Download Biology (CP) Final Exam Study Guide 3

Biology (CP) Final Exam Study Guide 3
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. Each pea-plant gamete has how many alleles for the height gene?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
2. A mule is the result of a cross between a donkey and a horse. A mule is a
a. tetrad.
b. phenotype.
c. genotype.
d. hybrid.
3. Gregor Mendel removed the male parts from the flowers of some plants in order to
a. prevent hybrids from forming.
b. prevent cross-pollination.
c. stimulate self-pollination.
d. control crosses between plants.
4. When Gregor Mendel crossed a tall plant with a short plant, the F1 plants inherited
a. one allele from each parent.
b. two alleles from each parent.
c. three alleles from each parent.
d. four alleles from each parent.
5. When Gregor Mendel crossed true-breeding tall plants with true-breeding short plants, why was it impossible
to observe segregation?
a. Alleles for height do not segregate in the F2.
b. Alleles segregate only in the F2 generation.
c. Alleles segregate best when two tall plants are crossed.
d. Alleles in the F1 must be Tt to have height variety in the F2.
6. A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (Tt). If the tall F1 pea plants are allowed to self-pollinate,
a. the offspring will be of medium height.
b. all of the offspring will be tall.
c. all of the offspring will be short.
d. the offspring can be tall or short.
7. In the P generation, a tall plant was crossed with a short plant. Short plants reappeared in the F2 generation
because
a. the allele for shortness becomes more common in the F2 generation.
b. the allele for shortness becomes dominant in the F2 generation.
c. the alleles for both heights segregated when the F1 plants made gametes.
d. the alleles for tallness begin to disappear in the F2 generation.
8. When you flip a coin, what is the probability that it will come up tails?
a. 1
b. 1/2
c. 1/4
d. 1/8
____
9. The principles of probability can be used to
a. predict the traits of the offspring of genetic crosses.
b. determine the actual outcomes of genetic crosses.
c. determine which species should be used in genetic crosses.
d. decide which organisms are best to use in genetic crosses.
____ 10. A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a short plant. The probability that an F1 plant will be tall is
a. 25%.
b. 50%.
c. 75%.
d. 100%.
RrYy
RY
Ry
rY
ry
RY
RRYY
RRYy
RrYY
RrYy
Ry
RRYy
RRyy
RrYy
Rryy
RrYy
rY
RrYY
RrYy
rrYY
rrYy
ry
RrYy
Rryy
rrYy
rryy
Seed Shape
R = Round
r = Wrinkled
Seed Color
Y = Yellow
y = Green
Figure 11–2
____ 11. The Punnett square in Figure 11–2 shows that the gene for pea shape and the gene for pea color
a. assort independently.
b. are linked.
c. have the same alleles.
d. are always homozygous.
____ 12. How many different allele combinations would be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant whose
genotype was RrYY?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
RrYy
RY
Ry
rY
ry
RY
RRYY
RRYy
RrYY
RrYy
RRYy
Ry
RRYy
RRyy
RrYy
Rryy
RY
RRYY
RrYy
RrYY
RrYy
Ry
RRYy
RRyy
RrYy
Rryy
Figure 11–3
____ 13. Use Figure 11–3 to answer the following question. If a pea plant that is heterozygous for round, yellow peas
(RrYy) is crossed with a pea plant that is homozygous for round peas but heterozygous for yellow peas
(RRYy), how many different phenotypes are their offspring expected to show?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
____ 14. Gregor Mendel’s principles of genetics apply to
a. plants only.
b. animals only.
c. pea plants only.
d. all organisms.
____ 15. A breed of chicken shows codominance for feather color. One allele codes for black feathers, another codes
for white feathers. The feathers of heterozygous chickens of this breed will be
a. black.
b. white.
c. gray.
d. speckled.
____ 16. Situations in which one allele for a gene is not completely dominant over another allele for that gene are
called
a. multiple alleles.
b. incomplete dominance.
c. polygenic inheritance.
d. multiple genes.
____ 17. A cross of a black chicken (BB) with a white chicken (WW) produces all speckled offspring (BBWW). This
type of inheritance is known as
a. incomplete dominance.
b. polygenic inheritance.
c. codominance.
d. multiple alleles.
____ 18. What determines the color of western white butterflies?
a. genes alone.
b. the environment alone
c. temperature and genes
d. exposure to sunlight and genes
____ 19. The arctic fox is blue-gray in the summer and white in the winter. What most likely influence(s) this change?
a. genes and the environment
b. dominant alleles
c. the environment alone
d. codominant alleles
____ 20. Gametes are produced by the process of
a. mitosis.
b. meiosis.
c. crossing-over.
d. replication.
Figure 11–4
____ 21. What is shown in Figure 11–4?
a. independent assortment
b. anaphase I of meiosis
c. crossing-over
d. replication
____ 22. What reduces the number of chromosomes during meiosis?
a. Crossing-over occurs.
b. Metaphase occurs.
c. Replication occurs twice.
d. Replication does not occur.
____ 23. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of
a. diploid cells.
b. haploid cells.
c. 2N daughter cells.
d. body cells.
____ 24. What is formed at the end of meiosis?
a. two genetically identical cells
b. four genetically different cells
c. four genetically identical cells
d. two genetically different cells
____ 25. At the end of meiosis, there are
a. two haploid daughter cells.
b. four haploid daughter cells.
c. two diploid daughter cells.
d. four diploid daughter cells.
____ 26. Which of the following assort independently?
a. chromosomes
b. linked genes
c. multiple alleles
d. codominant alleles
____ 27. Linked genes
a. are never separated.
b. assort independently.
c. are on the same chromosome.
d. are always recessive.
Gene Map of Chromosome 2 of the Fruit Fly
Figure 11–5
____ 28. Which trait is most likely linked to having a curved wing in the fruit fly in Figure 11–5?
a. dumpy wing
b. vestigial wing
c. arc (bent wings)
d. speck wing
____ 29. If two genes are on the same chromosome and rarely assort independently,
a. crossing-over never occurs between the genes.
b. crossing-over always occurs between the genes.
c. the genes are probably located far apart from each other.
d. the genes are probably located close to each other.
____ 30. What happened when Griffith injected mice with the harmless, R-strain bacteria alone?
a. The bacteria transformed.
b. The mouse lived.
c. The mouse died.
d. The bacteria died.
____ 31. Why did Hershey and Chase label the viral DNA with radioactive phosphorous and not radioactive sulfur?
a. DNA contains phosphorus and no sulfur.
b. Proteins contain phosphorus and no sulfur.
c. DNA contains sulfur and little phosphorous.
d. Proteins acids contain sulfur and little phosphorous.
Figure 12–1
____ 32. Which part of the bacteriophage in Figure 12–1 contains genetic material?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 33. What stores information in a cell?
a. proteins
b. carbohydrates
c. lipids
d. DNA
____ 34. What happens when a piece of DNA is missing?
a. Genetic information is stored.
b. Genetic information is copied.
c. Genetic information is lost.
d. Genetic information is transmitted.
____ 35. In what way is DNA like a book?
a. DNA has information organized with an kind of index.
b. DNA has stored information, that can be copied and passed on.
c. DNA has information wrapped in an identifying cover.
d. DNA has information that is periodically updated.
____ 36. In which cells is the accurate transmission of information most important?
a. nerve cells
b. skin cells
c. sex cells
d. bone cells
____ 37. Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?
a. adenine + phosphate group + thymine
b. cytosine + phosphate group + guanine
c. deoxyribose + phosphate group + polymerase
d. deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine
____ 38. Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage of
a. adenine molecules in DNA is about equal to the percentage of guanine molecules.
b. thymine molecules in DNA is about equal to the percentage of adenine molecules
c. adenine molecules in DNA is much greater than the percentage of thymine molecules.
d. cytosine molecules in DNA is much greater than the percentage of guanine molecules.
Human
Chicken
Bacterium
(S. lutea)
Nitrogenous Bases (%)
A
G
T
19.9
29.4
28.8
C
21.5
2
13.4
Figure 12–3
____ 39. The table in Figure 12–3 shows the results of measuring the percentages of the four bases in the DNA of
several different organisms. Some of the values are missing from the table. Based on Chargaff’s rule, the
percentages of guanine bases in chicken DNA should be around
a. 28.8%
b. 19.9%
c. 21.5%
d. 13.4%
____ 40. Based on Chargaff’s rule, the percentage of cytosine in the DNA of the bacterium, S. Lutea in Figure 12–3,
should be around
a. 26.6%.
b. 73.2%.
c. 36.6%.
d. 29.4%.
____ 41. What did Griffith observe when he injected a mixture of heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria and live
harmless bacteria into mice?
a. The disease-causing bacteria dies.
b. The mice developed pneumonia.
c. The harmless bacteria died.
d. The mice were unaffected.
____ 42. What would Hershey and Chase have concluded if both radioactive 32P and 35S were found in the bacteria in
their experiment?
a. The virus’s protein coat was not injected into the bacteria.
b. The virus’s DNA was not injected into the bacteria.
c. Genes are made of protein and carbohydrates.
d. Both the virus’s protein coat and its DNA were injected into the bacteria.
____ 43. Which scientist made x-ray diffraction photos of DNA?
a. Franklin
b. Chargaff
c. Watson
d. Avery
____ 44. What is the chronological order of the important discoveries in the structure of DNA?
a. Franklin makes an X-ray diffraction photo of DNA  Chargaff’s ratios of nucleotides 
Watson and Crick identify the double helix
b. Franklin makes an X-ray diffraction photo of DNA  Watson and Crick identify the
double helix  Chargaff’s ratios of nucleotides
c. Chargaff’s ratios of nucleotides  Watson and Crick identify the double helix  Franklin
makes an X-ray diffraction photo of DNA
d. Chargaff’s ratios of nucleotides  Franklin makes an X-ray diffraction photo of DNA 
Watson and Crick identify the double helix
____ 45. What did Rosalind Franklin contribute to the effort to identify the structure of DNA?
a. models made of cardboard and wire showing the shape of DNA
b. the ratios of the two sets of nucleotide pairs in DNA
c. radioactive evidence that DNA carried the genetic code
d. x-ray diffraction photos of the DNA molecule
____ 46. During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases
a. TCGAAC.
b. GATCCA.
c. AGCTTG.
d. GAUCCA.
____ 47. After DNA replication in eukaryotes, the
a. DNA molecules unwind.
b. histones and DNA molecules separate.
c. DNA polymerase makes copies of DNA strands.
d. nucleosomes become more tightly packed.
Figure 12–5
____ 48. In Figure 12–5, what is adding base pairs to the strand?
a. histones
b. nucleosomes
c. DNA polymerase
d. chromatin
____ 49. In eukaryotes, DNA
a. is located in the nucleus.
b. floats freely in the cytoplasm.
c. is located in the ribosomes.
d. is circular.
____ 50. Which would be greater in a eukaryote than in a prokaryote?
a. The percentage of guanine nucleotides.
b. The total number of base pairs in a chromosome.
c. The number of replication forks on a strand of DNA.
d. The total amount of DNA in a cell.
____ 51. In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, how many copies of the chromosome are left after replication?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
____ 52. Eukaryotic cells can have up to how many times more DNA than prokaryotic cells?
a. 10
b. 100
c. 1,000
d. 10,000
____ 53. Human females produce egg cells that have
a. one X chromosome.
b. two X chromosomes.
c. one X or one Y chromosome.
d. one X and one Y chromosome.
Figure 14–1
____ 54. According to Figure 14–1, what is the approximate probability that a human offspring will be female?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
____ 55. How many chromosomes are shown in a normal human karyotype?
a. 2
b. 23
c. 44
d. 46
____ 56. Sex-linked genes are located on
a. the autosomal chromosomes.
b. the X chromosome only.
c. the Y chromosome only.
d. both the X chromosome and the Y chromosome.
____ 57. Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because the allele for colorblindness is
a. dominant and located on the X chromosome.
b. recessive and located on the Y chromosome.
c. recessive and located on the X chromosome.
d. recessive and located on the Y chromosome.
____ 58. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Females cannot have hemophilia.
b. A colorblind girl’s father must be colorblind.
c. A sex-linked allele cannot be dominant.
d. A colorblind boy’s father must be colorblind.
____ 59. Which of the following form(s) a Barr body?
a. one of the Y chromosomes in a male cell
b. one of the X chromosomes in a male cell
c. one of the X chromosomes in a female cell
d. both of the X chromosomes in a female cell
____ 60. The formation of a Barr body inactivates
a. half of the genes on one X chromosome in a female cell.
b. one whole X chromosome in a female cell.
c. one whole Y chromosome in a male cell.
d. one gene on one X chromosome in a male cell.
____ 61. A cat that has spots of more than one color
a. has no Barr bodies.
b. is probably female.
c. is probably male.
d. could be male or female.
____ 62. Which of the following pairs of genotypes result in the same phenotype?
a. IAIA and IAIB
b. IBIB and IBi
c. IBIB and IAIB
d. IBi and ii
Blood Types
Blood Type
Combination of Alleles
A
IAIA or IAi
B
IBIB or IBi
AB
IAIB
O
ii
Figure 14–2
____ 63. If a man with blood type A and a woman with blood type B produce an offspring, what might be the
offspring’s blood type?
a. AB or O
b. A, B, or O
c. A, B, AB, or O
d. AB only
Figure 14–3
____ 64. The allele for the trait in the pedigree in Figure 14–3 is dominant. What is the probability of the couple
labeled 2 of having a child with the trait?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
Figure 14–4
____ 65. In a pedigree, such as the one in Figure 14–4, a circle represents a(an)
a. male.
b. female.
c. child.
d. adult.
Figure 14–5
____ 66. How many generations are shown in the pedigree in Figure 14–5?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
Figure 14–6
____ 67. For the pedigree in Figure 14–6, shaded symbols represent afflicted people. Males are squares; women are
circles. If the trait is a sex-linked trait carried on the X chromosome, what is true about the mother represented
by circle 1?
a. She has two alleles for the disorder.
b. She has one allele for the disorder.
c. She has no alleles for the disorder.
d. She has the genotype XXY.
____ 68. Which of the following is caused by a dominant allele?
a. Huntington’s disease
b. colorblindness
c. cystic fibrosis
d. sickle-cell disease
____ 69. Sickle cell disease is caused by a
a. change in one allele.
b. change in the size of a chromosome.
c. change in two proteins.
d. change in the number of chromosomes in a cell.
____ 70. People who are heterozygous for sickle cell disease are generally healthy because they
a. are resistant to many different diseases.
b. have some normal hemoglobin in their red blood cells.
c. are not affected by the gene until they are elderly.
d. produce more hemoglobin than they need.
____ 71. If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis,
a. only two gametes may form instead of four.
b. some gametes may have an extra copy of some genes.
c. the gamete cannot join another to form a organism.
d. the gametes redistribute chromosomes after meiosis.
Figure 14–7
____ 72. What is illustrated in Figure 14–7?
a. mutation
b. dominance
c. electrophoresis
d. nondisjunction
____ 73. Which piece of DNA would move fastest in gel electrophoresis? A segment that is
a. 100 base pairs long.
b. 1,000 base pairs long.
c. 5,000 base pairs long.
d. 100,000 base pairs long.
Figure 14–9
____ 74. What new field is described by the overlap area in the Venn diagram in Figure 14–9?
a. biotechnology
b. bioinformatics
c. gene therapy
d. genetic engineering
____ 75. What did scientists in the Human Genome Project look for in DNA to identify the locations of genes?
a. promoters
b. sex-linked genes
c. CFTR genes
d. autosomes
____ 76. About how much of our DNA encodes the instructions for building proteins?
a. 2 percent
b. 10 percent
c. 50 percent
d. 100 percent
____ 77. Why is it helpful to sequence many human genomes, instead of just one?
a. Scientists can confirm that everyone’s genome is identical.
b. Scientists can find how the human genome varies.
c. Scientists can find out how to get rid of viral DNA from our cells.
d. Scientists can provide insurance companies with everyone’s genome.
____ 78. Which was the first step in sequencing the human genome?
a. locating overlapping sequences
b. identifying genes by finding promoters
c. cutting the DNA into manageable pieces
d. sorting between introns and exons
____ 79. The Human Genome Project is an attempt to
a. sequence every person’s DNA.
b. sequence the DNA of every human gene.
c. cure infectious human diseases.
d. identify all restriction enzymes.
____ 80. The peripheral nervous system collects information about changes in internal body temperature using
a. the brain.
b. nerves and supporting cells.
c. the spinal cord.
d. eyesight.
____ 81. Read the following statements that describe how information flows in the nervous system. What is the correct
order in which they occur?
1) Response is carried to glands or muscles.
2) Information is processed and a response is formed.
3) Information is gathered.
a. 1,2,3
b. 2,3,1
c. 3,2,1
d. 3,1,2
____ 82. Which division(s) of the peripheral nervous system transmit(s) impulses from sense organs to the central
nervous system?
a. sensory division
b. motor division
c. sensory and motor divisions
d. spinal cord division
____ 83. Neurons are classified by the
a. direction in which they carry impulses.
b. amount of metabolic activity that takes place.
c. number of dendrites that branch out.
d. number of impulses that they carry.
____ 84. Your alarm clock wakes you up and reminds you to get ready for school. Which type of neuron receives the
sound of the alarm?
a. interneurons
b. myelin neurons
c. sensory neurons
d. motor neurons
Figure 31–1
____ 85. Refer to Figure 31–1. Which structure carries impulses to the cell body?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. E
____ 86. Refer to Figure 31-1. Which structure carries impulses away from the cell body?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. E
____ 87. What is the function of neurotransmitters?
a. to transmit nerve impulses through dendrites
b. to stimulate the production of epinephrine
c. to transmit nerve impulses across synapses
d. none of the above
____ 88. When an impulse reaches the end of a neuron, it triggers the release of
a. neurotransmitters.
b. sodium ions.
c. dendrites.
d. receptors.
____ 89. Read the following statements that describe what happens as an impulse travels. What is the correct order in
which the steps occur?
1) The neuron receives a stimulus great enough to start an impulse.
2) Na+ gates close and K+ ions flow back out of the cell restoring the resting potential.
3) Gated K+ and Na+ channels are closed. The inside of the cell is slightly negative compared to the
outside.
4) The impulse continues to travel down the axon away from the cell body.
5) Gated Na+ channels open. The net movement of Na+ ions into the cell produces the action potential.
____ 90.
____ 91.
____ 92.
____ 93.
____ 94.
____ 95.
____ 96.
a. 4,5,3,1,2
b. 1,5,3,4,2
c. 3,1,5,4,2
d. 3,4,5,1,2
For a person who writes with his or her left hand, the muscles involved in writing are controlled by
a. the left hemisphere of the cerebrum.
b. the right hemisphere of the cerebrum.
c. both the left and right hemispheres of the cerebrum.
d. neither hemisphere of the cerebrum.
When exposed to addictive drugs, how does the brain react to excessive dopamine levels?
a. It reduces the number of receptors for the neurotransmitter.
b. It increases the number of receptors for the neurotransmitter.
c. It increases the production of dopamine.
d. It shuttles the dopamine to other areas of the brain.
Which of these are classified as “drugs”?
a. cocaine
b. alcohol
c. nicotine
d. all of the above
Which of the following sensory receptors would lead you to squint in bright light?
a. thermoreceptors
b. mechanoreceptors
c. photoreceptors
d. chemoreceptors
Sensory receptors that are sensitive to chemical information from the environment are found in the
a. skin and hypothalamus.
b. skin, hair follicles, and ears.
c. eyes.
d. nose and taste buds.
Different sensory receptors in the body respond to
a. touch.
b. temperature.
c. pain.
d. all of the above.
Which receptors respond to a scraped knee?
a. thermoreceptors
b. pain receptors
c. chemoreceptors
d. photoreceptors
____ 97. Which type of sensory receptor is responsible for smell and taste?
a. photoreceptor
b. thermoreceptor
c. mechanoreceptor
d. chemoreceptor
____ 98. When you swat a fly, which type of neuron stimulates your arm to move?
a. sensory neuron
b. interneuron
c. motor neuron
d. autonomic neuron
____ 99. Sensory cells in taste buds respond to which types of flavors?
a. salty, bitter, sweet, sour
b. salty, spicy, juicy, sweet
c. sour, tangy, spicy, bitter
d. fatty, sweet, meaty, tangy
Figure 31–2
____ 100. In Figure 31–2, which structure sends impulses to your brain enabling you to stand on one foot?
a. structure A
b. structure B
c. structure C
d. structure D
____ 101. Which structure in Figure 31–2 is commonly injured by people inserting cotton swabs or other objects into
their ears?
a. structure A
b. structure B
c. structure C
d. structure D
____ 102. Which labeled structure in Figure 31–2 produces pressure waves in the cochlea?
a. structure A
b. structure B
c. structure C
d. structure D
____ 103. An example of an injury to the axial skeleton is a
a. hockey player with a broken rib.
b. construction worker with a fractured shoulder.
c. skateboarder with a broken ankle.
d. small child with a fractured wrist.
____ 104. What is an example of a mineral found in bones that is important to body processes?
a. potassium sulfides
b. zinc oxides
c. calcium salts
d. iodine compounds
____ 105. An internal wooden frame is to a house as _____________ to a body.
a. a muscular system is
b. a skeleton is
c. blood vessels are
d. an organ is
____ 106. About how many bones are found in an adult human skeleton?
a. 150
b. 200
c. 206
d. 212
Figure 32–1
____ 107. In Figure 32–1, which structure contains Haversian canals?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 108. In Figure 32–1, which structure is found near the end of long bones where force is applied?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 109. What is the function of structure B in Figure 32–1?
a. place for storing fat cells
b. location for red blood cell production
c. tough layer of connective tissue surrounding a bone
d. latticework structure that adds strength to the bone
____ 110. What is the skeleton of an embryo mainly composed of?
a. bone
b. cartilage
c. bone marrow
d. growth plates
____ 111. Ossification in the form of bone formation and growth occurs in which of the following?
a. embryos only
b. teenagers and adults only
c. embryos and newborns only
d. embryos, newborns, children, and teenagers
Figure 32–2
____ 112. Which diagram in Figure 32–2 shows an example of a joint involved in lifting your arms above you head?
a. Diagram A
b. Diagram B
c. Diagram C
d. Diagram D
____ 113. Which diagram in Figure 32–2 shows an example of a joint involved in kicking a soccer ball?
a. Diagram A
b. Diagram B
c. Diagram C
d. Diagram D
Figure 32–3
____ 114. In Figure 32–3, which diagram is an example of a muscle that moves food through your digestive system?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. all of the above
____ 115. Which diagram(s) in Figure 32–3 show(s) muscles that are striated?
a. A and B
b. B
c. C
d. A and C
____ 116. Which type(s) of muscle can contract without stimulation from the nervous system?
a. skeletal only
b. skeletal and smooth
c. smooth and cardiac
d. cardiac only
____ 117. Which type of muscle has the greatest number of mitochondria?
a. skeletal muscles
b. smooth muscles
c. cardiac muscles
d. They all have the same amount.
____ 118. Where is the protein called actin located in the body?
a. ATP molecules
b. thin filaments
c. myosin filaments
d. acetylcholine neurotransmitters
____ 119. In addition to myosin, what other protein is involved in skeletal muscle contraction?
a. collagen
b. actin
c. ATP
d. keratin
____ 120. What happens when the thin filaments in a muscle fiber slide over the thick filaments?
a. The muscle contracts.
b. The muscle relaxes.
c. The muscle both contracts and relaxes.
d. The muscle neither contracts nor relaxes.
____ 121. Why is it important for the release of acetylcholine to stop and for enzymes to destroy any remaining
acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction?
a. Calcium would be pumped back into storage and cross-bridges would stop forming.
b. The strength of the muscle would increase.
c. The muscle would not be able to contract.
d. The muscle would continue to contract uncontrollably.
____ 122. In the sliding-filament model, what would happen if myosin did not attach to actin filaments?
a. The muscle would be permanently relaxed.
b. The muscle would contract uncontrollably, causing spasms.
c. The muscle fiber would tear.
d. The distance between the Z lines would shorten.
____ 123. What type of tough connective tissue joins skeletal muscles to bones?
a. joints
b. ligaments
c. periosteum
d. tendons
____ 124. Which of the following is NOT true about muscle tone?
a. It is responsible for keeping the back and legs straight when you’re relaxed.
b. It is increased through regular exercise.
c. It describes the tightening of some muscles.
d. It increases with age.
____ 125. Which of the following is NOT true about the effects of exercise on muscles?
a. It increases muscle tone.
b. It increases the number of muscles.
c. It increases the efficiency of the heart.
d. It can cause muscles to visibly increase in size.
____ 126. The most important function of the skin is
a. protection.
b. storing fat.
c. sweating.
d. insulation.
____ 127. Which of these is part of the integumentary system?
a. skin and nails
b. skin only
c. nails and hair
d. skin, hair, and nails
____ 128. What happens when the keratin-producing cells of the skin die?
a. Melanin and keratin are produced.
b. An additional dermis layer is formed.
c. A waterproof coating is formed.
d. Melanin is produced.
____ 129. The top layer of the epidermis is made of
a. flat, dead cells.
b. melanin.
c. collagen.
d. healthy, living cells.
____ 130. Nail roots are to nails as what is to hair?
a. sebaceous gland
b. keratin
c. hair follicle
d. melanocyte
____ 131. Hair would be dry and brittle without the presence of
a. sebaceous glands.
b. keratin.
c. melanin.
d. fat.
____ 132. If a person breaks out into “hives,” what exactly is happening?
a. Fluid from blood vessels is oozing into surrounding tissues and causing swelling.
b. Sebum and dead skin cells are trapped in hair follicles.
c. Skin cells are dividing uncontrollably.
d. The person is shedding skin cells too quickly.
____ 133. Which of these skin cancers is (are) most likely to spread to other parts of the body without early treatment?
a. basal cell carcinoma
b. squamous cell carcinoma
c. melanoma
d. basal cell carcinoma and melanoma
____ 134. Sometimes acne is treated with an antibiotic because
a. it works as a cleaner to remove dirt and oil build-up.
b. it decreases hormone levels in adolescents.
c. it stops the release of histamine.
d. it will kill the bacteria trapped in skin pores.
____ 135. Which of the following is a potential sign of skin cancer?
a. a mole with an irregular border
b. sudden change in a mole’s appearance
c. a sore that does not heal
d. all of the above
____ 136. The nervous system is to a telephone as the endocrine system is to a
a. chemical message.
b. television set.
c. radio broadcast.
d. hormone.
____ 137. Unlike endocrine glands, exocrine glands
a. release secretions outside of the body.
b. release hormones.
c. release secretions directly into the blood.
d. are found throughout the body.
____ 138. Which of the following is true about the endocrine system?
a. Each gland secretes only one hormone.
b. Homeostasis is often maintained by two hormones with opposing effects.
c. Only steroid hormones regulate important functions.
d. The pituitary gland regulates all the other glands.
____ 139. A difference between steroid hormones and non-steroid hormones is that steroid hormones contain
a. sugar.
b. cholesterol.
c. protein.
d. RNA.
____ 140. Read the following statements that describe the action of steroid hormones. What is the correct order in which
they occur?
1) The hormone binds to a receptor and forms a hormone-receptor complex.
2) The hormone passes across the cell membrane into the cell.
3) mRNA moves into the cytoplasm and directs protein synthesis.
4) The hormone-receptor complex enters the nucleus and binds to regions of DNA.
5) Specific genes are transcribed to mRNA.
a. 1,2,4,5,3
b. 2,1,4,5,3
c. 1,4,3,5,2
d. 2,5,3,1,4
____ 141. Read the following statements that describe the action of nonsteroid hormones. What is the correct order in
which they occur?
1) Secondary messengers activate or inhibit a wide range of cell activities.
2) Enzymes are activated on the inner surface of the cell membrane.
3) Secondary messengers are released to relay the hormone’s message within the cell.
4) The hormone binds to receptors on the cell membrane.
a. 4,2,3,1
b. 3,1,2,4
c. 4,3,1,2
d. 3,4,2,1
____ 142. Unlike nonsteroid hormones, steroid hormones
a. remain outside the target cell.
b. bind to receptors inside the target cell.
c. have no target cells.
d. are made of proteins.
Figure 34–1
____ 143. Which structure in Figure 34–1 regulates the level of calcium in the blood?
a. C
b. D
c. E
d. F
____ 144. Which structure in Figure 34–1 releases hormones that regulate many of the other endocrine glands?
a. B
b. D
c. E
d. F
____ 145. Diabetes mellitus is a disease that occurs when which organ does not regulate the amount of glucose in the
blood?
a. adrenal
b. hypothalamus
c. pancreas
d. parathyroid
____ 146. Feedback inhibition means that an increase in a substance will
a. decrease production of that substance.
b. increase production of that substance.
c. increase the production of other substances.
d. stop production of another substance.
____ 147. Which hormone causes the kidneys to conserve water?
a. TSH
b. thyroxine
c. ADH
d. corticosteroids
____ 148. Puberty usually begins between the ages of
a. 5 and 8.
b. 9 and 15.
c. 16 and 19.
d. 20 and 25.
____ 149. Which hormones stimulate the gonads to mature?
a. FSH and LH
b. estrogens
c. androgens
d. testosterone and progesterone
____ 150. Which hormone causes most men to grow facial hair?
a. testosterone
b. estrogen
c. progesterone
d. FSH
____ 151. The testes don’t begin producing sperm and the ovaries do not begin releasing eggs until
a. birth.
b. fertilization.
c. gastrulation.
d. puberty.
Figure 34–2
____ 152. In Figure 34–2, which part of the sperm cell contains mitochondria necessary to power its trip through the
reproductive system?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. all of the above
____ 153. Which part of the sperm cell shown in Figure 34–2 contains enzymes vital to fertilization?
____ 154.
____ 155.
____ 156.
____ 157.
____ 158.
____ 159.
____ 160.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. all of the above
About how many sperm are in one milliliter of semen?
a. 1,000-5,000
b. 250,000-500,000
c. 1-2 million
d. 50-130 million
Which of the following is NOT a phase in the menstrual cycle?
a. menstruation
b. luteal
c. fertilization
d. ovulation
When during the menstrual cycle does an egg have the best chance of being fertilized?
a. during the follicular phase
b. just before menstruation
c. the beginning of the luteal phase
d. the day of ovulation
Menstruation does not occur if the
a. uterine lining thickens.
b. estrogen level falls.
c. progesterone level falls.
d. egg is fertilized.
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by bacteria?
a. hepatitis B
b. genital warts
c. AIDS
d. gonorrhea
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a virus?
a. syphilis
b. chlamydia
c. genital herpes
d. gonorrhea
The most commonly reported bacterial infection in the United States is
a. AIDS.
b. chlamydia .
c. genital herpes.
d. gonorrhea.
Figure 34–3
____ 161. What is occurring in step 1 in Figure 34–3?
a. fertilization
b. formation of a zygote
c. ovulation
d. formation of a blastocyst
____ 162. During the process of fertilization, which step happens first?
a. The sperm’s nucleus enters the egg cell.
b. Enzymes break down the protective layer of the egg cell membrane.
c. A sperm attaches to a binding site on the egg cell membrane.
d. The cell membrane of the egg cell changes.
____ 163. Pitocin is a synthetic drug that is often used to stimulate uterine contractions. Which hormone has a similar
function?
a. thyroxine
b. FSH
c. oxytocin
d. prolactin
____ 164. Read the following statements that describe childbirth. What is the correct order in which they occur?
1) Contractions force the baby out through the vagina.
2) Amniotic sac breaks and the fluid it contains rushes into the vagina.
3) The umbilical cord is clamped and cut.
4) The placenta and the amniotic sac are expelled from the uterus.
a.
b.
c.
d.
4,2,1,3
2,1,3,4
1,3,2,4
3,2,4,1
____ 165. At what stage can a fetus’s heart be heard by a stethoscope?
a. 1–3 months
b. 4–6 months
c. 7–9 months
d. throughout the pregnancy
____ 166. What is the main reason why a baby begins to cough and cry when it meets the outside world?
a. It is cold.
b. It is in pain.
c. It is trying to breathe.
d. It is hungry.
____ 167. The germ theory of disease states that infectious diseases are caused by
a. toxins.
b. microorganisms.
c. heredity.
d. pollutants in the environment.
____ 168. Read the following statements that describe the steps that lead one to identify the microorganism that causes a
specific disease. What is the correct order in which they occur?
1) The purified pathogens should cause the same disease in a new host.
2) The pathogen must be found in the body of a sick organism and not a healthy one.
3) The pathogen should be isolated and grown in a pure culture.
4) The pathogen should be isolated from the second host.
____ 169.
____ 170.
____ 171.
____ 172.
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 3,1,4,2
c. 4,2,3,1
d. 2,3,1,4
Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
a. warts
b. athlete’s foot
c. African sleeping sickness
d. strep throat
Which of the following diseases might be susceptible to antiviral drugs?
a. African sleeping sickness
b. tuberculosis
c. chickenpox
d. all of the above
How are infectious diseases spread?
a. through coughing, sneezing, or physical contact
b. through contaminated water and food
c. by infected animals
d. all of the above
Which of these adaptations helps spread the bacteria that cause tuberculosis?
a. an ability to cause diarrhea in the host
b. an ability to make the host cough
c. an ability to be carried by vectors, such as bats
d. an ability to survive in contaminated water
____ 173. Which of the following is an example of a vector and the disease it spreads?
a. tall grass and Lyme disease
b. the deer tick and Lyme disease
c. the Nile river and West Nile disease
d. insecticides and malaria
____ 174. Giardia intestinalis, which causes severe diarrhea, is transmitted
a. through sexual contact.
b. through the air when a person coughs.
c. in contaminated water.
d. by holding hands.
____ 175. The body’s nonspecific defenses against invading pathogens include
a. antibiotics.
b. mucus, sweat, and tears.
c. antibodies.
d. cytotoxic T cells.
____ 176. The inflammatory response can cause
a. permanent immunity.
b. pain, swelling, and fever.
c. antibodies to bind to antigens.
d. cytotoxic T cells to attack infected cells.
____ 177. The body’s most important nonspecific defense is
a. the skin.
b. cell-mediated immunity.
c. the inflammatory response.
d. permanent immunity.
Figure 35–1
____ 178. Which type of immune response is being shown in Figure 35–1?
a. cell-mediated response
b. humoral response
c. inflammatory response
d. autoimmune response
____ 179. Using Figure 35–1, arrange the following statements in the correct order.
1. Phagocytes engulf and destroy the bacteria that damage cells.
2. Pathogens enter the body causing mast cells to release histamines increasing blood flow.
3. Blood vessels expand. Fluid leaves the capillaries and causes swelling.
____ 180.
____ 181.
____ 182.
____ 183.
a. 3,1,2
b. 3,2,1
c. 2,3,1
d. 2,1,3
Which of the following describes your immune system’s specific defenses?
a. They respond to a general threat of infection.
b. They respond to a particular pathogen.
c. They include fever and inflammation of the infection site.
d. all of the above
During the winter you become sick with the flu. Shortly after that, you become sick with strep throat. Will the
same type of B-cells that fought the pathogen that caused the flu fight the pathogen that causes strep throat?
a. Yes. Every B cell is capable of fighting every pathogen with which it comes in contact.
b. Yes. B cells recognize similar antigens such as bacterial and viral pathogens.
c. No. B cells fight viruses while T cells fight bacteria.
d. No. Each B cell is capable of recognizing one specific antigen.
Which of these are the main working cells of the immune response?
a. self and nonself cells
b. B cells and T cells
c. antigens and antibodies
d. histamines and interferons
If a person has memory B cells against a certain pathogen, the person is
a. likely to develop that disease.
b. much less likely to develop the disease a second time.
c. able to spread the disease to others through physical contact.
d. probably still sick with the disease.
Figure 35–2
____ 184. What type of immune response is shown in Figure 35–2?
a. nonspecific response
b. humoral response
c. cell-mediated response
d. inflammatory response
____ 185. Which step in Figure 35–2 shows the destruction of an infected cell?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
____ 186. Which of these is an example of active immunity?
a. a pregnant woman passing antibodies to the fetus across the placenta
b. a pregnant woman giving antibodies to an infant through breast milk
c. a person developing antibodies against the measles vaccine
d. a person receiving antibody shots after being bitten by a rabid animal
____ 187. A person who has received a vaccine for human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes genital warts and can
cause cervical cancer,
a. is able to produce antibodies against HPV.
b. is more susceptible to HPV than someone who has not had the vaccine.
c. has passive immunity against HPV.
d. must already have been infected with HPV.
____ 188. Which of these is an example of passive immunity?
a. a person develops antibodies to fight off an ear infection
b. antibodies are passed from a pregnant woman to an infant through breast milk
c. a person develops antibodies against the measles vaccine
d. a person is vaccinated for hepatitis B
____ 189. Which of the following are public health measures that have helped fight disease?
a. regulating food supplies
b. monitoring water supplies
c. promoting vaccinations
d. all of the above
____ 190. In 1900, more than 30 percent of deaths in the U.S. were caused by infectious disease. In 2005, what percent
of deaths were caused by infectious disease?
a. 0%
b. less than 5%
c. 30%
d. more than 30%
____ 191. Antibiotics are effective at treating
a. a common cold, but not genital warts.
b. a tapeworm infection, but not botulism.
c. strep throat, but not the flu.
d. athlete’s foot, but not an ear infection.
____ 192. Vaccinations and other public health measures had eliminated which disease globally by 1980?
a. AIDS
b. tuberculosis
c. smallpox
d. Ebola
____ 193. The infectious disease SARS is thought to have been started
a. by the misuse of medication.
b. due to an increase in the exotic animal trade.
c. by people failing to follow vaccination recommendations.
d. in contaminated water supplies.
____ 194. The misuse of antibiotics has led to the re-emergence of which disease?
a. tuberculosis
b. measles
c. smallpox
d. “bird flu”
____ 195. The sneezing, runny nose, and itchy eyes associated with allergies are caused when
a. smooth muscles reduce the size of air passageways in the lungs.
b. the immune system attacks the body’s own cells.
c. mast cells release histamines.
d. infected cells produce interferon.
____ 196. Autoimmune diseases result when the immune system
a. fails to distinguish self from nonself.
b. overreacts to certain antigens.
c. is weakened by asthma.
d. all of the above
____ 197. What causes asthma?
a. Bacteria that are resistant to antibiotics infect the body.
b. Particular antigens trigger muscle contractions that make it difficult to breathe.
c. Antibodies and cytotoxic T cells attack cells in the tissues of the lungs.
d. Antibodies and cytotoxic T cells attack cells in the lining of the heart.
____ 198. Doctors first suspected that AIDS was weakening the immune system of infected patients when their patients
developed
a. asthma.
b. allergies.
c. rare infections.
d. strep throat.
____ 199. HIV weakens the immune system by killing
a. antibodies.
b. B cells.
c. helper T cells.
d. cytotoxic T cells.
____ 200. Read the following statements that describe an HIV infection. What is the correct order in which they occur?
1) Reverse transcriptase uses viral RNA as a template to make viral DNA.
2) Virus coat fuses with cell membrane and viral RNA enters the cell.
3) Virus attaches to host cell membrane.
4) The new viruses bud off from the host cell membrane.
5) Viral DNA enters nucleus and inserts itself into host DNA.
6) Viral mRNA directs the host cell to assemble viral proteins.
a.
b.
c.
d.
2,3,6,1,5,4
2,3,1,5,6,4
3,2,1,6,5,4
3,2,1,5,6,4
Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
____ 201. True-breeding plants that produced axial flowers were crossed with true-breeding plants that produced
terminal flowers. The resulting offspring all produced terminal flowers because the allele for terminal flowers
is recessive. _________________________
____ 202. The principles of probability can explain the numerical results of Mendel’s experiments.
_________________________
____ 203. If Mendel had found that an F2 cross of plants that were heterozygous for two traits had made offspring with
two phenotypes, this finding would have supported the theory of independent assortment.
_________________________
____ 204. Mitosis results in two cells, whereas meiosis results in one cell. _________________________
____ 205. If an organism has four linkage groups, it has eight chromosomes. _________________________
____ 206. Bacteriophages inject protein into bacteria, altering the bacteria’s genetic information.
_________________________
____ 207. The DNA that makes up an organism’s genes must be capable of storing, copying, and changing information.
_________________________
____ 208. DNA is a nucleic acid made up of nucleosomes joined into long strands or chains by covalent bonds.
_________________________
Figure 12–4
____ 209. In Figure 12–4, the percentages of all four columns should add up to 90. _________________________
____ 210. DNA is tightly wrapped around nucleosomes. _________________________
____ 211. A DNA strand that had the sequence TACGTT would have a complimentary strand ATCGAT.
_________________________
____ 212. In a human karyotype, 44 of the chromosomes are autosomes. _________________________
Figure 14–10
____ 213. The pedigree chart in Figure 14-10 shows that some people can be carriers of the trait without being afflicted.
This means the allele for the trait is dominant. _________________________
____ 214. Down syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and Klinefelter’s syndrome are all caused by nondisjunction.
_________________________
____ 215. Myelin sheaths can be damaged by strokes or nutritional deficiencies. If a neuron has a damaged myelin
sheath, impulses move faster through the axon than they would in a healthy neuron.
_________________________
____ 216. The largest and most prominent region of the human brain, which is responsible for the voluntary, or
conscious, activities of the body is the cerebellum. _________________________
____ 217. When taking a drug such as the methamphetamine ecstasy, the amount of dopamine released by the
hypothalamus and the limbic system increases. _________________________
____ 218. When walking into a dimly lit room, the cones in your eyes help you find your way around.
____________________
____ 219. Vision occurs when photoreceptors in the retina transmit impulses to the brain, which translates these
impulses into images._________________________
____ 220. A common injury among elderly people is a broken hip. This type of injury occurs in the appendicular
skeleton. _________________________
____ 221. Cardiac muscle is found in just one place in the body. _________________________
____ 222. The male reproductive system and the female reproductive system develop from different tissues in the
embryo. _________________________
____ 223. Within a few hours after birth, the pituitary hormone oxytocin stimulates the production of milk in the breast
tissues of the mother. _________________________
____ 224. Passive immunity lasts for only a short time because the immune system eventually destroys the foreign
antibody. _________________________
____ 225. Over a period of years, HIV kills most of a person’s B cells. _________________________
Completion
Complete each statement.
226. Due to the process of segregation, alleles separate during the production of ____________________ .
227. What is the probability of flipping a coin and getting heads 5 times in a row?
228. If pea plants that are homozygous for round, yellow seeds (RRYY) were crossed with pea plants that are
heterozygous for round, yellow seeds (RrYy), the expected phenotype(s) of the offspring would be
_________________________.
229. The characteristics of an organism are determined by two factors: ____________________.
230. Crossing-over occurs during the stage of meiosis called ____________________.
231. The relative locations of each known gene can be shown on a ____________________ map.
Figure 12–6
232. The virus in Figure 12–6 is made of two parts the _________________________ outside, and the genetic
material inside.
233. Eukaryotic DNA molecules need to be carefully copied and sorted, especially in the formation of
_________________________ cells during meiosis.
Figure 12–2
234. The structure labeled X in Figure 12–2 is a(an) _________________________.
235. The Watson and Crick model of DNA is a(an) _________________________, in which two strands are
wound around each other.
236. _________________________ are weak bonds that hold the two strands of DNA together, but also allow the
DNA to separate and replicate.
237. The tips of chromosomes are known as _________________________.
238. If a couple has five boys, the probability that the next child will be a boy is ____________________.
239. Nondisjunction can lead to the disorder called ______________________________, in which a male has an
extra X chromosome.
240. The two major divisions of the human nervous system are the central and the ____________________
nervous systems.
241. The ____________________ are the sense organs that can distinguish both pitch and loudness in vibrations
that move through air.
242. Most ____________________ muscles must be directly stimulated by the nervous system to function.
243. The muscle that bends, or flexes, the elbow joint is the ____________________.
244. A common secondary messenger called ____________________ is produced from ATP and released when
a nonsteroid hormone binds to receptors on cell membranes.
245. The thyroid gland is controlled by the ____________________ and the ____________________.
246. A vaccine for women has been developed to prevent some infections caused by ____________________,
which can cause genital warts and possibly cervical cancer.
247. During ____________________, three germ layers form. They are called ____________________, ectoderm,
and mesoderm.
248. Mosquitoes that carry disease-causing organisms from person to person are called ____________________.
249. The first mass-production of an antibiotic was used to save thousands of sick soldiers during
____________________.
250. A person who has ____________________ is likely to suffer from a number of other rare infections because
the virus that causes the disease attacks the immune system.