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THE MEAN-FIELD METHOD IN THE THEORY OF SUPERCONDUCTIVITY: A WOLF IN SHEEP’S CLOTHING? Anthony J. Leggett Department of Physics University of Illinois at UrbanaChampaign joint work with Yiruo Lin support: NSF-DMR-09-06921 UT 2 1. Spontaneously broken U(1) symmetry: the weakly interacting Bose gas 2. Spontaneously broken U(1) symmetry: BCS theory of superconductivity 3. The Bogoliubov-de Gennes equations: s-wave case 4. The Bogoliubov-de Gennes equations: general case 5. Application to topological quantum computing in Sr2RuO4 6. What could be wrong with all this? A couple of (rather trivial) illustrations. 7. A simple but worrying thought-experiment. 8. Conclusion UT 3 SPONTANEOUSLY BROKEN U(1) SYMMETRY: THE GENERAL IDEA 1. Dilute Bose gas with weak repulsion (Bogoliubov, 1947) 𝜀𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎𝑘 + 𝑉 𝐻= 𝑘 𝐻, 𝑁 = 𝐻, 𝑃 = 0 Total particle number 2 2 ℏ 𝑘 /2𝑚 Total momentum To zeroth order in 𝑉, groundstate of N particles is that of free Bose gas, i.e. (apart from normalization) 𝑁 = 𝑎𝑜+ Ψ𝑜 𝑁 |vac ≡ 𝑎𝑜+ 𝑎𝑜+ 𝑁/2 |vac Most important scattering processes: O k + inverse V O -k process + , i.e. 𝑉𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎−𝑘 𝑎𝑜 𝑎𝑜 +𝐻. 𝑐. 𝑉pair The simplest ansatz for N-particle GSWF incorporating these processes: (apart from normalization) 𝑁/2 (𝑁) Ψ𝑜 + 𝑐𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎−𝑘 = 𝑎𝑜+ 𝑎𝑜+ − 𝑘 |vac particleconserving! UT 4 Coefficients 𝑐𝑘 can be found by minimizing 𝐻 including 𝑉 pair terms*. However, calculations rather messy… Bogoliubov: in “reduced” Hamiltonian 𝜀𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎𝑘 + 𝐻𝑟𝑒𝑑 ≡ 𝑘 + 𝑉𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎−𝑘 𝑎𝑜 𝑎𝑜 + H. c. 𝑘 treat quantity 𝑎𝑜 𝑎𝑜 (or actually 𝑎𝑜 ) as c-number 𝑎𝑜 → 𝑁𝑜 so 𝑎𝑜 𝑎𝑜 → 𝑁𝑜 ; then + 𝜀𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎𝑘 + 𝑁𝑜 𝑉𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎−𝑘 + H. c. 𝐻𝐵𝑜𝑔 = 𝑘 (but see below…) *see e.g. AJL, Revs. Mod. Phys. 73, 307 (2001), section VIII. UT 5 What are the implications of treating 𝑎𝑜 𝑎𝑜 as a c-number? Implies a nonzero expectation value ≡ 𝑎𝑜+ 𝑎𝑜 Ψ 𝑎𝑜 𝑎𝑜 Ψ ≅ 𝑁𝑜 This is not true for the (particle-conserving) wave function 𝑁 2 𝑁 Ψ𝑜 + 𝑐𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎−𝑘 ≡ 𝑎𝑜+ 𝑎𝑜+ − 𝑎𝑜 𝑎𝑜 ≡ 𝑂 |vac 𝑘 but is true e.g. for 𝐵𝑜𝑔 Ψ𝑜 + 𝑐𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎−𝑘 ≡ exp 𝜆 𝑎𝑜+ 𝑎𝑜+ − 𝑁 𝜆𝑁 Ψ𝑜 ≡ 𝑘 𝑁=even (neglect details about normalization, etc.) What fixes 𝑁 ~𝜆 ? If we just minimize 𝐻𝐵𝑜𝑔 as it stands this automatically gives 𝜆~ 𝑁 ~0! Hence must add chemical potential term, i.e. minimize ′ 𝐻𝐵𝑜𝑔 ≡ 𝐻𝐵𝑜𝑔 − 𝜇𝑁 (i.e. 𝜀𝑘 → 𝜀𝑘 −𝜇) and adjust so that 𝑁 𝜇 = 𝑁 actual number of particles 𝑁! UT 6 This procedure is standard in conventional statistical mechanics (macrocanonical ground canonical), but then resultant state is a mixture of different N. Now by contrast we have a quantum superposition of states of different N. Let’s define an operator 𝜑 which is canonically conjugate to 𝑁, so that its eigenfunctions |𝜑 are related to those of 𝑁 by |𝜑 = exp 𝑖𝑁𝜑 |𝑁 . |𝑁 = 𝑑𝜑 exp − 𝑖𝑁𝜑 |𝜑 𝑁 Since original 𝐻 (not 𝐻𝐵𝑜𝑔 !) satisfies 𝑁 𝐻 𝑁′ ~𝛿𝑁𝑁′ , it is invariant under “rotation” of 𝜑 (“U(1)symmetry”) . 𝐵𝑜𝑔 However Ψ𝑜 picks out a definite value (0) of 𝜑: “Spontaneously broken U(1) symmetry” UT 7 THE MEAN-FIELD (BOGOLIUBOV) METHOD: QUASIPARTICLES: ′ “Mean-field” Hamiltonian 𝐻𝑀𝐹 ≡ 𝐻𝐵𝑜𝑔 , i.e. + 𝜖𝑘 − 𝜇 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎𝑘 + 𝑁𝑜 𝑉𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎−𝑘 + H. c. 𝐻𝑀𝐹 ≡ 𝑘 with standard Bose C.R.’s + 𝑎𝑘 , 𝑎𝑘′ = 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎𝑘′ = 0, + 𝑎𝑘 , 𝑎𝑘′ = 𝛿𝑘𝑘′ This can be diagonalized by Bogoliubov transformation 𝛼𝑘+ = 𝑢𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ + 𝑣𝑘 𝑎−𝑘 (etc.), 𝑢𝑘 2 − 𝑣𝑘 2 =1 which preserves Bose C.R.’s.: 𝐸𝑘 𝛼𝑘+ 𝛼𝑘 +const. 𝐻𝑀𝐹 ≡ 𝑘 where (after is fixed to give 𝑁 = 𝑁 and 𝑉𝑘 𝑠𝑒𝑡 ≅ 𝑉𝑂 ) 𝐸𝑘 = 𝜀𝑘 𝜀𝑘 + 2𝑁𝑉𝑂 1 2 Bogoliubov spectrum UT 8 Note: All these results, including formula for 𝐸𝑘 , can be obtained by particle-conserving method based on ansatz 𝑁 Ψ𝑂 . However, in that method we have 𝛼𝑘+ = 𝑢𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ + 𝑣𝑘 𝑎𝑜+ 𝑎𝑜+ /𝑁𝑜 𝑎−𝑘 +1 +2 -1 particleconserving! 𝑁 →𝑁+1 By contrast, in Bogoliubov method 𝑢𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ adds a particle 𝑁 → 𝑁 + 1 𝑣𝑘 𝑎−𝑘 subtracts a particle 𝑁 → 𝑁 − 1 So qp state is not an eigenstate of N. (but neither is groundstate…) [Density fluctuation in number-conserving formalism: 𝜌𝑘 = 𝛼𝑘+ 𝑎𝑜 = 𝑢𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎𝑜 + 𝑣𝑘 𝑎𝑜+ 𝑎𝑜+ 𝑁𝑜 𝑎−𝑘 𝑎𝑜 = 𝑢𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎𝑜 + 𝑣𝑘 𝑎−𝑘 𝑎𝑜+ [Generalization of Bogoliubov method to inhomogeneous situations] UT 9 SPONTANEOUSLY BROKEN U(1) SYMMETRY: THE GENERAL IDEA (CONT.) 2. Superconductors (BCS 1957) + 𝜀𝑘 𝑎𝑘𝜎 𝑎𝑘𝜎 + 𝑉 𝐻= 𝐻, 𝑁 = 𝐻, 𝑃 = 𝑂 𝑘𝜎 Most important scattering process: 𝑘′ ↑ 𝑘↑ V −𝑘 ↓ (+ inverse process), i.e. + 𝑉𝑘𝑘′ 𝑎𝑘′↑ 𝑎−𝑘′↓ 𝑎−𝑘↓ 𝑎𝑘↑ −𝑘′ ↓ +H. c. 𝑉pair even Simplest ansatz for N-particle GSWF incorporating these processes (apart from normalization) 𝑁 2 𝑁 Ψ𝑂 + + 𝑐𝑘 𝑎𝑘↑ 𝑎−𝑘↓ = |vac particle- 𝑘 conserving! with coefficients found by minimizing 𝐻 including 𝑉pair terms*. *See e.g. AJL, Quantum Liquids, section V. UT 10 Again, calculations messy… BCS: in “reduced” Hamiltonian + + 𝑉𝑘𝑘′ 𝑎𝑘↑ 𝑎−𝑘↓ 𝑎−𝑘′↓ 𝑎𝑘′↑ + H. c. + 𝜖𝑘 𝑎𝑘𝜎 𝑎𝑘𝜎 + 𝐻𝑟𝑒𝑑 = 𝑘𝜎 𝑘𝑘′ treat the quantity Δ𝑘 ≡ 𝑉𝑘𝑘′ 𝑎−𝑘′↓ 𝑎𝑘′↑ 𝑘′ as c-number. Then (adding chemical potential term as in Bose case) + + Δ𝑘 𝑎𝑘↑ 𝑎−𝑘↓ + H. c. + 𝜖𝑘 − 𝜇 𝑎𝑘𝜎 𝑎𝑘𝜎 + 𝐻𝑀𝐹 = 𝑘𝜎 𝑘 Δ𝑘 ≡ 𝑉𝑘𝑘′ 𝑎−𝑘′↓ 𝑎𝑘′↑ 𝑘′ Again, this makes sense only if U(1) symmetry spontaneously broken, e.g. + + 𝑐𝑘 𝑎𝑘↑ 𝑎−𝑘↓ |vac Ψ𝐵𝐶𝑆 = exp 𝑘 ≡ 𝑢𝑘 |𝑜𝑜 𝑘 𝑘 + 𝑣𝑘 |11 𝑘 UT 11 The Mean-Field (BCS) Method: Quasiparticles As above, mean-field Hamiltonian is + Δ𝑘 𝑎𝑘↑ 𝑎−𝑘↓ + H. c. + 𝜖𝑘 − 𝜇 𝑎𝑘𝜎 𝑎𝑘𝜎 + 𝐻𝑀𝐹 = 𝑘𝜎 𝑘 with standard Fermi ACR’s + + + 𝑎𝑘𝜎 , 𝑎𝑘′𝜎′ = 𝑎𝑘𝜎 , 𝑎𝑘′𝜎′ = 𝑂, 𝑎𝑘𝜎 , 𝑎𝑘′𝜎′ = 𝛿𝑘𝑘′ 𝛿𝜎𝜎′ This can be diagonalized by Bogoliubov (-Valatin) transformation + + 𝛼𝑘𝜎 = 𝑢𝑘 𝑎𝑘𝜎 + 𝜎𝑣𝑘 𝑎−𝑘−𝜎 (etc.), 𝑢𝑘 2 + 𝑣𝑘 2 =1 which preserves Fermi ACR’s: + 𝐸𝑘 𝛼𝑘𝜎 𝛼𝑘𝜎 𝐻𝑀𝐹 = 𝑘𝜎 𝐸𝑘 ≡ 𝜀𝑘2 + Δ𝑘 2 1 2 UT 12 Note: All these results can be obtained by particle𝑁 conserving method based on ansatz Ψ𝑜 that method we have + + 𝛼𝑘𝜎 = 𝑢𝑘 𝑎𝑘𝜎 + 𝜎𝑣𝑘 𝑎−𝑘,−𝜎 𝑐 † +1 -1 +2 . However, in particleconserving! 𝑁 →𝑁+1 where 𝐶 † is normalized Cooper-pair creation operator: + + 𝑐𝑘 𝑎𝑘↑ 𝑎−𝑘↓ 𝐶† ≡ 𝑛 ∙ 𝑘 normalization By contrast, in BCS method + 𝑢𝑘 𝑎𝑘𝜎 adds an electron 𝑁 → 𝑁 + 1 + 𝜎𝑣𝑘 𝑎−𝑘,−𝜎 subtracts an electron 𝑁 → 𝑁 − 1 so qp state is not an eigenstate of N (but neither is GS …) [In recent literature on TI’s, etc., 𝐻𝑀𝐹 often described as “noninteracting-electron” Hamiltonian (!)] UT 13 The Mean-Field Method for Spatially Inhomogeneous Problems: The Bogoliubov-De Gennes Equations If the single-particle potential and/or the pairing interaction varies in space, the construction of a GSWF which 𝑁 generalizes Ψ𝑂 , while possible in principle*, is usually unfeasible in practice. However, the mean-field method is simply generalized (de Gennes 1964): Consider for illustration the simple Hamiltonian (obtained by setting 𝑉 𝒓 − 𝒓′ = 𝑔𝛿 𝒓 − 𝒓′ and using 𝜓𝜎 𝒓 2 ≡ 𝑂) single-particle potential 𝐻= 𝑑𝒓 𝜎 ℏ2 2𝑚 𝜵𝜓𝜎† 𝒓 ⋅ 𝜵𝜓𝜎 𝑟 +𝑔 + (∪ 𝒓 − 𝑑𝑟 𝜓↑† 𝑟 𝜓↓† 𝑟 𝜓↓ 𝑟 𝜓↑ 𝑟 The mean-field approximation: take the quantity Δ 𝒓 ≡ 𝒈𝜓 ↓ 𝒓 𝜓 ↑ 𝒓 to be a c-number. Thus (↑: caution re factors of 2 etc!) *Stone & Chung, Phys. Rev. B 73, 014505 (2006) UT 14 𝐻𝑀𝐹 = 𝐻𝑂 + 𝑔 𝐻𝑜 ≡ 𝑑𝒓 𝜎 ℏ2 2𝑚 𝑑𝑟 ∆ 𝑟 𝜓↑† 𝑟 𝜓↓ 𝑟 + H. c. 𝜵𝜓𝜎† 𝑟 ⋅ 𝜵𝜓𝜎 𝑟 + ∪ 𝒓 − 𝜇 𝜓𝜎† 𝑟 𝜓𝜎 𝑟 with standard Fermi ACR’s † 𝜓𝜎 𝑟 , 𝜓𝜎′ 𝑟′ = 𝛿 𝒓 − 𝒓′ 𝛿𝜎𝜎′ (etc.) Since 𝐻𝑀𝐹 is a quadratic form in 𝜓𝜎† 𝑟 , 𝜓𝜎 𝒓 , it can be diagonalized by introducing operators 𝛾𝑖+ defined by + 𝛾𝑖𝜎 = 𝑑𝒓 𝑢𝑖 𝑟 𝜓𝜎† 𝑟 + 𝜎𝑣𝑖 𝑟 𝜓−𝜎 𝒓 not H.c’s particlenonconserving! which will satisfy Fermi ACR’S provided the 𝑢𝑖 𝑟 , 𝑣𝑖 𝑟 satisfy 𝑑𝑟 𝑢𝑖 𝑟 , 𝑢𝑗 𝑟 + 𝑣𝑖 𝑟 , 𝑣𝑗 𝑟 = 𝛿𝑖𝑗 a condition in fact guaranteed by the BdG equations (below). Thus + 𝐸𝑖 𝛾𝑖𝜎 𝛾𝑖𝜎 + const. 𝐻𝑀𝐹 = 𝑖𝜎 UT 15 𝑢𝑖 The eigenfunctions 𝑣𝑖 and eigenvalues 𝐸𝑖 of the mean-field Hamiltonian satisfy the Bogoliubov-de Gennes (BDG) equations: 𝐻𝑜 Δ∗ 𝑟 Δ 𝑟 −𝐻𝑜∗ 𝑢𝑖 𝑟 𝑣𝑖 𝑟 This guarantees (a) orthonormality of spinors 𝑢𝑖 𝑟 (b) if 𝑣𝑖 𝑟 𝑢𝑖 𝒓 = 𝐸𝑖 𝑣𝑖 𝒓 𝑢𝑖 𝑣𝑖 (c.f. above) 𝑣𝑖∗ 𝑟 is a solution with energy 𝐸𝑖 , then 𝑢𝑖∗ 𝑟 is also a solution with energy −𝐸𝑖 : hence now be able to find solutions with 𝐸𝑖 = 0, provided 𝑢𝑖 𝑟 = 𝑣𝑖∗ 𝑟 (“pseudo-Majorana”) UT 16 Mean-field method in more general case: ℏ2 𝑑𝒓 𝛿𝜎𝜎′ 𝜵𝜓𝜎† 𝑟 ⋅ 𝜵𝜓𝜎′ 𝑟 2𝑚 𝐻= 𝜎𝜎′ + ∪𝝈𝝈′ 𝒓 − 𝜇𝛿𝜎𝜎′ 𝜓𝜎† 𝒓 𝜓𝜎′ 𝒓 + 1 2 𝑑𝒓𝑑𝒓′ 𝑉𝛼𝛽𝛾𝛿 𝑟, 𝑟′ 𝜓𝛼 𝑟 𝜓𝛽† 𝑟′ 𝜓𝛾 𝑟 𝜓𝛿 𝑟 𝛼𝛽𝛾𝛿 Define ∆𝛼𝛽 𝑟, 𝑟′ ≡ 𝑉𝛼𝛽𝛾𝛿 𝒓, 𝒓′ 𝜓𝛾 𝒓′ 𝜓𝛾 𝒓 𝛾𝛿 and treat it as a c-number. Then 𝐻𝑀𝐹 = 𝐻𝑜 + 𝑑𝒓𝑑𝒓′ Δ𝛼𝛽 𝑟, 𝑟′ 𝜓𝛼† 𝑟 𝜓𝛽† 𝑟′ + 𝐻. 𝑐. Now the BdG equations will in general be 4x4. But note that in the special case of a single spin species (𝛼, 𝛽, 𝛾, 𝛿 ≡ 1, e.g. spinpolarized ultracold Fermi alkali gas) we have 𝛾𝑖† ≡ 𝑑𝑟 𝑢 𝑟 𝜓 † 𝑟 + 𝑣 𝑟 𝜓 𝑟 H.c’s so in particular 𝐸𝑖 = 0, 𝑢 𝑟 = 𝑣 ∗ 𝑟 modes (if any) may be true Majoranas. UT 17 THE “TOPOLOGICAL INSULATOR – TOPOLOGICAL SUPERCONDUCTOR” ANALOGY Consider a “superconductor” with only one spin species, and assume for the moment spatially homogeneous conditions. Then we can take spatial Fourier transforms and get ≡ 𝜀𝑘 − 𝜇 + 𝜉𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎𝑘 + Δ𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑎−𝑘 + H. c. 𝐻𝑀𝐹 = Δ−𝑘 ≡ −Δ𝑘 𝑘 The eigenfunctions of 𝐻𝑀𝐹 are of form 𝜓𝑘 𝑢𝑘 + ≡ 𝑢 𝑎 + 𝑣𝑘 𝑎−𝑘 |GS 𝑘 𝑘 𝑣𝑘 Creates hole in state -k Creates particle in state k Thus, if we define a 2D Hilbert space corresponding to “pseudo spin” |↑ ≡ |particle in state 𝒌 |↓ ≡ |hole in state − 𝒌 then 𝐻𝑀𝐹 can be written (after subtraction of a constant term from the KE) in the “Nambu” form 𝐻𝑀𝐹 𝜉𝑘 𝜎𝑧𝑘 + Δ𝑥𝑘 𝜎𝑧𝑘 + Δ𝑦𝑘 𝜎𝑦𝑘 ≡ 𝑘 𝜉𝑘 𝜎𝑧𝑘 + 𝜟𝑘 ∙ 𝝈⊥𝑘 𝑘 ≡ 𝑅𝑒∆𝑘 ≡ 𝐼𝑚∆𝑘 UT 18 Now compare this with a simple 2-band solid with nonzero interband coupling. For this case define (for say real spin ↑) pseudospin states |↑ ≡ |particle in state 𝒌 in band 1 |↓ ≡ |particle in state 𝒌 in band 2 𝜉𝑘 ≡ 𝜀𝑘 1 − 𝜀𝑘 2 Δ𝑥𝑘 𝑅𝑒 = part of interband matrix element Δ𝑦𝑘 𝐼𝑚 Then 𝐻 2-band is formally identical to 𝐻𝑀𝐹 ! (: physical interpretation is completely different!) UT 19 TOPOLOGICAL SUPERCONDUCTORS, cont. A particularly interesting case is when the system is 2D and Δ𝑘 = const. 𝑘𝑥 + 𝑖𝑘𝑦 , 𝜉𝑘 changes sign at 𝒌 = 𝑘𝑜 . (e.g. due to spin-orbit coupling In the 2-band case this corresponds to a topological insulator.* If we now allow 𝑘𝑜 to be a 𝑓 𝒓 and to cross zero on some contour (e.g. the physical boundary of the system) it is easy to show (Volkov & Pankratov 1985) that a localized mode appears on this contour and disperses across the bulk band gap, with zero energy for 𝒌 ⊥ contour. For a (real geometrical) “hole” in the T⊥, 𝒌 is always ⊥ contour so E=0. This mode is a quantum superposition of |↑ and |↓ (i.e. |1 and |2 ) with equal weights (and, in the usual representation, a 𝜋 2 phase shift between them). Now consider the superconducting analog – a p-wave superconductor with “p + ip” pairing Δ𝑘 = the E=0 state has exactly equal weight for particle & hole components. *cf. Bernevig et al. 2006 UT 20 By an appropriate choice of global phases we can set 𝑢 𝑟 = 𝑣 ∗ 𝑟 , so particle is its own antiparticle (“Majorana fermion”). Actually, M.F.’s always come in pairs (2 MF’s = 1 Bogoliubov qp), so any pair of vortices may carry either no MF’s "|0 " or 2 "|1 " . Ivanov (2001): if 2 vortices exchanged, |1 picks up Berry phase of 𝜋 2 relative to |0 . Argument relies heavily on use of BdG equations. This result is fundamental to the idea of topological quantum computing using p + ip Fermi superfluids (e.g UC alkali gases, 3He-A, Sr2RuO4 . . .). SO: WHAT COULD BE WRONG WITH ALL THIS? UT 21 Failure of (a naïve interpretation of ) the BdG equations: a trivial example: Consider an even-number-parity BCS superfluid at rest. (so 𝑷𝑜 = 0) total momentum Now create a single fermionic quasiparticle in state k: For this, the appropriate BdG qp creation operator 𝛾𝑖† turns out to be 1 + 𝛾𝑖† = 𝑢𝑘 𝑎𝑘↑ + 𝑣𝑘 𝑎−𝑘↓ 𝐸𝑘 ≡ ∈2𝑘 + Δ𝑘 ∈ 1 ∈ , 𝑢𝑘 ≡ 2 1 + 𝐸𝑘 , 𝑣𝑘 ≡ 2 1 − 𝐸𝑘 2 1/2 𝑘 (so 𝑢𝑘 2 + 𝑣𝑘 𝑘 2 = 1) The total momentum 𝑷f of the (odd-number-parity) many-body state created by 𝛾𝑖 is standard textbook result 𝑷𝑓 = 𝑢𝑘 2 ℏ𝒌 − 𝑣𝑘 2 −ℏ𝒌 = 𝑢𝑘 2 + 𝑣𝑘 2 ℏ𝒌 ≡ ℏ𝒌 so Δ𝑷𝑓 ≡ 𝑷𝑓 - 𝑷𝑜 = ℏ𝒌 Now consider the system as viewed from a frame of reference moving with velocity −𝒗, so that the condensate COM velocity is 𝒗. Since the pairing is now between states with wave vector 𝒌 + 𝑚𝒗/ℏ and −𝒌 + 𝑚𝒗/ℏ , intuition suggests (and explicit solution of the B&G equations confirms) that the form of 𝛾𝑖† is now † 𝛾𝑖† = 𝑢𝑘 𝑎𝑘+ 𝑚𝑣 + 𝑣𝑘 𝑎−𝑘+𝑚𝑣,↓ ← nb. not 𝑎 − ,↑ ℏ ℏ 𝑚𝑣 𝑘+ ℏ ! Thus the added momentum is Δ𝑷′𝑓 = 𝑢𝑘 2 ℏ𝒌 + 𝑚𝒗 − 𝑣𝑘 2 −ℏ𝒌 + 𝑚𝒗 = ℏ𝒌 + ( 𝑢𝑘 2 − 𝑣𝑘 2 )𝑚𝒗 Recap: BdG Δ𝑃′𝑓 = ℏ𝒌 + ( 𝑢𝑘 2 − 𝑣𝑘 2 )𝑚𝒗 UT 22 However, by Galilean invariance, for any given condensate number N, 𝑷′𝑜 = 𝑷𝑜 + 𝑁𝑚𝒗, 𝑷′𝑓 = 𝑷𝑓 + 𝑁 + 1 𝑚𝒗. ⇒ Δ𝑃′𝑓 ≡ 𝑃′𝑓 − 𝑃′ 𝑜 = Δ𝑷′𝑓 + 𝑚𝒗 = ℏ𝒌 + 𝑚𝒗. and this result is independent of N (so involving “spontaneous breaking of U(1) symmetry” in GS doesn’t help!) So: BdG ⇒ Δ𝑃′𝑓 = ℏ𝒌 + ( 𝑢𝑘 2 − 𝑣𝑘 2 )𝑚𝒗 GI → Δ𝑃′𝑓 = ℏ𝒌 + 𝑚𝒗 Galilean invariance What has gone wrong? Solution: Conserve particle no.! When condensate is at rest, correct expression for fermionic correlation operator 𝛾𝑖† is † + 𝛾𝑖† = 𝑢𝑘 𝑎𝑘↑ + 𝑣𝑘 𝑎−𝑘↓ 𝐶(0) ← creates extra Cooper pair (with COM velocity 0) Because condensate at rest has no spin/momentum/spin current …, the addition of 𝐶 has no effect. However: when condensate is moving † ← creates extra Cooper + 𝑚𝒗 𝐶 𝛾𝑖† = 𝑢𝑘 𝑎𝒌+ 𝑚𝒗 + 𝑣𝑘 𝑎 −𝑘+ ,↓ 𝑣 ,↑ ℏ ℏ pair(with COM velocity v) ⇒ Δ𝑃′𝑓 = Δ𝑃′𝑓 𝐵𝑑𝐺 + 2𝑚 𝑣𝑘 2 = ℏ𝒌 + 𝑚𝒗 in accordance with GI argument Moral: addition of fermionic particle 𝑢𝑘 𝑎𝒌+ +. . . produces total extra momentum ℏ𝒌, regardless of whether condensate is moving. UT 23 Failure of BdG/MF: a slightly less trivial example For a thin slab of (appropriately oriented) 3He-B, calculations based on BdG equations predict a Majorana fermion state on the surface. A calculation* starting from the fermionic MF Hamiltonian then predicts that in a longitudinal NMR experiment, appreciable spectral weight should appear above the Larmor frequency 𝜔𝐿 ≡ 𝛾Β𝑜 : B Brf 𝐼𝑚𝜒𝑧𝑧 𝜔 w→ wL The problem: no dependence on strength of dipole coupling 𝑔𝐷 , (except for initial orientation)! But for 𝑔𝐷 =0, 𝑆𝑧 commutes with 𝐻 ⇒ 𝜔 𝐼𝑚𝜒𝑧𝑧 𝜔 𝑑𝜔 ~ 𝑆𝑧 , 𝑆𝑧 , 𝐻 =𝑂 ⇒ 𝐼𝑚𝜒𝑧𝑧 𝜔 ~ 𝛿 𝜔 ! For nonzero gD, 𝜔 𝑙𝑚𝜒𝑧𝑧 𝜔 𝑑𝜔 ~𝑔𝐷 ⇒ result cannot be right for 𝑔𝐷 → 𝑂 Yet – follows from analysis of MF Hamiltonian! MORAL: WE CANNOT IGNORE THE COOPER PAIRS! *M.A. Silaev, Phys. Rev. B 84, 144508 (2011) UT 24 (Conjectured) further failure of MF/BdG approach 1 2 ↑ ↑ M.F. M.F. L Imagine a many-body Hamiltonian (e.g. of a 𝑝 + 𝑖𝑝 superconductor) which admits single Majorana fermion solutions at two widely separated points. These M.F.’s are “halves” of a single 𝐸 = 0 Dirac-Bogoliubov fermion state. Intuitively, by injecting an electron at 1 one projects on to this single state and hence gets an instantaneous response at 2. Semenoff and Sodano (2008) discuss this problem in detail and conclude that unless we allow for violation of fermion number parity, we must conclude that this situation allows instantaneous teleportation. Does it? Each Majorana is correctly described, not as usually assumed by 𝛾𝑀† = 𝑢 𝑟 𝜓 † 𝑟 + 𝑢∗ 𝑟 𝜓 𝑟 𝑑𝒓 ≡ 𝛾𝑀 but rather by 𝛾𝑀† = 𝑢 𝑟 𝜓 † 𝑟 + 𝑢∗ (𝑟)𝜓(𝑟)𝐶 † 𝑑𝒓 Cooper pair creation operator But it is impossible to apply the “global” operator 𝐶 † instantaneously! What the injection will actually do (inter alia) is to create, at 1, a quasihole–plus–extra–Cooper –pair at 1, and the time needed for a response to be felt at 2 is bounded below by L/c when C is the C. pair propagation velocity (usually ~vf). UT 25 The $64K question: What is the Berry phase (𝜑𝐵 ) accumulated by a Bogoliubov quasiparticle circling the core of an Abrikosov vortex? (Note: (a) this is in principle an experimentally answerable question: (b) at large distances (𝑟 ≫ 𝜆𝐿 ), simple AB effect ⇒ 𝜑𝐵 = 𝜋 However, we are interested in 𝜉 ≪ 𝑟 ≪ 𝜆𝐿 qp ⇒ replace by problem of neutral liquid in torus Setup of problem: 𝜃 𝑣 𝑅 A. Neutral superfluid (2N fermions) with s-wave pairing circulating with minimum nonzero velocity: 𝑣= ℏ 2𝑚𝑅 𝑘= ℎ 2𝑚 note: Δ/∈𝐹 may be ~1 B. Create Zeeman trap: 𝑉 𝑟 = −𝜎𝑧 𝐵(𝜃𝑅) 𝜃𝑅 𝐵 ↑ 𝑉0 𝐿 with 𝜉 ≪ 𝐿 ≪ 2𝜋𝑅, V0 ≪ Δ 𝑉0 𝐿2 ≥ 1 (so single ↑-spin fermion in free space would be bound) UT 26 C. Add single extra fermion with spin ↑. What happens? 𝐿 For superfluid at rest, ↑ 𝑉(𝑟) Bog. qp presumably sits in Zeeman trap: since for 𝐿 ≫ 𝜉 𝑝↑ qp is equal admixture ℎ↓ of p ↑ and h ↓, (+ extra C. pairs) no extra mass density Δ𝜌(𝑟) 0 associated with trap. (Also, 0 𝑠(𝑟) by TR symmetry, no mass current anywhere in system.) If superfluid moving, presumably above is still true to zeroth order in 𝑣 D. Now imagine moving Zeeman trap adiabatically around torus (𝑣trap ≪ 𝑣, 𝑐 …). Then 𝜏trap ≫ ℏ/Δ𝐸 (⇐ any excitation energy of system) ⇒ Berry phase well-defined. ($64K) question: WHAT BERRY PHASE IS ACCUMULATED? note: if superfluid at rest, 𝜑𝐵 is fairly obliviously 0 UT 27 1st METHOD OF SOLUTION (BdG): 𝐻BdG = with 𝐻𝑜↑ Δ(𝑟) ∗ Δ∗ (𝑟) −𝐻𝑜↓ 𝑢 (𝑟) ← particle component 𝑣 (𝑟) ← hole component Δ 𝑟 = Δ0 exp 𝑖𝜃 Compare this with standard textbook problem of spin ½ in “rotating” magnetic field: 𝐻MF = 𝐵𝑧 𝐵(𝑟) 𝐵∗ (𝑟) −𝐵𝑧 ← spin-↑ component ← spin-↓ component 𝜑 𝐵 𝑟 = |𝐵0 | exp 𝑖𝜑 𝑩 In textbook problem, known result is 𝜑𝐵 = 2𝜋 cos2 𝜒 /2 𝜒 and in particular for𝜒 = 𝜋/2 (equal weight of ↑ and ↓ spin components), 𝜑𝐵 = 𝜋 (“4𝜋 symmetry of fermions”, verified in neutron interferometry experiments) Hence, by analogy (or direct calculation!) in BdG problem, since “particle” and “hole” components have equal weight, conclude 𝜑𝐵 = 𝜋 BdG calculation UT 28 2ND METHOD OF SOLUTION (PARTICLE-CONSERVING CALCULATION): Two general theorems: 1. (provided (2N+1) GS is any superposition of single fermion excited states, i.e., condensate not affected by Zeeman trap to order v): 𝜑𝐵 = 2𝜋 ⋅ ΔJ0 difference in (angular momentum/ ℏ ) in GS of 2N+1 and 2N system (in lab. frame) 2. Galilean invariance ⇒ Δ𝐽𝑣 − Δ𝐽0 = 1 2 Δ𝐽 in rest frame of Δ𝐽 in lab. frame superfluid ↑ As a result, can state with confidence 𝑣 𝜑𝐵 = 𝜋(1 − 2ΔJ𝑣 ) So: if with superfluid at rest and trap rotating, angular momentum 𝐽𝑣 is nonzero*, BdG must be wrong (sys. at rest) QN: WHAT IS 𝐽𝑣 ? (QUESTION UNEXPECTEDLY FULL OF TRAPS! DO WE NEED TO RE-INVENT THE WHEEL?) * Since unarguably 𝐽2𝑁,𝑣 = 0 UT 29 ↑ Pairs at rest, walls (traps) rotating pairs at rest WHAT IS 𝑱? [note: for free particle, certainly ½ !] Qp state must generically be of form + 𝑓𝑝 (𝑢𝑝 𝑎𝑝↑ + 𝑢𝑝 𝑎−𝑝↓ 𝐶 † )|2𝑁〉 Ψ𝑞𝑝 = 𝑝 ≡ 𝑢 𝑟 𝜓 † 𝑟 + 𝑣 𝑟 𝜓 𝑟 𝐶 † ) |2𝑁〉 ARGTS. FOR 𝑱 = 0 (𝜑𝐵 = 𝜋): 1. For “low-energy” Bog. qp., 2 𝑑𝑟 𝑢 𝑟 ⇒ no mass density deviation ⇒ no mass transport ⇒𝑱=0 = 𝑣 𝑟 2 𝑑𝑟 1 = 2 2. In lab. Frame, no time-dependence ⇒ div𝑱 = 0 = div Δ𝐽 ⇒ Δ𝐽(r) far from trap = Δ𝐽/𝐿 but far from trap 𝑢 = 𝑣 = 0, so only contribution to 1 Δ𝑱 is from C. pairs: this is = 2𝑚𝒗 = 𝑚𝒗 2 ⇒ Δ𝐽0 = 1/2 ⇒ Δ𝐽v ≡ 𝑱 = 0 UT 30 ARGUMENT FOR 𝑱 ≠ 0 𝜑𝐵 ≠ 𝜋 : Apply adiabatic perturbation theory, then (quite generally, for any state |0 ) notation of trap generates perturbation 𝑒𝑓𝑓 𝑉𝑛𝑜 where 𝜕𝐻 = 𝑖ℏ 𝜕𝑡 𝑄≡− 𝑖 Hence provided 𝑱 trap is 𝑱 = 𝐴𝒗 , 𝑜 𝑛𝑸0 1 = 𝑖ℏ𝒗 𝐸 − 𝐸 𝐸𝑛 − 𝐸𝑜 𝑜 𝑛𝑜 𝑛 𝜕𝑉 𝑟 𝜎𝑧𝑖 𝜕𝒓 𝑟=𝑟𝑖 = 0, value of 𝑱 induced by rotation of 𝐴 ≡ 𝑖ℏ 𝑛 0𝑱𝑛 𝑛𝑸0 𝐸𝑛 − 𝐸0 2 Now if |0 is the 2N-particle GS, both |0 and |𝑛 can be chosen to be eigenstates of 𝑇 ⇒ 𝐴 = 0 by symmetry. “pseudo” time reversal 𝜎 → −𝜎, 𝐵 → 𝐵 UT 31 However, if |0 is the GS of the 2𝑁 + 1 − particle system (with S=1), this is not true! no symmetry principle requires A to be nonzero. Indeed, since 𝑱, 𝐻𝑏𝑢𝑙𝑘 = 0 , 𝑑𝑱 = 𝑖ℏ 𝐽, 𝐻𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑝 = −iℏ 𝑑𝑡 𝑖 𝜕𝑉 𝜎𝑧𝑖 𝜕𝑟 = −𝑖ℏ𝑸 𝑟𝑧𝑟𝑖 1 𝐸 − 𝐸0 𝑛 𝑱 0 and so so 𝑛 𝑄 0 = 𝑖ℏ 𝑛 𝐴= 𝑛 0𝑱𝑛 2 ≡ 𝜒𝐽𝐽 𝑞 → 0, 𝜔 → 0 𝐸𝑛 − 𝐸𝑜 ↑: Since 𝐴 = 0 for 2𝑁 − particle GS, must take 𝑱 to be 𝑙𝑖𝑚 𝑞→0 𝑱𝒒 , 𝒒 ⊥ 𝑱 (Meissner effect!). But for extra quasiparticle, "𝐽𝑙𝑜𝑛𝑔 = 𝐽𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠𝑣 "? If so then from f-sum rule ⇒ 𝑱 = 𝑚𝒗 ⇒ 𝜑𝐵 = 0 Wait for the next thrilling installment . . . UT 32 CONCLUSIONS What are implications for TQC program? 1. 𝑣 = 5 2 QHE: no implications 2. (p + ip) Fermi superfluids (e.g. Sr2RuO4) Literature may be right. 3. But urgent to (dis)-confirm using physical (particle-conserving) many-body wave functions 4. More generally: CMP / QI !