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Copyright © 2014 Edmentum - All rights reserved.
AP Biology Living System and Genetic Information Blizzard Bag 2014 - 2015
1. The lifecycle of lambda, a virus that attacks the bacteria E. coli, is shown below.
Researchers studying the interaction between lambda virus and E. coli treated several cultures
of bacterial cells, resulting in the removal of lambda receptor proteins on their surfaces. The
researchers hypothesized that this surface change would cause the viral strain to die out.
Instead, lambda began infecting through a different surface protein on the E. colicells. The
lambda virus made the switch to the second protein in approximately 15 days. What do these
findings indicate about lambda viral infection?
A. Lambda DNA is almost completely resistant to mutations.
B. The virus initiated mutations to survive the new conditions of the host cell.
C. The co-evolution of lambda virus and E. coli cells indicates a symbiotic relationship.
D. Highly efficient replication allows lambda to evolve new phenotypes rapidly.
2. A researcher grows a plant from an egg with a mixture of normal green chloroplasts and
mutant white chloroplasts. The mature plant has some cells that have only green chloroplasts,
some cells that have only white chloroplasts, and some cells that contain a mixture of
chloroplasts. Which aspect of chloroplast inheritance can best explain this observation?
A. Individual molecules of cpDNA are randomly selected for replication.
B. Molecules of cpDNA are partitioned evenly among daughter cells.
C. Mutations are weeded out by selective processes in cpDNA over successive
generations.
D. In many plant species, cpDNA demonstrates uniparental inheritance.
3. In human reproductive cells, during the first cell division of meiosis, the 46 chromosomes
align across the center of the cell. Which best describes this alignment?
A. 46 chromosomes in a single row, with homologous chromosomes adjacent to each
other
B. 2 rows of 23 chromosomes, with homologous chromosomes paired in random
orientations
C. 2 rows of 23 chromosomes, with chromosomes paired together randomly
D. 46 chromosomes in a single row, in random order
4. The diagram represents the process of transcription in the cell nucleus of a eukaryotic cell.
The process begins when RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA at the promoter region, which
separates the two strands. Which of the following steps happens next?
A. Complimentary nucleotide bases attach to the un-paired bases on one of the
strands of DNA.
B. A single strand of DNA is transported to a ribosome in the cytoplasm.
C. RNA polymerase uses a single strand of DNA as a template to form mRNA.
D. Amino acids are assembled in the order determined by the order of bases on one of
the strands.
5. RNA viruses have higher rates of mutations than the majority of other organisms. Which
factor best explains this observation?
A. They have proteins that must fit receptor sites on the host.
B. They lack DNA repair mechanisms.
C. They produce more progeny than cellular replication through mitosis and meiosis.
D. They replicate only in the nucleus of a host cell.
6. A plant geneticist identifies 5 genes on one chromosome of Ginkgo biloba, an ancient species
of tree. She labels the genes A through E. She chooses a male tree that has one set of alleles for
the 5 genes, and she chooses a female tree that has another set of alleles for the genes. Then
she crosses the male and female and studies the same 5 genes in the offspring. The data table
shows the results.
Gene Combinations
Percent of Offspring
All 5 genes from one parent
85%
Genes ABCD from one parent, Gene E from the other parent
5.0%
Genes ABC from one parent, Genes DE from the other parent 3.5%
Genes AB from one parent, Genes CDE from the other parent 3.2%
Gene A from one parent, Genes BCDE from the other parent
2.0%
Other combinations
1.3%
The students of the scientist propose explanations for the results of the experiment. Which
explanation is best supported by the data and known facts about mitosis and meiosis?
A. Mitosis alone produced most of the gametes, but meiosis alone formed lesscommon variants of gametes.
B. Meiosis produced all of the gametes, and nondisjunction errors formed the lesscommon variants of gametes.
C. Meiosis produced most of the gametes, but mitosis alone formed the less-common
variants of gametes.
D. Meiosis produced all of the gametes, and crossing-over events formed the lesscommon variants of gametes.
7. Kearns-Sayre syndrome is a rare, human genetic disorder in which cells have a decreased
ability to release energy stored in food. Researchers traced the pattern of inheritance for
Kearns-Sayre syndrome in two families as shown below.
Which inference could the researchers make based on the research?
A. The disorder is expressed as an autosomal dominant trait.
B. The disorder is expressed as an autosomal recessive trait.
C. The disorder is a sex-linked trait located on the X-chromosome.
D. The disorder is caused by a gene in mitochondrial DNA.
8. In 1952, scientists Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase tagged T2 bacteriophages with
radioactive phosphorus. Phosphorous is part of DNA, but is only a trace component of proteins.
They then allowed the bacteriophages to infect samples of E. coli bacteria. After 10 minutes,
the bacteria were agitated in a blender to shake any materials loose from the surface of the
host. Using a centrifuge, they separated the samples into a pellet of bacteria and their contents,
and a liquid mixture called a supernatant, which contained the parts of the bacteriophage that
did not enter the cell.
Which observation about the phosphorus tracer supported the researchers' conclusion that
DNA, and not proteins, transmits genetic information?
A. It was in the supernatant only.
B. It was in both the pellet and the supernatant.
C. It was in neither the pellet nor the supernatant.
D. It was in the pellet only.
9. A scientist is investigating a segment of eukaryotic DNA and the role of an unidentified
protein—called Protein X—in the transcription of a specific gene. The table shows the results of
a series of tests that the scientist conducted. The tests involve RNA polymerase II, the enzyme
that allows the transcription of mRNA to occur.
Test Procedure
Results
1
DNA and RNA polymerase II mixed together in cell
nucleus, without Protein X
No gene transcription
2
DNA, RNA polymerase II, and Protein X mixed
together in cell nucleus
Gene transcription
3
Repeat Test 2, and then deactivate and remove all
RNA polymerase II from the nucleus after initial
gene transcription
Gene transcription ceases with
removal of RNA polymerase II
4
Repeat Test 3, and then reintroduce RNA
polymerase II, but not Protein X
Gene transcription resumes, and
at similar levels as observed in
Test 2
Based on the experimental results, which is the most likely role of Protein X?
A. Protein X is a structural protein that helps DNA maintain its double-helix structure.
B. Protein X is a transcription factor that binds to RNA polymerase II.
C. Protein X is the translation product of the gene, and it stimulates the gene's
transcription in a positive feedback mechanism.
D. Protein X is a transcription factor that binds to the promoter region for the gene.
10. A student wants to modify a representation of meiosis to explain Klinefelter's syndrome,
which is an abnormality in males caused by an extra X chromosome. The syndrome can arise
from nondisjunction at different stages in the process of gamete formation.
In the diagram shown, which is the only stage that the student cannot modify?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3
11. A science student conducts an experiment on the development of a Caenorhabditis elegans,
a nematode that has been extensively studied. In every organism in the experiment, the
student observes large numbers of cells that shrink, take on a lobed or blebbed appearance,
and then quickly become engulfed and broken apart by neighboring cells. What is the most
likely explanation of these events?
A. A toxic chemical contaminated the food or water supply of the nematodes.
B. The developing nematodes received too much light, perhaps from the student's
microscopy technique, and cells died as a result.
C. The developing nematodes received too little food, water, or oxygen, and cells died
as a result.
D. The nematodes were developing normally.
12. Turner syndrome occurs in about 1 in 2500 girls. The most common developmental
limitation associated with Turner syndrome is short stature. A researcher investigating the
sources of the specific phenotype changes associated with Turner syndrome would find which
of the following most helpful?
A. a pedigree identifying females in a family with the disorder
B. a karyotype of the chromosomes of a patient with the disorder
C. a Punnett square identifying genetic probabilities
D. a genomic map of the X chromosome
13.
In this representation of the cell cycle, the red arrow represents mitosis, also known as the M
phase. Which part of the diagram represents interphase?
A. the green arrow
B. the blue and green arrows
C. the blue, green, and orange arrows
D. the blue arrow
14. A scientist injects a living sample of endodermal tissue with a chemical that deactivates the
cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases that control the cell cycle. Under normal conditions, the
cells of the endodermal tissue divide regularly to produce skin cells.
Assuming the chemical has no other direct effect on the tissue, which change to the tissue will
most likely occur?
A. Each cell will quickly cease its progress through the cell cycle, regardless of which
phase it is in.
B. Each cell will progress through the S phase of the cell cycle, then cease.
C. Each cell will progress through the mitotic phase of the cell cycle, then cease.
D. Each cell will progress through the cell cycle, but at a much slower pace.
15. Before leaving the nucleus, the pre-mRNA transcript formed through transcription
undergoes a series of enzyme-regulated modifications. Part of the process is illustrated below.
Without this modification, why would mRNA be translated into a nonfunctional protein?
A. Introns significantly decrease the half-life of mRNA.
B. Introns are regions copied from DNA that interrupt the genetic code.
C. Introns prevent mRNA from being recognized by the nuclear pore complex.
D. Exons at each end of the molecule increase its stability.
16. In an experiment conducted by Gregor Mendel, a pea plant that was homozygous dominant
for round yellow peas (RRYY) was crossed with a pea plant that was homozygous recessive for
wrinkled green peas (rryy). All of the F1 generation plants were heterozygous for round yellow
peas.
Mendel then crossed plants from the F1 generation to produce the F2 generation. The numbers
of observed phenotypes in a particular trial are shown below.
Phenotype
Number
A. Round and yellow
315
B. Round and green
102
C. Wrinkled and yellow 107
D. Wrinkled and green 32
How would the F2 generation have differed if the factors, or genes, for pea shape and pea color
had not assorted independently of each other?
A. All would have had phenotypes A or D only.
B. All would have had phenotype A only.
C. All would have had phenotypes A, B, or C.
D. All would have had phenotype D only.
17. The lac operon is a region of DNA that controls the expression of three genes: lac Z, lacY,
and lac A. The genes code for enzymes that help break apart lactose, a type of sugar found in
milk.
The diagram shows a schematic of the lac operon with the repressor protein bound to the
operator so that the three lac genes are not expressed.
Which event will lead to the expression of the three lac genes?
A. RNA polymerase binding to the promoter
B. Lactose catalyzing the removal of the operator from the operon
C. Lactose binding to the repressor protein
D. Lactose binding to RNA polymerase
18. Translation is the process by which a cell produces new proteins, as shown below.
Which of the following facilitates an increase in the production of proteins in a cell?
A. Radiation causes a mutation in the tRNA molecule, rendering it to malfunction.
B. The pH and temperature of the cell drastically change.
C. The membrane of the nucleus becomes impermeable.
D. The cell begins manufacturing more ribosomes.
19. A science student proposes that if the genes that produce wings on fruit flies were
transplanted into the genome of a species of small worm, then a flying worm could be
produced. Which is the most significant reason that the student's proposal is not realistic?
A. The worm lacks the genes for regulating the expression of the transplanted genes.
B. Worms and fruit flies use different genetic codes.
C. The worm lacks the mechanism for transcribing the transplanted genes.
D. Worms and fruit flies use different methods of transcription and translation.
20. A scientist investigating potato crops tracks the number of plants in populations of Crop A
and Crop B as shown in the graph. A pathogen called Phytophthora infestans is introduced into
both populations at time t = x.
Which claim can the scientist reasonably make based on the data?
A. The pathogen is unable to enter the cells of Crop A plants.
B. Crop A does not contain nutrients the pathogen can utilize.
C. Crop A is more genetically diverse than Crop B.
D. The pathogen develops a symbiotic relationship with Crop B.