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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. The greenhouse effect is
a. something that has only occurred for the last 50 years.
b. a natural phenomenon that maintains Earth’s temperature range.
c. the result of the differences in the angle of the sun’s rays.
d. an unnatural phenomenon that causes heat energy to be radiated back into the atmosphere.
____
2. Why is an organism’s niche like a person’s occupation?
a. An organism makes “money” by working in its niche.
b. A niche is a “company” that the organism has to work in.
c. A niche is a “factory” where organisms build things.
d. An organism can “make a living” and survive in its niche.
____
3. Several species of warblers can live in the same spruce tree ONLY because they
a. have different habitats within the tree.
b. don’t eat food from the tree.
c. occupy different niches within the tree.
d. can find different temperatures within the tree.
____
4. No two species can occupy the same niche in the same habitat at the same time
a. because of the interactions that shape the ecosystem.
b. unless the species require different abiotic factors.
c. because of the competitive exclusion principle.
d. unless the species require different biotic factors.
____
5. An interaction in which an animal feeds on plants is called
a. carnivory.
b. herbivory.
c. predation.
d. symbiosis.
____
6. Which of the following occurs during the ecological succession of an ecosystem?
a. An ecosystem reaches a final, unchanging stage.
b. Animals move out of the ecosystem until succession is complete.
c. Living organisms modify their environment a little at a time.
d. Parts of communities split off to form new communities.
____
7. Which is a factor that could interrupt the progress of succession?
a. colonization of surfaces by lichens
b. different animals appearing at each stage
c. another natural disturbance
d. long-term fluctuations in climate
____
8. An example of a human-caused disturbance is
a. a hurricane.
b. forest-clearing.
c. wildfires.
d. growing lichens.
____
9. The nutrient availability of aquatic ecosystems is the
a. amount of nitrogen, oxygen, and other elements dissolved in the water.
b. number of other organisms present in the water.
c. amount of rainfall the water receives.
d. number of different animal species living in the water.
____ 10. Which are two ways a population can decrease in size?
a. immigration and emigration
b. increased death rate and immigration
c. decreased birthrate and emigration
d. emigration and increased birthrate
____ 11. Which of the following graphs is a graph showing exponential growth?
a.
b.
c.
d.
____ 12. As resources in a population become less available, the population
a. declines rapidly.
b. increases slowly.
c. reaches carrying capacity.
d. enters a phase of exponential growth.
____ 13. Sea otters live in the ocean. Which of the following is NOT likely to be a limiting factor on the sea otter
population?
a. disease
b. competition
c. drought
d. predation
____ 14. Which would be least likely to be affected by a density-dependent limiting factor?
a. a small, scattered population
b. a population with a high birthrate
c. a large, dense population
d. a population with a high immigration rate
____ 15. After a natural disaster such as a hurricane or a drought, a population
a. can thrive and increase.
b. can be mostly killed off.
c. will experience exponential growth.
d. will reach its carrying capacity.
____ 16. The human population experienced exponential growth just after
a.
b.
c.
d.
agriculture began.
plowing and irrigation began.
the bubonic plague began.
the Industrial Revolution began.
____ 17. Organisms, such as plants, that make their own food are called
a. autotrophs.
b. heterotrophs.
c. thylakoids.
d. pigments.
____ 18. Which of the following organisms makes its own food using light energy from the sun?
a. mushroom
b. amoeba
c. leopard
d. oak
____ 19. What happens during photosynthesis?
a. Heterotrophs consume ATP.
b. Heterotrophs produce ATP.
c. Autotrophs consume carbohydrates.
d. Autotrophs produce carbohydrates.
Figure 8–2
____ 20. Which structure in Figure 8–2 represents a single thylakoid?
a. structure A
b. structure B
c. structure C
d. structure D
____ 21. What happens when chlorophyll is struck by sunlight?
a. The electrons in the chlorophyll molecule become energized.
b. The chlorophyll molecule is broken into two parts.
c. A chemical reaction turns chlorophyll into high energy carbohydrates.
d. Energy from fat molecules is released.
____ 22. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?
a. glycolysis  fermentation  Krebs cycle
b. Krebs cycle  electron transport  glycolysis
c. glycolysis  Krebs cycle  electron transport
d. Krebs cycle  glycolysis  electron transport
____ 23. What are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration?
a. oxygen and lactic acid
b. carbon dioxide and water
c. glucose and oxygen
d. water and glucose
____ 24. Which organism is NOT likely to carry out cellular respiration?
a. cypress tree
b. button mushroom
c. anaerobic bacterium
d. Siberian tiger
____ 25. Photosynthesis is to chloroplasts as cellular respiration is to
a. chloroplasts.
b. cytoplasm.
c. mitochondria.
d. nuclei.
____ 26. The starting molecule for glycolysis is
a. ADP.
b. pyruvic acid.
c. citric acid.
d. glucose.
____ 27. Which of the following is an electron carrier that plays a role in cellular respiration?
a. NAD+
b. pyruvic acid
c. NADP+
d. ATP
____ 28. In the presence of oxygen, glycolysis is followed by
a. lactic acid fermentation.
b. alcoholic fermentation.
c. photosynthesis.
d. the Krebs cycle.
____ 29. Darwin noticed that many organisms seemed well suited to
a. being preserved as fossils.
b. providing humans with food.
c. surviving in the environments in which they lived.
d. swimming from South America to the Galápagos Islands.
____ 30. Based on the adaptations Charles Darwin observed in finches and tortoises in the Galápagos, he wondered
a. if species living on different islands had once been members of the same species.
b. if finches and tortoises had originated from the same ancestral species.
c. if all birds on the different islands were finches.
d. why all tortoises on the different islands were identical.
____ 31. Which of the following phrases best describes the results of natural selection?
a. the natural variation found in all populations
b. unrelated species living in different locations
c. changes in the inherited characteristics of a population over time
d. the struggle for existence undergone by all living things
____ 32. Similar patterns of embryological development in different but related organisms are responsible for the
formation of
a. homologous structures.
b. analogous structures.
c. Hox genes.
d. intermediate fossil forms.
____ 33. Linnaean classification involves
a. only large, general categories of organisms.
b. only small, specific categories of organisms.
c. both large and small categories of organisms.
d. no categories of organisms.
____ 34. For many species, there are often regional differences in their
a. common names.
b. scientific names.
c. taxa.
d. binomial nomenclature.
____ 35. Based on their names, you know that the baboons Papio annubis and Papio cynocephalus do NOT belong to
the same
a. class.
b. family.
c. genus.
d. species.
____ 36. A genus is composed of a number of similar
a. kingdoms.
b. phyla.
c. orders.
d. species.
____ 37. Each node on a cladogram represents
a. the last point at which two groups shared a common ancestor.
b. the point at which one or more species became extinct.
c. the most recent point at which a trait was lost in a certain clade.
d. the point at which two clades joined and became monophyletic.
____ 38. What do all organisms have in common?
a. They all use DNA to pass on information.
b. They are all prokaryotes.
c. They are all eukaryotes.
d. They are all genetically identical.
____ 39. All organisms in the kingdoms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and Animalia are
a. multicellular organisms.
b. photosynthetic organisms.
c. eukaryotes.
d. prokaryotes.
____ 40. Most plants are
a.
b.
c.
d.
multicellular, eukaryotic autotrophs.
unicellular, eukaryotic autotrophs.
multicellular, prokaryotic heterotrophs.
unicellular, prokaryotic heterotrophs.
____ 41. The ancestors of land plants likely evolved from
a. mosses that lived in the water.
b. an organism similar to green algae.
c. a protist that lived on land.
d. prokaryotes that carried on photosynthesis.
Figure 22–1
____ 42. Based on Figure 22–1, which of the following features evolved first in land plants?
a. flowers
b. water-conducting tissue
c. seeds enclosed in fruit
d. seeds
____ 43. Because bryophytes do not have vascular tissue, they
a. obtain all their water from the surrounding air.
b. have true roots, stems, and leaves.
c. show alternation of generations.
d. grow close to the ground.
____ 44. Xylem tissue is important because it
a. can conduct water over long distances.
b. allows water to diffuse from the roots.
c. carries carbohydrates to all parts of the plant.
d. carries out photosynthesis.
____ 45. The gametophytes of gymnosperms are found inside reproductive structures called
a.
b.
c.
d.
flowers.
cones.
embryos.
ovules.
Figure 22–5
____ 46. In Figure 22–5, what letter indicates the structure where the embryo develops?
a. B
b. D
c. F
d. G
____ 47. A seed plant is held in the ground by its
a. stems.
b. roots.
c. leaves.
d. epidermis.
____ 48. If some of the xylem of a young oak tree were destroyed, it would most likely interfere with the tree’s ability
to
a. conduct sugars to the roots.
b. absorb sunlight.
c. absorb nutrients from the soil.
d. conduct water to the leaves.
____ 49. In a plant’s stem, the vascular tissue
a. is always arranged in rings of vascular bundles.
b. is continuous from the roots to the leaves.
c. carries nutrients up the stem but not down.
d. plays a role in photosynthesis and storage.
____ 50. The flat structure of a leaf blade enables its function as a photosynthetic organ by
a. decreasing the loss of oxygen into the atmosphere.
b. increasing the absorption of nutrients from soil.
c. protecting the rest of the plant from water loss due to evaporation.
d. exposing a greater surface area to capture energy from sunlight.