Download Exam 4 review questions

A gastrovascular cavity…

Is found in cnidarians and
annelids

Functions in both digestion and
distribution of nutrients

Has a single opening for
ingestion and elimination, but a
separate opening for gas
exchange

All of the above
Which of the following is NOT a similarity
between open and closed circulatory systems?

Some sort of pumping device
helps to move blood through the
body

Some of the circulation of blood
is a result of movements of the
body

The blood and interstitial fluid
are distinguishable from each
other

All tissues come into close
contact with the circulating body
fluid so that the exchange of
nutrients and wastes can take
place
A heartbeat in humans is
initiated by the

SA node

AV node

Superior and inferior vena cavae

None of the above
If all the body’s capillaries
were open at one time…

Blood pressure would fall
dramatically

Resistance to blood flow would
increase

Blood would move too rapidly
through the capillary beds

The amount of blood returning
to the heart would increase
Fibrinogen is…

A blood protein that escorts
lipids through the circulatory
system

A cell fragment involved in the
blood clotting mechanism

A blood protein that is converted
to fibrin to form a blood clot

Both B and C
In countercurrent
exchange…

The flow of fluids in opposite
directions maintains a favorable
diffusion gradient along the
length of an exchange surface

Oxygen is exchanged for carbon
dioxide

Double circulation keeps
oxygenated and deoxygenated
blood separate

The capillaries of the lung pick
up more oxygen than do tissue
capillaries
In which vessel would blood
pressure be the highest?

Vena cava

Pulmonary vein

Right atrium

Aorta
In which vessel would velocity
of blood flow be the lowest?

Left ventricle

Pulmonary capillaries

Pulmonary vein

Vena cava
Of these structures, which would
have the thickest muscle layer?

Aorta

Right atrium

Left ventricle

Vena cava
The nurse tells you that your blood pressure
is 112/70. What does the 70 refer to?

Your heart rate

The velocity of blood during
diastole

The systolic pressure from
ventricular contraction

The diastolic pressure from the
recoil of the arteries
Which of the following is incorrectly
paired with its effect?

Gastric juice – kills bacteria in
the stomach

Histamine – Causes blood
vessels to dialate

Vaccination – creates passive
immunity

Lysozyme – attacks cell walls of
bacteria
Antibodies are…

Proteins embedded in T-cell
membranes

Proteins circulating in the blood
that tag foreign cells for
destruction

Proteins that consist of two light
and two heavy polypeptide
chains

B and C are both correct
A secondary immune response is more rapid and greater in
effect than a primary immune response because…

Memory cells respond to the
pathogen and rapidly clone more
effector cells

Chemical signals cause the rapid
accumulation of phagocytic cells

Helper T-cells are available to
activate other blood cells

The secondary response is an
active immunity, whereas the
primary one was a passive
immunity
A transfusion of type B blood given to a person
who has type A blood would result in

The recipient's anti-B antibodies
reacting with the donated red
blood cells

The recipient’s B antigens
reacting with the donated anti-B
antibodies

The recipient forming both antiA and anti-B antibodies

No reaction, because B is a
universal donor type of blood
Which of the following destroys
a target cell by phagocytosis?

Neutrophil

Cytotoxic T-cell

Natural Killer cell

Plasma cells
Clonal selection is
responsible for the…

Recognition of class I MHC
molecules by cytotoxic T-cells

Proliferation of clones of
effector and memory cells
specific for an encountered
antigen

Rearrangement of antibody
genes for the light and heavy
chains

Formation of cell cultures in the
commercial production of
monoclonal antibodies
All of the following are involved
with innate immunity except…

Plasma cells

Chemicals that attract
phagocytes

Antimicrobial proteins such as
lysozymes

The inflammatory response
Helper T-cells play which of the following roles
in an acquired immune response?

Present antigens of an engulfed
pathogen in its class II MHC
molecules to B-cells, which are
then stimulated to develop into a
clone of plasma cells.

Produce interferons and
histamines that help initiate a
specialized inflammatory
response

Activate both the humoral and
cell-mediated immunities by
releasing cytokines after
recognizing class II MHC
molecule-antigen complexes on
an antigen-presenting cell.

Bind to class I MHC molecules
and activate complement
proteins to attack and lyse
cancer cells
What accounts for the huge diversity of
antigens to which B cells can respond?

The antibody genes have
millions of alleles

The rearrangement of the
antibody genes during
development results in millions
of possible combinations of
randomly combined light and
heavy polypeptide chains

The antigen-binding sites at the
arms of the molecule can
assume a huge diversity of
shapes in response to the specific
antigen encountered

B cells have thousands of copies
of antibodies bound to their
plasma membranes
A freshwater fish would be
expected to…

Pump salt out through salt
glands in the gills

Produce copious quantities of
dilute urine

Diffuse urea across the
epithelium of the gills

Have scales that reduce water
loss to the environment
Which is the correct pathway for the
passage of urine in vertebrates?

Collecting tubule—Ureter—
bladder--urethra

Renal vein—renal ureter—
bladder--urethra

Nephron—urethra—bladder-ureter

Cortex—medulla—bladder-ureter
The process of reabsorption in the
formation of urine ensures that…

Excess H+ is removed from the
blood

Drugs and other poisons are
removed from the blood

Urine is always hyperosmotic to
interstitial fluid

Glucose, salts, and water are
returned to the blood
What is the mechanism for the
filtration of blood within the nephron?

The active transport of Na+ and
glucose, followed by osmosis

Both active and passive secretion
of ions, toxins, and NH3 into the
tubule

High hydrostatic pressure of the
blood forcing water and small
molecules out of the capillary

A lower osmotic pressure in
bowman’s capsule compared to
that in the glomerulus
Which of the following hormones is
incorrectly paired with its origins?

Releasing hormones hypothalamus

Growth hormone – anterior
pituitary

Progestins - ovary

TSH - Thyroid
Which of the following is an example
of a positive feedback mechanism?

The liver’s production of insulinlike growth factors in response to
growth hormone, which
promote skeletal growth

The ability of the
neurotransmitter acetylcholine
to cause skeletal muscle to
contract, heart muscle to relax,
and cells of the adrenal medulla
to secrete epinephrine.

Prostaglandins released from
placental cells promoting muscle
contraction during childbirth,
with muscle contractions
stimulating more prostaglandin
release

The action of secretin on the
pancreas, stimulating the release
of bicarbonate
Ecdysone…

Is a steroid hormone produced
in insects that promotes
retention of larval characteristics

Is involved in metamorphosis in
amphibians

Is a hormone secreted from
specialized neurons that triggers
the formation of a pupa

Is secreted by prothoracic glands
in insects and triggers molts and
development of adult
characteristics
The anterior pituitary…

Stores oxytocin and ADH
produced by the hypothalamus

Receives releasing and inhibiting
hormones from the
hypothalamus through portal
vessels connecting capillary beds

Produces several releasing and
inhibiting hormones

Is responsible for nervous and
hormonal stimulation of the
adrenal glands
Which of the following hormones is not involved
with increasing the blood glucose concentration?

glucagon

epinephrine

glucocorticoids

insulin
Which of the following is not
true of norephinephrine?

It is secreted by the adrenal
medulla

It serves as a neurotransmitter

It is part of the fight-or-flight
response

All of the above
The function of the corpus
luteum is to…

Nourish and protect the egg cell

Produce progesterone and
estradiol

Produce estradiol and
disintegrate following ovulation

Maintain pregnancy by
production of human
gonadotropin
Which of the following hormones is
incorrectly paired with its function?

Androgens – responsible for
primary and secondary male sex
characteristics

Oxytocin – stimulates uterine
contractions during birth

Estradiol – responsible for
secondary female sex
characteristics

FSH – acts on sertoli cells that
nourish sperm, promoting
spermatogenesis
How does meiosis differ in the
production of human sperm and ova?

Each meiototic division
produces four sperm but only
two ova

Meiosis occurs in the testes of
males but in the oviducts of
females

Primary oocytes stop dividing by
mitosis before birth, whereas
male stem cells continue to
divide throughout life

Meiosis is an uninterrupted
process in males, whereas it
resumes when a follicle matures
and is only completed in human
females when a sperm penetrates
the egg cell.
In what location does fertilization
usually take place in a human female?

Ovary

Oviduct

Uterus

Cervix
Which hormone stimulates ovulation and
the development of the corpus luteum?

LH

FSH

hCG

Progesterone
Which hormone is produced by the
developing follicle?

Estradiol

Progesterone

LH

FSH
Which hormone is produced by by the embryo
and is necessary for maintaining a pregnancy?

LH

FSH

Progesterone

hCG
Which hormone is produced by the corpus luteum and later by
the placenta and is responsible for maintaining a pregnancy?

Estradiol

progesterone

LH

FSH
Which of the following is/are involved in
triggering and maintaining labor?

hCG produced by the fetus

Oxytocin produced by fetus and
mother, and prostaglandins
produced by the placenta

A drop in progesterone caused
by the disintegration of the
corpus luteum

Prolactin produced by the fetus
and mother
Which of the following is not true of the
resting potential of a typical neuron?

The inside of the cell is more
negative than the outside

There are concentration
gradients with more sodium
outside the cell and a higher
potassium concentration inside
the cell

It is formed by the sequential
opening of voltage-gated
channels

It results from the combined
equilibrium potentials of
potassium and sodium.
After the depolarization of an action potential, the
fall in the membrane potential occurs due to the…

Closing of sodium inactivation
gates

Closing of potassium and
sodium channels

Refractory period in which the
membrane is hyperpolarized

Opening of voltage-gated
potassium channels and the
closing of sodium inactivation
gates.
Which of the following is
incorrectly paired with its function?

Axon hillock – region of neuron
where action potential originates

Schwann cells – create myelin
sheath around axon

Synapse – space between
presynaptic and post-synaptic
cell into which neurotransmitter
is released

Synaptic terminal – receptor that
is part of an ion channel that is
keyed to a specific
neurotransmitter
How is an increase in the strength of a
stimulus communicated by a neuron?

The spike of the action potential
reaches a higher voltage

The frequency of action
potentials generated along the
neuron increases

The length of an action potential
increases

All action potentials are the
same the nervous system cannot
discriminate between different
strengths of stimuli.
Why is signal transmission
faster in myelinated axons?

These axons are thinner, and
there is less resistance to the
voltage flow.

These axons use electrical
synapses rather than chemical
synapses

The action potential can jump
from node to node along the
insulating myelin sheath.

These axons are thicker and
provide less resistance to voltage
flow.