Download Biology Final Review

Biology Final Review
Name: ____________________________________ Pd: ________ Date: __________________
Read each question carefully and write the letter of the correct answer on the line.
____1. Evidence of evolution is shown in __________’s theory of natural selection.
A.
Darwin
C.
Lamarck
B.
Hooke
D.
Leeuwenhoek
____2. The human appendix, tailbone & wisdom teeth are all examples of…
A.
homologous structures
C.
vestigial structures
B.
analogous structures
D.
mimicry
____3. Lamark based his theory of evolution on __________.
A. homologous structures
C. natural selection
B. acquired traits
D. no traits
____4. Which is NOT evidence for evolution?
A. Fossils
B. Genetic comparisons
C. embryological development
D. acquired traits
____5. All of the following would be examples of secondary succession EXCEPT…
A.
flood
C.
new island
B.
fire
D.
farming
____6. The fact that birds, mammals & reptiles all share similar bones structure is an example of …
A.
analogous structures
C.
physiological adaptations
B.
homologous structures
D.
vestigial structures
____7. Starfish live in saltwater ecosystems. Some species live in shallow tide pools, while other live in deep
waters. This is a description of the ___ of starfish.
A.
habitat
C.
niche
B.
community
D.
none of these
____8. Cougars are predators that often eat weakened or diseased animals. This is a description of the ___ of
cougars.
A.
habitat
C.
niche
B.
community
D.
none of these
____9. An ecologist who studies how several species in an area interact among each other and with the abiotic
parts of the environment is interested in the organizational level called…
A.
organism
C.
community
B.
population
D.
biosphere
____10. Which of the following would NOT be an abiotic factor?
A.
sunlight
C.
wind
B.
plants
D.
temperature
____11. Which type of consumer is found at the base of the energy pyramid?
A.
consumer
C.
producer
B.
decomposer
D.
scavenger
1 ____12. Which biome do we live in?
A.
desert
B.
grassland
____13. Which biome has a permafrost?
A.
grassland
B.
taiga
C.
D.
temperate forest
tundra
C.
D.
tropical rain forest
tundra
____14. Which biome has the greatest diversity of plants & animals?
A.
desert
C.
tropical rain forest
B.
taiga
D.
tundra
____15. Which biome has the least amount of rainfall?
A.
grassland
C.
B.
desert
D.
taiga
tropical rainforest
____16. Where would you find the most fertile farmlands?
A.
desert
C.
temperate forest
B.
grassland
D.
tropical rain forest
____17. Two factors which determine the location of a biome are?
A. wind & rain
C. temperature & wind
B. temperature & precipitation
D. temperature & sunlight
____18. When 2 organisms share a close relationship in which both organisms benefit it is called _____.
A.
symbiosis
C.
mutualism
B.
commensalisms
D.
parasitism
____19. Which of the following is an example of parasitism?
A.
deer & tick
C.
barnacles on a whale
B.
tapeworm & human
D. all of the above
Figure 3-1
____20. Referring to Figure 3-1, as matter and energy move from grasses to coyotes, the amount of available
energy _____.
A. Always decreases and population size always increases.
B.
Always increases and population size always decreases.
C.
Always decreases but population size may increase or decrease.
D. Increases or decreases but population size remains the same.
____21. Referring to Figure 3-1, the relationship between cats and mice could best be described as ______.
A. Predator-prey
B.
Scavenger-carrion
C.
Parasite-host
D. Consumer-producer
2 ____22. Referring to Figure 3-1, the coyotes would be considered ______.
A. Herbivores
B.
Third-order consumers
C.
Second-order consumers
D. Decomposers
____ 23. Referring to Figure 3-1, energy flows from _______.
A. Coyotes to grasses
B.
Cats to mice
C.
Mice to cats
D. Coyotes to cats
_____24. An organism containing functional DNA from another is called a ___ organism.
A.
clone
C.
spliced
B.
recombinant
D.
transgenic
_____25. Restriction enzymes cut DNA strands, leaving ______ ends.
A.
double
C.
sticky
B.
smooth
D.
rough
_____26. What is the primary source of plasmids used in DNA technology?
A.
animals
C.
fungi
B.
bacteria
D.
plants
_____27. A method of identification that compares DNA fragments
A.
Pedigree
C.
DNA fingerprinting
B.
Transgenic organism
D.
vector
_____28. Which of the following are applications of genetic engineering?
A.
frost free strawberries
b.
bigger cattle that produce more milk
c.
bacteria to consume pollutants
d.
all of the above
_____29. The replacement of a defective gene with a normal gene is called _____.
A.
cloning
C.
plasmid
B.
genetic engineering
D.
gene therapy
_____30. Listed below are procedures for the production of a transgenic organism. Put the steps in the proper
order.
1. Recombinant DNA is transferred into a suitable host.
2. A desirable gene is identified in a DNA sequence
3. The DNA fragment to be inserted is joined with a vector
4. The DNA fragment to be inserted is isolated
A.
B.
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 3, 1, 4
Answering these questions will help you on the final!!
C.
D.
2, 4, 3, 1
4, 1, 2, 3
3 _____31. A device used for predicting the possible offspring of 2 individuals is called…
A.
law of dominance
C.
punnett square
B.
law independent assortment
D.
testcross
_____32. Which of the following describes an organism that has the genotype Bb?
A.
homozygous
C.
inbreed
B.
heterozygous
D.
all of these
_____33. The passing of traits from parents to offspring is called…
A.
genetics
C.
inbreeding
B.
gene splicing
D.
heredity
_____34. A couple has 2 children, both are boys. What is the chance that their next child will be a boy?
A.
0%
C.
50%
B.
25%
D.
100%
_____35. A white mouse whose parents are both white produces only brown offspring when mated with a
mouse. The white mouse must be…
A.
homozygous recessive
C.
homozygous dominant
B.
heterozygous
D.
haploid
brown
_____36. In mink, brown fur color is dominant to silver-blue fur color. If a homozygous brown mink is mated with
a silver-blue mink and 8 offspring are produced, how many of them would be silver-blue?
A.
0
C.
6
B.
2
D.
8
_____37. In chickens, red feathers (R) are dominant to white feathers (r). A homozygous Red rooster is mated
with a white hen. All of the chicks in the F1 are reD. If 2 of the F1 generation are mated, what is the
expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
A.
4 Red : 0 white
C.
4 white: 0 red
B.
2 red: 2 white
D.
3 red : 1 white
Are you studying yet?
_____38. The type of inheritance shown when a red-flowering plant is crossed with a white flowering plant and
only pink flowering plants are produced is called…
A.
inbreeding
C.
polygenic inheritance
B.
incomplete dominance
D.
codominance
_____39. When roan cattle are mated 25% of the offspring are red, 50% roan and 25% white. Roan cows have a
mix of both red and white hairs. This is an example of
A.
multiple alleles
C.
sex-linked genes
B.
incomplete dominance
D.
codominance
_____40. Because the gene for red-green colorblindness is located on the X chromosome, it is NOT possible to
have a …
A.
carrier son
C.
colorblind son
B.
carrier daughter
D.
colorblind daughter
4 _____41. The blood types A, B, AB, and O are the result of _____ inheritance.
A.
multiple allele
C.
sex-linked
C.
dominant
D.
recessive
_____42. A child is diagnosed with a genetic disease. Neither parent has the disease. How might the child have
inherited the disease?
A.
disorder dominant – carried by a single parent
B.
disorder is sex-linked – carried by the father
C. disorder is recessive – carried by both parents
D. None of the above
_____43. The phenotype that results for a dominant allele must have at least __ dominant allele present in the
parents.
A.
1
C.
2
B.
3
D.
4
_____44. A man heterozygous for blood type A marries a woman heterozygous for blood type B. The chance that
their child will have blood type O is…
A.
0%
C.
50%
B.
25%
D.
75%
_____45. How many X chromosomes does a normal female have?
A.
1
C.
3
B.
2
D.
4
_____46. Which of the following combinations would describe someone who is homozygous dominant?
A.
BB
C.
Bb
B.
bb
D.
bB
_____47. The sex of the offspring is determined by the …
A.
autosomes
C.
B.
environment
D.
X chromosome
Y chromosome
_____48. In a pedigree, an unshaded circle represents a…
A.
carrier
C.
B.
disease female
D.
diseased male
normal female
_____49. In a pedigree, a half shaded circle represents a…
A.
carrier
C.
B.
diseased female
D.
diseased male
normal female
_____50. Which of the following would you NEVER find on a pedigree?
A.
complete colored circle
C.
partially colored circle
B.
complete colored square
D.
partially colored square
Keep working….it will help your final grade!!☺
5 FIGURE 3. - PEDIGREE SHOWING PEOPLE AFFLICTED WITH HEMOPHILIA
_____51. Refer to Figure 3 above. If individual III-2 marries a person with the same genotype as individual I-1,
what is the chance that one of their children will have hemophilia?
A.
0%
C.
50%
B.
25%
D.
75%
_____52. Refer to Figure 3 above. What type of inheritance pattern does the trait represented by the shaded
symbols illustrate?
A.
incomplete dominance
C.
codominance
B.
multiple alleles
D.
sex-linked
_____53. Refer to Figure 3 above. For the trait begin followed in the above pedigree, Individual II-1 & Individual
II-4 can be classified as ____________.
A. Homozygous dominant
C. Homozygous recessive
B. Mutants
D. Carriers
_____54. Refer to Figure 3 above. What is the relationship between Individual I-1 & Individual III-2?
A. Grandfather-granddaughter
C. Great Aunt –nephew
B. Grandmother-grandson
D. Mother-son
_____55. A human genetic defect that results in the person having trisomy 21 is …
A.
Turners syndrome
C.
PKU
B.
Downs syndrome
D.
Cystic fibrosis
_____56. A human genetic disorder caused by having only one X chromosome is …
A.
Tourettes
C.
Turners syndrome
B.
Klinefelters
D.
Huntington’s disease
_____57. Both hemophilia and red-green colorblindness are ___.
A.
inherited from the mother only
C.
caused by a dominant gene
B.
located on the Y chromosome
D.
sex-linked conditions
6 _____58. To analyze chromosomes, geneticists construct a chart of chromosomes based on sizes & centromere
location is called a(n)
A.
karyotypes
C.
inheritance patterns
B.
pedigree
D.
fetal chart
_____59. The longest phase of the cell cycle is…
A.
prophase
B.
interphase
C.
D.
metaphase
mitosis
_____60. If a parent cell contains 10 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each daughter cell have at the
end of mitosis?
A.
5
C.
15
B.
10
D.
20
_____61. The chromosomes move to opposite sides of the cell during…
A.
anaphase
C.
prophase
B.
metaphase
D.
telephase
_____62. Which of the following is an example of a haploid cell?
A.
blood
C.
muscle
B.
gamete
D.
skin
_____63. How many mature egg cells are produced during meiosis?
A.
1
C.
3
B.
2
D.
4
_____64. Which of
A.
b.
c.
d.
the following is the correct sequence of events?
anaphase, interphase, metaphase, prophase, telephase
interphase, metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telephase
telephase, prophase, metaphase, interphase, anaphase
interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telephase
_____65. How many chromosomes are in a normal human body cell?
A.
23
C.
64
B.
46
D.
96
_____66. Plant cell division differs in that a ____ forms during _____.
A.
cell plate, cytokinesis
C.
cell plate, prophase
B.
cell furrow, interphase
D.
cell furrow, cytokinesis
FIGURE 2. – CELL DIVISION
_____67. The numbers in Figure 2(above) represent the chromosome number found in each of the dog’s cells.
The processes that are occurring at A and B are…
A.
mitosis & fertilization
C.
meiosis & fertilization
B.
mitosis & pollination
D.
meiosis & pollination
7 _____68. What are the 3 parts of a nucleotide?
A.
phosphate, sugar, base
B.
phosphate, sugar, lipid
C.
D.
phosphate, sugar, phosphate
phosphate, sugar, protein
_____69. Which of the following molecules are involved with replication?
A.
DNA
C.
DNA, mRNA & tRNA
B.
DNA & mRNA
D.
DNA, mRNA, tRNA & rRNA
_____70. Where does transcription occur?
A.
ribosome
B. cytoplasm
C.
D.
nucleus
chloroplast
_____71. Where does translation occur?
A.
ribosome
B.
cytoplasm
C.
D.
nucleus
chloroplast
_____72. Which of the following is NOT one of the rules for base pairing?
A.
A–T
C.
T–U
B.
G–C
D.
U–A
_____73. The pairing of ____ in DNA is the key feature that allows DNA to be copied.
A.
sugars
C.
chromosomes
B.
nitrogen bases
D.
codons
_____74. X-rays, ultraviolet light and radioactive substances can all change the chemical nature of DNA and
cause_____.
A.
growth regulation
C.
hydrolysis
B.
metamorphosis
D.
mutations
Use the DNA strand GGCAGTTCATGC & the BLUE CODON CHART to answer questions 75-77.
Sim for the blue chart.
See Mrs.
_____75. Replication is the process where DNA makes a copy of itself. Choose the complimentary strand
would match the strand listed above.
A.
GGCAGTTCATGC
C.
CCGTCAAGTACG
B.
CCGTGAAGUTCG
D.
CCGUCAAGUACG
that
_____76. mRNA takes the message from the DNA to the ribosome. Transcribe the original DNA strand to
mRNA.
A.
CCGUCAAGUACG
C.
CCGTCAAGTACG
B.
CCCUGAAGUTGG
D.
CCGUCTTGTACG
_____77. Using the below strand of mRNA, use the codon chart to determine the amino acids that it codes for….
AUGCGCAACUUG
A. Proline, asparagines, leucine, stop
C. start, arginine, asparagine, leucine
B. Asparagine, leucine, proline, methoonine
D. start, serine, alanine, valine
8 _____78. Energy is released from ATP when the bond is broken between…
A.
2 phosphate groups
C.
ribose & phosphate group
B.
adenine & ribose
D.
adenine & phosphate group
_____79. The net total molecules of ATP that are produced during glycolysis is _____.
A.
2
C.
3
B. 4
D.
0
_____80. Which of the following equations best describes photosynthesis?
A.
C + O2 + H2O
CO2 + HOH
C.
6C + 6H2O
C6H12O6
B.
C6H12O6
6CO2 + 6H2O
D.
6CO2 + 6H2O
C6H12O6 + 6O2
_____81. The first step in cellular respiration is _____.
A.
ETC
C.
B.
Kreb’s cycle
D.
glycolysis
photosynthesis
_____82. The ETC will produce ____ ATP for each molecule of glucose.
A.
2
C.
23
B.
4
D.
32
_____83. In respiration, the final electron acceptor in the ETC is ____.
A.
oxygen
C.
hydrogen
B.
ATP
D.
water
_____84. Fermentation occurs when there is no ______ present.
A.
ATP
C.
CO2
B.
H2O
D.
O2
_____85. Lactic acid fermentation occurs in ______ and produces _______.
A.
bacteria, CO2
C.
large muscles, pain
B.
yeast, alcohol
D.
microorganisms, O2
_____86. In addition to alcohol, fermentation also produces the byproduct ___.
A.
ATP
C.
CO2
B.
H2O
D.
O2
_____87. Each of the following is a main idea of the cell theory except…
A.
all organisms made cells
C.
all cells similar structure/function
B.
cells basic unit living things
D.
all cells come preexisting cells
_____88. If a cell contains a nucleus, it must be…
A.
plant cell
B.
eukaryotic
C.
D.
animal cell
prokaryotic
_____89. Unlike plant cells, animal cells contain…
A.
cell walls
B.
vacuole
C.
D.
nucleoli
lysosomes
Keeping going…this will help you with the Final exam!!!
9 _____90. Which organelle absorbs sunlight as an energy source?
A.
chloroplast
C.
mitochondria
B.
lysosome
D.
vacuole
_____91. Which organelle is nicknamed the “control center”?
A.
mitochondria
C.
ribosome
B.
nucleus
D.
vacuole
_____92. Which organelle transports proteins?
A.
cell membrane
B.
cytoplasm
C.
D.
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
_____93. The function of this organelle is to make proteins?
A.
lysosome
C.
nucleus
B.
mitochondria
D.
ribosome
_____94. This structure is found in both plant & animals, but in different sizes.
A.
chloroplast
C.
endoplasmic reticulum
B.
cytoplasm
D.
vacuole
_____95. A cell moves particles from an area of LOW concentration to an area of HIGH concentration by…
A.
facilitated diffusion
C.
passive transport
B.
osmosis
D.
active transport
_____96. If it is not watered, a tulip wilts because it…
A.
increases active transport
C.
B.
increases turgor pressure
D.
loses active transport
loses turgor pressure
_____97. If a cell is placed in salt water, water leaves the cell by…
A.
osmosis
C.
active transport
B.
diffusion
D.
phagocytosis
_____98. Which of the following is NOT a form of passive transport?
A.
facilitated diffusion
C.
diffusion
B.
endocytosis
D.
osmosis
_____99. Osmosis does not occur in a _______ solution.
A.
osmotic
C.
B.
hypertonic
D.
hypotonic
isotonic
_____100. In a hypertonic solution water will move…
A.
into the cell
B.
in & out of the cell
C.
D.
out of the cell
neither direction
_____101. The nucleus of an atom contains…
A.
protons & neutrons
B.
neutrons & electrons
C.
D.
protons & electrons
protons, neutrons & electrons
10 _____102. An atom of fluorine has nine electrons. Its second energy level has __ electrons.
A.
2
C.
7
B.
8
D.
9
_____103. Only ___ electrons may be placed in the 1st energy level.
A.
2
C.
6
B.
4
D.
8
_____104 How many electrons can a carbon atom share?
A.
1
C.
B.
2
D.
3
4
_____105. To be an organic compound, which element must be present?
A.
carbon
C.
nitrogen
B.
hydrogen
D.
oxygen
_____106. What are the basic building blocks of proteins?
A.
nucleic acids
C.
amino acids
B.
peptide bonds
D.
glycerol & fatty acids
_____107. Two simple sugars are combined through the process of…
A.
hydrolysis
C.
electron clouds
B.
Neutralization reaction
D.
dehydration synthesis
_____108. The various enzymes in our bodies are…
A.
lipids
B.
nucleic acids
C.
D.
_____109. An unsaturated lipid contains…
A.
more oxygen than hydrogen
B.
double bonds between the Carbon atoms
carbohydrates
proteins
C.
D.
ionic bonds
only 1 fatty acid
_____110. Unlike carbohydrates and fats, proteins contain ____.
A.
nitrogen
C.
hydrogen
B.
carbons
D.
oxygen
_____111. The following organic compound contains C, H & O in a 1:2:1 ratio.
A.
carbohydrate
C.
protein
B.
lipid
D.
nucleic acid
_____112. Which process would be an example of hydrolysis?
A.
formation of ATP
C.
photosynthesis
B.
digestion
D.
respiration
_____113 Which organic compound provides long-term energy and insulation?
A.
carbohydrate
C.
protein
B.
lipid
D.
nucleic acid
You are almost finished….
11 _____114. A system for naming species in which two words are used to name an organism is called ______.
A.
Binomial nomenclature
C.
Cladistics
B.
Dichotomous keying
D.
Fan diagramming
_____115. The father of binomial nomenclature
A.
Cohen
B.
Linnaeus
C.
D.
Mendel
Aristotle
_____116. The placing of information or objects into groups based on certain similarities are:
A.
Biochemical analysis
C.
Phylogeny
B.
Classification
D.
Speciation
_____117. All living things are made up of ______.
A.
cells
C.
cellulose
B.
cork
D.
wastes
_____118. Living things change during their lives through _____.
A.
reproduction
C.
making responses
B.
reacting to stimuli
D.
adaptations
____119. All of the following are characteristics of living things EXCEPT:
A.
reproduce
C.
grow & develop
B.
movement
D.
respond to stimuli
_____120. The information gathered from experiments is called _____.
A.
data
C.
research
B.
hypothesis
D.
conclusion
_____121. The steps commonly used by scientists in gathering information to test a hypothesis and solve problems
are called:
A.
descriptive research
C.
scientific method
B.
pure science
D.
applied science
_____122. A hypothesis can be described as a(n):
A.
controlled experiment
B.
educated guess
C.
D.
definite answer
proven theory
_____123. A structured procedure for collecting information to test a hypothesis is a:
A.
principle
C.
control
B.
theory
D.
experiment
_____124. Scientific explanation of known facts arrived at through repeated testing is a:
A.
theory
C.
natural law
B.
observation
D.
experiment
_____125. The part of an experiment in which all conditions are kept the same is the:
A.
hypothesis
C.
conclusion
B.
control
D.
independent variable
Finally....I am DONE! Now STUDY for the FINAL!!
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