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Chern-Simons theory and the fractional quantum Hall effect G. Luchini Instituto de Fı́sica de São Carlos; IFSC/USP; Universidade de São Paulo Caixa Postal 369, CEP 13560-970, São Carlos-SP, Brazil This is a small seminar presented in the many-body physics course at IFSC-USP in 2011. The fractional quantum Hall effect consists in the observation that the transversal conductivity 2 defined as in the classical effect - is quantized as σH ∝ eh , where the proportionality constant is a rational number. The goal of these notes is to introduce the subject and discuss how one uses the Chern-Simons theory as an effective theory for this scenario. Unfortunately I could not go deeper and many nice things are missing. This is a reflection on the fact that the subject spreads out in many directions. The notes are supposed to be a script for the presentation, where I shall give more details. PACS numbers: A BRIEF REVIEW ON THE BACKGROUND PHYSICS The effect discovered by Edwin Hall in 1879, known as the classical Hall effect (CHE), was at first of purely academical interest and a complement to J.C. Maxwell’s Treatise on Electricity and Magnetism, published six years before. Beyond the expectations of Maxwell’s theory, it was observed that an electronic gradient appears in the transversal direction of a current in a metallic slab subjected to a perpendicular magnetic field. Then, a resistance in that direction is measured and it is proportional to the applied field. If the electrons motion can be confined into an effective 2 dimensional plane, and under a large magnetic field and low enough temperatures one observes the quantum Hall effect (QHE), characterized by the quantization of the transversal resistance, which develops plateaux of constant values for certain ranges of the magnetic field. Remarkably the resistance is given uniquely in terms of universal constants, and does not depend upon the details of the sample: RH = h 1 , e2 ν being 1 a proportionality constant. ν In 1980 the integer quantum Hall effect (IQHE) was observed by von Klitzing and others[1]: the factor ν of the above formula corresponds to integer numbers. Surprisingly in 1983, Tsui and collaborators[2] observed the so called fractional quantum Hall effect (FQHE), for which ν = pq , p, q integers. In these notes we discuss how one can use the ChernSimons gauge theory to understand or to deal with the FQHE. Dynamics of the 2DEG There are three basic ingredients one needs in order to observe the QHE: i) low temperature (< ∼ 4K); ii) strong magnetic field (1 ∼ 30T ); iii) an effective 2 dimensional world for the electrons to live in. In particular this last requirement is achieved once it is possible to freeze the motion of the electrons in one direction in our 3 dimensional world. Quantum mechanics allows that as follows. Take the sample to be a 3 dimensional quantum well, with height H in the z direction, which is the one we want to eliminate. With the ansatz ψ(x, y, z) = X(x)Y (y)Z(z) the Schrodinger equation gives three independent equations, and 2 2 differential −h̄ d in particular we have 2m dz2 + Vz (z) Z(z) = Ez Z(z), being Vz (z) = z inside the sample and ∞ otherwise. The n2 energy is then quantized as En ∝ H 2 and we see that for very small heights the gap between energy levels is very large, so if the system is at low temperatures, it has no chance to produce excitations in the z direction and becomes effectively 2 dimensional. Another important observation is that the QHE appears for an electronic density nel ∼ eB h . For metals the typical electronic density is of the order 1018 /m2 , which would imply a magnetic field of the order of 103 T , which cannot be produced in laboratory. Semiconductors on the other hand have electronic density about 1015 /m2 , which reduces the needed 3 orders of the magnetic field. Thus, for the CHE one uses a conductor, while for the QHE, a semiconductor. With these brief observations we proceed to discuss the classical dynamics of a 2 dimensional free electron gas subjected to an electromagnetic field. The equation of motion of a electron under these circumstances reads dp 1 m = −e E + v × B − v (1) dt c τ where τ is the mean diffusion time due to impurities of the sample. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the 2 dimensional plane B = B k̂, and we consider the steady 2 scenario ṗ = 0, so that we get the set of equations e − eEx − vy B − c e −eEy + vx B − c m vx = 0 τ m vy = 0. τ motion are p˙x = Now we multiply them by en m , and after that introduce 2 eB the definitions ωc = mc and σ0 = nem τ . Then, with the current vector j = (−nevx , −nevy ) one gets the P conductivity tensor defined through the relation jµ = ν σµν Eν as σ0 1 −τ ωc . σ= 1 1 + τ 2 ωc2 τ ωc The resistivity tensor is obtained by taking the inverse (with the definition ρ0 ≡ σ0−1 ): B ρ0 nec . ρ= B ρ0 − nec For convenience one may define the longitudinal conductivity σL = 1+τσ02 ω2 and the transverse or Hall conductivc σ0 τ ωc ity σH = 1+τ 2 ω 2 . A first remark is that under a SO(2) c transformation σ → RσR−1 the conductivity tensor remains unchanged. This reflects the fact that both x and y directions are equivalent, and the conductor is homogeneous. Indeed, when no Hall effect is present (i.e., B = 0) then σ = σ0 1l; in the case of a homogeneous conductor, with non-zero magnetic field, σxx = σyy and σxy = −σyx . Now, for strong magnetic field and low temperatures (kB T ωc h̄), ωc τ 1, and the longitudinal conductivity vanishes while the Hall conductivity becomes σH → nec B . Consequently, the longitudinal resistivity goes to zero and the transverse resistivity becomes B RH = nec , directly proportional to the magnetic field[5]. A quick argumentation for the Hall effect is the following: a force appears in order to balance the Lorentz force so that the charge carriers keep moving in the longitudiVH e nal direction. Thus evB c = L , where L is the distance in the transversal direction of the sample between the points one measures the voltage VH . Solving it for the velocity of the charge carriers, plugging the result into the current I = nLev and after that writing VH = RH I we get exactly the previous result for the transverse resistance RH . We are considering a 2 dimensional system of charged and massive particles subjected to a constant magnetic field in the perpendicular direction. Our next goal is to find the classical trajectories of these particles. The lagrangian describing such a system reads L= m 2 e v − v·A 2 c where B = ∇ × A locally, at least. The equations of and p˙y = e p x = π x − Ax c (2) (3) ∂L ∂x & ∂L ∂y , where e py = πy − Ay c are the canonical momenta while πx = mẋ and πy = mẏ are the kinetic ones. With the definition of the cyclotron frequency ωc = we get the coupled equations ẍ + ωc ẏ = 0 eB mc ÿ − ωc ẋ = 0 which can be solved as follows: define z = x + iy and calculate its second derivative, which gives a first order differential equation in ż ≡ vz (t), whose solution is vz (t) = vz (0)eiωc t . Writing the integration constant as vz (0) = v0 eiφt one then obtains vx = v0 cos (ωc t + φ) and vy = v0 sin (ωc t + φ). Integration is direct and the result is a circular trajectory centred at R = (x0 , y0 ), called the guiding center: r = (x(t), y(t)) = x0 + ωv0c sin (ωc t + φ), y0 − ωv0c cos (ωc t + φ) . An important quantity is the vector η = r − R. Comparing its components with the components of the velocity vector above one gets πx = −mωc ηy πy = mωc ηx . We shall come to this result later. The hamiltonian makes the bridge between the classical and quantum theory once the canonical quantization approach is considered, where roughly speaking the observables are promoted to operators acting on quantum states in a Hilbert space, and the Poisson structure is mapped into a commutation relations between these operators: {∗, ∗} → −ih̄[∗, ∗]. We have then Ĥ = ih̄∂t , p̂ = −ih̄∇ and x̂ and  act multiplicatively on the quantum states. The hamiltonian reads H= 1 1 e πx2 + πy2 = kp + Ak2 2m 2m c and the gauge freedom is apparent. So, in order to find the wave function one needs to pick a particular gauge. Two choices are relevant for our discussion: tha Landau gauge AL = B(−y, 0, 0) and the symmetric gauge AS = B 2 (−y, x, 0). They are related by AL = AS + ∇Λ with Λ = − B2 xy. In the Landau gauge one gets H = (px − ec yB)2 + p2y . We choose periodic boundary conditions along the y direction, i.e. ψ(0, y) = ψ(Lx , y), (where Lx (analogously, Ly ) stands for the sample size in x direction) which implies the quantization of the corresponding wave vector component: km = L2πx m. Noticing that [p̂x , Ĥ] = 0 we take the ansatz for the wave function: ψ(x, y) = eikx φ(y). Then what happens is that we “ factorize” our problem which becomes a 1 2m 3 Schrodinger equation problem in one dimension: − h̄2 2 m 2 ∂y φ(y) + ωc2 (lB k − y)φ(y) = Eφ(y). 2m 2 physics: we introduce the step operators[6] lB a = √ (πx − iπy ) 2h̄ lB a† = √ (πx + iπy ) (4) 2h̄ This is nothing but the quantum harmonic oscillator cench̄ ch̄ 2 2 . The quantity lB = eB is called tred in klB = k eB the magnetic length. The eigenstates above are given in terms of Hermite polynomials and the energy spectrum is where the normalization constant was fixed so that the bosonic commutation relation holds: [a, a† ] = 1. Inverting the above definitions and plugging the kinetic momenta in terms of the step operators into the hamiltonian one gets, as expected: H = h̄ωc a† a + 12 . 1 En = h̄ωc (n + ). 2 We use n to label the quantum state | n i, and the action of the step operators √ on it is the usual a | n i = √ n | n − 1 i, a† | n i = n + 1 | n + 1 i and the ground state is defined by a | 0 i = 0. Thus, excitations to n (a† ) different LL are achieved by taking | n i = √n! | 0 i. Each of these energy levels (each n) is called a Landau Level (LL). The energy cost to go from one LL to another is h̄ωc . Clearly we get a degeneracy in each LL, which is associated to the value of km . We now proceed to calculate the maximum degeneracy. The restriction on the size of the sample 0 < y < Ly together with the maxi2 mum value for y, i.e. the center of oscillation y = lB k Ly implies 0 < km < l2 . Using the quantization condition B one gets kmax = 2πmmax Lx mmax = = Ly 2 . lB Then Area of the sample 2 2πlB measures the degeneracy of each LL. Notice that it is directly proportional to the external applied magnetic field. In fact, lets call is NB , the number of states in the 2 −1 ) as the density of LL, then we identify nB = (2πlB states in the LL and we can define the filling factor ν as the ratio between the electronic density and the density ch of states in each LL:ν = nnBe = N Φ Φ0 , where Φ0 ≡ e is the unit flux and Φ ≡ B × Area is the magnetic flux. In words: ν= number of eletrons . number of magnetic flux penetrating the sample As promised before let us go back to the definition of the kinetic momenta in terms of the η vector. The 2 2 2 hamiltonian becomes H = m 2 ωc ηx + ηy , and we notice that these quantities do not commute between them2 . Then we get also that the guidselves: [ηx , ηy ] = −ilB ing center coordinates are also non-commutative, giving 2 [x0 , y0 ] = ilB . This lead us to associate a kind of Heisenberg uncertainty principle to the two spatial directions, 2 where lB plays a similar role of the h̄ in the usual relation [x, p] = ih̄. The most precise measure one gets of these 2 coordinates is then given by ∆x0 ∆y0 = 2πlB , which is Area of the sample a minimal area. Thus, the ratio gives ∆x0 ∆y0 (again) the number of quantum states in each LL. Real space resembles the phase space. Let us consider a different approach to solve the hamiltonian which is more in the spirit of the many-body Our description of the quantum state is not complete yet. It is necessary to lift the degeneracy in each LL, described before. One can also notice that something is missing from the fact that the original hamiltonian - the original description of the system- was given in terms of two conjugate pairs, x, px and y, py , and so far we have only one conjugate pair: a and a† . The first step to solve this problem is to consider the angular momentum Lz = xpy − ypx . Lets take the foleB lowing substitutions: px = πx + eB 2c y, py = πy − 2c x, c c x = x0 + eB πy and y = y0 − eB πx . Then we get l2 B Lz = − 2lh̄2 (x20 + y02 ) + 2h̄ (πx2 + πy2 ), which clearly comB mutes with H. Now the second step is to notice that the last part of Lz can be written in terms of a and a† , while for the first part we define similarly the step operators associated to the guiding center coordinates: b= √ 1 (x0 + iy0 ) 2lB b† = √ 1 (x0 − iy0 ), 2lB then L̂z = h̄ a† a − b† b . The quantum number associated to the number operator b† b is m and the full quantum state is | n, m i =| n i⊗ | m i, so that L̂z | n, m i = h̄(n−m) | n, m i. An arbitrary state can be achieved from the vacuum | 0, 0 i by taking (a† )n (b† )m √ | n, m i = √ | 0, 0 i. n! m! Now we are interested in construct the wave functions the coordinate representation: ψn,m (x, y) = h x, y | n, mi. In order to do so, lets extend the 2 dimensional plane to a complex plane defining the two independent quantities z = x + iy and z̄ = x − iy. In these new variables the ∂ step operators are given by (with ∂ = ∂z and ∂¯ = ∂∂z̄ ) √ √ z z̄ ¯ a = −i 2 + lB ∂ b = −i 2 + lB ∂ 4lB 4lB 4 ∂ ∗ and the hermitian conjugate (remember that ( ∂z ) = ∂ − ∂ z̄ ). A state in the lowest Landau level (LLL) is defined by the condition a | n = 0, m i = 0, which, in the coordinate representation becomes z + lB ∂¯ ψn=0,m (z, z̄) = 0. 4lB − |z|2 4l2 B , The solution is very simple: ψn=0,m (z, z̄) = f (z)e with f (z) any analytic function. Now a state with m = 0 at any LL is defined by b | n, m = 0 i, which reads z̄ + lB ∂ ψn,m=0 (z, z̄) = 0. 4lB − |z|2 2 The solution is given by ψn,m=0 (z, z̄) = f˜(z̄)e 4lB with f˜(z̄) anti-analytic. Naturally the wave-function for | n = 0, m = 0 i is just the Gaussian term with a constant in the front (which is then both analytic and anti-analytic), fixed by normaliza- tion: ψn=0,m=0 (z, z̄) = √ 1 2 2πlB − e |z|2 4l2 B . The relevant state for us is that for the LLL and arbitrary m: √ m |z|2 − 2 im 2m z √ ψn=0,m = p 2 e 4lB . 2lB 2πlB m! THE FQHE The FQHE was first observed for a filling fraction of ν = 13 , and then RH = eh2 ν = 3h e2 . From the point of view of kinetic energy the state with ν = 1/3 is highly degenerate and there is no clear gap in the system: Pauli principle does not forbid the electron to jump to another LL (which costs h̄ωc ), but there is no need for it since there is enough room in the lowest Landau level (LLL), which is 1/3 filled. So, kinetic energy is not relevant to this situation, and may drops out. What one needs here is the Coulomb interaction between the electrons. This makes the situation seriously different from that of the IQHE: the strongly-correlated system cannot be treated within the perturbation theory for Fermi liquids and one needs to guess the ground state then. It is important to 2 remark that h̄ωc > VCoulomb ∼ leB . We now discuss how to (more or less) get the Laughlin’s wave function[4], which was in fact a very well succeeded guess. Lets start with the one-particle wave-function for the LLL, which reads (absorbing the magnetic length in the definition of z) ψ ∼ z m e− |z|2 4 , i.e., and analytic function times a Gaussian part. The quantum number m goes from 0 to NB − 1. Now, if two particles are considered, with positions z1 and z2 , we write ψ (2) (z, Z) ∼ Z M z m e− (|z1 |2 +|z2 |2 ) 4 where Z = (z1 + z2 )/2 and z = z1 − z2 . The quantum number m stands for the relative angular momentum of the two particles while M is related to the total angular momentum of the system. The fermionic character of the particles implies that m is odd. It has to be an integer due to the analyticity. So, m = 2s + 1, with s and integer. The Laughlin function is a generalization of this: P Y − |zj |2 /4 j ψm ({zj , z̄j }) ∼ (zk − zl )m e . (5) k<l This guess for the ground state must be now tested. In the variational approach one bases the quality of ) |H| φ(τ ) i ≥ the trial function on the inequality h ψ(τ h ψ(τ ) |ψ(τ )i (Ground state energy). The goal is to minimize the l.h.s of this inequality with respect to the parameters. In the case here, Laughlin parameter is the angular momentum quantum number m. In the ansatz (5) one has that the maximum value for Q m(N −1) the product k<l (zk − zl )m is zk (as can easily be tested), and we know that the highest power in the complex position of the particle is fixed by NB , which yields mN = NB , in the thermodynamic limit N, NB → ∞. Using the filling factor definition ν = N/NB we find that the variational parameter m is entirely fixed by the filling factor ν= 1 1 = , m 2s + 1 and the Laughlin wave-function is a genuine candidate for ground states with ν = 1, 13 , 15 , . . .. The ν = 1 case Notice that also the completely filled LL is described by the Laughlin wave-function: P − |zj |2 /4 j ψ({zj }) = fN ({zj })e , and being non-degenerate can be written in terms of the Slater determinant: 0 z1 . . . z1N −1 .. = Y(z − z ). fN ({zj }) = ... ... i j . z 0 . . . z N −1 i<j 1 N 5 Elementary excitations with fractional charge In order to obtain elementary excitations one needs 1 . There are two to vary the filing factor from ν = m ways of doing so: changing the electronic density or adding/removing magnetic flux. The later is related to the number of zeros in the Laughlin wave-function, thus one considers the ansatz ψqh (z0 , {zj , z̄j }) = N Y (zj − z0 )ψm ({zj , z̄j }) j and effectively each quantum number is increased by unit: mi → mi + 1, as can be verified just expanding the Laughlin function. Each electron jumps from a state with a given angular momentum to another (from a circular orbit to another with bigger radius if you want), leaving an empty state with m = 0 behind, which is the quasi-hole. In order to see that we can consider a very naive but interesting argument. The filling factor ν = 1/3 means that one electron shares 3 orbits. Then, when we add a quantum of flux in the center each quantum number m, of each orbit, is shifted by one unit. One considers that the last orbit is lost, once associated with it is the maximum value of m, thus a charge of e/3 goes out and what remains if a quasi-hole of charge −e/3 in the center. Notice that when a flux is introduced into the system a radial electric field appears. Faraday’s induction gives I 1 d 1 d Φ ⇒ E2πR = Φ. E · dr = c dt c dt Then a radial current density appears jr = σxy Eθ , giving Z Z 1 d I = dθrjr = dθRσxy Eθ = σxy Φ, c dt and the charge that goes out of the system is calculated integrating I in time: Z σxy h Qout = dt I = Φ0 = σxy . c e So, we see that the fractional conductivity is directly associated to the fractional charge. Using the experimental 2 result σxy = ν eh one gets Qout = eν = 3e . We now proceed to calculate the charge of the quasihole excitation in a more sophisticated way. The idea is walk around with the quasi-hole, calculate its Berry phase and then make it equal to the Aharonov-Bohm phase. The Berry phase is given by Z tf γ=i dt h ψqh (t) | ψ̇qh (t)i, ti where we put a dynamics for the hole in the above ansatz as z0 (t). The time derivative of the wave function is P quasi-hole d ln(zi −z0 (t)) (in order to easy to calculate and gives i dt see that one can check the case of (z1 − z0 (t))(z2 − z0 (t)), and try to write this same function again in the result). Now, instead of this sum, we take the integral Z X d d ln(zi − z0 (t)) = d2 rρ(r) ln(z − z0 (t)) dt dt i where the density (lots of delta functions) picks the points zi . So we get Z Z ż γ = i d2 r dt h ψqh | ρ(r) | ψqh i z0 − z and the integral in time can be substituted to the corresponding path: I dz0 = 2πi z0 − z if z is inside and it vanishes otherwise. Finally, after plugging this result in what is left is the average density times the area and we have γ = −2πn × Area. ∗ H The Aharonov-Bohm phase is given by eh̄ dl · A = 2πe∗ Φ cΦ0 . When we make it equal to the Berry’s phase we get the desired result e∗ = −νe. ANYONS AND CHERN-SIMONS THEORY In order to start the following discussion let us show how a singular gauge transformation can map a fermionic (or anyonic) wave function into a bosonic one. Consider a system of two particles, and suppose the effect of interchanging them is that the wave function gains a factor eiθ : ψ(eiθ z) = eiθ ψ(z), z being the relative coordinate. A bosonic wave-function should satisfy φ(eiπ z) = φ(z) and one can map both wave-functions by the local gauge transformation φ(z) = eiη(z) ψ(z) with η(z) = − πθ arg(z). Now that we know how to map a fermionic wavefunction into a bosonic one we map the whole problem of the 2DEG under strong magnetic field at low temperatures into an analogous problem involving bosons. The hamiltonian reads Ĥ = Ĥ0 + Ĥint where Z Ĥ0 = 2 d2 r ψ † (r) (−ih̄∇ + eA(r)) ψ(r) 2m 6 and Ĥint stands for the Coulomb interaction. We take the gauge transformation R 2 0 0 ψ(r) = e−iq d r θ(r−r ) φ(r) where θ(r) is the angle between the vector r and the x axis. This gauge transformation of the wave function must be accompanied by a gauge transformation on the vector potential. What we find out is that in order to guarantee the gauge invariance of the theory one needs to introduce the new field Z h̄ a(r) = − q∇ d2 r0 θ(r − r0 )ρ(r0 ), e called the Chern-Simons (CS) gauge field. One can show that ∇2 θ(r) = 0 and therefore the CS field satisfies the Coulomb gauge. Thus, the kinetic part of the hamiltonian becomes Z 2 (−ih̄∇ + eA(r) + ea(r)) Ĥ0 = d2 r φ† (r) φ(r). 2m Associated with this gauge field one has the magnetic field h b = ∇ × a = − qρ(r)k̂ e (6) . for each field. In the case of φ: (∂t +eA0 +ea0 )φ = − 1 (−ih̄∇−eA−ea)2 φ+(φ̄φ−ρ0 )φ, 2m and one can verify that equations for a0 and a are exactly (6) and (7). Remarkably the above equation shows that the system we are dealing with consists of bosonic fields interacting with the gauge field which is the sum of the ordinary electromagnetic connection with CS field, and there is also a self-interaction between the bosons. This equation is known as the non-linear Schrodinger equation. Uniform field solutions √ Take the field to be uniform, given by φ = ρ0 . A look at the equations of motion shows that one needs A + a = 0 and a0 = 0, and equation (6) gives B = q he ρ0 . From here one can extract the filling factor, which is the ratio between the density of bosons ρ0 and the flux 1 . density Be/h, getting ν = 1q = 2s+1 A comment on the conductivity ... unfiished... to appear soon!! As showed in [3], the two problems, i.e. the original one and that new one, with the new hamiltonian that includes the CS gauge field and bosonic wave-functions are equivalent only for q = 2s + 1. Now we consider the time derivative of (6) and use the continuity equation ∂t ρ + ∇ · j = 0 to get a total divergence equation which implies (up to a constant) µν ȧν = h µ qj . e (7) We then realize that equations (6) and (7) completely determine the dynamics of CS gauge field, which is therefore described by the lagrangian L= e µνρ aµ ∂ν aρ − aµ j µ . 2hq Our next step is to consider the theory given by LCSLG = 2 h̄ e ∇− (A + a) φ + 2mi 2m 2 1 e µνρ + δρ(r, t)V (r − r0 )δρ(r0 , t) + aµ ∂ν aρ 2 2hq The statistical properties of φ(r). Using the known properties of the fermionic field ψ(r) we can show that the R Chern-Simons field φ(r) = eiqη(r) ψ(r), where η(r) = d2 r0 θ(r − r0 )ρ(r0 ) has the following property: φ(r1 )φ† (r2 ) + eiqπ φ† (r2 )φ(r1 ) = δ(r1 − r2 ). This expression is the generalization of ψ(r1 )ψ(r2 ) = eiαπ ψ(r2 )ψ(r1 ), where q plays the role of the statistical angle α. For bosons and fermions the statistical angle is 2 and 1 giving the phases 1 and −1, and therefore the commutation/anti-commutation relations. The statistical angle being q = 2s + 1 implies a transformation of fermions into bosons. φ̄ (∂t + e(A0 + a0 )) φ + φ̄ where δρ(r) = |φ|2 − ρ0 . It is quite direct to compute the equations of motion [1] K. v. Klitzing, G. Droda, M. Pepper, Phys. Rev. Lett. 45, 494 (1980); [2] D.C. Tsui, H. Stormer, A.C. Gossard, Phys. Rev. Lett. 48, 559 (1982); 7 [3] Zhang, S.C., Inter. Jour. Mod. Phys. B v.6, No.1, (1992) 25-58; [4] Laughlin, R.B Phys. Rev. Lett. 50, 1395 (1983); [5] Here is a good point to remark on the fact that in 2 dimensions the resistance and resistivity become the same thing. In d dimensions they are related by R = ρL2−d , L being the side of the hypercube. [6] Notice that now we are interested in the symmetric gauge, instead of the Landau gauge used previously.