Download LEH Physiology.tst

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Geckos are able to walk up walls and across ceilings because of
A) the little suction cups on their toes.
B) the sticky adhesive secretions on their feet.
C) their sharp toenails that grasp surfaces.
D) the many hairs on their toes that form bonds with the wall and ceiling surface.
1)
2) The connection between structure and ________ is a basic concept of biology.
A) function
B) sex
C) species
2)
3) A physiologist is a biologist who studies
A) the evolution of animals.
C) the physics of living things.
D) adaptation
3)
B) the structure of body parts.
D) the function of body parts.
4) An organ system consists of
A) a collection of similar cells.
B) a group of coordinated tissues.
C) organs that collectively perform a vital body function.
D) blood, lymph, and other body fluids.
4)
5) Structure in the living world is organized into hierarchical levels. Which of the following lists these
from least inclusive to most inclusive?
A) molecule, cell, organ, organ system, tissue, organism
B) molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
C) cell, molecule, organ, organ system, tissue, organism
D) cell, molecule, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
5)
6) Tuna, sharks, and penguins have adapted to their environment by becoming fast swimmers. They
are fast swimmers due to the convergent evolution of
A) their exceptional capacity for energy storage.
B) their oversized fins and flippers.
C) their streamlined, tapered bodies.
D) the oily secretion on their skins.
6)
7) Some animals have evolved a body form that allows them to run very fast, while others run more
slowly. Whereas a cheetah can run at speeds over 50 mph, an elephant can barely run at 15 mph.
The most important physical factor behind this variance is the difference in
A) the shape of their feet.
B) the ratio of muscle to their total body mass.
C) the ratio of body length to body height.
D) the length of their legs.
7)
8) Which of the following is an example of a tissue?
A) red blood cell
C) heart muscle
8)
B) circulatory system
D) heart
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9) Which of the following is a major category of animal tissue?
B) heart
C) lymph
A) biceps
10) Stratified squamous epithelium is well-suited for
A) lining our lungs.
C) exchanging materials by diffusion.
9)
D) epithelium
10)
B) lining body surfaces subject to abrasion.
D) secreting mucus.
11) Epithelial tissues
A) sense stimuli.
B) cause body movements.
C) form a framework that supports the body.
D) cover both external and internal body surfaces.
11)
12) Which of the following items has a shape most like a squamous epithelial cell?
A) a cupcake
B) the letter ʺSʺ
C) a fried egg
D) a watermelon
12)
13) Which of the following statements about the cells of the mucous membrane lining your air tubes is
false?
A) They are stratified squamous epithelial cells.
B) They are cuboidal or columnar in shape.
C) They manufacture secretory products.
D) They carry cilia that sweep mucus up and out of the respiratory system.
13)
14) The liquid part of the blood that consists of water, salts, and dissolved proteins is known as
A) platelets.
B) interstitial fluid.
C) lymph.
D) plasma.
14)
15) Which of the following is a type of connective tissue?
A) epithelial tissue
B) muscle tissue
C) adipose tissue
15)
D) plasma
16) Which of the following is formed from a matrix of collagen fibers embedded in a hard mineral
substance?
A) fibrous connective tissue
B) bone
C) adipose tissue
D) cartilage
16)
17) What kind of connective tissue has an extracellular liquid matrix called plasma?
A) nerve tissue
B) loose connective tissue
D) adipose tissue
C) blood
17)
18) Connective tissue is different from the other major tissue types in that
A) it is found only in humans.
B) the cells are sparsely scattered through a nonliving matrix.
C) it is made of cells.
D) it is not made of cells.
18)
19) The most common type of connective tissue in the human body is
A) bone.
B) fibrous connective tissue.
C) loose connective tissue.
D) adipose tissue.
19)
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20) Smooth muscle is responsible for
A) the pumping action of the heart.
B) voluntary body activities.
C) an athleteʹs ability to run a 100-meter dash.
D) involuntary body activities.
20)
21) Which is the most abundant kind of tissue in an animal, such as a gorilla?
A) connective
B) muscle
C) nerve
21)
D) epithelial
22) Which of the following statements regarding skeletal muscle is true?
A) Skeletal muscle cells do not contain nuclei.
B) Skeletal muscle is largely responsible for involuntary body motions.
C) Skeletal muscle coordinates movement of nutrients and oxygen throughout the body.
D) Skeletal muscle is attached to bones by tendons.
22)
23) Unlike both smooth and skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle
A) generally cannot be contracted at will.
B) has branched cells.
C) has cells that are striated.
D) has cells that contact one another.
23)
24) The main function of muscle tissue is
A) sensation.
C) support.
24)
B) covering surfaces.
D) contraction.
25) Which type of tissue forms a communication and coordination system within the body?
A) blood
B) nervous
C) muscle
D) connective
25)
26) The structural and functional unit of nervous tissue is the
A) nerve.
B) axon.
C) dendrite.
26)
D) neuron.
27) An organ represents a higher level of structure than the tissue composing it and performs
functions that the tissues cannot perform alone. This is an example of the principle of
A) emergent properties.
B) cellular regulation.
C) structural adaptations.
D) biotechnology.
27)
28) Which of the following statements about organs is false?
A) An organ consists of several tissues.
B) An organ consists of many cells.
C) An organ can only carry out the functions of its component tissues.
D) An organ represents a higher level of structure than the tissues composing it.
28)
29) Which of the following tissues would likely be found in the small intestine?
A) cardiac muscle
B) nervous tissue
C) tendons
29)
D) bone tissue
30) Which of the following tissues can currently be produced artificially and has been successfully
used in human transplants?
A) heart muscle
B) urinary bladder
C) esophageal lining
D) skin
30)
31) The respiratory system includes all of the following structures except the
A) esophagus.
B) lung.
C) trachea.
31)
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D) larynx.
32) Which organ system removes nitrogen-containing waste products from blood?
A) lymphatic system
B) urinary system
C) muscular system
D) integumentary system
32)
33) Fingernails are a component of the ________ system.
A) muscular
B) respiratory
C) integumentary
D) skeletal
33)
34) Which of the following is a part of the immune system?
A) pancreas
B) lungs
C) bone marrow
D) liver
34)
35) Suppose your doctor decides to X-ray your hip. Which would show up more distinctly, the
muscles or the bones?
A) the muscles, because they are softer
B) the bones, because they are denser
C) the muscles, because they are metabolically more active
D) the bones, because they are rich in hydrogen
35)
36) X-ray imaging is routinely used to check for all of the following except
A) brain disorders.
B) tooth cavities.
C) broken bones.
36)
D) dense tumors.
37) Which of the following imaging techniques is best suited for visualizing fine anatomic detail in the
brain?
A) positron-emission tomography (PET)
B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) electrocardiogram
D) X-ray imaging
37)
38) Which of the following imaging techniques is used for visualizing areas of high or low metabolic
activity?
A) X-ray imaging
B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) computerized tomography (CT)
D) positron-emission tomography (PET)
38)
39) Assume you have scratched a mosquito bite and, in the process, damaged some of your stratified
squamous epithelial cells. What will happen?
A) Vitamin D synthesis will begin, thus encouraging cell replacement.
B) The damaged cells will heal themselves.
C) The function of the skin will be totally lost.
D) The cells near the base of the epithelium will rapidly replicate to replace the damaged cells.
39)
40) Which of the following is closely associated with the digestive, respiratory, and urinary systems?
A) the circulatory system
B) the reproductive system
C) the skeletal system
D) the muscular system
40)
41) Which of the following best represents an adaptation to increase surface -to-volume ratio?
A) the multilobed sacs in the lungs
B) the striations of skeletal muscle
C) the smooth skin of an earthworm
D) the long bones of a giraffe
41)
42) Cells receive material such as food, minerals, and oxygen from the outside world through
A) matrix fibers.
B) neurons.
C) water.
D) interstitial fluid.
42)
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43) Imagine an invertebrate that lives in an estuary where salinity varies cyclically with the tides. If
this individual is able to adjust the salt concentration of its body fluids, its salt concentration will
have
A) regular variations that range from large to small.
B) a cyclic variation similar to that of the surrounding water.
C) a cyclic variation depending upon when the animal drinks.
D) slight fluctuations that are kept within a narrow range.
43)
44) Homeostasis
A) is the maintenance of a relatively constant internal state.
B) is the way the internal environment influences the external environment.
C) occurs when the internal environment changes to match the external environment
D) results from hormone imbalance.
44)
45) The vertebrate kidney helps to keep the acidity of the body fluids constant by varying the amount
of hydrogen ions (H + ) it secretes into the urine. You can confidently predict that this aspect of
45)
kidney function will be controlled by
A) a negative feedback mechanism.
C) a positive feedback mechanism.
B) nerve impulses from the brain.
D) a hormone produced in the kidney itself.
46) Which of the following is most likely to be responsible if, when your blood sugar level rises, the
level of sugar goes back down?
A) type II diabetes
B) a homeostatic mechanism based on positive feedback
C) a homeostatic mechanism based on negative feedback
D) the use of the sugar for energy by your cells
46)
47) Most homeostasis depends on
A) negative feedback control.
C) predictable environmental conditions.
47)
B) hormonal regulation.
D) positive feedback control.
48) When body temperature is too high, which of the following occurs?
A) The brain sends out distress signals.
B) The internal lining of the intestine increases in surface area.
C) Capillaries contract.
D) Blood vessels in the skin dilate.
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48)
49)
49) Which type of epithelial tissue shown is a stratified tissue?
A) tissue A
B) tissue B
C) tissue C
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D) tissue D
50) Which part of this figure shows a complete organ system?
50)
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
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D) part D
51)
51) Which type of epithelial tissue shown is a stratified tissue?
A) tissue A
B) tissue B
C) tissue C
D) tissue D
52) Which of the following statements regarding animals is false?
A) Animals that eat plants are called herbivores.
B) Animals that eat meat are called carnivores.
C) Animals that extract food particles suspended in the surrounding water are called fluid
feeders.
D) Animals that live in or on their food source and eat their way through it are called substrate
feeders.
52)
53) Most animals are
A) fluid feeders.
C) suspension feeders.
53)
B) substrate feeders.
D) bulk feeders.
54) Digestion is the
A) breaking down of food into molecules small enough for the body to absorb.
B) conversion of glycogen to glucose.
C) absorption of nutrients suspended in water.
D) churning of food in the stomach and intestine.
54)
55) During which of the following stages of food processing is undigested material removed from the
digestive tract?
A) ingestion
B) digestion
C) absorption
D) elimination
55)
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56) What happens to nutrient macromolecules in an animalʹs digestive tract?
A) The digestive breakdown of macromolecules is keyed to the bodyʹs need for monomers; only
the monomers that are immediately needed are produced.
B) They are absorbed whole and are broken down into monomers in cells that ultimately use
them.
C) Nutrient macromolecules are digested into monomers before absorption.
D) Proteins and nucleic acids are digested into monomers before absorption; energy -storage
macromolecules (starch and fat) are absorbed whole.
56)
57) Through digestion, polysaccharides are broken down into
A) monosaccharides.
B) glycerols.
C) fatty acids.
D) amino acids.
57)
58) Through digestion, nucleic acids are broken down into
A) fatty acids.
B) amino acids.
C) nucleotides.
D) glycerols.
58)
59) Which of the following organisms has a gastrovascular cavity?
C) clam
A) hydra
B) bird
D) earthworm
59)
60) An animal digestive tract that consists of two openings (a mouth and anus) is called
A) the alimentary canal.
B) a mammalian crop.
C) an excretory system.
D) an intestine.
60)
61) An alimentary canal is best defined as
A) a tube-shaped compartment for the transport, digestion, and absorption of food.
B) a digestive cavity in which food is churned and mixed.
C) an organ designed for regulation of food passage.
D) the compartment in which an animal temporarily stores its food.
61)
62) The main function of an earthwormʹs gizzard is to
A) absorb nutrients.
C) moisten food.
62)
B) store food.
D) grind food.
63) Which of the following choices lists the organs of the bird digestive system in the correct order,
from first to last contact with food material?
A) esophagus, crop, gizzard, stomach, intestine, anus
B) esophagus, stomach, gizzard, crop, intestine, anus
C) esophagus, crop, stomach, gizzard, intestine, anus
D) esophagus, gizzard, crop, stomach, intestine, anus
63)
64) The main function of the hindgut in the grasshopper is to
A) absorb water and compact wastes.
B) digest food.
C) absorb vitamins and pulverize the food.
D) absorb nutrients.
64)
65) Digestion takes place in specialized compartments for all of the following reasons except that
A) the animalʹs body must be protected from its own digestive enzymes.
B) the environment of digestion must protect the food.
C) specialization of the sites of digestion promotes efficiency.
D) the environment of digestion must favor the action of digestive enzymes.
65)
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66) Which of the following correctly lists the order of the parts of the human digestive system, from
first to last contact with food matter?
A) oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine
B) pharynx, oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, large intestine
C) esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine
D) oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine
66)
67) Smooth muscle propels food through the alimentary canal by a process called
A) diffusion.
B) circular contractions.
C) peristalsis.
D) active transport.
67)
68) Regulation of the passage of food from the stomach is accomplished by
A) the stomach lining.
B) sphincters.
C) peristalsis.
D) reverse peristalsis.
68)
69) Digestion begins in the
A) oral cavity.
69)
B) stomach.
C) tongue.
D) esophagus.
70) The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth. What is the name given to the
starch-digesting enzyme secreted by salivary glands?
B) pepsin
C) lipase
D) amylase
A) bile salts
70)
71) Human saliva performs all of the following functions except
A) hydrolyzing proteins.
B) controlling bacterial populations.
C) neutralizing food acids.
D) hydrolyzing starch.
71)
72) The tongue does all of the following except
A) shape food into a ball called a bolus.
C) secrete saliva.
72)
B) push food into the pharynx.
D) taste food.
73) The epiglottis is a
A) muscle that moves the esophagus into line with the pharynx during swallowing.
B) muscle sphincter that closes off the entry to the trachea during swallowing.
C) flap of cartilage that flips down to cover the entry to the trachea during swallowing.
D) muscle that moves the trachea out of line with the pharynx during swallowing.
73)
74) The structure of the esophagus fits its function in that
A) its length determines the volume of food an animal can ingest.
B) it can direct food to the lungs or stomach.
C) it has smooth muscle for peristalsis.
D) it is regulated by contractions in the pharynx.
74)
75) The Heimlich maneuver is performed to forcibly
A) elevate the diaphragm.
C) depress the diaphragm.
75)
B) compress the intestines.
D) squeeze the ribs.
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76) The mucous-producing cells that line the stomach
A) lubricate and protect the stomach lining.
B) move food upward in the stomach to prolong digestion.
C) stimulate production of hydrochloric acid.
D) increase the surface of the stomach for faster digestion.
76)
77) The secretory parietal cells of the stomach are responsible for producing
A) lactic acid.
B) mucus.
C) hydrochloric acid.
D) pepsin.
77)
78) Which of the following mechanisms helps prevent the gastric juice from destroying the stomach
lining?
A) digestion of protein by pepsin
B) generation through mitosis of new cells to replace the stomach lining
C) secretion of acid-neutralizing compounds
D) protection of the cells of the stomach-lining by a bone-like substance
78)
79) The stomach mixes food with secretions of the stomach wall to form
A) a parietal bolus.
B) chyme.
C) gastrin.
D) gastric juice.
79)
80) The function of the sphincter between the stomach and small intestine is to
A) release bile into the duodenum when chyme is present.
B) release pancreatic secretions into the duodenum when chyme is present.
C) retain chyme in the stomach until pepsin digestion is complete.
D) periodically release chyme into the small intestine in squirts.
80)
81) Heartburn is usually caused by the
A) reflux of chyme from the stomach into the lower esophagus.
B) secretion of acid by the lining of the lower esophagus.
C) irritation of the lower esophagus by substances in spicy food.
D) retention of food at the bottom of the esophagus by a sphincter that is reluctant to open.
81)
82) When the wall of the stomach cannot protect the organ from the effects of digestion, the result is
A) reverse peristalsis.
B) heartburn.
C) nausea.
D) a gastric ulcer.
82)
83) Most gastric ulcers are caused by
A) overconsumption of alcohol.
C) bacteria.
83)
B) overuse of aspirin and/or ibuprofen.
D) excessive mental stress.
84) In the digestive system, most nutrient absorption occurs in the
A) small intestine.
B) pancreas.
C) large intestine.
84)
D) stomach.
85) Epithelial cells lining the intestine have surface projections that increase nutrient absorption. These
projections are called
A) microvilli.
B) rugae.
C) cilia.
D) villi.
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85)
86) What is the main digestive function of the pancreas?
A) to produce bicarbonate-containing mucus
B) to aid in the control of cholesterol
C) to produce digestive enzymes and bile salts
D) to produce digestive enzymes and an alkaline solution
87) Which of the following is important in the digestion of lipids?
C) pepsin
A) trypsin
B) bile salts
86)
87)
D) amylase
88) Which of the following digestive enzymes is present in children but often absent in adults?
A) sucrase
B) lipase
C) lactase
D) amylase
88)
89) Bile produced in the liver is stored in the ________ before entering the intestine.
A) common bile duct
B) pancreas
D) blood
C) gall-bladder
89)
90) Which enzyme breaks large polypeptides into smaller polypeptides?
A) lactase
B) amylase
C) chymotrypsin
90)
D) lipase
91) Which of the following nutrients is digested only after it reaches the small intestine?
A) protein
B) polypeptide
C) starch
D) fat
91)
92) Nutrients absorbed by the intestines move directly to the liver, which
A) converts the nutrients into monomers.
B) converts excess glucose to glycogen.
C) converts glucose to alcohol.
D) manages the amount of glucose that is converted to polysaccharides.
92)
93) Absorption of water is a major function of the
A) colon.
B) appendix.
93)
C) esophagus.
D) rectum.
94) Altogether, the body secretes about 7 liters of water into the alimentary canal each day. About
what percentage of this water gets reabsorbed?
A) 30%
B) 90%
C) 75%
D) 50%
94)
95) Which of the following statements regarding animal digestive systems is false?
A) We expect that an herbivore will have a longer alimentary canal than a carnivore of similar
body size.
B) When cows chew their cud, it helps to soften and break down plant fibers, making these
more accessible to digestion by microbes.
C) Many herbivorous animals have cellulose-digesting microbes in their colon and cecum.
D) Meat is more difficult to digest than vegetable matter because of its protein content.
95)
96) Lions are not always successful hunters, and may go days between meals. What evolutionary
adaptation helps the lion survive periods of famine?
A) an expandable stomach
B) formation of a two-chambered stomach
C) an extended cecum
D) a rich microbial flora in the colon
96)
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97) Interestingly, most herbivorous animals do not have the ability to digest the cellulose in plants.
However, in the absence of this ability, they have evolved a mechanism that allows them to
survive despite eating only plant matter, namely
A) digestion by symbiotic microorganisms.
B) production of saliva containing amylase.
C) avoidance of plants containing cellulose.
D) converting cellulose to other carbohydrates.
97)
98) Which of the following digestive system structures is greatly expanded in size in koalas, resulting
in a very large surface area for prokaryotes to digest plant material?
A) cecum
B) rumen
C) gall bladder
D) stomach
98)
99) All animals must obtain ________ from outside sources.
A) enzymes
B) fuel to power body activities
C) preformed ATP
D) chyme
99)
100) Which of the following statements regarding metabolism is false?
A) Humans store some extra energy in the form of glycogen reserves in the pancreas and spleen.
B) Cells usually use carbohydrates and fats as fuel sources.
C) The average basal metabolic rate for humans is 1300-1800 kcal per day.
D) The basal metabolic rate is the amount of energy an animal needs just to stay alive, and does
not include the energy needed for activities.
100)
101) The rate of energy consumption by the body is called
A) metabolic rate.
B) metabolism.
C) digestion.
101)
D) glycolysis.
102) Organisms suffering from malnutrition may have a diet deficient in
A) water.
B) bile and acids needed for digestion.
C) digestive enzymes.
D) one or more essential nutrients.
102)
103) A material that must be ingested in preassembled form because the animal cannot synthesize it is
A) an end product.
B) an essential nutrient.
C) glucose.
D) adenosine triphosphate.
103)
104) Essential fatty acids, which are required in the human diet, are
A) stored in the gallbladder.
B) the fatty acids used in the construction of the phospholipids of cell membranes.
C) the fatty acids that humans can synthesize from simpler molecules.
D) those fatty acids that humans are unable to synthesize.
104)
105) The essential amino acids
A) are required for making nucleic acids.
C) are essential as an energy source.
105)
B) must be obtained from the food we eat.
D) are found only in green, leafy vegetables.
106) Vegetarians who rely upon a single type of plant food
A) are soon unable to produce sufficient quantities of bile.
B) may become severely dehydrated.
C) run the risk of depleting their liver of glycogen.
D) may become protein-deficient.
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106)
107) Which of the following vitamins is fat-soluble and consequently, can be stored in body fat?
A) niacin
B) K
D) pantothenic acid
C) biotin
107)
108) Which of the following statements regarding vitamins is true?
A) They are simple inorganic compounds.
B) They can serve as coenzymes or parts of coenzymes.
C) They are major sources of dietary calories.
D) They must be ingested in large quantities.
108)
109) Which of the following choices correctly pairs a mineral with one of its major functions in the
body?
A) sodium = maintaining water balance in cells
B) iron = component of the nucleic acid backbone
C) phosphorus = maintaining water balance
D) calcium = used in amino acid metabolism
109)
110) If a person on a fad diet experiences muscle cramps and reduced appetite, a physician would
suspect that this individual is likely suffering from a deficiency of
A) iodine.
B) iron.
C) table salt.
D) calcium.
110)
111) The minimal amount of nutrients needed every day by healthy people to prevent nutrient
deficiencies is called the
A) MDA, Minimal Daily Allowances.
B) DNR, Daily Nutritional Requirements.
C) RMA, Recommended Minimal Allowances.
D) RDA, Recommended Dietary Allowances.
111)
112) When taken by pregnant women, _______ decreases the chance of neural tube defects in infants.
A) vitamin K
B) folic acid
C) calcium
D) vitamin C
112)
113) A food label indicates that the contents of a product contain 12 grams of total carbohydrate per
serving, 7 grams of sugar per serving (simple carbohydrate), and 2 grams of fiber per serving. How
many grams of digestible complex carbohydrate are there per serving?
A) 5
B) 12
C) 2
D) 3
113)
114) Which of the following diseases is associated with obesity?
A) cardiovascular disease
B) multiple sclerosis
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) chicken pox
114)
115) Which of the following is a hormone produced by adipose cells that helps to control appetite?
C) insulin
D) glucagon
A) leptin
B) bile
115)
116) Which of the following is widely regarded as a healthy approach to losing weight?
A) substituting fatty acids for carbohydrates
B) regularly engaging in exercise in addition to monitoring food intake
C) gastric bypass surgery
D) trimming daily carbohydrates back to less than 20 grams per day
116)
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117) Which of the following is associated with a reduced risk of cardiovascular disease?
A) high levels of HDL
B) high levels of LDL
C) high consumption of dietary cholesterol
D) high consumption of trans fats
117)
118) To reduce the risk of cancer, it has been suggested that a diet high in ________ is beneficial.
C) moldy foods
D) antioxidants
A) red meat
B) bacon
118)
119) Which arrow shows the release of digestive enzymes by the pancreas?
119)
A) arrow A
B) arrow B
C) arrow C
D) arrow D
120)
120) Which of these teeth is an incisor?
A) tooth A
B) tooth B
C) tooth C
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D) tooth D
121)
121) Which arrow shows the release of digestive enzymes by the pancreas?
A) arrow A
B) arrow B
C) arrow C
D) arrow D
122) According to this figure, which amino acid is found in corn but not in beans?
A) lysine
B) threonine
C) methionine
122)
D) valine
123) High-flying birds are able to obtain enough oxygen even when the air is very thin because
A) their mitochondria are more efficient than those of other vertebrates.
B) their heart can increase or decrease in size as altitude changes.
C) they have reduced amounts of hemoglobin in their blood.
D) they have more efficient lungs than other vertebrates.
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123)
124) The reason animals need a continuous supply of oxygen is to
A) make carbon dioxide.
B) obtain energy from their food.
C) carry out glycolysis.
D) dispose of carbon dioxide.
124)
125) A waste product of respiration is
A) hydrogen peroxide.
C) carbon dioxide.
125)
B) electrons.
D) glucose.
126) When you exhale, you
A) take up carbon dioxide and release oxygen.
B) remove CO2 from the body.
126)
C) take up oxygen and release carbon dioxide to the blood.
D) exchange CO 2 for O2 .
127) During gas exchange, body cells
A) release O2 to red blood cells.
127)
B) take up CO2 from red blood cells.
C) release CO2 and take up O2 .
D) increase in size to accommodate the reuptake of O 2 .
128) The body structure where gas exchange occurs is called the
A) capillary network.
B) respiratory surface.
C) integumentary surface.
D) exchange network.
128)
129) Animals that effectively use their body surface for gas exchange must
A) have a low ratio of body surface area to volume.
B) have a high ratio of body surface area to volume.
C) have a special kind of hemoglobin.
D) be terrestrial.
129)
130) Which of the following organisms has a respiratory system that does not require assistance from a
circulatory system for gas exchange?
A) grasshopper
B) crayfish
C) carp
D) mouse
130)
131) Which of the following is likely to have the lowest concentration of O 2 ?
131)
A) warm salt water
C) air
B) cool salt water
D) cool fresh water
132) The organization of blood and water flow in a fishʹs gills increases the fishʹs ability to
A) transport blood throughout the fishʹs body.
B) extract oxygen from the water.
C) detect toxic materials in the water.
D) extract carbon dioxide from the water.
132)
133) Which of the following statements about fish gills is true?
A) They have a surface area that is much greater than the body surface.
B) Because of their efficiency, they only need a small surface area.
C) Like lungs, they have an exhale/inhale function.
D) They have a poor blood supply.
133)
17
134) One advantage of gas exchange in water is that
A) it is easy to keep the exchange surface wet.
B) water can contain more oxygen than air.
C) carbon dioxide is easier to eliminate in water than in air.
D) ventilating gills in water requires very little energy.
134)
135) Gills are unsuitable for animals living on land because
A) the large surface area of gills would allow dehydration of the animal.
B) there is no way to get air into the gills.
C) air cannot diffuse across the gill surface.
D) gills require high blood pressure.
135)
136) In the countercurrent exchange system of fish gills,
A) blood and water are separated by a thick polysaccharide barrier.
B) blood and water flow in the same direction.
C) blood flow in the gills reverses direction with every heartbeat.
D) blood and water flow in opposite directions.
136)
137) Which of the following statements regarding breathing and circulation in insects is false?
A) The circulatory system of insects is not involved in transporting oxygen.
B) Terrestrial animals such as insects spend much more energy than aquatic animals to ventilate
their respiratory surfaces.
C) Insects lose very little water by using a tracheal system to breathe.
D) The tracheal system of insects consists of a series of branching air tubes that extend from the
surface to deep inside the body.
137)
138) The tracheal system of an insect is most like which of the following?
A) the electrical wiring in a home
B) leaves on a tree
C) the air duct system in a building
D) the exhaust system of an automobile
138)
139) Evolutionary movement of aquatic vertebrates to land involved an intermediate individual that
A) had both gills and lungs.
B) is called a ʺpodafish.ʺ
C) evolved a tracheal system of branching internal tubes.
D) could fly.
139)
140) Evolutionary adaptations for survival on land produced tetrapods, which later evolved into
A) migratory birds.
B) snakes and skinks.
C) frogs and toads.
D) amphibians, reptiles, and mammals.
140)
141) Which of the following animals requires the largest and most complex lungs proportional to its
overall body size?
A) frog
B) turtle
C) newt
D) bear
141)
142) Which of the following options correctly lists the direction of carbon dioxide travel as it leaves the
body?
A) alveoli, bronchioles, bronchi, trachea, pharynx, larynx
B) alveoli, bronchi, bronchioles, trachea, pharynx, larynx
C) alveoli, bronchi, bronchioles, trachea, larynx, pharynx
D) alveoli, bronchioles, bronchi, trachea, larynx, pharynx
142)
18
143) Which of the following is a function of the nasal cavities in humans?
A) determining O2 content in inhaled air
143)
B) warming inhaled air
C) secreting excess carbon dioxide into exhaled air
D) secreting enzymes for digestion
144) What name is given to the sheet of muscle that helps move air in and out of the lungs?
A) diaphragm
B) bronchus
C) trachea
D) alveolus
144)
145) Within the lungs, gas exchange occurs across
B) diaphragms.
A) bronchi.
145)
C) bronchioles.
146) The ________ is a passageway shared by both food and air.
A) nasal cavity
B) pharynx
C) larynx
D) alveoli.
146)
D) trachea
147) Labored breathing, coughing, lung infections, and respiratory failure are characteristics defining
A) tuberculosis.
B) myasthenia gravis
C) meningitis.
D) chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases.
147)
148) Cigarette smoke can affect the white blood cells that reside in our lungs, whose purpose is to
A) enhance oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange.
B) maintain appropriate pH and moisture levels within the lungs.
C) prevent emphysema.
D) engulf foreign particles.
148)
149) Why do cigarette smokers cough more than nonsmokers?
A) Cigarette smoke harms the cilia that normally move debris out of the lungs, and coughing is
the remaining way to clean the lungs.
B) The tar in cigarette smoke tends to make alveoli stick together, and coughing separates them.
C) By raising the pressure in the lungs, coughing forces more oxygen into the blood.
D) Cigarette smoking partially paralyzes the muscles in the lungs, resulting in an increased
residual volume, and coughing exchanges this ʺdead air.ʺ
149)
150) Cigarette smoking and secondhand smoke cause cancer due to the
A) toxins in the smoke.
B) effects they have on our breathing mechanisms.
C) immunosuppressive effects they display.
D) resistance they have for products of our immune system.
150)
151) The maximum amount of air that a human can inhale and exhale is called the
A) inhalation capacity.
B) tidal volume.
C) physiological volume.
D) vital capacity.
151)
152) Inhalation in humans is achieved by
A) contraction of the diaphragm and chest muscles.
B) contraction of the diaphragm.
C) relaxation of the diaphragm and chest muscles.
D) contraction of muscles in the lungs.
152)
19
153) When you are breathing normally, exhalation results mainly from
A) the relaxation of the chest muscles and diaphragm.
B) the contraction of muscles in the chest.
C) the contraction of the diaphragm.
D) low pressure in the lungs.
153)
154) Compared to the vital capacity, how much air can lungs actually hold?
A) always less
B) sometimes more
C) sometimes less
D) always more
154)
155) The function of passageways for gas exchange in birds is to
A) adjust the temperature of air.
B) permit one-way ventilation of the lungs.
C) lighten the bird.
D) store air for times of physical exertion.
155)
156) Air leaving human lungs during exhalation contains
A) no oxygen.
B) carbon dioxide and unused oxygen.
C) mostly carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide.
D) no carbon dioxide.
156)
157) When you hold your breath, which of the following blood gas changes leads initially to the urge to
breathe again?
A) falling oxygen concentration
B) rising carbon dioxide concentration
C) falling carbon dioxide concentration
D) rising oxygen concentration
157)
158) What part of the human brain contains the primary breathing control center?
A) cerebellum
B) neocortex
C) thalamus
D) medulla oblongata
158)
159) Medullary breathing centers directly sense and respond to
A) alveolar O2 concentration.
B) blood pH and O2 concentration.
159)
C) blood pH and CO2 concentration.
D) blood O2 concentration.
160) In a mammal, blood leaving the lungs goes to
A) the liver.
B) the brain.
160)
C) the heart.
D) the limbs.
161) Oxygen moves from blood into the interstitial fluid and then to body cells because
A) it diffuses from a region of higher partial pressure to a region of lower partial pressure.
B) it descends down an osmotic gradient, following the movement of water.
C) it diffuses from a region of lower partial pressure to a region of higher partial pressure.
D) it diffuses from a higher to a lower pH.
161)
162) Oxygen is mostly transported through the body in which of the following ways?
A) dissolved in the blood
B) bound to dissolved iron
C) dissolved in red blood cells
D) bound to hemoglobin
162)
163) The oxygen-carrying component in red blood cells is
A) hemoglobin.
B) iron.
C) the cell membrane.
D) bicarbonate ions.
163)
20
164) Most CO2 is transported to the lungs in which of the following ways?
164)
A) attached to hemoglobin or as bicarbonate ions
B) as carboxyl
C) dissolved in the plasma
D) as carbonic anhydrase
165) Which of the following contributes to gas exchange in the human fetus?
A) the lack of turbulence in fetal blood
B) the lower blood pH of the embryo
C) the stronger attraction that fetal hemoglobin has for oxygen when compared to adult
hemoglobin
D) the high oxygen levels maintained in the amniotic fluid by the placenta
165)
166) What prompts a newborn baby to start to breathe?
A) exposure to air
B) an increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the babyʹs blood
C) a change in the temperature on the surface of the skin
D) a decrease in the concentration of oxygen in the babyʹs blood
166)
167) Which part of the diagram shows alveoli?
167)
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
21
D) part D
168) Which part of the diagram shows alveoli?
168)
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
22
D) part D
169)
169) At which point(s) in the figure is blood oxygen-rich?
A) points A and B
B) points A and D
C) point C only
D) points D and E
170) Which of the following statements regarding circulation is true?
A) Muscle contraction tends to pull blood downward into the lower parts of the body of a
terrestrial vertebrate.
B) Valves in veins and muscle contractions pressing against veins slow down the return of
blood to the heart.
C) Gravity does not affect blood moving through the circulatory system.
D) A standing giraffe requires a great deal more pressure to pump blood to its head than an
animal with a shorter neck.
23
170)
171) Which of the following statements regarding circulatory systems is true?
A) The smallest blood vessels in the body are veins.
B) A circulatory system is necessary in any animal whose body is too large or too complex for
vital chemicals to reach all parts of the body by diffusion.
C) Veins carry blood away from the heart to body organs and tissues.
D) Materials are exchanged directly between the blood and body cells.
171)
172) Which of the following is a function of the circulatory system?
A) mounting a response to invading microorganisms
B) transporting nutrients to body cells
C) transporting nerve impulses throughout the body
D) governing nutrient concentration in the blood
172)
173) The two basic types of circulatory systems that have evolved over time are
A) open and closed.
B) flat and circular.
C) transverse and repetitive.
D) single and double.
173)
174) Which of the following is characteristic of the circulatory system of arthropods?
A) lack of blood
B) lack of a heart
C) lack of distinction between blood and interstitial fluid
D) lack of blood vessels.
174)
175) Adaptation to terrestrial life required major evolutionary changes. The change from gill breathing
to lung breathing was accompanied by important changes in the
A) reproductive system.
B) association of blood and interstitial fluid.
C) cardiovascular system.
D) manufacture of blood cells.
175)
176) Which of the following animals has a single circuit of blood flow and two heart chambers?
A) salmon
B) salamander
C) snake
D) squirrel
176)
177) Which of the following animals has a three-chambered heart?
A) human
B) bird
C) crocodile
177)
D) snake
178) Although birds and mammals descended from different ancestors, they both have a
four-chambered heart. This is the result of
A) the necessity for rapid movement of blood.
B) convergent evolution.
C) genetic aberrations that resulted from mistakes in somatic cell division.
D) the simplification of the cardiovascular system.
178)
179) Which of the following statements about mammalian circulatory systems is false?
A) The pulmonary circuit carries blood between the heart and the lungs.
B) The left side of a mammalʹs heart sends blood to the lungs.
C) Mammals have two atria and two ventricles in their hearts.
D) The systemic circuit carries blood between the heart and the rest of the body.
179)
24
180) In mammals, blood returning from the head will pass through the ________ just before entering
the right atrium.
A) inferior vena cava
B) left atrium
C) superior vena cava
D) aorta
180)
181) In mammals, which of the following vessels transports oxygenated blood from the lung back to the
heart?
A) pulmonary artery
B) vena cava
C) pulmonary vein
D) coronary artery
181)
182) Oxygen-poor blood is carried from the heart of a mammal to the lungs via the
A) pulmonary arteries.
B) venae cavae.
C) coronary veins.
D) pulmonary veins.
182)
183) Blood is pumped from the heart to the lungs by the
A) right atrium.
B) left atrium.
183)
C) right ventricle.
D) left ventricle.
184) From the left ventricle, oxygen-rich blood flows through the
A) superior vena cava.
B) pulmonary vein.
C) pulmonary artery.
D) aorta.
184)
185) The largest blood vessel in the human body is the
A) pulmonary artery.
C) aorta.
185)
B) arteria maxima.
D) vena cava.
186) During which phase of the heartbeat does the heart fill with blood?
A) systole
B) resting phase
C) atrial phase
186)
D) diastole
187) Cardiac output is defined as the volume of blood pumped by a(n) ________ each time it contracts.
A) ventricle
B) atrium
C) atrioventricular valve
D) heart
187)
188) During ventricular systole, the ________ valves ________.
A) semilunar . . . open
B) AV and semilunar . . . close
C) AV . . . open
D) semilunar . . . close
188)
189) Using a stethoscope, you listen to a beating heart and hear ʺlub -dup, lub-dup.ʺ These sounds are
created by
A) valves in the heart closing.
B) blood pressure differentials from chamber to chamber.
C) muscles in the left ventricle.
D) blood flowing through the aorta.
189)
190) The location of the heartʹs pacemaker is a specialized region of cardiac muscle called the
A) sinoatrial node.
B) Purkinje fibers.
C) atrioventricular node.
D) heart center of the brain.
190)
25
191) The main function of the AV node is to
A) set the rhythm of the heartbeat.
B) initiate the heartbeat.
C) relay a signal for the ventricles to contract.
D) relay the signal for the heart to contract from the right ventricle to the right atrium.
191)
192) Myocardial infarction, also called a heart attack,
A) actually causes no permanent damage to the heart.
B) is the damage or death of cardiac muscle tissue.
C) is caused by excessive blood pressure in the heart.
D) is unrelated to cigarette smoking.
192)
193) Which of the following is the cause of more than half of all deaths in the United States?
A) diabetes
B) flu
C) cardiovascular disease
D) cancer
193)
194) Arteries are distinguished from veins based on all of the following features except
A) the direction of blood flow relative to the heart.
B) the blood pressure.
C) the amount of oxygen present in the blood.
D) the structure of their walls.
194)
195) Which blood vessels have the thinnest walls?
A) capillaries
B) veins
195)
C) arterioles
196) In humans, which blood vessels have valves?
A) capillaries
C) veins
B) arterioles
D) arteries in the neck
D) venules
196)
197) As blood moves away from the heart towards the tissues, the relative size of blood vessels
________, the blood pressure ________, and the velocity of blood flow ________.
A) decreases. . . increases . . . increases
B) decreases . . . drops. . . slows
C) increases. . . drops . . . slows
D) decreases. . . drops . . . increases
197)
198) In which of the following human blood vessels is the blood pressure lowest?
A) capillaries in the feet
B) arteries in the head
C) arterioles in the legs
D) veins in the head
198)
199) Which kind of vessel has the lowest blood velocity?
A) vein
B) venule
199)
C) capillary
200) Which of the following factors contributes to the flow of blood in veins?
A) skeletal muscle contractions
B) blood pressure generated by the heart
C) the number of red blood cells in venous blood
D) the diameter of capillaries
26
D) artery
200)
201) Which of the following statements regarding blood pressure is false?
A) High blood pressure can lead to an enlarged and weakened heart, increased risk of heart
attack, stroke, and kidney failure.
B) The higher number in a blood pressure reading measures the force of a heart contraction.
C) Hypertension is defined as persistent systolic pressure above 120 and/or diastolic above 80.
D) Normal blood pressure for adult humans is usually at or below 120/80.
201)
202) Which of the following can contribute to high blood pressure?
A) regular exercise
B) smoking
C) maintaining proper weight
D) eating a heart-healthy diet
202)
203) At any given time, what percentage of the bodyʹs capillaries have blood flowing through them?
A) 4050%
B) 8590%
C) 510%
D) 2025%
203)
204) Blood flow through capillaries is controlled by
A) precapillary sphincters only.
B) precapillary sphincters and smooth muscle in the walls of arterioles.
C) one-way valves.
D) smooth muscle in the walls of arterioles only.
204)
205) What type of blood vessel is solely responsible for exchange between the blood and the interstitial
fluid?
A) capillary
B) artery
C) venule
D) arteriole
205)
206) The diameter of a capillary is about the same as that of
A) a nerve.
B) a red blood cell.
C) a venule.
D) an arteriole.
206)
207) One way that substances move between blood and interstitial fluid is by
A) active transport utilizing ATP.
B) osmosis.
C) pressure-driven flow through clefts between the epithelial cells of the capillary wall.
D) alternatively breaking and regenerating membranes of cells lining capillaries.
207)
208) Whether there is a net flow of fluid into or out of a capillary at a given point along its length
depends upon
A) whether or not the fluid contains oxygen.
B) the balance between blood pressure and osmotic pressure.
C) whether the fluid contains nutrients or wastes.
D) the needs of the tissue.
208)
209) The liquid part of blood is called
A) extrastitial fluid.
C) plasma.
209)
B) serum.
D) water.
210) Cells make up about what percentage of total blood volume?
A) 10%
B) 80%
C) 25%
27
210)
D) 45%
211) Plasma proteins are involved in all of the following activities except
A) carrying oxygen.
B) blood clotting.
C) maintaining osmotic balance.
D) fighting infection.
211)
212) Which of these statements about erythrocytes is true?
A) Erythrocytes are shaped like biconcave disks.
B) Each erythrocyte contains about 1 million molecules of hemoglobin.
C) Erythrocytes in adult humans have nuclei.
D) The main function of erythrocytes is to carry nutrients.
212)
213) Which of the following cells are phagocytes?
A) basophils and eosinophils
C) lymphocytes only
213)
B) monocytes and neutrophils
D) lymphocytes, basophils, and eosinophils
214) How long do human red blood cells circulate in the blood before they wear out and have to be
replaced?
A) 10 to 12 months
B) 1 to 2 weeks
C) 3 to 4 months
D) 1 month
214)
215) What is the most common cause of anemia?
A) iron deficiency
C) vitamin deficiency
215)
B) low blood pressure
D) inefficient hemoglobin production
216) An adult humanʹs red blood cells are formed in the
A) spleen.
B) bone marrow.
C) thoracic cavity.
216)
D) liver.
217) Which of the following can increase red blood cell concentration in a unit of blood?
A) reducing blood levels of EPO
B) hydration
C) training at low altitudes
D) blood doping
217)
218) Blood clots are formed by platelets and the plasma protein
A) thrombin.
B) hemophilin.
C) fibrinogen.
218)
D) sealin.
219) Which of the following statements about blood clotting is true?
A) The first response to an injury is dilation of the damaged blood vessels.
B) Fibrin is enzymatically converted to fibrinogen.
C) During the clotting response, platelets rapidly congregate in the interstitial fluid.
D) Threads of fibrin form a fibrin clot.
219)
220) Multipotent stem cells found in the red marrow inside bones
A) phagocytize bacterial cells.
B) are responsible for an immune response.
C) are primarily important in blood clotting.
D) can differentiate into all blood cells and platelets.
220)
221) Bone marrow stem cells are sometimes used to treat certain blood cell diseases, such as
A) leukemia.
B) anemia.
C) hemophilia.
D) cardiovascular disease.
221)
28
222)
222) Which part of this figure depicts an arteriole?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D
223)
223) Which part of this figure depicts a pulmonary artery?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
29
D) part D
224) Which of the following describes the stage of the cardiac cycle shown?
224)
A) AV valves closed, SL valves open, ventricles relaxed
B) AV valves closed, SL valves open, ventricles contracting
C) AV valves open, SL valves closed, ventricles contracting
D) AV and SL valves both open, ventricles contracting
225)
225) Which part of this figure depicts an arteriole?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D
226) The bodyʹs innate defenses against infection include
A) several nonspecific antibodies.
B) barriers such as dead skin cells and mucus.
C) memory cells.
D) increased production of certain hormones and changes in microcirculation.
226)
227) Which of the following wander through the interstitial fluid and consume any bacteria and
virus-infected cells they encounter?
A) erythrocytes
B) macrophages
C) leukocytes
D) interferons
227)
30
228) Natural killer cells
A) ʺeatʺ microorganisms that have been tagged with antibodies.
B) are phagocytes that attack and kill pathogenic microorganisms.
C) attack virus-infected cells by releasing chemicals that lead to cell death.
D) tag pathogenic microorganisms with antibodies.
228)
229) What substance, produced by virus-infected cells, diffuses to neighboring cells to help them fight a
viral infection?
A) interleukin-2
B) interferon
C) lysozyme
D) histamine
229)
230) A researcher who detects a higher-than-normal amount of interferon in a laboratory rat would
correctly conclude that
A) the ratʹs diet is deficient in calcium.
B) cancerous cells are present in the rat.
C) monocytes are differentiating into macrophages in the ratʹs bloodstream.
D) the rat has, or recently had, a viral infection.
230)
231) Some complement proteins
A) are released by natural killer cells to attack cancer and virus-infected cells.
B) replace T cells in the cell-mediated response.
C) help trigger the inflammatory response.
D) induce antibody formation by phagocytic cells.
231)
232) Which of the following helps activate our nonspecific (innate) defense system?
A) active immunity
B) mobilization of erythrocytes
C) passive immunity
D) inflammation
232)
233) When you cut yourself, the damaged cells immediately release chemical alarm signals, such as
A) histamine.
B) interferon.
C) complement.
D) antihistamine.
233)
234) Which of the following is an immediate effect of histamine release?
B) conversion of histamine to histidine
A) blocking of a response to ragweed pollen
C) dilation of local blood vessels
D) increase in blood pressure
234)
235) The major result of the inflammatory response is to
A) initiate the production of antibodies.
B) initiate the production of killer cells.
C) initiate cell-mediated immune responses.
D) remove contaminating microorganisms and initiate repair of damaged tissues.
235)
236) Bacterial infections can cause a serious, potentially fatal systemic inflammatory response called
A) pneumonia.
B) septic shock.
C) anaphylaxis.
D) pelvic inflammatory disease.
236)
237) The human lymphatic system consists of all of the following structures except the
A) thymus.
B) pancreas.
C) tonsils.
D) spleen.
237)
31
238) The two main functions of the lymphatic system are
A) returning tissue fluid to the circulatory system and fighting infections.
B) producing hormones that regulate the immune system and coagulating blood.
C) producing hormones that regulate the immune system and fighting infections.
D) coagulating blood and fighting infections.
238)
239) A molecule that can elicit an adaptive immune response is called
A) an interferon.
B) an antigen.
C) an antibody.
239)
D) a complement.
240) Antibodies are
A) amino acids.
D) lipids.
240)
B) carbohydrates.
C) proteins.
241) One kind of vaccine consists of
A) antibiotics.
B) B cells.
C) a harmless variant strain of a disease-causing microbe.
D) buffered antibodies.
241)
242) Which of the following diseases cannot currently be prevented by vaccination?
A) measles
B) tetanus
C) AIDS
D) polio
242)
243) The transfer of antibodies in breast milk to an infant is an example of ________ immunity.
A) passive
B) active
C) nonspecific
D) humoral
243)
244) Passive immunity depends upon
A) a personʹs own immune system producing antibodies.
B) antibodies made by another organism.
C) antigens from a personʹs own body.
D) antibody-producing cells from another organism.
244)
245) Which of the following cell types is responsible for the humoral immune response?
A) B cells
B) neutrophils
C) macrophages
D) natural killer cells
245)
246) Which of the following statements about the humoral immune response is true?
A) The humoral immune response defends against bacteria and viruses by activating T cells.
B) The humoral immune response plays a major role in protecting the body from cancerous
cells.
C) The humoral immune response is the result of macrophages producing antibodies.
D) The humoral immune response defends primarily against bacteria and viruses present in
body fluids.
246)
247) Which of the following cell types is responsible for the cell-mediated immune response?
A) leukocytes
B) T cells
C) natural killer cells
D) B cells
247)
32
248) The adaptive immune system is capable of mounting specific responses to particular
microorganisms because
A) lymphocytes are able to change their antigen specificity as required to fight infection.
B) stem cells make different antigen receptors depending on the invading microorganism.
C) stem cells determine which type of B and T cells to make.
D) the body contains an enormous diversity of lymphocytes, each with the ability to respond to
a different antigen.
248)
249) Which of the following statements regarding antigens and antibodies is false?
A) An antibody usually recognizes and binds to an antigenic determinant.
B) Most antigens are proteins or large polysaccharides on the surfaces of viruses or foreign cells.
C) A single antigen may stimulate the immune system to make several distinct antibodies to it.
D) Each antibody has only one antigen-binding site.
249)
250) A primary immune response is
A) the immune response elicited by the first exposure of memory cells to a particular antigen.
B) the immune response elicited by the primary antibodies of a disease-causing microorganism.
C) the immune response elicited by the primary antigen of a disease-causing microorganism.
D) the immune response elicited by the first exposure of lymphocytes to a particular antigen.
250)
251) Clonal selection
A) requires the presence and activation of complement.
B) requires the activation of natural killer cells.
C) determines the pool of mature leukocytes that will be stimulated by macrophages.
D) describes the proliferation of B and T lymphocytes after they have been activated by an
antigen.
251)
252) When a B cell first interacts with its particular antigen, the B cell
A) differentiates and develops into a clone of antibody-producing effector cells.
B) dies after destroying the antigen.
C) alters the chemical configuration of the antigen.
D) engulfs the antigen and digests it.
252)
253) Which of the following choices best describes a plasma cell?
A) It is a differentiated T cell.
B) It responds to an antigen and differentiates into a B cell.
C) It is produced during a primary immune response, persists, and multiplies in response to a
reappearance of the antigen.
D) It is a differentiated B cell.
253)
254) The secondary immune response occurs when memory cells bind to
A) hormones.
B) antigens.
C) antibodies.
254)
D) plasma cells.
255) Which of the following distinguishes the secondary immune response from the primary immune
response?
A) The primary response is specific; the secondary one is not.
B) The secondary response allows additional antigens to be recognized faster.
C) The primary response involves B cells; the secondary one involves T cells.
D) The secondary response is faster and stronger.
33
255)
256) Which of the following statements about antibodies is false?
A) The antibodies of mammals can be divided into two major classes.
B) Antibodies recognize and bind to particular antigens.
C) Antibody molecules are constructed from four polypeptide chains.
D) The polypeptide chains of an antibody molecule have both a V (variable) region and a C
(constant) region.
256)
257) Antibody molecules may function by causing the
A) agglutination of viruses or bacteria.
C) crystallization of antigenic particles.
257)
B) destruction of complement proteins.
D) solubilization of viruses or bacteria.
258) The complement system can be activated by
A) B cell plasma membrane.
C) T cells.
B) antigen-antibody complexes.
D) inflammatory mediators.
258)
259) Monoclonal antibodies are produced
A) when an animal is infected by a single type of pathogen.
B) by cells that are formed when a B cell is fused to a tumor cell.
C) by cells that are formed when a B cell is fused to a T cell.
D) when a female is pregnant.
259)
260) Which of the following statements regarding monoclonal antibodies is false?
A) Monoclonal antibodies are used in some home pregnancy tests.
B) Monoclonal antibodies can be used to bind toxins to tumor cells.
C) Monoclonal antibodies include several different antibodies that all bind to one antigen.
D) Monoclonal antibodies can be used to diagnose some sexually transmitted diseases.
260)
261) The basic function of activated T cells is to battle
A) chemical mediators of immunity.
B) pathogens that have already entered body cells.
C) pathogens in blood or lymph.
D) pathogens in interstitial fluid.
261)
262) When an antigen-presenting cell interacts successfully with a helper T cell, the antigen-presenting
cell secretes a signal molecule that assists in the activation of the helper T cell. This signal molecule
is
A) interferon.
B) complement.
C) perforin.
D) interleukin-1.
262)
263) What type of cell helps to stimulate B cells to produce antibodies?
A) helper T cell
B) cytotoxic T cell
C) macrophage
263)
264) Which of the following is an effect of interleukin-2?
A) stimulating helper T cells to divide
B) stimulating antigen-presenting cells
C) stimulating mass cells to release histamine
D) modulating macrophage phagocytosis
34
D) plasma cell
264)
265)
265) After binding to an infected cell, the cytotoxic T cell
A) releases interleukin-1.
B) neutralizes the infecting bacteria or viruses.
C) becomes a phagocytic cell.
D) releases a protein called perforin.
266) ________ can destroy infected cells.
A) Macrophages
C) Cytotoxic T cells
266)
B) B cells
D) Plasma cells
267) Which of the following statements about HIV is false?
A) HIV attacks mast cells.
B) New HIV are produced inside helper T cells.
C) The genome of HIV consists of RNA.
D) Some drugs have proven effective in combating the spread of HIV from mothers to their
children.
267)
268) Which of the following types of cells does HIV preferentially infect?
A) natural killer cells
B) helper T cells
C) memory cells
D) cytotoxic T cells
268)
269) Which of the following statements about AIDS is true?
A) AIDS patients live no longer than 2 to 3 years.
B) Using condoms during sex prevents the spread of the virus that causes AIDS.
C) The AIDS vaccine can prevent the spread of HIV.
D) There is now a treatment for AIDS that is simple and effective.
269)
270) HIV is a virus that is particularly difficult to eradicate
A) because it rarely mutates.
B) because it mutates to produce new drug-resistant strains.
C) due to its small size.
D) because of its DNA genome.
270)
271) Why has it been so difficult for researchers to develop effective antivirals for HIV?
A) because HIV has a high mutation rate
B) due to the damaged helper T cells that are targets for HIV
C) because HIV is a sexually transmitted viral disease
D) because the virus is able to produce DNA as an intermediate in viral replication
271)
272) ________ genes are responsible for coding for self -proteins.
A) MHC
B) STR
C) RFLP
272)
D) PCR
273) Which of the following diseases is thought to be an autoimmune disease?
A) cancer of the bone marrow
B) measles and mumps
C) duodenal ulcer
D) insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
273)
274) What type of immune response is always disadvantageous to a person?
A) autoimmune
B) humoral
C) complement-mediated
D) inflammatory
274)
35
275) Which of the following compounds is produced and secreted by mast cells during an allergic
reaction?
A) histamine
B) allergens
C) perforin
D) interferon
275)
276) Anaphylactic shock is an example of an
A) allergic response.
C) acquired autoimmune disease.
276)
B) immunodeficiency disease.
D) autoimmune disease.
277) Which part of this figure shows an active plasma B cell?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
36
277)
D) part D
278)
278) Which part of this figure shows an active plasma B cell?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D
279)
279) Where is the antigen-binding site of this antibody?
A) site A
B) site B
C) site C
37
D) site D
280) Thermoregulation, an important part of homeostasis, is defined as
A) reduced blood flow to an animalʹs extremities.
B) the maintenance of internal body temperature within a tolerable range.
C) a mechanism for utilizing body fat.
D) the mechanisms that allow an animal to hibernate without food or drink.
280)
281) Animals that maintain internal body temperature using heat generated by their own metabolism
are called
A) dormants.
B) thermoregulators.
C) endotherms.
D) aerophiles.
281)
282) It is a cool winter evening, and you are feeling a little chilled. To warm yourself up, you sip some
warm tea. As you swallow, you can feel the tea warm your mouth and throat. This tea is warming
you up by the process of
A) conduction.
B) radiation.
C) induction.
D) convection.
282)
283) Which of the following processes involves heat exchange between an animal and its environment?
A) evaporation
B) irradiation
C) suppuration
D) induction
283)
284) Which of the following physiological responses occurs in the human body when it becomes
overheated?
A) slowing of the heart rate
B) increased blood flow to the skin
C) constriction of blood vessels in the skin
D) retention of water
284)
285) The transfer of heat from arteries carrying warm blood past veins returning cooler blood is an
example of
A) insulation.
B) evaporative cooling.
D) a countercurrent heat exchanger.
C) behavioral thermoregulation.
285)
286) To enhance heat loss, humans sweat, an adaptation known as
A) homeostasis.
B) evaporative cooling.
C) the maintenance principle.
D) a behavioral response.
286)
287) Marine animals that have body fluids with a solute concentration equal to that of the surrounding
seawater are
A) hypertonic.
B) osmoconformers.
C) osmoinformers.
D) osmoregulators.
287)
288) Which of the following statements regarding freshwater fish is true?
A) Freshwater fish do not produce urine.
B) Freshwater fish use their gills to actively take up salt ions.
C) Freshwater fish frequently drink to obtain salt ions.
D) Freshwater fish lose water through their gills by osmosis.
288)
289) To conserve precious salts, freshwater fish
A) eliminate water by osmosis.
C) produce small amounts of urine.
289)
B) drink through their gills.
D) produce large amounts of urine.
38
290) Which of the following statements regarding saltwater fish is true?
A) Saltwater fish produce large amounts of diluted urine.
B) The concentration of solutes in the internal fluids of saltwater fish is higher than in the
surrounding environment.
C) The concentration of solutes in the internal fluids of saltwater fish is much lower than in the
surrounding water.
D) Saltwater fish must visit freshwater streams and rivers entering the ocean to maintain the
correct concentration of solutes in their internal fluids.
290)
291) Which of the following by-products of metabolism is most toxic?
A) lactic acid
B) ammonia
C) carbon monoxide
D) urea
291)
292) Which of the following kinds of animals excrete their nitrogenous waste entirely as ammonia?
A) fish
B) birds
C) garden snails
D) insects
292)
293) What is the advantage of excreting nitrogenous waste in the form of ammonia?
A) Ammonia is less soluble than uric acid.
B) Ammonia excretion conserves energy.
C) Ammonia is less toxic than uric acid.
D) Ammonia does not diffuse across cell membranes.
293)
294) The land animals that evolved from earlier aquatic forms had to change their mechanisms for
excreting nitrogenous wastes because
A) land animals had a more difficult time with water balance than aquatic species since water
was not always available on land.
B) land animals found better food sources.
C) aquatic animals did not have as much protein in their diets as did land animals.
D) land animals concurrently developed a more efficient reproduction system.
294)
295) Natural selection is natureʹs mechanism for selecting characteristics that best adapt the animal to
its environment. Mammals have evolved a sophisticated mechanism for eliminating nitrogenous
wastes that involves
A) secretion through cell membranes.
B) producing uric acid and excreting it with feces.
C) recycling urea and using it as an energy source.
D) forming urea and storing it in concentrated solution.
295)
296) Birds, like other animals, must eliminate ammonia or urea, and do so by converting them to
A) uric acid.
B) ammonium ions.
C) sodium chloride.
D) amino acids.
296)
297) Which of the following statements about uric acid is true?
A) Animals that excrete uric acid avoid the problem of water loss associated with excretion of
urea.
B) Uric acid cannot be excreted because of its toxicity.
C) The darker material in bird droppings is mostly uric acid.
D) Uric acid is more soluble in water than urea.
297)
39
298) Which of the following is a function of the vertebrate liver?
A) excreting urea
B) synthesizing ammonia from uric acid
C) combining ammonia and carbon dioxide to form urea
D) producing urea from uric acid and carbon dioxide
298)
299) Which of the following is a function of the excretory system?
A) maintenance of water balance
B) detoxification
C) elimination of undigested foods
D) production of urea
299)
300) What is the name of the functional unit of the kidney?
A) glomerulus
B) renal unit
C) nephron
D) Bowmanʹs capsule
300)
301) Through which of the following structures does urine leave the bladder?
A) urethra
B) distal convoluted tubule
C) renal medulla
D) ureter
301)
302) Which of the following statements regarding the urinary system is true?
A) The urethra is responsible for transporting urea from the kidney to the urinary bladder.
B) The urinary bladder receives ammonia for excretion.
C) Bowmanʹs capsule envelops the glomerulus.
D) Most glomeruli are located in the renal medulla.
302)
303) Which of the following options correctly lists the structures in the kidney in the order in which
fluid flows through them?
A) Bowmanʹs capsule, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule, glomerulus
B) glomerulus, Bowmanʹs capsule, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule
C) glomerulus, proximal tubule, distal tubule, Bowmanʹs capsule, loop of Henle
D) proximal tubule, Bowmanʹs capsule, loop of Henle, distal tubule, glomerulus
303)
304) During filtration in the glomerulus, which of the following will enter Bowmanʹs capsule from the
bloodstream?
A) water
B) nucleic acids
C) lymphocytes
D) ammonia
304)
305) The first step in the formation of urine is the
A) reabsorption of nutrients by Bowmanʹs capsule.
B) formation of filtrate that enters Bowmanʹs capsule.
C) secretion of hydrogen ions into the kidney tubules.
D) secretion of urea into the renal pelvis.
305)
306) Urine flows from the collecting duct into the
A) renal pelvis.
B) ureter.
306)
C) urethra.
D) distal tubule.
307) The overall process that refines the filtrate and ultimately returns water and valuable solutes to the
blood is known as
A) reabsorption.
B) collection.
C) excretion.
D) purification.
40
307)
308) Secretion is the movement of substances such as drugs or toxic molecules from the ________ into
the ________.
A) urinary bladder . . . outside
B) glomerulus . . . nephron tubule
C) nephron tubule . . . glomerulus
D) blood . . . filtrate
308)
309) During production of urine, a major function of the kidney is
A) amino acid production.
B) detoxification.
C) water conservation.
D) uric acid production.
309)
310) Water moves out of filtrate in the nephron tubule into the interstitial fluid by
A) refinement.
B) osmosis.
C) secretion.
D) capillary action.
310)
311) Where along the nephron is glucose reabsorbed from the filtrate back into the blood?
A) proximal tubule
B) distal tubule
C) loop of Henle
D) Bowmanʹs capsule
311)
312) Why must water that has moved to the interstitial fluid in the medulla be quickly removed from
the interstitial fluid?
A) to maintain an environment for transport of nutrients
B) to equilibrate the concentration of solutes in the cortex and medulla
C) to prevent dilution of urine
D) to prevent destruction of the concentration gradient necessary for water reabsorption
312)
313) What is the function of urea reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidney?
A) It restores the correct concentration of blood urea.
B) It moves the urea into the ascending limb of the loop of Henle so that it can be excreted from
there in the urine.
C) It reduces the salinity of the renal medulla and thus helps regulate how much water is
reabsorbed from the urine.
D) It increases the osmotic concentration of the interstitial fluid in the renal medulla so that
more water can be extracted from the urine.
313)
314) What is the function of antidiuretic hormone?
A) to stimulate sodium reabsorption
B) to counter the effects of alcohol consumption
C) to increase water reabsorption
D) to increase urination
314)
315) The dialyzing solution used during kidney dialysis functions much like a fluid associated with a
nephron. What is the fluid?
A) the filtrate in the Loop of Henle
B) the filtrate in the distal tubule
C) interstitial fluid
D) the filtrate in the proximal tubule
315)
316) In a dialysis machine, wastes are removed from blood plasma by a process of
A) diffusion.
B) filtration and reabsorption.
C) absorption and reabsorption.
D) reabsorption and diffusion.
316)
41
317) Which arrow in this figure shows heat transfer by conduction?
317)
A) arrow A
B) arrow B
C) arrow C
D) arrow D
318) Which arrow in this figure shows heat transfer by conduction?
318)
A) arrow A
B) arrow B
C) arrow C
42
D) arrow D
319) Which part of the nephron shown is its proximal tubule?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
319)
D) part D
320)
320) Which arrow in this schematic view of the nephron shows reabsorption?
A) arrow A
B) arrow B
C) arrow C
D) arrow D
321) Hormones are chemicals produced by the endocrine system that
A) control the formation of urine.
B) function to prevent a variety of diseases, such as diabetes.
C) regulate a variety of body functions, such as metabolism.
D) are stimulated by the action of metabolic enzymes.
321)
322) How are hormones distributed to tissues, and what determines which cells hormones will affect?
A) They are delivered by neurosecretory cells to specific tissues and cells, which are affected.
B) They are distributed locally in the interstitial fluid and affect nearby responsive target cells.
C) They are carried to specific organs by lymphatic vessels and affect the cells in those organs.
D) They are carried throughout the body in the bloodstream, and each hormone affects target
cells that have receptors for it.
322)
43
323) Compared to the endocrine system, the nervous system
A) has a slower response and a signal that does not last as long.
B) has a faster response with a longer-lasting signal.
C) has a slower response with a longer-lasting signal.
D) has a faster response, but the signal does not last as long.
323)
324) Chemical signals secreted into the interstitial fluid that only affect target cells near the secretory
cell are called
A) pheromones.
B) second messengers.
C) local regulators.
D) hormones.
324)
325) Neurosecretory cells
A) are restricted to the endocrine system.
B) participate in the nervous and endocrine systems.
C) are local regulators.
D) produce hormones that will regulate nontarget cells.
325)
326) The two main classes of molecules that function as hormones are steroid hormones and hormones
that are derived from
A) long-chain fatty acids.
B) nucleic acids.
C) amino acids.
D) cholesterol.
326)
327) Which of the following options lists the sequence of events in the cell-signaling process in the
correct order?
A) reception, signal transduction, response
B) reception, response, signal transduction
C) signal transduction, response, reception
D) signal transduction, reception, response
327)
328) Why must some hormones bind to a membrane receptor on a target cellʹs surface in order to
activate it?
A) to stimulate endocytosis to internalize the hormone
B) for activation by ATP
C) because they cannot cross cell membranes
D) because they are not water-soluble
328)
329) The result of binding a signal molecule to its receptor is
A) production of a protein by the target cell, followed by death.
B) partitioning of the nucleus within the target cell.
C) cell division.
D) signal transduction.
329)
330) A target cell that is affected by a particular steroid hormone would be expected to have
A) a cell-surface receptor protein that binds the hormone.
B) enzymes that are activated or inactivated by the hormoneʹs second messenger.
C) enzymes that are activated or inactivated by the intracellular hormone-receptor complex.
D) an intracellular receptor protein that binds the hormone.
330)
331) Steroid hormones are lipids made from
A) nucleic acids.
C) carbohydrates and amino acids.
331)
B) cholesterol.
D) amino acids.
44
332) Which of the following statements about steroid hormones is true?
A) Steroid hormones activate a transcription factor.
B) Steroid hormones bind to specific receptor proteins and the complex acts as a gene activator.
C) Steroid hormones are polar molecules that cannot pass through the cell membrane.
D) Steroid hormones cause the production of cAMP.
332)
333) A single steroid hormone can cause different effects in different cells by
A) acting on different organelles.
B) activating different second messengers.
D) activating different enzymes.
C) binding to different receptors.
333)
334) Which of the following statements regarding endocrine glands is true?
A) The pancreas has only nonendocrine functions.
B) The sex organs and the thyroid gland produce steroid hormones.
C) Some endocrine glands, like the pituitary, have other endocrine glands as their targets.
D) Most of the endocrine glands produce steroid hormones.
334)
335) Which of the following endocrine glands synthesizes melatonin?
A) pineal
B) adrenal cortex
C) parathyroid
335)
D) thyroid
336) Which of the following hormones stimulates and maintains metabolic processes?
A) calcitonin
B) oxytocin
C) thyroxine
D) melatonin
336)
337) Which of the following options correctly pairs an endocrine gland or hormone with an aspect of
metabolism that it regulates?
A) prolactin = manages blood potassium levels
B) parathyroid = stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids
C) insulin = regulates blood glucose levels
D) pancreas = stimulates growth of the uterine lining
337)
338) Which of the following is an endocrine gland that raises blood calcium levels?
A) pituitary gland
B) parathyroid
C) testes
338)
D) thyroid gland
339) Which of the following statements about glands and hormones is true?
A) The posterior pituitary is composed of lymphatic tissue.
B) The hypothalamus is an endocrine gland responsible for producing the hormone calcitonin.
C) The pituitary is the master control center of the endocrine system.
D) The anterior pituitary is composed of endocrine cells.
339)
340) Which of the following hormones is released by neurosecretory cells extending from the
hypothalamus?
A) calcitonin
B) estrogen
C) growth hormone
D) oxytocin
340)
341) Which of the following hormones affects the greatest variety of cell types?
A) melatonin
B) calcitonin
C) endorphin
D) growth hormone
341)
342) TRH is a type of ________ hormone secreted by the ________.
A) releasing . . . hypothalamus
B) steroid . . . thyroid gland
C) peptide . . . thymus
D) releasing . . . anterior pituitary
342)
45
343) Which gland requires the element iodine to produce its hormones?
A) ovary
B) pineal
C) thyroid
D) adrenal medulla
343)
344) An excess of T3 and T 4 in the blood is hyperthyroidism, which in its most common form is called
B) goiter.
A) botulism.
C) sterility.
D) Gravesʹ disease.
344)
345) Which of the following processes depends on the presence of appropriate calcium levels in the
blood and interstitial fluid?
A) movement of hormones throughout the body
B) capillary dilation
C) transmission of nerve signals from cell to cell
D) synthesis of interferons
345)
346) Which of the following may be a consequence of excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone?
A) exhaustion of the immune system
B) convulsive contractions of skeletal muscles
C) gigantism
D) loss of calcium from the bone
346)
347) Which of the following pairs of hormones have opposite effects?
A) progesterone and insulin
B) oxytocin and prolactin
C) testosterone and melatonin
D) parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
347)
348) Which gland exerts primary control over the concentration of sugar in the blood?
A) pancreas
B) pineal
C) parathyroid
D) liver
348)
349) Which of the following is a nonsteroid hormone?
A) androgen
C) a glucocorticoid
349)
B) estrogen
D) glucagon
350) Which of the following statements best describes the relationship of insulin to glucagon?
A) They work together to prepare the body to deal with stress.
B) They are antagonistic hormones.
C) Insulin stimulates the pancreas to secrete glucagon.
D) Insulin is a steroid hormone; glucagon is a protein hormone.
350)
351) When the concentration of glucose in the blood rises following digestion of a meal, what is the
hormonal response?
A) More insulin is released.
B) More glucagon is released.
C) Levels of both glucagon and insulin increase.
D) Neither glucagon nor insulin is released.
351)
352) Which of the following hormones causes glucose release and, consequently, a rise in the
concentration of sugar in the blood?
A) calcitonin
B) insulin
C) glucagon
D) oxytocin
352)
46
353) What is the metabolic abnormality that underlies the characteristic symptoms of diabetes mellitus?
A) an inability of the bodyʹs cells to absorb enough glucose from the blood
B) a failure of the kidney tubules to reabsorb enough glucose from the urine
C) an inability of the bodyʹs cells to switch from glucose metabolism to fat metabolism between
meals
D) an inability of the bodyʹs cells to retain glucose they have absorbed from the blood
353)
354) Which of the following is associated with obesity, often does not show up until after the age of 40,
and occurs because cells of the body fail to respond adequately to insulin?
A) hyperglycemia
B) hypoglycemia
C) type 1 diabetes
D) type 2 diabetes
354)
355) Which of the following glands is located nearest the kidneys?
A) pancreas
B) ovaries
C) adrenal glands
355)
D) pineal glands
356) Which of the following glands secretes hormones that enable the body to respond to stress?
A) adrenal
B) pineal
C) parathyroid
D) pancreas
356)
357) Which of the following is a function of epinephrine?
A) increase in digestive activities
B) decreased metabolic rate
C) decreased heart rate
D) release of glucose from the liver
357)
358) Which of the following act mainly to regulate salt and water balance?
A) oxytocin
B) mineralocorticoids
C) androgens
D) glucocorticoids
358)
359) High levels of which of the following hormones can suppress the bodyʹs immune system?
A) glucocorticoids
B) antidiuretic hormone
C) glucagon
D) mineralocorticoids
359)
360) Which of the following is one of the three major categories of sex hormones?
A) glucocorticoids
B) estrogens
C) prolactins
360)
361) Androgens stimulate
A) ovulation.
C) growth of breasts in mammals.
D) glucagons
361)
B) growth of facial hair in humans.
D) the female reproductive system.
362) The hormone prolactin, found in distantly related vertebrates, exerts different effects in different
species. From an evolutionary standpoint, this is an indication that prolactin
A) was not required in fish and amphibians.
B) can only have functions related to childbirth.
C) is an ancient hormone whose function diversified through evolution.
D) was a recent evolutionary adaptation.
362)
363) Prolactin is a hormone whose molecular structure has remained stable over evolutionary time, but
whose hormonal role has changed dramatically in different animal species. This is an excellent
example of how evolution
A) has stayed within narrow boundaries in regard to regulation of homeostasis.
B) is responsible for mutation in vertebrates.
C) can both preserve unity and promote diversity.
D) occurs rapidly at the molecular level to keep up with changing environmental influences.
363)
47
364) Which molecule in this figure portraying water-soluble hormone action is the receptor protein?
A) molecule A
B) molecule B
C) molecule C
48
D) molecule D
364)
365) Which molecule in this figure portraying water-soluble hormone action is the receptor protein?
A) molecule A
B) molecule B
C) molecule C
49
D) molecule D
365)
366) Which step in this figure portraying lipid-soluble hormone action shows transcription in response
to the bound hormone-receptor complex?
366)
A) step 1
B) step 2
C) step 3
D) step 4
367) Between 1980 and 2006, the rate of multiple births in the United States more than doubled,
primarily as a result of
A) increased exposure to new sources of radiation.
B) better physical condition of potential mothers.
C) increased use of fertility drugs.
D) better nutrition available for potential mothers.
367)
368) Which of the following is not a potential advantage of asexual reproduction?
A) It allows animals that are genetically well suited to a particular environment to quickly
expand their populations.
B) It allows animals that do not move around to produce offspring without finding mates.
C) It saves the time and energy required to produce gametes.
D) It produces genetically diverse populations.
368)
369) Fission is an asexual process
A) in which a parent separates into two individuals of approximately equal size.
B) that occurs in individuals that live in isolated areas.
C) that allows regeneration of lost body parts.
D) in which a parent fragments into several pieces.
369)
50
370) Which of the following statements regarding sexual reproduction is true?
A) Sexual reproduction creates an individual that is a genetic copy of one parent.
B) Populations of organisms that reproduce through sexual reproduction generally have more
difficulty adapting to changing environments.
C) Sexual reproduction generates greater genetic variation than asexual reproduction.
D) Sexual reproduction allows animals to expand their populations faster than asexual
reproduction.
370)
371) Hermaphrodites are animals that
A) must fertilize themselves.
B) have the gonads of one sex but the external appearance of the other.
C) develop from unfertilized eggs.
D) possess both male and female reproductive systems.
371)
372) Reproductive systems with external fertilization are most common in
A) terrestrial animals.
B) animals that are widely dispersed.
C) populations with many more males than females.
D) aquatic animals.
372)
373) Which of the following statements about the reproductive system of human females is true?
A) The cervix is an important structure of sexual arousal.
B) The corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which helps maintain the uterine lining during
pregnancy.
C) After 9 months of development, an embryo is called a fetus.
D) In human females, eggs develop within the uterus.
373)
374) The human egg is swept through the oviduct toward the uterus by
A) rhythmic contractions of the oviduct.
B) the beating of the eggʹs cilia.
C) the beating of cilia in the oviduct.
D) rhythmic contractions of the uterus.
374)
375) Fertilization in the female reproductive tract typically occurs in the
A) lower part of the oviduct.
B) ovary.
C) upper part of the oviduct.
D) uterus.
375)
376) The embryo implants in the ________ of the uterus.
A) exometrium
B) myometrium
376)
C) endometrium
D) perimetrium
377) Human testes are positioned in an external sac rather than in the abdominal cavity
A) to shorten the distance that sperm must swim during insemination.
B) to shorten the distance that semen must travel during ejaculation.
C) so the testes can enlarge during sexual maturation.
D) so the testes can be kept cooler than the bodyʹs interior.
377)
378) Men who take very long, hot baths are likely to
A) produce fewer sperm.
B) produce more sperm and ones that are healthier.
C) produce healthier sperm.
D) produce more sperm.
378)
51
379) After being produced in the testes, sperm mature further in a structure called the
A) seminal vesicle.
B) vas deferens.
C) prostate.
D) epididymis.
379)
380) Which of the following produces a thick fluid containing fructose, which is used for energy by
sperm?
A) epididymis
B) prostate gland
D) seminal vesicles
C) bulbourethral gland
380)
381) Which of the following statements regarding spermatogenesis and oogenesis is true?
A) Meiosis in oogenesis produces one mature egg from one primary oocyte.
B) Spermatogenesis begins at birth.
C) Oogenesis begins at puberty.
D) Meiosis in spermatogenesis produces two cells from one primary spermatocyte.
381)
382) Which of the following statements comparing spermatogenesis and oogenesis is true?
A) Spermatogenesis, but not oogenesis, is an example of gametogenesis.
B) Men, but not women, can produce gametes throughout their lives.
C) Spermatogenesis and oogenesis rely upon mitosis to produce gametes.
D) During oogenesis, four cells are produced with each sharing equally the cytoplasm from the
parent cell.
382)
383) Menstruation
A) coincides with the beginning of the pre-ovulatory phase of the ovarian cycle.
B) is triggered by an LH surge.
C) is triggered by an increase in the levels of estrogen and progesterone.
D) is triggered by HCG.
383)
384) Which of the following hormones stimulates the growth of an ovarian follicle?
A) FSH
B) progesterone
C) estrogen
D) LH
384)
385) A decrease in ________ is followed by the gradual degradation of the corpus luteum.
A) FSH
B) estrogen
C) LH
D) progesterone
385)
386) Which of the following agents can cause an infection that can ultimately develop into pelvic
inflammatory disease in women?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) papilloma virus
C) Candida albicans
D) Treponema pallidum
386)
387) Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus that can also cause cancer?
A) genital warts
B) gonorrhea
C) candidiasis
387)
D) syphilis
388) Sterilization, in which the sperm is surgically prevented from reaching the egg, is accomplished by
A) mifepristone.
B) the rhythm method.
C) cervical capping.
D) tubal ligation or vasectomy.
52
388)
389) Which of the following statements regarding birth control is true?
A) The most widely used birth control pills contain a combination of FSH and LH.
B) Birth control pills work primarily by preventing fertilization and implantation.
C) Natural family planning is generally reliable.
D) Morning-after pills taken within three days of unprotected intercourse prevent fertilization
or implantation about 75% of the time.
389)
390) The function of a sperm cellʹs acrosome is to
A) carry enzymes that help the sperm penetrate the egg.
B) fuse with the jelly coat of the egg cell.
C) carry the fuel that powers the sperm.
D) carry the spermʹs nucleus.
390)
391) Which of the following generates the ATP that is required for movement of the spermʹs tail?
A) the sperm plasma membrane
B) mitochondria in the sperm tail
C) a mitochondrion in the neck and middle piece
D) the acrosome
391)
392) Which of the following serves as an impenetrable barrier that prevents more than one sperm from
fertilizing an egg?
A) the jelly coat of the egg
B) the acrosome
C) the spermʹs plasma membrane
D) the vitelline layer
392)
393) Which of the following events occurs first during embryonic development?
A) cleavage
B) gastrulation
C) organ formation
D) neurulation
393)
394) Which of the following results from cleavage?
A) formation of the notochord
C) segmentation
394)
B) formation of more cells
D) formation of the nervous system
395) Which of the following processes is most similar to the process of cleavage?
A) slicing up a pie into eight pieces
B) inflating a balloon
C) melting a stick of butter in a hot pan
D) stringing beads onto a string
395)
396) Two important contributions that cleavage makes to development are to
A) create a multicellular embryo and establish the basic tissues of the body.
B) establish the basic body plan and determine the location of the mouth and anus.
C) create a multicellular embryo and partition the embryo into developmental regions.
D) establish the basic tissues of the body and define the future nervous system.
396)
397) At the end of gastrulation, the ectoderm makes up the
A) inner layer of the gastrula.
B) embryonic nervous system.
C) outer layer of the gastrula.
D) lining of the embryonic digestive tract.
397)
53
398) What occurs during gastrulation?
A) A hollow blastula is changed into a hollow embryo that has three tissue layers.
B) A neural tube is created by invagination of the ectoderm.
C) A solid embryo is changed into a hollow morula.
D) A solid blastula is changed into a hollow embryo that has four tissue layers.
398)
399) Which of the following structures develops from mesodermal tissue?
A) nervous system
B) lining of the digestive tract
C) skin
D) muscles
399)
400) The brain and spinal cord are formed from
A) the neural tube, which forms from mesoderm
B) the notochord, which forms from endoderm
C) the neural tube, which forms from ectoderm
D) the notochord, which forms from mesoderm
400)
401) Which of the following options correctly represents the sequence in which most animals develop?
A) zygote, cleavage, gastrula, blastula, organ formation
B) zygote, cleavage, blastula, gastrula, organ formation
C) cleavage, zygote, gastrula, blastula, organ formation
D) zygote, cleavage, organ formation, blastula, gastrula
401)
402) When a chemical signal from a group of embryonic cells causes a different, nearby group of cells to
embark on a particular developmental course (say, differentiating into a leg), the interaction
between the two groups of cells is called
A) induction.
B) codifferentiation.
C) coordinated differentiation.
D) potentiation.
402)
403) Cells migrate from one place to another during gastrulation using
A) cellular protrusions.
B) peristalsis.
C) flagella.
D) cilia.
403)
404) Which of the following occurs during cellular migration and development into specialized tissue?
A) Cells are transferred to the appropriate region of the embryo via the bloodstream.
B) Cells fuse to produce multinucleated giant cells.
C) Most cells of the developing tissue undergo the process of apoptosis.
D) Similar cells glue themselves in place by secreting glycoproteins.
404)
405) Which of the following describes apoptosis?
A) neural tube formation
C) phagocytosis
405)
B) gastrulation
D) programmed cell death
406) Research indicates that ________ respond(s) to ________ signals that inform a cell about its position
relative to other cells in the embryo.
A) nervous tissue . . . hormonal
B) organs . . . radio
C) master control genes . . . chemical
D) organelles . . . chemical
406)
407) The discovery of ________ explains embryonic pattern formation in a wide variety of organisms.
A) homeotic genes
B) the three-dimensional forms of animals
C) programmed cell death
D) induction
407)
54
408) A major goal of developmental research is to understand
A) hormone interactions.
B) DNA transcription.
C) evolutionary similarities between species.
D) how DNA directs formation of a three-dimensional animal.
409) Another term for gestation is
A) conception.
B) development.
408)
409)
C) fertilization.
D) pregnancy.
410) When does the human blastocyst implant in the wall of the uterus?
A) about a week after conception
B) within a few hours of fertilization
C) about a day after conception
D) only after all four extraembryonic membranes become established.
410)
411) The yolk sac of humans
A) secretes HCG.
B) is evidence of humanʹs relationships to egg-laying vertebrates.
C) stores nutrients to support the developing embryo.
D) absorbs nutrients from, and releases waste to, the motherʹs blood.
411)
412) The human embryoʹs first blood cells arise in the
A) allantois.
C) developing liver.
412)
B) developing bone marrow.
D) yolk sac.
413) What would happen if the chorion failed to secrete human chorionic gonadotropin?
A) Neural tube formation would not occur, and the embryo would have no central nervous
system.
B) The embryo would be aborted.
C) The fetal elements of the placenta would fail to develop.
D) The maternal elements of the placenta would fail to develop.
413)
414) Which of the following structures contributes to the structure of the placenta as well as completely
surrounding the embryo?
A) chorion
B) allantois
C) yolk sac
D) amnion
414)
415) At which gestational age does a developing human fetus first look obviously human and not like
other vertebrate embryos?
A) 4 weeks
B) 4 months
C) 9 weeks
D) 2 weeks
415)
416) Which of the following processes dominates the third trimester of human development?
A) organ formation
B) formation of hair and fingernails
C) rapid growth
D) formation of external features such as arms and legs
416)
55
417) Which of the following occurs during the process of labor?
A) positive feedback involving estrogen and human chorionic gonadotropin
B) negative feedback involving oxytocin and prostaglandins
C) positive feedback involving oxytocin and prostaglandins
D) negative feedback involving estrogen and human chorionic gonadotropin
418) Contractions in uterine smooth muscle during labor are initiated by
A) epinephrine.
B) estrogen.
C) prolactin.
417)
418)
D) oxytocin.
419) Which of the following options correctly lists the three stages of labor in the order in which they
occur?
A) contractions, dilation, expulsion
B) dilation, crowning, expulsion
C) dilation, expulsion, delivery of the placenta
D) dilation, crowning, delivery of the placenta
419)
420) Which of the following statements regarding infertility and fertilization procedures is true?
A) Children conceived using reproductive technologies such as IVF and ICSI display a high rate
of abnormalities resulting from these procedures.
B) In IVF, fertilization occurs in a dish. The embryo is allowed to develop for several days, then
the embryo is placed into the uterus.
C) Embryos fertilized through assisted reproductive technologies cannot be frozen for later use,
as they degrade rapidly.
D) In GIFT, sperm are injected into an embryo in vitro, and the embryo is placed into the
oviducts.
420)
421) In which part of the human female reproductive system does fertilization normally take place?
421)
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
56
D) part D
422) In which part of the human female reproductive system does fertilization normally take place?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D
423) Which part of this figure depicting the human male reproductive system is the epididymis?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
57
422)
D) part D
423)
424)
424) Which part of this figuring depicting a gastrula is the mesoderm?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D
425) The central communication conduit between the brain and the rest of the body is the
A) nervous system.
B) nerve bundle.
C) spinal cord.
D) brain stem.
425)
426) The two major anatomical divisions of the nervous system are the
A) sensory nervous system and motor nervous system.
B) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.
C) voluntary nervous system and involuntary nervous system.
D) sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system.
426)
427) Nervous system effector cells
A) include muscle cells and gland cells.
B) are white cells found in the circulatory system.
C) consist of sensory cells.
D) provide automatic responses to stimuli.
427)
428) Which of the following statements regarding the nervous system is true?
A) The PNS is composed entirely of nerves.
B) The CNS and the brain are the same thing.
C) Sensory neurons convey signals from the CNS to sensory receptors.
D) Motor neurons convey signals from the CNS to effector cells.
428)
429) The functional unit of the nervous system is the
A) cell body.
B) axon.
429)
C) synapse.
D) neuron.
430) What part of a neuron carries signals toward the part of the cell that houses the nucleus?
A) dendrite
B) cell body
C) axon
D) node of Ranvier
430)
431) The speed of impulse conduction along an axon may be increased by
A) EPSPs.
B) a myelin sheath
C) a graded potential.
D) neurotransmitters.
431)
58
432) Multiple sclerosis results from an autoimmune disease that primarily involves
A) destruction of the myelin sheath.
B) destruction of regions of the motor cortex.
C) destruction of the hippocampus.
D) deterioration of parts of the spinal cord.
432)
433) Which of the following statements about resting potential is true?
A) The resting potential exists because of differences in glucose concentration inside and outside
the cell.
B) The sodium-potassium pump contributes to the resting membrane potential.
C) The concentration of sodium is much higher inside the cell than outside.
D) A resting membrane allows much more sodium than potassium to diffuse across.
433)
434) Once an action potential is triggered, there is a
A) sudden rush of potassium into the neuron.
B) reversal of the membrane polarity, with the interior of the cell becoming negatively charged.
C) sudden impermeability of the membrane to the transport of ions.
D) reversal of the membrane polarity, with the interior of the cell becoming positively charged.
434)
435) Once the threshold potential is reached,
A) Na+ channels close.
435)
B) the interior of the cell becomes negative with respect to the outside.
C) K+ channels open.
D) an action potential is inevitable.
436) Action potentials normally travel along an axon
A) away from the cell body.
B) either towards or away from the cell body
C) away from the synapse.
D) toward the cell body.
436)
437) Action potentials relay different intensities of information due to the
A) frequency of action potentials relative to the strength of the stimulus.
B) shape of action potentials relative to the strength of the stimulus.
C) duration of action potentials relative to the strength of the stimulus.
D) amplitude of action potentials relative to the strength of the stimulus.
437)
438) The gap between the transmitting and receiving neurons in a chemical synapse is known as the
A) synaptic node.
B) gap junction.
C) synaptic cleft.
D) synaptic gap.
438)
439) During transmission across a typical chemical synapse,
A) action potentials trigger chemical changes that make the synaptic vesicles fuse with each
other.
B) vesicles containing neurotransmitter diffuse to the receiving cellʹs plasma membrane.
C) neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors in the receiving cellʹs plasma membrane.
D) neurotransmitter molecules are stored in the synaptic cleft.
439)
59
440) The signal that crosses a synapse is stopped when
A) the neurotransmitter is enzymatically broken down or transported back to the signaling cell.
B) the responding cell runs out of sodium and is no longer able to respond to the stimulus.
C) a second action potential traveling down the signaling cell sounds a ʺretreatʺ and the
neurotransmitters return to the signaling cell
D) the responding cell runs out of potassium and is no longer able to respond to the stimulus.
440)
441) Neurotransmitters that open Na+ channels and trigger action potentials in receiving cells are called
A) excitatory.
B) cross-linked.
C) inhibitory.
D) obligatory.
441)
442) The effect of a sending neuron on a receiving neuron is typically greater when ________
neurotransmitters bind to the receiving neuron and the synapse is ________ the base of the
receiving cellʹs axon.
A) more . . . close to
B) fewer . . . close to
C) fewer . . . far from
D) more . . . far from
442)
443) Botulinum toxin (Botox) produced by certain bacteria will
A) cause continual contraction of smooth muscle.
B) inhibit the release of acetylcholine.
C) prevent enzymatic breakdown of neurotransmitters.
D) initiate an increase in the strength of a transmitted signal.
443)
444) One neurotransmitter associated with sleep, mood, attention, and learning is
A) serotonin.
B) acetylcholine.
C) NO.
444)
D) epinephrine.
445) Parkinsonʹs disease is associated with a deficiency in
A) serotonin.
B) acetylcholine.
C) dopamine.
D) endorphins.
445)
446) Valium, a prescription drug used to treat depression, works by
A) activating receptors for GABA.
B) increasing the release and availability of norepinephrine and dopamine at synapses.
C) increasing the inhibitory effect of GABA.
D) binding and activating acetylcholine receptors.
446)
447) Morphine, codeine, and heroin are all opiates that function by
A) blocking the removal of serotonin from synapses.
B) binding to GABA receptors.
C) binding to endorphin receptors.
D) binding to acetylcholine receptors.
447)
448) The uniformity in the way nerve cells function within the animal kingdom
A) is proof of neurotransmitter efficiency.
B) indicates that the PNS evolved before the CNS.
C) is evidence that the neuron was an early evolutionary adaptation.
D) must have prevented the development of diversity.
448)
449) One of the most important branch points in the evolution of animals and their nervous systems
was the appearance of
A) radical symmetry.
B) the spinal column.
C) bilateral symmetry.
D) specialized cells for transmitting signals.
449)
60
450) The simplest animals to display cephalization and centralization of the nervous system are
A) flatworms.
B) echinoderms.
C) cnidarians.
D) sponges.
450)
451) The brain and sensory system of a bilaterally symmetric organism function most like
A) the pilot of an airplane.
B) the engine of a motorboat.
C) the passengers on a train.
D) a member of a marching band.
451)
452) Natural selection tends to correlate the structures of a nervous system with an animalʹs interaction
with the environment. A good example are sessile or slow-moving mollusks such as clams, which
A) have a well-developed brain that functions as a master control center.
B) use their circulatory system as a mechanism for distributing nerve impulses.
C) have little or no cephalization and simple sense organs.
D) use chemical synapses to process complex information.
452)
453) Which of the following statements regarding the brain is true?
A) The blood-brain barrier helps to maintains a stable chemical environment for the brain.
B) Layers of connective tissue, called epithelium, surround and protect the brain and spinal
cord.
C) White matter is mainly dendrites.
D) Ventricles in the brain are filled with interstitial fluid.
453)
454) The relationship between spinal nerves and the spinal cord is most like the relationship between
A) the vertical and horizontal threads woven together to form a piece of cloth.
B) an interstate highway and the many roads that intersect with it via on - and off-ramps.
C) a bowl of spaghetti and the sauce that is poured onto it.
D) the hairs on a personʹs head.
454)
455) Which division of the human nervous system carries signals to skeletal muscles?
A) motor system
B) sympathetic nervous system
C) parasympathetic nervous system
D) autonomic nervous system
455)
456) The autonomic nervous system
A) integrates sensory inputs to the brain.
B) is part of the central nervous system.
C) carries signals to and from skeletal muscles.
D) regulates the internal environment of the body.
456)
457) Which of the following results from stimulation by the parasympathetic nervous system?
A) inhibition of urination
B) stimulation of saliva secretion
C) inhibition of the digestive organs
D) increased heart rate
457)
458) Which of the following results from stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system?
A) release of glucose from the liver
B) constriction of the bronchi
C) decreased heart rate
D) stimulation of the digestive organs
458)
459) The enteric division of the autonomic nervous system consists of neurons in the digestive tract, the
gallbladder, and the
A) pancreas.
B) heart.
C) lymphatic system.
D) thyroid gland.
459)
61
460) When you are very nervous, perhaps before you must speak in front of your college class, you
notice that your mouth is dry and your heart is racing. This is most likely due to stimulation by the
A) sympathetic division of your autonomic nervous system.
B) parasympathetic division of your autonomic nervous system.
C) enteric division of your autonomic nervous system.
D) motor division of your parasympathetic nervous system.
460)
461) In all vertebrates, the brain consists of the
A) forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain.
C) cerebrum, midbrain, and hindbrain.
461)
B) cerebrum, forebrain, and hindbrain.
D) cerebrum, cerebellum, and hindbrain.
462) The sophisticated behavior of mammals and birds is directly related to
A) their relatively large midbrain.
B) the presence of a hindbrain.
C) their relatively large cerebrum.
D) the presence of a forebrain.
462)
463) The brain of humans is strongly oriented toward the interpretation of
A) vision.
B) hearing.
C) touch.
463)
D) smell.
464) A physician friend of yours is telling you about a patient with a head injury who suddenly
stopped breathing. Your friend explains that the bony rim was pressing against the breathing
center. You guess that the ʺbony rimʺ (whatever that is) must have been exerting pressure in the
region of the
B) basal ganglia and hippocampus.
A) thalamus and hypothalamus.
C) medulla oblongata and pons.
D) cerebellum and cerebrum.
464)
465) You start to fall but then catch yourself, regaining your balance. Which of the following brain
regions is responsible for the rapid coordination of muscle activity that kept you from falling?
A) pons
B) cerebellum
C) motor cortex
D) thalamus
465)
466) What part of the brain sorts incoming information, such as touch signals from your hand, into
categories before relaying it to the cerebral cortex?
A) hippocampus
B) thalamus
C) hypothalamus
D) pons
466)
467) Which of the following brain regions controls the secretion of pituitary hormones and exerts direct
control over many other aspects of homeostasis?
A) cerebellum
B) thalamus
C) hypothalamus
D) hippocampus
467)
468) Our biological clock, which regulates the sleep-wake cycle, is housed within the
A) cerebellum.
B) cerebrum.
C) hypothalamus.
D) brain stem.
468)
469) The human cerebral cortex accounts for what percentage of the total mass of the brain?
A) 80%
B) 20%
C) 60%
D) 40%
469)
470) Which of the following statements regarding brain activity is true?
A) New techniques, such as PET scans and fMRIs, allow researchers to associate specific parts of
the brain with certain activities.
B) People usually die following a hemispherectomy.
C) People cannot function when the communication channels between the hemispheres are cut.
D) Recent research has revealed that the 1848 accident involving Phineas Gage caused damage
to his hindbrain.
470)
62
471) fMRI technology can provide significant insights into brain function by
A) measuring changes in blood oxygen usage at sites of brain activity.
B) measuring areas of electronegativity.
C) showing the pathways of nerve impulses.
D) detecting damaged areas of the brain.
471)
472) The network of neurons that extends through the core of the brainstem and selects information
that reaches the cerebral cortex during sleep is the
A) limbic system.
B) medulla.
C) reticular formation.
D) brainstem core.
472)
473) During REM sleep, an EEG shows
A) an irregular, rapidly changing pattern.
C) a flat trace with very few waves.
473)
B) sleep waves.
D) mainly alpha waves.
474) Our emotions, learning, and memory depend upon the
A) frontal lobes.
B) parietal lobes.
C) occipital lobes.
474)
D) limbic system.
475) What part of the brain allows us to recognize the emotional content of facial expressions and also
helps lay down emotional memories?
A) amygdala
B) corpus callosum
C) prefrontal cortex
D) hippocampus
475)
476) Schizophrenia
A) can best be described as feeling a sense of worthlessness.
B) causes changes in body weight and sleeping patterns.
C) is best defined as a type of mental deterioration or dementia.
D) is often associated with hallucinations and paranoid delusions.
476)
477) Treatments for depression often include drugs that help correct imbalances in the levels of
A) serotonin.
B) acetylcholine.
C) epinephrine.
D) nitric oxide.
477)
478) Which of the following statements about Alzheimerʹs disease is true?
A) Alzheimerʹs disease is suspected if a patient cannot retain his or her balance.
B) Alzheimerʹs disease often reverses or improves with time.
C) Alzheimerʹs disease frequently involves positive changes in personality.
D) Alzheimerʹs disease is age-related, increasing in frequency as people age.
478)
479) Which of the following statements about Parkinsonʹs disease is true?
A) Parkinsonʹs disease is age-related, decreasing in frequency as people age.
B) Parkinsonʹs disease is a motor disorder, affecting physical movements of the body.
C) Parkinsonʹs disease results from the death of neurons in the cerebellum.
D) Parkinsonʹs disease can be cured with injections of serotonin.
479)
63
480) Which part of this diagram of a neuron depicts the axon?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
480)
D) part D
481)
481) Which part of this diagram of a neuron depicts the axon?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
64
D) part D
482) Which part of this diagram of the human brain depicts the cerebellum?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
482)
D) part D
483) The special sensing mechanism sharks use to detect hidden prey is known as
A) electroreception.
B) photoreception.
C) magnetic resonance.
D) magentoreception.
483)
484) ________ is the detection of a stimulus.
A) Transduction
B) Sensation
484)
C) Reception
485) Sensory transduction occurs in the
A) plasma membrane of sensory cells.
C) cerebral cortex.
B) spinal cord.
D) thalamus.
D) Perception
485)
486) Sensory receptor cells convert a stimulus
A) into a change in membrane potential.
B) from an action potential to a synaptic potential.
C) from a physical to a chemical form.
D) into a sensation by integrating incoming action potentials.
486)
487) The receptor potential is the
A) membrane potential produced when a neurotransmitter molecule binds to its receptor.
B) electrical signal produced by an action potential.
C) membrane potential produced in the receptor cell by sensory transduction.
D) membrane potential produced at a muscle cell.
487)
488) Which of the following is an example of sensory adaptation of receptors?
A) ignoring the shoes on your feet
B) detecting sound and light simultaneously
C) distinguishing between different colors
D) thinking about what you would do with a million dollars
488)
65
489) Which of the following statements best describes the basis of sensory adaptation?
A) The nerve fiber synapsed with a sensory receptor gradually returns to its baseline level of
firing despite continued neurotransmitter stimulation.
B) The thalamic centers that receive a prolonged stimulus gradually come to ignore it.
C) A continuously stimulated sensory receptor gradually returns to its unstimulated rate of
neurotransmitter release.
D) The spinal cord interneurons that receive a prolonged stimulus gradually come to ignore it.
489)
490) Which of the following classes of sensory receptors responds to stimuli such as touch, pressure,
stretching, and sound?
A) chemoreceptors
B) thermoreceptors
C) mechanoreceptors
D) electromagnetic receptors
490)
491) Which type of sensory receptors becomes more sensitive when damaged tissues produce
prostaglandins?
A) pain receptors.
B) deep pressure receptors.
C) utricle hair cells.
D) temperature receptors.
491)
492) Receptors that transduce when the plasma membrane becomes more permeable to positive ions as
it changes shape are called
A) chemoreceptors.
B) mechanoreceptors.
C) thermoreceptors.
D) pain receptors.
492)
493) You exercised to the point that you were breathing heavily. Your heavy breathing was the result of
________ relaying information about the amount of O 2 in your blood to the medulla, which
493)
ultimately resulted in your increased rate of breathing.
A) mechanoreceptors
B) chemoreceptors
C) thermoreceptors
D) electromagnetic receptors
494) Fish that quickly and accurately sense the location of a nearby motionless fish in cloudy water are
probably using
A) chemoreceptors.
B) photoreceptors.
C) pain receptors.
D) electromagnetic receptors.
494)
495) Which of the following options incorrectly pairs a class of sensory receptor with one of the stimuli it
detects?
A) chemoreceptors = molecular structure
B) electromagnetic receptors = light
C) mechanoreceptors = sound
D) thermoreceptors = touch
495)
496) The cochlea is
A) a coiled structure found in the inner ear.
B) involved in the maintenance of body temperature.
C) part of the middle ear.
D) part of the organ of Corti.
496)
497) Where is the organ of Corti?
A) in the inner ear
C) in the middle ear
497)
B) in the Eustachian tube
D) in the pinna
66
498) Which of the following options correctly lists the order in which structures within the ear transfer a
sound wave during hearing?
A) eardrum, stirrup, hammer, anvil, oval window, auditory canal
B) auditory canal, eardrum, hammer, anvil, stirrup, oval window
C) eardrum, hammer, anvil, stirrup, oval window, auditory canal
D) auditory canal, eardrum, stirrup, hammer, anvil, oval window
498)
499) The nervous system determines the pitch of a tone by
A) sites along the basilar membrane where vibrations are most vigorous.
B) sites along the basilar membrane where vibrations are longest.
C) the frequency of oval window vibration.
D) peak amplitude of basilar membrane displacement.
499)
500) Which of the following choices lists structures involved only in the sense of hearing?
A) oval window, basilar membrane, organ of Corti
B) oval window, cochlea, aqueous humor
C) middle ear bones, semicircular canals, basilar membrane
D) eardrum, utricle, organ of Corti
500)
501) The semicircular canals
A) transmit vibrations from the oval window to the saccule.
B) are lined by long rows of hair cells along their entire length.
C) are arranged in three perpendicular planes.
D) contain a thin basilar membrane.
501)
502) The hair cells in the utricle detect
A) rotation of the head in an anteroposterior plane (a plane that cuts through you from front to
back).
B) the position of the head with respect to gravity.
C) subsonic sound vibrations.
D) rotation of the head in a coronal plane (a plane that cuts through you from side to side).
502)
503) Which of the following structures is involved in the human sense of balance?
A) the utricle
B) the oval window
C) the basilar membrane
D) the outer ear
503)
504) If you are in an airplane encountering turbulence and you start feeling sick to your stomach,
would closing your eyes help? Why?
A) Yes. It will eliminate the conflict between information from your inner ears and information
from your eyes.
B) No. It will intensify the feeling of falling by eliminating the sight of the cabin.
C) No. It will focus your attention on the nausea.
D) Yes. It will calm you by allowing the sensory information from your chemoreceptors to
properly readjust.
504)
505) The eyes of a planarian provide
A) a higher degree of resolution than human eyes.
B) a three-dimensional image, but in black and white.
C) a two-dimensional image.
D) information about light intensity and direction.
505)
67
506) Which of the following statements regarding compound eyes is true?
A) Compound eyes are poor motion detectors.
B) Compound eyes have one light-focusing lens.
C) Most insect compound eyes provide excellent color vision.
D) Compound eyes can perceive only visible light.
506)
507) Honeybees are able to discriminate between different flowers using
A) color vision.
B) a single lens.
D) eye cups.
C) basilar membranes.
507)
508) One of the evolutionary advantages of having two eyes is that
A) two lenses provide greater magnification.
B) there are more sensory neurons for greater action potentials.
C) the blind spot is eliminated.
D) overlapping fields of view provide uninterrupted images.
508)
509) Which of the following components of the human eye forms the iris?
A) pupil
B) sclera
C) choroid
509)
D) retina
510) If the aqueous humor circulates but does not drain properly, the likely result will be the
development of
A) astigmatism.
B) myopia.
C) hyperopia.
D) glaucoma.
510)
511) Which of the following statements about the humors of the eye is true?
A) The vitreous humor circulates.
B) The vitreous humor fills the chamber behind the lens.
C) The aqueous humor is jellylike.
D) The humors help keep the outside of the eye moist.
511)
512) Which of the following options correctly lists the order of structures through which light must pass
on its way to the retina of the human eye?
A) lens, aqueous humor, pupil, cornea
B) cornea, pupil, aqueous humor, lens
C) cornea, aqueous humor, pupil, lens
D) pupil, cornea, aqueous humor, lens
512)
513) Which of the following statements about the focusing of light by the eyes is true?
A) Mammals focus light when a rigid lens is moved back and forth.
B) Mammalian lenses thicken when focused on distant objects.
C) Squids and many fishes change the shape of the lens to focus light.
D) Mammals use muscles and ligaments to change the shape of the lens to focus light.
513)
514) A person who cannot focus on distant objects has
A) presbyopia.
B) myopia.
514)
C) hyperopia.
D) an astigmatism.
515) When farsightedness develops in a personʹs forties, the cause may be a(n)
A) stiffening lens.
B) reduction in the density of rods.
C) misshapen lens.
D) lengthening eyeball.
515)
516) A person whose eyeball is shorter than normal suffers from
A) astigmatism.
B) hyperopia.
C) presbyopia.
516)
68
D) myopia.
517) A person who has blurred vision caused by a misshapen lens or cornea has
A) presbyopia.
B) astigmatism.
C) night blindness.
D) myopia.
517)
518) Which of the following statements regarding rods and cones is true?
A) Rods are more sensitive to light than cones.
B) Cones are responsible for night vision.
C) Rods contain the visual pigment called photopsin.
D) Rods are found at the greatest density at the fovea, the retinaʹs center of focus.
518)
519) Where does the information from the light receptors undergo its first level of neural processing?
A) in the retina
B) in the primary visual cortex
C) in the hippocampus
D) in the optic nerve
519)
520) Visual information is carried from the retina to the brain via
A) photopsins.
B) rhodopsin.
C) the optic nerve.
520)
D) the blind spot.
521) You are driving at night and decide to pass a slow-moving car. As you look at the car as you pass,
it dawns on you that although you can see the car, you canʹt tell what color it is. The reason is
A) the constriction of your pupil in low light situations, which reduces color vision.
B) a reduced ability to focus in low light situations.
C) the poor ability of rods to function in low light.
D) the poor ability of cones to function in low light.
521)
522) The olfactory receptor cells are located in the
A) saccule.
C) forebrain.
522)
B) semicircular canals.
D) nasal cavity.
523) Our sense of taste results from receptors organized into taste buds
A) in the upper portions of nasal passages.
B) that are also responsible for smell.
C) on the tongue.
D) with long cilia that are constantly in motion.
523)
524) A molecule that is detected by our sense of smell first binds to
A) special receptor proteins located at the surface of thermoreceptor cells lining the upper nasal
cavity.
B) hairs that extend beyond the mucus layer and line the upper and lower nasal cavities.
C) specific receptor proteins on the cilia of receptor cells located in the epithelium of the upper
nasal cavity.
D) special mechanoreceptor cells located in the epithelium of the lower nasal cavity.
524)
525) ʺSupertastersʺ are individuals who
A) typically have more food dislikes.
B) have fewer fungiform papillae on their tongue.
C) prefer foods that are somewhat bitter, such as vegetables.
D) tend to eat healthier and have fewer diseases.
525)
69
526) Integration of sensory stimuli occurs
A) in the brain.
B) in the central and peripheral nervous systems.
C) in highly specialized receptors such as the organ of Corti.
D) in all receptors.
526)
527) Which part of this figure depicting an eye is the retina?
527)
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D
528)
528) Which part of this figure depicting an ear is the cochlea?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
70
D) part D
529)
529) Which part of this figure depicting an eye is the retina?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D
530) A major difference between movement in humans and horses is
A) that humans generate more ATP.
B) that humans can run faster over longer distances.
C) the size of the heart in relation to the rest of the body.
D) differences in degree of joint flexibility.
530)
531) Which of the following statements about locomotion is true?
A) Bone strength is more important than body shape in the locomotion of land animals.
B) Locomotion requires animals to overcome friction and gravity.
C) Overcoming friction is a greater locomotion problem for land animals than for those that live
in water.
D) Gravity is a greater locomotion problem for animals in water than those on land.
531)
532) If you inflate a balloon and then let it go, the air rushing out moves the balloon in a way that is
similar to the way that a ________ moves.
A) kangaroo
B) shark
C) squid
D) snake
532)
533) The way the tendons in the legs of a kangaroo aid in locomotion is most like
A) the circular movements of the wheels of an automobile.
B) stretching and contracting a rubber band.
C) smashing an apple to make applesauce.
D) stepping in mud and the mud spreading out as your foot sinks in.
533)
534) A racehorse cannot stand on one leg, but when it runs it rarely has more than one leg on the
ground. Why is a running horse more stable than a standing one?
A) Its internal organs act like a gyroscope.
B) Its momentum gives it stability.
C) Its legs tilt so the hooves fall in line with its center of gravity.
D) It uses its neck for balance the way a tightrope walker uses a pole.
534)
71
535) Earthworms crawl by
A) pushing themselves forward from the tail.
B) peristalsis.
C) undulating from side to side.
D) the leg-like action of their belly scales.
535)
536) An airfoil provides lift because air moving over a wing must travel
A) a greater distance than air moving under the wing, creating a lower pressure system above the
wing.
B) a lesser distance than air moving under the wing, creating a higher pressure system above the
wing.
C) a lesser distance than air moving under the wing, creating a lower pressure system above the
wing.
D) a greater distance than air moving under the wing, creating a higher pressure system above
the wing.
536)
537) All eukaryotic cellular movement is based upon contractile systems involving
A) swimming and jet propulsion.
B) cilia and flagella.
C) pseudopodia and jet propulsion.
D) microtubules and microfilaments.
537)
538) An important function of the bones in the skeleton is to
A) support the body.
B) generate hormones.
C) provide a source of calcium.
D) add weight.
538)
539) Earthworms have
A) a peristaltic skeleton.
C) a hydrostatic skeleton.
539)
B) an endoskeleton.
D) an exoskeleton.
540) Which of the following statements about hydrostatic skeletons is true?
A) Hydrostatic skeletons produce rigid animals that maintain one shape.
B) Hydrostatic skeletons can protect internal organs.
C) Hydrostatic skeletons provide little support for muscle action.
D) Hydrostatic skeletons are nonflexible.
540)
541) Which of the following objects is most like a hydrostatic skeleton?
A) a piece of M & M candy
B) a hot air balloon
C) a bowling ball
D) a water balloon
541)
542) Which of the following animals has an exoskeleton?
A) shark
B) clam
542)
C) human
D) trout
543) Why is a newly molted crab unusually slow and clumsy?
A) Its neurons are still forming their connections with the new muscles.
B) Its muscles are still forming their connections with the new exoskeleton.
C) Its new exoskeleton tends to bend and crumple under the force of its muscles.
D) It temporarily lacks an exoskeleton.
543)
544) Which of the following structures is most like an exoskeleton?
A) the hair covering the surface of a bear
B) the wood frame of a house
C) a water balloon
D) a suit of armor
544)
72
545) Which of the following animals has an endoskeleton made entirely of cartilage?
A) mackerel
B) robin
C) nurse shark
D) bullfrog
545)
546) The evolution of the vertebrate skeleton system
A) made animals significantly taller.
B) enabled tetrapods to colonize land.
C) originated with a snake-like animal whose descendants gradually developed limbs.
D) originated in an earlier exoskeleton.
546)
547) Which of the following structures constitutes part of the axial skeleton?
A) leg bones
B) skull
C) pelvic girdle
547)
D) shoulder girdle
548) Which of the following attaches the forelimbs to the axial skeleton in a human?
A) pelvic girdle
B) appendicular skeleton
C) vertebra
D) shoulder girdle
548)
549) Evolution has provided enormous diversity in the number of vertebrae among vertebrate species.
Vertebrae are differentiated during embryonic development by
A) the degree of structural support needed.
B) the pattern of homeotic gene expression.
C) hormone induction.
D) the length of the backbone.
549)
550) The contacting surfaces of a moving joint, such as your hip joint, consist of
A) collagen.
B) compact bone.
C) cartilage.
550)
551) Which part of a bone contains mostly stored fat?
A) spongy bone
C) red bone marrow
D) spongy bone.
551)
B) yellow bone marrow
D) fibrous connective tissue
552) Which part of a bone contains the cells that produce blood cells?
A) compact bone
B) yellow bone marrow
C) spongy bone
D) cartilage
552)
553) Bone is composed of
A) a hard composite of phosphate and sodium ions.
B) channels containing lymphoid tissue.
C) living cells that secrete a surrounding matrix.
D) hardened cartilage.
553)
554) To repair and heal a broken bone, physicians will
A) exercise the area of the broken bone.
B) graft new bone to the region.
C) prescribe a regime of bed rest and calcium supplements.
D) return the broken bone parts to their natural position and then immobilize them.
554)
555) Osteoporosis is characterized by
A) lack of vitamin E in bone tissue.
B) low phosphate levels in bone.
C) hairline cracks in long bones, such as the femur.
D) low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue.
555)
73
556) Osteoporosis has long been recognized as a problem for women after menopause, but it is also
emerging as a health concern for
A) men and younger people in general.
B) men over the age of 65.
C) teenage men.
D) women in their 20s and 30s.
556)
557) The shoulder joint where the humerus meets the shoulder girdle is an example of
A) a pivot joint.
B) a hinge joint.
C) a ball-and-socket joint.
D) a sliding joint.
557)
558) If you lay your forearm along the table, you can rotate it so that your hand changes from a
palm-down to a palm-up position. This is possible because your radius and ulna join at a
A) hinge joint.
B) ball-and-socket joint.
C) pivot joint.
D) twist joint.
558)
559) Muscles are connected to bones by
A) myofibrils.
C) ligaments.
559)
B) Sharpeyʹs fibers.
D) tendons.
560) Skeletal muscles
A) get longer when they contract.
C) work in antagonistic pairs.
B) push on bones to make them move.
D) are found in and around internal organs.
560)
561) Which of the following statements about skeletal muscle fibers is true?
A) Each muscle fiber contains actin and myosin.
B) Each muscle fiber is composed of globular proteins.
C) Each muscle fiber contains one sarcomere.
D) Each muscle fiber is composed of multinucleated cells.
561)
562) Functionally, the muscle fiberʹs fundamental unit of contraction is the
A) sarcomere.
B) thick filament.
C) Z line.
562)
D) myofibril.
563) Structurally, a sarcomere is
A) an array of Z units.
B) the region between two thick filaments.
C) the region between two Z lines.
D) the region between a thick filament and the next thin filament.
563)
564) A thick filament consists of
A) myosin.
C) actin and myosin.
564)
B) actin.
D) actin and regulatory proteins.
565) Which of the following options lists muscle components in the correct order from smallest to
largest?
A) sarcomeres, myofibrils, muscle fibers, muscle
B) sarcomeres, myofibrils, muscle, muscle fibers
C) muscle, sarcomeres, myofibrils, muscle fibers
D) myofibrils, muscle, sarcomeres, muscle fibers
74
565)
566) According to the sliding filament model of muscle contraction, a sarcomere contracts when its
A) thin filaments slide toward each other across its thick filaments.
B) thick filaments slide across its Z lines.
C) thick filaments shorten, pulling the opposed sets of thin filaments past each other.
D) thin filaments slide across its Z lines.
566)
567) Changes occur within a sarcomere during muscle contraction. One change is that the
A) Z lines move closer together.
B) thick filaments get thicker.
C) thin filaments get thicker.
D) thick filaments move closer together.
567)
568) During muscle contraction,
A) only the thick filaments shorten.
B) only the sarcomere shortens.
C) only the thin filaments shorten.
D) both the thick filaments and the sarcomere shorten.
568)
569) Which of the following statements best describes the molecular basis of muscle shortening?
A) Rod-shaped protein polymers shorten by losing subunits from their ends.
B) Individual filamentous proteins contract.
C) Individual filamentous proteins shorten by coiling.
D) Protein filaments crawl along other protein filaments.
569)
570) Which of the following statements best describes the power stroke of muscle contraction?
A) The myosin head bends, pulling the thin filament toward the center of the sarcomere.
B) The actin head bends, pulling the thin filament toward the center of the sarcomere.
C) The actin head bends, pulling the thick filament toward the center of the sarcomere.
D) The myosin head bends, pulling the thick filament toward the center of the sarcomere.
570)
571) The sequence of events that cause a muscle to contract can be summed up in the correct order as
A) detach, extend, contract, attach.
B) pull, contract, detach, recoil.
C) detach, pull, extend, contract.
D) detach, extend, attach, pull.
571)
572) The neurotransmitter found at the synapse between nerves and human skeletal muscle cells is
A) epinephrine.
B) serotonin.
C) dopamine.
D) acetylcholine.
572)
573) The calcium that triggers muscle contraction is stored in
A) the mitochondria.
B) the motor neuron.
C) the endoplasmic reticulum.
D) synaptic vesicles.
573)
574) A motor unit is
A) a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it controls.
B) the muscle or group of muscles that accomplishes a specific movement.
C) one of the connective tissue-wrapped bundles of muscle fibers in a muscle.
D) the bundle of axons that goes from the spinal cord to a muscle.
574)
575) Which of the following would have the greatest number of muscle cells per motor unit?
A) muscles controlling the movement of our hands
B) a thigh muscle
C) muscles controlling the movement of an eyeball
D) facial muscles
575)
75
576) The role of calcium in muscle contraction is to
A) release ADP and phosphate from myosin.
B) make it possible for ATP to bind to actin.
C) make it possible for ATP to bind to myosin.
D) make it possible for myosin to bind to actin.
576)
577) Which of the following statements regarding exercise is true?
A) During a short burst of activity such as a sprint, the main source of energy is aerobic
respiration.
B) The main source of energy during aerobic exercise is ATP from aerobic respiration.
C) For an activity such as jogging or long-distance running, the primary source of energy is
stored ATP and PCr.
D) If the demand for ATP outstrips oxygen supply, muscles switch to aerobic fermentation.
577)
578) Muscles that are constantly active, such as those maintaining our body posture, have a high
proportion of
A) fast, fatigue-susceptible fibers.
B) fast, fatigue-resistant fibers.
C) slow, fatigue-susceptible fibers.
D) slow, fatigue-resistant fibers.
578)
579) A tennis player serving the ball uses fast muscle fibers. The ATP needed to accomplish this would
come from
A) aerobic respiration.
B) anaerobic fermentation
C) conversion of lactic acid to ATP.
D) microaerophilic respiration.
579)
76
580)
580) Which part of this figure depicting a bone shows spongy bone tissue?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D
581) Which part of this figure depicts the thoracic vertebrae?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
77
581)
D) part D
582)
582) Which part of this figure depicting a bone shows spongy bone tissue?
A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
78
D) part D
Answer Key
Testname: LEH PHYSIOLOGY
1) D
2) A
3) D
4) C
5) B
6) C
7) B
8) C
9) D
10) B
11) D
12) C
13) A
14) D
15) C
16) B
17) C
18) B
19) C
20) D
21) B
22) D
23) B
24) D
25) B
26) D
27) A
28) C
29) B
30) D
31) A
32) B
33) C
34) C
35) B
36) A
37) B
38) D
39) D
40) A
41) A
42) D
43) D
44) A
45) A
46) C
47) A
48) D
49) D
50) D
79
Answer Key
Testname: LEH PHYSIOLOGY
51) D
52) C
53) D
54) A
55) D
56) C
57) A
58) C
59) A
60) A
61) A
62) D
63) C
64) A
65) B
66) A
67) C
68) B
69) A
70) D
71) A
72) C
73) C
74) C
75) A
76) A
77) C
78) B
79) B
80) D
81) A
82) D
83) C
84) A
85) A
86) D
87) B
88) C
89) C
90) C
91) D
92) B
93) A
94) B
95) D
96) A
97) A
98) A
99) B
100) A
80
Answer Key
Testname: LEH PHYSIOLOGY
101)
102)
103)
104)
105)
106)
107)
108)
109)
110)
111)
112)
113)
114)
115)
116)
117)
118)
119)
120)
121)
122)
123)
124)
125)
126)
127)
128)
129)
130)
131)
132)
133)
134)
135)
136)
137)
138)
139)
140)
141)
142)
143)
144)
145)
146)
147)
148)
149)
150)
A
D
B
D
B
D
B
B
A
C
D
B
D
A
A
B
A
D
D
A
D
C
D
B
C
B
C
B
B
A
A
B
A
A
A
D
B
C
A
D
D
D
B
A
D
B
D
D
A
A
81
Answer Key
Testname: LEH PHYSIOLOGY
151)
152)
153)
154)
155)
156)
157)
158)
159)
160)
161)
162)
163)
164)
165)
166)
167)
168)
169)
170)
171)
172)
173)
174)
175)
176)
177)
178)
179)
180)
181)
182)
183)
184)
185)
186)
187)
188)
189)
190)
191)
192)
193)
194)
195)
196)
197)
198)
199)
200)
D
A
A
D
B
B
B
D
C
C
A
D
A
A
C
B
D
D
D
D
B
B
A
C
C
A
D
B
B
C
C
A
C
D
C
D
A
A
A
A
C
B
C
C
A
C
B
D
C
A
82
Answer Key
Testname: LEH PHYSIOLOGY
201)
202)
203)
204)
205)
206)
207)
208)
209)
210)
211)
212)
213)
214)
215)
216)
217)
218)
219)
220)
221)
222)
223)
224)
225)
226)
227)
228)
229)
230)
231)
232)
233)
234)
235)
236)
237)
238)
239)
240)
241)
242)
243)
244)
245)
246)
247)
248)
249)
250)
C
B
C
B
A
B
C
B
C
D
A
A
B
C
A
B
D
C
D
D
A
B
C
B
B
B
B
C
B
D
C
D
A
C
D
B
B
A
B
C
C
C
A
B
A
D
B
D
D
D
83
Answer Key
Testname: LEH PHYSIOLOGY
251)
252)
253)
254)
255)
256)
257)
258)
259)
260)
261)
262)
263)
264)
265)
266)
267)
268)
269)
270)
271)
272)
273)
274)
275)
276)
277)
278)
279)
280)
281)
282)
283)
284)
285)
286)
287)
288)
289)
290)
291)
292)
293)
294)
295)
296)
297)
298)
299)
300)
D
A
D
B
D
A
A
B
B
C
B
D
A
A
D
C
A
B
B
B
A
A
D
A
A
A
C
C
A
B
C
D
A
B
D
B
B
B
D
C
B
A
B
A
D
A
A
C
A
C
84
Answer Key
Testname: LEH PHYSIOLOGY
301)
302)
303)
304)
305)
306)
307)
308)
309)
310)
311)
312)
313)
314)
315)
316)
317)
318)
319)
320)
321)
322)
323)
324)
325)
326)
327)
328)
329)
330)
331)
332)
333)
334)
335)
336)
337)
338)
339)
340)
341)
342)
343)
344)
345)
346)
347)
348)
349)
350)
A
C
B
A
B
A
A
D
C
B
A
D
D
C
C
A
D
D
B
C
C
D
D
C
B
C
A
C
D
D
B
B
C
C
A
C
C
B
D
D
D
A
C
D
C
D
D
A
D
B
85
Answer Key
Testname: LEH PHYSIOLOGY
351)
352)
353)
354)
355)
356)
357)
358)
359)
360)
361)
362)
363)
364)
365)
366)
367)
368)
369)
370)
371)
372)
373)
374)
375)
376)
377)
378)
379)
380)
381)
382)
383)
384)
385)
386)
387)
388)
389)
390)
391)
392)
393)
394)
395)
396)
397)
398)
399)
400)
A
C
A
D
C
A
D
B
A
B
B
C
C
B
B
D
C
D
A
C
D
D
B
C
C
C
D
A
D
D
A
B
A
A
C
A
A
D
D
A
C
D
A
B
A
C
C
A
D
C
86
Answer Key
Testname: LEH PHYSIOLOGY
401)
402)
403)
404)
405)
406)
407)
408)
409)
410)
411)
412)
413)
414)
415)
416)
417)
418)
419)
420)
421)
422)
423)
424)
425)
426)
427)
428)
429)
430)
431)
432)
433)
434)
435)
436)
437)
438)
439)
440)
441)
442)
443)
444)
445)
446)
447)
448)
449)
450)
B
A
A
D
D
C
A
D
D
A
B
D
B
A
C
C
C
D
C
B
B
B
C
C
C
B
A
D
D
A
B
A
B
D
D
A
A
C
C
A
A
A
B
A
C
A
C
C
C
A
87
Answer Key
Testname: LEH PHYSIOLOGY
451)
452)
453)
454)
455)
456)
457)
458)
459)
460)
461)
462)
463)
464)
465)
466)
467)
468)
469)
470)
471)
472)
473)
474)
475)
476)
477)
478)
479)
480)
481)
482)
483)
484)
485)
486)
487)
488)
489)
490)
491)
492)
493)
494)
495)
496)
497)
498)
499)
500)
A
C
A
B
A
D
B
A
A
A
A
C
A
C
B
B
C
C
A
A
A
C
A
D
A
D
A
D
B
D
D
D
A
B
A
A
C
A
C
C
A
B
B
D
D
A
A
B
A
A
88
Answer Key
Testname: LEH PHYSIOLOGY
501)
502)
503)
504)
505)
506)
507)
508)
509)
510)
511)
512)
513)
514)
515)
516)
517)
518)
519)
520)
521)
522)
523)
524)
525)
526)
527)
528)
529)
530)
531)
532)
533)
534)
535)
536)
537)
538)
539)
540)
541)
542)
543)
544)
545)
546)
547)
548)
549)
550)
C
B
A
A
D
C
A
D
C
D
B
C
D
B
A
B
B
A
A
C
D
D
C
C
A
A
D
D
D
D
B
C
B
B
B
A
D
A
C
B
D
B
C
D
C
B
B
D
B
C
89
Answer Key
Testname: LEH PHYSIOLOGY
551)
552)
553)
554)
555)
556)
557)
558)
559)
560)
561)
562)
563)
564)
565)
566)
567)
568)
569)
570)
571)
572)
573)
574)
575)
576)
577)
578)
579)
580)
581)
582)
B
C
C
D
D
A
C
C
D
C
A
A
C
A
A
A
A
B
D
A
D
D
C
A
B
D
B
D
B
A
B
A
90