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Organismal Biology Biol 1030 B & D, Final Exam
Fall 2009, Steven M. Thompson
1. An acid:
A. Is a chemical that takes hydrogen ions from a solution, and has a value above seven on the pH scale
B. Is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution, and has a value below seven on the pH scale
C. Is a chemical that doesn’t change the hydrogen ions in a solution, and has a value of seven on the pH scale
D. Is a chemical that causes hallucinations
E. Is a chemical that all other chemicals are based upon
2. A base:
A. Is a chemical that takes hydrogen ions from a solution, and has a value above seven on the pH scale
B. Is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution, and has a value below seven on the pH scale
C. Is a chemical that doesn’t change the hydrogen ions in a solution, and has a value of seven on the pH scale
D. Is a chemical that causes hallucinations
E. Is a chemical that all other chemicals are based upon
3. A covalent bond is a bond:
A. Formed by atoms of opposite charge attracting one another
B. Formed by atoms that share electrons
C. Formed by the interaction of a hydrogen atom and another electronegative atom
D. That is a strong bond, except in the presence of water
E. That is a weak bond
4. If a covalent bond is polar:
A. Electrons are not shared by atoms
B. Protons are shared by atoms
C. One of the atoms has a partial negative charge
D. The bond is not important to living cells
E. The bond is not a strong bond
5. An ionic bond is a bond:
A. Formed by atoms of opposite charge attracting one another
B. Formed by atoms that share electrons
C. Formed by the interaction of a hydrogen atom and another electronegative atom
D. That is a weak bond, except in the presence of water
E. That is not important to living cells
6. The primary building block (monomer) of proteins is:
A. A glucose molecule
B. A fatty acid
C. A nucleotide
D. An amino acid
E. Four interconnected rings
7. The primary building block (monomer) of nucleic acids is:
A. A glucose molecule
B. A fatty acid
C. A nucleotide
D. An amino acid
E. Four interconnected rings
8. The four nitrogenous bases found in RNA are:
A. Adenine, thymine, guanine and uracil
B. Adenine, thymine, cytosine and uracil
C. Thymine, cytosine, guanine and uracil
D. Adenine, cytosine, guanine and uracil
E. Alanine, cysteine, glycine and threonine
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9. A eukaryotic cell:
A. Has membrane-bounded organelles
B. Has a cell wall with peptidoglycan
C. Is usually smaller than a prokaryotic cell
D. Does not have membrane-bounded organelles
E. Does not usually have a nucleus
10. The three domains of life in the Woese system of classification are:
A. Monera, Bacteria and Eukarya
B. Archaea, Bacteria and Eukarya
C. Fungi, Protista and Animalia
D. Archaea, Eukarya and Protista
E. Monera, Bacteria and Eukarya
11. The theory of endosymbiosis is strengthened by the fact that:
A. The knowledge that chloroplasts and mitochondria have their own DNA very similar to bacterial DNA
B. The knowledge that ribosomes are structures found in all life
C. The knowledge that nuclei are structures only found in Eukarya
D. The knowledge that cell membranes are structures found in all life
E. Endosymbiosis is false – all evidence points at its contradiction
12. Which item does not pertain to chloroplasts?
A. They have their own DNA
B. They are the product of an endosymbiotic event
C. They occur in plants and some protists
D. They carry out photosynthesis to produce glucose
E. They extract energy in the form of ATP from nutrients
13. Which item does not pertain to mitochondria?
A. They have their own DNA
B. They are the product of an endosymbiotic event
C. They occur in plants and some protists
D. They carry out photosynthesis to produce glucose
E. They extract energy in the form of ATP from nutrients
14. Enzymes speed chemical reactions by:
A. Lowering the amount of reactants that are needed
B. Maintaining chemical equilibrium
C. Lowering the energy required to activate a chemical reaction
D. Raising the temperature of the surroundings
E. By supplying energy to the reaction process
15. Competitive inhibition of enzymes:
A. Occurs when a substance binds to an enzyme at a site away from the active site
B. Occurs when a substance other than the substrate binds at the active site of an enzyme
C. Occurs when one enzyme shames another enzyme into inhibition
D. Is never used to regulate the metabolism of the cell
E. Can not be initiated with drugs
16. Noncompetitive inhibition of enzymes:
A. Occurs when a substance binds to an enzyme at a site away from the active site
B. Occurs when a substance other than the substrate binds at the active site of an enzyme
C. Occurs when one enzyme shames another enzyme into inhibition
D. Is never used to regulate the metabolism of the cell
E. Can not be initiated with drugs
17. Oxidation means:
A. The gain of oxygen by a cell
B. The loss of oxygen by a cell
C. The gain of electrons by a molecule
D. The loss of electrons from a molecule
E. The loss of water from a molecule
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18. Reduction means:
A. The gain of oxygen by a cell
B. The loss of oxygen from a cell
C. The gain of electrons by a molecule
D. The loss of electrons by a molecule
E. The gain of water to a molecule
19. The sole source of ATP production in cells only using fermentation is:
A. Glycolysis
B. Kreb's cycle
C. Photosynthesis
D. Electron transport
E. The Calvin cycle
20. The electron transport chain produces a(n) _____________ gradient:
A. Electron
B. Proton
C. ATP
D. NADH
E. Oxygen
21. In Eukaryotes the Kreb’s cycle and the electron transport system occurs in the:
A. Mitochondria
B. Lysosome
C. Nucleus
D. Cytoplasm
E. Ribosome
22. The reactants (things that go in) for cellular respiration are:
A. Glucose and ATP
B. Water and ATP
C. Oxygen and ATP
D. Carbon dioxide and glucose
E. Glucose and oxygen
23. The products (things that come out) of cellular respiration are:
A. Glucose, water and ATP
B. Glucose, carbon dioxide and ATP
C. Oxygen, ATP and water
D. Carbon dioxide, water and ATP
E. Carbon dioxide, glucose and water
24. Photosystem I and photosystem II are respectively part of:
A. The light reactions and the carbon (a.k.a. light-independent) reactions
B. The light-independent reactions and the Calvin cycle
C. The Calvin cycle and the Hobbes reaction
D. The light reactions only
E. The Calvin cycle only
25. The two stages of photosynthesis are:
A. The light reactions and the carbon (a.k.a. light-independent) reactions
B. The light-independent reactions and the Calvin cycle
C. The Calvin cycle and the Hobbes reaction
D. The light reactions only
E. The Calvin cycle only
26. Leaves appear green because:
A. Most of the wavelengths of green light are absorbed by chlorophyll
B. Most of the wavelengths of green light are absorbed by carotenoids
C. Most of the wavelengths of green light are reflected by chlorophyll
D. Most of the wavelengths of green light are reflected by carotenoids
E. That’s the only wavelength we can detect
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27. The energy source for the process of photosynthesis is:
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Chlorophyll
D. Glucose
E. Sunlight
28. The main product of the carbon reactions is:
A. NADPH
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Oxygen
D. ATP
E. Glucose
29. A sequence of DNA nucleotides coding for a specific protein or RNA molecule is a:
A. Gene
B. Genome
C. Chromosome
D. All of the above are correct
E. None of the above are correct
30. Which phrase does not belong? The polymerase chain reaction:
A. Is used to amplify minute quantities of DNA into enough to analyze with sequencing techniques
B. Can be used to identify missing persons or identify body parts
C. Can be used to identify disease-causing microbes
D. Can be used on any random piece of unknown DNA
E. Requires a pair of laboratory made primers of a known sequence
31. One of two identical copies of a replicated chromosome attached by the centromere defines the term:
A. Centromere
B. Chromatin
C. Chromosome
D. Chromatid
E. Nucleosome
32. A cell with two full sets of chromosomes would be termed a _______________ cell.
A. Haploid
B. Diploid
C. Sister
D. Somatic
E. Germ
33. The splitting of a cell into two daughter cells in the overall cell cycle is:
A. Mitosis
B. Interphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Cytokinesis
34. The division of the nucleus during the overall cell cycle is:
A. Mitosis
B. Interphase
C. Synthesis
D. Cytokinesis
E. Replication
35. The replication of DNA during the overall cell cycle occurs during:
A. Mitosis
B. Interphase
C. Cytokinesis
D. Prophase
E. Telophase
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36. The correct sequence for the phases of mitosis is:
A. Interphase - prophase - telophase - metaphase - anaphase
B. Interphase - metaphase - anaphase - prophase - telophase
C. Prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase
D. Anaphase - prophase - metaphase - telophase
E. Prophase - anaphase - telophase - metaphase
37. The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes are aligned along the equator of the cell is:
A. Prophase
B. Prometaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase
38. The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes condense and centrosomes move to opposite poles of the cell is:
A. Prophase
B. Prometaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase
39. Meiosis is a process that produces:
A. Haploid sperm or egg gametes
B. Diploid somatic cells
C. Diploid sperm or egg gametes
D. Haploid somatic cells
E. Nothing
40. The process by which a bacterium uses a sex pilus to transfer genetic information to another bacterium is:
A. Parthenogenesis
B. Conjugation
C. Apomixis
D. Mitosis
E. Replication
41. A zygote is:
A. A haploid cell
B. The haploid product of fertilization
C. The diploid product of fertilization
D. A product of meiosis
E. A product of mitosis
42. In meiosis, DNA replicates during:
A. Prophase one
B. Prophase two
C. Interphase one
D. Interphase two
E. Metaphase two
43. In meiosis, homologous chromosomes (not sister chromatids) separate during:
A. Prophase one
B. Prophase two
C. Metaphase one
D. Anaphase one
E. Anaphase two
44. If the two alleles for a particular gene are identical the gene pair is:
A. Homologous
B. Heterozygous
C. Homozygous
D. Dominant
E. Recessive
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45. Mendel's monohybrid cross of "Tt" parents resulted in a tall to short ratio of:
A. 9:3:3:1
B. 4:1
C. 3:1
D. 2:1
E. 1:1
46. If any of the traits that Mendel worked with had been due to linked genes, his dihybrid crosses:
A. Would have had different results
B. Would have produced more offspring
C. Would have produced less offspring
D. Would have exhibited a typical phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1
E. Would have produced sterile offspring
47. A dihybrid cross of linked genes theoretically gives a phenotypic ratio:
A. Of 9:3:3:1
B. Of 1:1
C. Of 2:1
D. Of 3:1
E. That is the same as that for genes that are not linked
48. To inherit an autosomal dominant disorder requires a person to receive the disease causing allele from:
A. The father only, not the mother
B. The mother only, not the father
C. Only the parent who does not exhibit the disease
D. Only the parent having the disease
E. Both parents
49. To inherit an autosomal recessive disorder requires a person to receive the disease causing allele from:
A. The father only, not the mother
B. The mother only, not the father
C. Only the parent who does not exhibit the disease
D. Only the parent having the disease
E. Both parents
50. The "Central Dogma" of biology refers to the flow of:
A. Genetic information in cells from DNA to RNA to protein
B. Genetic information in cells from RNA to DNA
C. Genetic information in cells from protein to RNA
D. Genetic information in cells from atoms to molecules to protein
E. Genetic information in cells from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
51. The type of RNA that carries the information that specifies a protein is:
A. Messenger RNA
B. Transfer RNA
C. Ribosomal RNA
D. MicroRNA
E. Small nuclear RNA
52. The type of RNA that carries each amino acid to the ribosome is:
A. Messenger RNA
B. Transfer RNA
C. Ribosomal RNA
D. MicroRNA
E. Small nuclear RNA
53. The process used by cells to convert the mRNA "message" into a sequence of amino acids is:
A. Transcription
B. Translation
C. Replication
D. Mitosis
E. Meiosis
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54. A three base sequence (loop) in tRNA that is complementary to a sequence of three bases in mRNA is:
A. An anticodon
B. A codon
C. A promoter
D. A terminator
E. An amino acid attachment site
55. A tRNA molecule is "bilingual" because it binds to:
A. Amino acids and DNA
B. DNA and mRNA codons
C. Codons of mRNA and amino acids
D. Promoters and amino acids
E. Promoters and terminators
56. A group of genes and other segments of DNA in Bacteria that are controlled together is:
A. A proteome
B. A chromosome
C. A ribosome
D. An operon
E. A replication fork
57. Proteins that initiate transcription in eukaryotes by recognizing sequences within the promoter region of a gene and
attracting RNA polymerase are:
A. Repressors
B. Transcription factors
C. Inducers
D. TATA boxes
E. Poly A Tails
58. In a "missense" (nonsynonymous) mutation in an exon:
A. The substitution in the codon does not cause a change in the amino acid specified
B. The substitution in the codon causes a change in the amino acid specified
C. The substitution in the codon causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an amino acid
D. The codon is changed by the insertion of a nucleotide
E. The codon is changed by the deletion of a nucleotide
59. In a "silent" (synonymous) mutation that occurs in an exon:
A. The substitution in the codon does not cause a change in the amino acid specified
B. The substitution in the codon causes a change in the amino acid specified
C. The substitution in the codon causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an amino acid
D. The codon is changed by the insertion of a nucleotide
E. The codon is changed by the deletion of a nucleotide
60. A "frameshift" mutation:
A. May be caused by an addition or deletion of any number of nucleotides (bases) not in multiples of three
B. May be caused by a substitution of any number of nucleotides (bases) not in multiples of three
C. Maintains the reading frame of a gene
D. Usually does not hurt a protein's ability to function
E. Can never happen
61. The part of a plant that is the stalk-like support for a leaf is the:
A. Petiole
B. Node
C. Internode
D. Blade
E. Companion cell
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62. An embryonic leaf of a plant is a:
A. Petiole
B. Cotyledon
C. Rhizoid
D. Sepal
E. Tracheoid
63. Which of the following is not an edible reproductive part of a plant?
A. Broccoli
B. Tomato
C. Corn
D. Celery
E. Walnut
64. The cells that surround each stoma and control its opening and closing are:
A. Sieve tube cells
B. Vascular cells
C. Guard cells
D. Companion cells
E. Pith cells
65. Most carnivorous plants use their prey as a primary source of:
A. Nitrogen
B. Energy
C. Carbon
D. Magnesium
E. Potassium
66. Most all plants are:
A. Heterotrophs
B. Autotrophs
C. Chemolithotrophs
D. Photoheterotroph
E. Saprotrophs
67. Which of the following is not an element taken in primarily by the roots of the plant?
A. Carbon
B. Nitrogen
C. Magnesium
D. Phosphorous
E. Zinc
68. The bacterium Rhizobium:
A. Causes disease in humans
B. Live in ruminant herbivores’ guts assisting with cellulose digestion
C. Live symbiotically within legume root nodules fixing N2 into ammonia in the process
D. Live in hydrothermal vent communities in the deep ocean
E. Is used to produce antibiotics
69. The products of photosynthesis (sugar) move from the leaf to other parts of the plant via the:
A. Xylem
B. Phloem
C. Stomata
D. Cambium
E. Cuticle
70. The ________________ transports water and dissolved minerals from the roots of the plant to the shoots of the plant.
A. Xylem
B. Phloem
C. Stomata
D. Cambium
E. Cuticle
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71. If water is scarce a plant's guard cells will ______________ and the stomata will _________________.
A. Swell, close
B. Collapse, close
C. Collapse, open
D. Swell, open
E. Die, open
72. The adaptation to which angiosperms owe their widespread distribution are:
A. The production of cones
B. The production of hyphae
C. The production of flowers
D. The production of spores
E. The production of sporangium
73. Whorl three, also called the stamen, of a flower is made up of:
A. The female parts of a flower
B. The male parts of a flower
C. The sepals
D. The petals
E. The stem region
74. Whorl four, also called the carpel, of a flower is made up of:
A. The female reproductive parts of a flower
B. The male reproductive parts of a flower
C. The sepals
D. The petals
E. The stem region
75. The portion of a flower that receives the pollen is the:
A. Stigma
B. Style
C. Anther
D. Ovary
E. Sepal
76. The part of the brain that is responsible for homeostatic control of most organs is the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Hypothalamus
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Pons
E. Cerebrum
77. A common light-sensitive pigment that absorbs light and changes shape thereby altering the charge across the
membrane of a photoreceptor is:
A. Rhodopsin
B. Chlorophyll
C. Carotene
D. Glutamate
E. Tyrosine
78. The part of the eye that regulates the size of the opening for light coming into the eye is the:
A. Cornea
B. Pupil
C. Iris
D. Cone
E. Lens
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79. The part of the eye that focuses light onto a sheet of photoreceptors is the:
A. Cone
B. Pupil
C. Retina
D. Iris
E. Lens
80. A deficiency of iodine in the diet can cause the medical condition known as:
A. Hepatitis
B. Acromegaly
C. Diabetes
D. Goiter
E. Osteoporosis
81. Insulin is not:
A. Used to treat Type II (adult onset) diabetes mellitus
B. Produced by the pancreas
C. Produced by beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans
D. Involved in control of blood sugar levels
E. A hormone
82. Red marrow:
A. Is primarily found in the liver
B. Is primarily found in the brain
C. Is found in compact bone
D. Is where nerve cells are produced
E. Is where blood cells are produced
83. Ligaments are connective tissues that connect _______________ to _________________.
A. Muscle, bone
B. Tendons, bone
C. Muscle, muscle
D. Bone, bone
E. Cartilage, bone
84. The pair of major blood vessels that deliver deoxygenated blood from the body (except the lungs) to the right atrium
are the:
A. Pulmonary vein and inferior vena cava
B. Inferior vena cava and superior vena cava
C. Superior vena cava and pulmonary vein
D. Aorta and inferior vena cava
E. Aorta and superior vena cava
85. The chamber of the heart that is the most powerful is the:
A. Left atrium
B. Right atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left ventricle
E. All chambers of the heart have equal forces of contraction
86. The blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the heart muscle is the:
A. Coronary artery
B. Aorta
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Superior vena cava
E. Inferior vena cava
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87. The major blood vessel that delivers oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart is the:
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary vein
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Superior vena cava
E. Aorta
88. The huge blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body (except the lungs) is the:
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary vein
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Superior vena cava
E. Aorta
89. At the capillaries, ___________ leaves red blood cells and _____________ enters the circulation.
A. Oxygen, carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen, oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide, oxygen
D. Carbon dioxide, nitrogen
E. Sodium, oxygen
90. The small air sacs of the lungs where gas diffusion occurs between air and capillaries are the:
A. Bronchioles
B. Arterioles
C. Spiracles
D. Alveoli
E. Uvula
91. In herbivores, cellulose is primarily broken down:
A. By powerful digestive enzymes produced by the herbivores’ stomach and intestinal glands
B. By powerful digestive enzymes produced by the herbivores’ salivary glands
C. By protists, Fungi, Bacteria, and Archaea living within the herbivores’ gut
D. By parasitic worms living within the herbivore
E. By nothing — it passes through undigested
92. A bulb-like capillary bed within the kidney that is used to collect blood that needs to be filtered is the:
A. Collecting duct
B. Renal medulla
C. Renal cortex
D. Glomerulus
E. Renal pelvis
93. Physical and chemical barriers that form the first line of innate defense do not include:
A. The acidity of the stomach
B. Tear fluid from the eye
C. An un-punctured skin
D. Mucus and cilia of the respiratory tract
E. Antibody production
94. Lymphocytes can produce millions of different types of antibodies because of a process termed:
A. Meiotic variation
B. Gene shuffling or recombination
C. Crossing over
D. Clonal deletion
E. Conjugation
95. The primary "antigen presenting cell" that engulfs and dismantles invaders to present an antigen on its surface is a:
A. Macrophage
B. B cell
C. T cell
D. Platelet
E. Erythrocyte
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96. In humoral immunity:
A. Defensive cells attack and kill invading agents by direct cell to cell contact
B. Cytotoxic T cells destroy virus-infected cells
C. Antigens initiate the production of antibodies and the particular antigen is ‘memorized’
D. Nonspecific, rapid, broad-spectrum defenses are launched
E. The primary response is much faster and stronger than the secondary response
97. The stage of animal development in which the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm form is the:
A. Zygote
B. Embryonic stage
C. Morula
D. Gastrula
E. Fetal Stage
98. In the California Department of Agriculture video on genetic engineering we saw many interesting uses of the
technology. Which of the following is not true?
A. Human insulin has been produced through genetic engineering for many decades
B. Rennin, an important enzyme in the manufacture of cheese is now made through genetic engineering
C. Genetic engineered crops reduce the use of insecticides and the amount of tillage required on fields
D. Labeling of genetically modified foods is always required by federal agencies in the USA
E. A predominant use of genetic engineering on crops is to insert a bacterial gene for a chemical toxic to certain insects
99. What did you fill in on the side of the computerized answer sheet?
A. My name (last name first), the course and section number, and the date
B. Nothing!
C. Something illegible!
D. Only my name!
E. None of the above are correct.
100. What did you fill in on the very end of the computerized answer sheet:
A. My VSU student ID, printed and bubbled in
B. Nothing!
C. The wrong VSU student ID!
D. Only the printed number, no bubbles!
E. None of the above are correct
Have a great Holiday Break and thanks for taking my class. I hope you learned a lot!
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