70°C or higher?
a) curve 1
b) curve 2
c) curve 3
d) curve 4
e) curve 5
50. Which curve was most likely generated from analysis of an enzyme from a human
stomach where conditions are strongly acid?
a) curve 1
b) curve 2
c) curve 3
d) curve 4
e) curve 5
51. Zinc, an essential trace element for most organisms, is present in the active site of
the enzyme carboxypeptidase. The zinc most likely functions as a(n)
a) competitive inhibitor of the enzyme.
b) noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme.
c) allosteric activator of the enzyme.
d) cofactor necessary for enzyme activity.
e) coenzyme derived from a vitamin.
52. The main source of energy for producers in an ecosystem is
a) light energy.
b) kinetic energy.
c) thermal energy.
d) chemical energy.
e) ATP.
53. Reactants capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction must first
overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction's
a)entropy.
b) activation energy.
c) endothermic level.
d) heat content.
e) free-energy content.
Use the diagram of the U-tube in Figure 7.2 to answer the questions that follow.
The solutions in the two arms of this U-tube are separated by a membrane that is
permeable to water and glucose but not to sucrose. Side A is half filled with a solution of
2 M sucrose and 1 M glucose. Side B is half filled with 1 M sucrose and 2 M glucose.
Initially, the liquid levels on both sides are equal.
Figure 7.2
54. Initially, in terms of tonicity, the solution in side A with respect to that in side B is
a) hypotonic.
b) plasmolyzed.
c) isotonic.
d) saturated.
e) hypertonic.
55. A patient has had a serious accident and lost a lot of blood. In an attempt to
replenish body fluids, distilled water, equal to the volume of blood lost, is transferred
directly into one of his veins. What will be the most probable result of this transfusion?
a) It will have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of viruses and bacteria.
b) The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood fluid is hypotonic
compared to the cells.
c) The patient's red blood cells will swell because the blood fluid is hypotonic compared
to the cells.
d) The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood fluid is hypertonic
compared to the cells.
e) The patient's red blood cells will burst because the blood fluid is hypertonic compared
to the cells.
56. After the system reaches equilibrium, what changes are observed?
a) The molarity of sucrose and glucose are equal on both sides.
b) The molarity of glucose is higher in side A than in side B.
c) The water level is higher in side A than in side B.
d) The water level is unchanged.
e) The water level is higher in side B than in side A.
57. Which of the following processes includes all others?
a) osmosis
b) diffusion of a solute across a membrane
c) facilitated diffusion
d) passive transport
e) transport of an ion down its electrochemical gradient
The next questions are based on the following information.
A series of enzymes catalyze the reaction X ® Y ® Z ® A. Product A binds to the
enzyme that converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding
decreases the activity of the enzyme.
58. What is substance X?
a) a coenzyme
b) an allosteric inhibitor
c) a substrate
d) an intermediate
e) the product
59. Substance A functions as
a) a coenzyme.
b) an allosteric inhibitor.
c) the substrate.
d) an intermediate.
e) a competitive inhibitor.
60. When a molecule of NAD (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) gains a hydrogen
atom (not a hydrogen ion) the molecule becomes
a) hydrogenated.
b) oxidized.
c) reduced.
d) redoxed.
e) a reducing agent.
61. Buffers are substances that help resist shifts in pH by
a) releasing H in acidic solutions.
b) donating H to a solution when they have been depleted.
c) releasing OH in basic solutions.
d) accepting H when the are in excess.
e) Both B and D are correct.
62. Imagine looking through a microscope at a squashed onion root tip. The
chromosomes of many of the cells are plainly visible. In some cells, replicated
chromosomes are aligned along the center (equator) of the cell. These particular cells
are in which stage of mitosis?
a) telophase
b) prophase
c) anaphase
d) metaphase
e) prometaphase
63. Which of the following is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy?
a) a boy mowing grass
b) water rushing over Niagara Falls
c) a firefly using light flashes to attract a mate
d) a food molecule made up of energy-rich macromolecules
e) an insect foraging for food
64. Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink?
a) Molecular collisions in the drink increase.
b) Kinetic energy in the drink decreases.
c) A calorie of heat energy is transferred from the ice to the water of the drink.
d) The specific heat of the water in the drink decreases.
e) Evaporation of the water in the drink increases.
65. The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the
following structures is primarily involved in this process and therefore abundant in liver
cells?
a) rough ER
b) smooth ER
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Nuclear envelope
e) Transport vesicles
66. An organism with a cell wall would have the most difficulty doing which process?
a) diffusion
b) osmosis
c) active transport
d) phagocytosis
e) facilitated diffusion
67. What is a hypothesis?
a) the same thing as an unproven theory
b) a tentative explanation that can be tested and is falsifiable
c) a verifiable observation sensed directly, or sensed indirectly with the aid of scientific
instrumentation
d) a fact based on qualitative data that is testable
e) a fact based on quantitative data that is falsifiable
68. Research indicates that Ibuprofen, a drug used to relieve inflammation and pain, is a
mixture of two enantiomers; that is, molecules that
a) have identical three-dimensional shapes.
b) are mirror images of one another.
c) lack an asymmetric carbon.
d) differ in the location of their double bonds.
e) differ in their electrical charge.
69. Three or four of the following statements are true and correct. Which one, if any, is
false? If all the statements are true, choose answer E.
a) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen make up approximately 96% of living
matter.
b) The trace element iodine is required only in very small quantities by vertebrates.
c) Virtually all organisms require the same elements in the same quantities.
d) Iron is an example of an element needed by all organisms.
e) All of the other statements are true and correct.
70. Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show
fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle, are called
a) ATPases.
b) kinetochores.
c) centrioles.
d) proton pumps.
e) cyclins.
71. A controlled experiment is one in which
a) the experiment is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate.
b) the experiment proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully
observe all reactions and process all experimental data.
c) there are at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental
treatment.
d) there are at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables.
e) there is one group for which the scientist controls all variables.
72. In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in
a) cells with more than one nucleus.
b) cells that are unusually small.
c) cells lacking nuclei.
d) destruction of chromosomes.
e) cell cycles lacking an S phase.
73. Which of the following is not a theme that unifies biology?
a) interaction with the environment
b) emergent properties
c) evolution
d) reductionism
e) structure and function
74. Which type of organelle is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids,
and steroids?
a) ribosome
b) lysosome
c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d) mitochondrion
e) contractile vacuole
75. Besides turning enzymes on or off, what other means does a cell use to control
enzymatic activity?
a) cessation of all enzyme formation
b) compartmentalization of enzymes into defined organelles
c) exporting enzymes out of the cell
d) connecting enzymes into large aggregates
e) hydrophobic interactions
76. The molecule that functions as the reducing agent (electron donor) in a redox or
oxidation-reduction reaction
a) gains electrons and gains energy.
b) loses electrons and loses energy.
c) gains electrons and loses energy.
d) loses electrons and gains energy.
e) neither gains nor loses electrons, but gains or loses energy.
77. Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following
structures in animal cells?
a) peroxisomes
b) desmosomes
c) gap junctions
d) extracellular matrix
e) tight junctions
78. A biologist ground up some plant leaf cells and then centrifuged the mixture to
fractionate the organelles. Organelles in one of the heavier fractions could produce ATP
in the light, while organelles in the lighter fraction could produce ATP in the dark. The
heavier and lighter fractions are most likely to contain, respectively,
a) mitochondria and chloroplasts.
b) chloroplasts and peroxisomes.
c) peroxisomes and chloroplasts.
d) chloroplasts and mitochondria.
e) mitochondria and peroxisomes.
79. This is the shortest part of the cell cycle:
a) GO
b) G1
c) S
d) G2
e) M
80. When biologists wish to study the internal ultrastructure of cells, they most likely
would use
a) a light microscope.
b) a scanning electron microscope.
c) a transmission electronic microscope.
d) A and B
e) B and C
81. The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to
a)yield energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the respiratory chain.
b) act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water.
c) combine with carbon, forming .
d) combine with lactate, forming pyruvate.
e) catalyze the reactions of glycolysis.
82. What would be an unexpected consequence of changing one amino acid in a
protein consisting of 325 amino acids?
a) The primary structure of the protein would be changed.
b) The tertiary structure of the protein might be changed.
c) The biological activity or function of the protein might be altered.
d) Only A and C are correct.
e) A, B, and C are correct.
83. Chromosomes first become visible during which phase of mitosis?
a) prometaphase
b) telophase
c) prophase
d) metaphase
e) anaphase
84. The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that
a) light microscopy provides for higher magnification than electron microscopy.
b) light microscopy provides for higher resolving power than electron microscopy.
c) light microscopy allows one to view dynamic processes in living cells.
d) A and B
e) B and C
85. Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the
ATP formed during glycolysis?
a) 0%
b) 2%
c) 10%
d) 38%
e) 100%
86. Which of the following is true of the evolution of cell membranes?
a) Cell membranes have stopped evolving now that they are fluid mosaics.
b) Cell membranes cannot evolve if proteins do not.
c) The evolution of cell membranes is driven by the evolution of glycoproteins and
glycolipids.
d) As populations of organisms evolve, different properties of their cell membranes are
selected for or against.
e) An individual organism selects its preferred type of cell membrane for particular
functions.
87. Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?
a) condensation of the chromosomes
b) replication of the DNA
c) separation of sister chromatids
d) spindle formation
e) separation of the spindle poles
88. Compared with 31P, the radioactive isotope 32P has
a) a different atomic number.
b) one more neutron.
c) one more proton.
d) one more electron.
e) a different charge.
89. Each time a molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) is completely oxidized via aerobic
respiration, how many oxygen molecules (O2) are required?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 6
d) 12
e) 38
90. A particular cell has half as much DNA as some other cells in a mitotically active
tissue. The cell in question is most likely in
a) G1
b) G2
c) prophase.
d) metaphase.
e) anaphase.
91. Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells?
a) the evolution of larger cells after the evolution of smaller cells
b) the difference in plasma membranes between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
c) the evolution of eukaryotes after the evolution of prokaryotes
d) the need for a surface area of sufficient area to allow the cell's function
e) the observation that longer cells usually have greater cell volume
92. An animal cell lacking oligosaccharides on the external surface of its plasma
membrane would likely be impaired in which function?
a) transporting ions against an electrochemical gradient
b) cell-cell recognition
c) maintaining fluidity of the phospholipid bilayer
d) attaching to the cytoskeleton
e) establishing the diffusion barrier to charged molecules
93. Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and
animals is that in plants
a) the spindles contain microfibrils in addition to microtubules, whereas animal spindles
do not contain microfibrils.
b) sister chromatids are identical, but they differ from one another in animals.
c) a cell plate begins to form at telophase, whereas in animals a cleavage furrow is
initiated at that stage.
d) chromosomes become attached to the spindle at prophase, whereas in animals
chromosomes do not become attached until anaphase.
e) spindle poles contain centrioles, whereas spindle poles in animals do not.
94. How many molecules of water are needed to completely hydrolyze a polymer that is
11 monomers long?
a) 12
b) 11
c) 10
d) 9
e) 8
95. Under which of the following conditions would you expect to find a cell with a
predominance of free ribosomes?
a) a cell that is secreting proteins
b) a cell that is producing cytoplasmic enzymes
c) a cell that is constructing its cell wall or extracellular matrix
d) a cell that is digesting food particles
e) a cell that is enlarging its vacuole
The following questions refer to the molecules shown in Figure 4.7.
Figure 4.7
96. Which molecule has a carbonyl functional group in the form of a ketone?
97. Which molecule is an alcohol?
98. Which molecule contains a carboxyl group?
Read the following information and refer to Figure 7.4 to answer the following questions.
Five dialysis bags, constructed from a semi-permeable membrane that is impermeable
to sucrose, were filled with various concentrations of sucrose and then placed in
separate beakers containing an initial concentration of 0.6 M sucrose solution. At 10minute intervals, the bags were massed (weighed) and the percent change in mass of
each bag was graphed.
Figure 7.4
99. Which line or lines represent(s) bags that contain a solution that is hypertonic at the
end of 60 minutes?
A) A and B
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) D and E
100. Which line represents the bag that contained a solution isotonic to the 0.6 molar
solution at the beginning of the experiment?
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
ANS: C
25.
ANS: C
2.
ANS: A
26.
ANS: E
3.
ANS: B
27.
ANS: B
4.
ANS: B
28.
ANS: A
5.
ANS: B
29.
ANS: B
6.
ANS: D
30.
ANS: E
7.
ANS: D
31.
ANS: E
8.
ANS: A
32.
ANS: B
9.
ANS: C
33.
ANS: B
10.
ANS: C
34.
ANS: D
11.
ANS: B
35.
ANS: D
12.
ANS: E
36.
ANS: B
13.
ANS: E
37.
ANS: D
14.
ANS: B
38.
ANS: C
15.
ANS: A
39.
ANS: E
16.
ANS: B
40.
ANS: E
17.
ANS: A
41.
ANS: B
18.
ANS: C
42.
ANS: C
19.
ANS: E
43.
ANS: E
20.
ANS: A
44.
ANS: D
21.
ANS: A
45.
ANS: C
22.
ANS: A
46.
ANS: B
23.
ANS: D
47.
ANS: C
24.
ANS: D
48.
ANS: C
49.
ANS: C
73.
ANS: D
50.
ANS: D
74.
ANS: C
51.
ANS: D
75.
ANS: B
52.
ANS: A
76.
ANS: B
53.
ANS: B
77.
ANS: C
54.
ANS: C
78.
ANS: D
55.
ANS: C
79.
ANS: E
56.
ANS: C
80.
ANS: C
57.
ANS: D
81.
ANS: B
58.
ANS: C
82.
ANS: E
59.
ANS: B
83.
ANS: C
60.
ANS: C
84.
ANS: C
61.
ANS: E
85.
ANS: E
62.
ANS: D
86.
ANS: D
63.
ANS: D
87.
ANS: B
64.
ANS: B
88.
ANS: B
65.
ANS: B
89.
ANS: C
66.
ANS: D
90.
ANS: A
67.
ANS: B
91.
ANS: D
68.
ANS: B
92.
ANS: B
69.
ANS: C
93.
ANS: C
70.
ANS: E
94.
ANS: C
71.
ANS: C
95.
ANS: B
72.
ANS: A
96.
ANS: C
97.
ANS: A
98.
ANS: D
99.
ANS: B
100.
ANS: C