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Module 3. Molecular biology. Biochemistry of hormones and physiological functions Test questions in text form 1. 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine is A. Thymine B. Cystosine C. * Uracil D. Guanine E. None of these 2. A cofactor in the conversion of dihydroorotate to orotic acid, catalysed by the enzyme dihydroorotate dehydrogenase is A. FAD B. FMN C. * NAD D. NADP E. PLP 3. A nucleoside consists of A. Nitrogenous base B. * Purine or pyrimidine base + sugar C. Purine or pyrimidine base + phosphorous D. Purine + pyrimidine base + sugar +Phosphorous E. All of these 4. A substituted pyrimidine base of pharmacological value is A. 5-Iododeoxyuridine B. Cytisine arabinoside C. * 5-Fluorouracil D. All of these E. None of these 5. A substrate for enzymes of pyrimidine nucleotide biosynthesis is A. * Allopurinol B. Tetracylin C. Chloramphenicol D. Puromycin E. All of these 6. Adenine is A. * 6-Amino purine B. 2-Amino-6-oxypurine C. 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine D. 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine E. None of these 7. All following are naturally occurring nucleotides except A. Cyclic AMP B. ATP C. * DNA D. Inosine monophosphate E. GTP 8. All of the following can occur in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome except A. Gouty arthritis B. Uric acid stones C. * Retarted growth D. Self-mutiliating behaviour E. Both a and B 9. All of the following occur in orotic aciduria except A. * Increased synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides B. Increased excretion of orotic acid in urine C. Decreased synthesis of cytidine triphosphate D. Retardation of growth E. None of these 10. All of the following statements about allopurinol are true except A. * It is a structural analogue of uric acid B. It can prevent uric acid stones in the kidneys C. It increases the urinary excretion of xanthine and hypoxanthine D. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase E. Both a and B 11. All of the following statements about primary gout are true except A. Uric acid stones may be formed in kidneys B. Arthritis of small joints occurs commonly C. * Urinary excretion of uric acid is decreased D. It occurs predominantly in males E. Both C and D 12. All of the following statements about thioredoxin reductase are true except: A. * It requires NADH as a coenzyme B. Its substrates are ADP, GDP, CDP and UDP C. It is activated by ATP D. It is inhibited by dADP E. Both A and C 13. All the enzymes required for de novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides are cytosolic except A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase B. Aspartate transcarbamoylase C. Dihydro-orotase D. * Dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase E. Both C and D 14. Amethopterin and aminopterin decrease the synthesis of A. * TMP B. UMP C. CMP D. All of these E. Both A and B 15. An autosomal recessive disorder, xanthinuria is due to deficiency of the enzymes: A. Adenosine deaminase B. * Xanthine oxidase C. HGPRTase D. Transaminase E. Xanthine reductase 16. An enzyme of pyrimidine nucleotides biosynthesis regulated at the genetic level by apparently coordinate repression and derepression is A. * Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase B. Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase C. Thymidine kinase D. Deoxycytidine kinase E. Carbamoyl phosphatase 17. Aspartate amino transferase uses the following for transamination: A. Glutamic acid and pyruvic acid B. * Glutamic acid and oxaloacetic acid C. Aspartic acid and pyruvic acid D. aspartic acid and keto adipic acid E. None of these 18. Aspartate contributes the following carbon atoms of the pyrimidine nucelus: A. C2 and C4 B. C5 and C6 C. C2, C4 and C6 D. * C4, C5 and C6 E. C4 and C5 19. Aspartate transcarbamoylase is inhibited by A. * CTP B. PRPP C. ATP D. TMP E. AMP 20. Complete absence of hypoxanthine guanine phospharibosyl transferase causes A. Primary gout B. Immunodeficiency C. Uric acid stones D. * Lesh-Nyhan syndrome E. All of these 21. 5 year old sick boy whith Lesch-Nyhan syndrome suffers from hyperuricemia and gout, caused by accumulation: A. * Hypoxanthine B. Adenine and guanine C. Cytosine and uracil D. Thymine E. Hypoxanthine and adenine 22. Excessive consumption of purine rich products by the 46 year old patient caused alimentary hyperuricemia. These products are: A. Coffee, tea B. Liver C. Meat, especially young bird meat D. East E. * all above correct 23. For treatment of gout was prescribed allopurinol, which is the competitive inhibitor of enzyme: A. Inosinekinase B. * Xanthinoxsidase C. Transformilase D. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase E. Ribonucleotidecarboxidase 24. In the chemotherapy of tumor inhibitors of nucleotides synthesis are used. They are the followings substanses except: A. 5-ftoruracil B. * Cocarboxylase C. 5-ftordeoxyuridin D. Aminopterin E. Pteroylglutaminate 25. Malignant cells have high speed of proliferation, therefore for treatment of oncology diseases used: A. Inhibitors of trypsin B. Inhibitors of cytochrome oxidase C. * Inhibitors of nucleotides synthesis D. Inhibitors of proteins biosynthesis E. Activators of proteolytic enzymes 26. Medicine, which is used for treatment of gout is the structural analogue of hypoxanthine, it: A. Salts of lithium B. Anturan C. * Allopyrinol D. Uridine E. Acetilisoniazid 27. ?Prof. I.Horbachevskiy offered and grounded the theory of biosynthesis of uric acid in the organism of mammals. Choose precursor of uric acid: A. Urea and proteins B. Proteins and nucleic acids C. Lipids and nucleic acids D. Glycoproteins and fatty acids E. * Nucleic acids at the degradation of nucleincontaining cells 28. Prof. I.Horbachevskiy’s investigations about purine metabolism are widely known in the world. Why I. Gorbachevskiy was not awarded with the Nobel prize: A. Nobel prize was not yet B. Gorbachevskiy was not nominated C. He lived in Czekh republic, and the synthesis of uric acid was carried out in Austria D. The scientific world did not estimate the role of I.Horbachevskiy’s investigations for the future of medicine and biology E. * all above correct 29. Syndrome of Lesch-Nyhan – hard hyperuricemia is the genetic deficiency of such enzyme: A. Xantine oxidase B. Adenosine deaminase C. Hypoxanthine oxidase D. Phosphorylase E. * Hypoxanthine – guanine phosphoribosyltransferase 30. The 3 year old child suffers from orotic acid aciduria. Orotaciduriya is accompanied the followings symptoms: A. Dermatitis of the opened areas of body B. Bleeding, disorders of growth C. Disorders of mental development, galactosemia D. * Disorders of physical and mental development, megaloblastic anemia E. Diarrhea, dermatitis, demention 31. The 45 year old patient suffers from gout. Symptoms of gout are heavy pain syndrome and inflammation, caused deposition in joints, cartilages and other tissues: A. Oxalates B. Gomogentizic acid C. Orotates D. Phosphates E. * Urates 32. The 5 year old child suffers from orotic acid aciduria. Deficiency of which of below mentioned enzyme causes orotaciduria? A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase ІІ B. Aspartate carbamoyl transferase C. * Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase D. Orotate carboxylase E. Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase 33. The 5 year old child suffers from physical and mental underdevelopment, megaloblastic anemia. It was diagnozed orotic acid aciduria. Orotic aciduria type I reflects the deficiency of enzymes: A. * Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase and orotidylate decarboxylase B. Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase C. Dihydroorotase D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase E. Xanthine oxidase 34. The 50 year old patient suffers from hyperuricemia. Hyperuricemia is increase of uric acid level more than: A. * 0,5 mmol/l B. 0,1 mmol/l C. 10 mmol/l D. 1 mmol/l E. 2 mmol/l 35. The 55 year old male suffers from hyperuricemia. Hyperuricuria is observed at all of diseases which are accompanied the increased disintegration: A. Glycoproteins B. Phosphoproteins C. * Nucleoproteins D. Lipoproteins E. Chromoproteins 36. The 56 year old patient suffers from hyperuricemia. Uric acid is the product of disintegration of purine nucleotides, in composition of which are the following nitrogenous bases: A. Adenine or thymine B. Thymine or uracil C. Guanine or cytosine D. * Adenine or guanine E. Cytosine or uracil 37. The 6 year old boy suffers from Lesch-Nyhan syndrome. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, the sex linked, recessive absence of HGPRTase, may lead to A. * Compulsive self destructive behaviour with elevated levels of urate in serum B. Hypouricemia due to liver damage C. Failure to thrive and megaloblastic anemia D. Protein intolerance and hepatic encephalopathy E. Both A and D 38. The 6 year old child suffers from physical and mental underdevelopment, megaloblastic anemia. It was diagnozed orotic acid aciduria. Biochemical index, which characterizes the genetic disorder of UMP biosynthesis is following: A. Aspartataciduria B. * Orotaciduria C. Gomogentisinuria D. Uraciluria E. Cytosinuria 39. The 6 year old child suffers from physical and mental underdevelopment, megaloblastic anemia. It was diagnozed orotic acid aciduria. To prevent formation of orotic acid excess it is possible the use: A. Adenine B. Thymine C. Guanine D. * Uridine E. Aspartate 40. Uric acid is the end product of purine as well as protein catabolism in A. Man B. Fish C. * Birds D. All of these E. None of these 41. Usage in the metabolic reactions of free hypoxanthine and guanine („salvage pathway”) catalyses enzyme: A. Xanthine oxidase B. Phosphorylase C. * Hypoxanthine – guanine phosphoribosyltransferase D. Hypoxanthine oxidase E. Guanosine deaminase 42. What is a way of synthesis of pentoses from glucose metabolites? A. Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Pentose Phosphate Pathway D. Krebs’s cycle E. Cory cycle 43. What is the main pathway for providing of human organism with nitrogenous bases for formation of nucleotides and nucleic acids: A. Citrate cycle B. Ornithine cycle C. * Synthesis of purine and pyrimidine bases D. Synthesis of fatty acids E. Disintegration of glycogen 44. What prevents hyperuricemia: A. Disorders of urinary acid excretion B. Disintegration of DNK C. Radiation defeat of cell D. Toxemia of pregnancy E. Application of structural analogue of hypoxanthine 45. Where in a cell is located synthesis of pyrimidine bases? A. Nucleus B. * Cytoplasm C. Mitochondria D. Microtome E. Endoplasmic reticulum 46. Where nucleic acids hydrolysis takes place? A. In liver B. In stomach C. In small intestine D. In a pancreas E. In muscles 47. Which medicine is used to increase solubility of urates - salts of uric acid for patients with gout: A. Allopurinol B. Chenodesoxycholic acid C. Cholic acid and Allopyrinol D. * Salts of lithium and anturan E. Solutin of NaCl 48. Which of following nucleotides are purine: A. AMP and TMP B. * AMP and GMP C. AMP and UMP D. UMP and TMP E. CMP and GMP 49. Which of the following amino acids produce a vasoconstrictor on decarboxylation? A. Histidine B. * Tyrosine C. Threonine D. Arginine E. All of these 50. Which of the following is absent in the structure of mononucleotides? A. Nitrogenous base B. Ribose C. Desoxyribose D. * Nitric acid E. Phosphoric acid 51. Which of the following reaction does not include into purine nucleotides disintegration: A. Splitting of phosphate group with formation of adenosine and guanosine B. Deamination C. Splitting of D-ribose from nucleotides D. * Degradation of alanine to CO2 and N2O E. Catabolism of hypoxanthine or xanthine with formation of uric acid 52. Which one of the following contributes nitrogen atoms to both purine and pyrimidine rings? A. * Aspartate B. Carbanoyl phosphate C. Carbondioxide D. Tetrahydrofolate E. Ammonia 53. Which products can be used at gout and hyperuricemia: A. Liver, fish B. Meat, yeasts C. Milk, cheese, eggs D. Coffee, tea E. Meat, liver 54. Which substance causes the decrease of level of uric acid in blood and urine: A. Antimycin B. Аminopterin C. Barbiturates D. * Allopurinol E. AMP 55. Which substance gives only one nitrogen atom for purine ring: A. alanine B. glutamine C. * aspartate D. methenil-THF E. formyl -THF 56. Which substance is formed at 11th reaction of synthesis of purine nucleotides: A. Adenylate B. Uric acid C. * Inosine monophosphate D. Hypoxanthine E. Xanthine 57. Which substance is precursor of ? –alanine in the reactions of pyrimidine bases transformation: A. Thymine B. * Uracil C. Cytosine D. Adenine E. Guanine 58. Which substance is the source of ribose and desoxyribose in purine and pyrimidine nucleotides? A. * Glucose B. Cholesterol C. Vitamin С D. Vitamin D E. Arabinose 59. Which substance is utilized in xanthineoxidase’s reactions as oxidant and reduses to N2O2: A. N2O B. * O2 C. HNO3 D. HCO3 E. Cu(OH)2 60. Which substanse does not take part in the biosynthesis of purine nucleotides? A. Glycine B. Tetragidrofolat C. Arginine D. Aspartate E. Glutamine 61. Which substrate donates 2 carbon atoms for the biosynthesis of purine simultaneously for it’s pyrimidine and imidazole rings: A. glutamine B. * glycine C. aspartate D. methionine E. CO2 62. Which substrates take part in the second reaction of formation of purine: A. Fructosepyrophosphate + glycine B. Ribosopyrophosphate + glycine C. * Phosphoribosepyrophosphate + glutamine D. Ribose-5-phosphate + glycine E. Pyrimidine + diazole 63. Which vitamin donates 2 carbon atoms for the biosynthesis of purine? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B6 C. Ascorbic acid D. Vitamin Н E. * Vitamin B10 64. Who synthesized uric acid artificially from glycine and urea in 1882: A. German scientist Veller B. German scientist Fisher C. Polish-Russian scientist Nenskiy D. Austrian physiologist Maresh E. * Ukrainian scientist I. Horbachevskiy 65. Why constant excessive consumption of meat and glandular tissues for some people causes hyperuricemia and formation of kidney’s stones: A. these products reduce solubility of uric acid B. decrease excretion of urates C. effect on a genetic apparatus, stimulating the biosynthesis of purine nucleotides D. * contain a lot of nucleoproteins and nucleotides, which catabolism is accompanied with formation of uric acid E. stimulate transformation of urea to uric acid 66. Why the constant excessive consumption of coffee and tea can cause hyperuricemia and appearance of kidney’s stones: A. components of coffee decrease solubility of uric acid in blood B. components can stimulate formation of uric acid C. coffee and tea do not effect on formation of uric acid D. it is possible at the simultaneously excessive consumption of meat E. * the excessive consumption of coffee and tea can activate the enzyme demethilase, which leads to hyperuricemia 67. Xanthineoksidase is FAD-depending enzyme, flavoprotein which contains such ions: A. * Fe and Mo B. Fe and Cu C. Zn and Mo D. Mg and Cu E. Zn and Fe 68. Xanthosine monophosphate is an intermediate during de novo synthesis of A. TMP B. CMP C. AMP D. * GMP E. All of these 69. Which of the following is not an essential attribute that a biological molecule would need to be a useful genetic material? A. * It must carry all of the information needed to direct the specific organization and metabolic activities of the cell B. It must replicate accurately so that the information it contains is precisely inherited by the daughter cells C. It must be capable of undergoing occasional mutations, such that the information it carries is altered in a heritable way D. It must have highly repetitive DNA sequences. E. All are essential attributes of useful genetic material. 70. ____ regulate which genes or subsets of genes are transcribed in a particular cell type. A. * Transcription factors B. Chaperone proteins C. RNA polymerases D. Transcription is not regulated E. All of the above 71. _______________ join DNA fragments to the lagging strand. A. A.Telomeres B. Centromeres C. Helicase D. * Ligases E. Antiparallel strands 72. A DNA strand with the sequence AACGTAACG is transcribed. What is the sequence of the mRNA molecule synthesized? A. AACGTAACG B. UUGCAUUGC C. AACGUAACG D. * TTGCATTGC E. None of the above 73. A molecule of DNA is a polymer composed of A. Glucose B. Amino acids C. Fatty acids D. * Nucleotides E. Vitamins 74. A reaction of the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids in the process of translation is catalyzed by: A. * Peptydyltransferase B. Aminoacylsynthetase C. Peptidylligase D. Peptidase E. Peptydylhydrolase 75. According to Chargaff's rule, the following proportion exists in DNA A. * C=G B. C»T C. C»G D. C=T E. None of the above 76. All of the below mentioned are the components of the protein synthesis system, except: A. Ribosomes B. m-RNA C. t-RNA D. Regulatory proteins E. * DNA 77. Amino acid during synthesis of proteins bounds to the: A. * 33-end of t-RNA B. Anticodon C. Codon D. 55-end of t-RNA E. 33-end of m-RNA 78. Areas of a eukaryotic gene that are represented in the final protein product are termed __________. A. Introns B. Mutons C. Recons D. * Exons E. Cistrons 79. Binding of RNA-polymerase to DNA-matrix takes place in specific areas of genome. What is the name of these areas? A. Active centers B. Contact areas C. * Promotors D. Catalytic areas E. There is not correct answer 80. Biosynthesis of proteins is related to the following organelles: A. Mitochondria B. Lysosomes C. Microsomes D. Endoplasmic reticulum E. * Ribosomes and nucleus 81. By convention, the sequence of bases in a nucleic acid is usually expressed in the _________ direction A. 3' to 1' B. 3' to 5' C. 1' to 3' D. * 5' to 3' E. Clockwise 82. By which mechanism the synthesis of RNA is inhibited by actinomycin D? A. * Penetration inside the double strand of DNA between G-C with local deformation of DNA matrix B. Inhibition of RNA synthesis initiation C. Associates with A-subunit D. Ingibition of elongation process of RNA synthesis E. Oppression of synthesis of matrix RNA 83. Clusters of highly repetitive DNA located near the centromeres and telomeres are called A. * Nucleosomes B. Euchromatin C. Chromatids D. Heterochromatin E. 30 nm chromatin 84. Codons are composed of: A. * Triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in mRNA B. Triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in DNA C. Triplet sequences of amino acids in polypeptide chains D. Triplet sequences of deoxyribose sugars in DNA E. None of the above 85. Common mechanisms of action of tetracyclin, streptomycin and levomycitin: A. All these antibiotics ingibit replication B. All these antibiotics ingibit transcription C. * All these antibiotics ingibit translation D. All these antibiotics stimulate the synthesis of protein E. All these antibiotics ingibit posttraslation modifications of protein 86. Conformity of A-T, G-C in the DNA molecule is defined as a rule of: A. Watson B. Crick C. * Chargaphe D. Jakob E. Starling 87. Decide whether each statement is true (T) or false (F). Place your answer in the blank space given. A. A-T is a possible base pair in a DNA molecule. A. * A-C is a possible base pair in a DNA molecule B. C-A is a possible base pair in a DNA molecule. C. A-G is a possible base pair in a DNA molecule. D. G-A is a possible base pair in a DNA molecule. 88. DNA is made up of a phosphate group, an organic base, and: A. A protein B. * A sugar C. A molecule of ATP D. A fat E. None of the above 89. DNA replication is called semiconservative because _______________ of the original duplex appears in the duplex formed in replication. A. * None B. Most C. Half D. Hardly any E. All 90. DNA–polymerase can show except polymerase activity: A. * Exonuclease activity B. Endonuclease activity C. Intranuclease activity D. Glyconuclease activity E. Liponuclease activity 91. Each individual zone of a chromosome replicates as a discrete section called A. Telomere B. Euchromatin C. * Okazaki fragment D. Replication unit E. Linker DNA 92. Each unit of a nucleic acid consisting of a sugar, attached phosphate group, and base is a A. Nucleolus B. * Nucleotide C. Nucleosome D. Histone E. Genetisome 93. Enzyme which catalyses replication of both chains in eukaryotes: A. DNA – polymerase 4 B. * DNA – polymerase A C. DNA – polymerase D D. DNA – polymerase D E. DNA – ligase 94. First stage of proteins biosynthesis – activation of amino acids is catalyzed by: A. Aminoacyl-kinase B. Aminoacyl- transferases C. Aminoacyl-t-RNA- hydrolases D. * Aminoacyl-t-RNA- synthetases E. Аміноаcyl-t-RNA- lyases 95. For the activation of amino acids in the first stage of proteins biosynthesis the following ion is needed: A. Ca2+ B. Na+ C. K+ D. Cl- E. * Mg2+ 96. For the process of transcription the followings components are needed, except: A. DNA-matrix B. DNA-depending-RNA-polymerase C. Nucleoside triphosphates D. Ions of Mg2+ E. * Ions of Zn2+ 97. Genetic code is informative only when it is read in direction: A. 55 – 3 B. From right to left C. Direction is not important D. 33 – 4 E. * 33 – 5 98. Give the definition of transcription term: A. * A biosynthesis of RNA on DNA-matrix B. Synthesis of daughter molecules of DNA C. Synthesis of proteins, the amino acid sequence of which is determined by the nucleotide sequence of mRNA D. Enzymatic deleting and repeating synthesis of areas of DNA E. Moving of gene or groups of genes 99. How does protein synthesis begin? A. * The cell divides B. Multiple cells join C. The DNA unzips D. The DNA zips up E. Nothing happens 100. How many combinations of DNA nitrogen bases are possible in a DNA triplet code? A. * 20 B. 32 C. 64 D. 128 E. 19 101. How many molecules of histons does a nucleus of every nucleosome have? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. * 8 E. 10 102. If one side of a DNA molecule contains the following sequence of nucleotides, AGTCCG, the complementary sequence on the other side would be: A. GCCTGA B. AGTCCG C. * TCAGGC D. CTGAAT E. None of the above 103. In a double stranded molecule of DNA, the ratio of purines : pyrimidines is: A. Variable B. Determined by the base sequence in RNA C. Genetically determined D. * Always 1:1 E. Determined by the number of purines in the sense strand of the DNA 104. In DNA guanine always pairs with A. Adenine B. Cytosine C. Guanine D. * Thymine E. Uracil 105. In DNA, thymine always pairs with A. * Adenine B. Cytosine C. Guanine D. Thymine E. Uracil 106. In nucleic acids, the free hydroxyl group is attached to the _______________ carbon of the sugar. A. 5' B. 4' C. * 3' D. 2' E. 1' 107. In nucleic acids, the phosphate group is attached to the ___ carbon of the sugar. A. * 5' B. 4' C. 3' D. 2' E. 1' 108. In replication of DNA, the helix is opened and untwisted by A. Ribase B. Ligase C. Deoxase D. * Helicase E. Polymerase 109. In the DNA molecule: A. * Adenine pairs with thymine B. Guanine pairs with thymine C. Cytosine pairs with thymine D. Adenine pairs with cytosine E. All of the above are possible. 110. In the process of elongation there is untwisting of the double-helical DNA areas with formation of the bonds in polyribonucleotide chain. What bonds are formed? A. 1,6-glycosidic B. B-1,4- glycosidic C. * 3'-5'- phosphodiester D. Disulfide E. Ionic 111. Indicate the difference between RNA transcription and DNA replication: A. * In RNA transcription as a matrix only 1 chain of DNA is used B. In RNA transcription as a matrix 2 chains of DNA are used C. In RNA transcription ions of Zn2+ are necessary D. In RNA transcription the factors of replisome are necessary E. In RNA transcription the whole DNA molecule is transcribed 112. Initiation aminoacyl-t-RNA in eukaryotes is: A. Alanine-t-RNA Histidine –t-RNA * Methionine –t-RNA Glycine- t-RNA Cysteine- t-RNA 113. lustersWhat is the percentage of thymine in the DNA molecule, if the content of cytosine is 22%? A. 38 B. * 28 C. 22 D. 44 E. 11 114. Main enzyme which catalyzes the reaction of synthesis of both chains of DNA in prokaryotes: A. DNA - ligase B. DNA – polymerase D C. DNA - synthetase D. * DNA - polymerase 3 E. DNA - ligase 5 115. Name nitrogen bases that enter to the structure of DNA: A. Guanine, uracil, thymine B. Cytosine, uracil, thymine C. Uracil, adenine, guanine D. * Adenine, thymine, guanine E. Thymine, adenine, uracil 116. Name nitrogenous bases included into the structure of RNA: A. Guanine, uracil, thymine B. Cytosine, adenine, thymine C. * Uracil, adenine, guanine D. Adenine, thymine, guanine E. Thymine, adenine, uracil 117. Name process which is catalyzed by aminoacyl-t-RNA synthetases? A. * Recognition and joining of amino acids to t-RNA B. Initiation of translation C. Elongation of polypeptide chain D. Termination of translation E. Synthesis of t-RNA 118. Name proteins that take part in the regulation of transcription in eukaryotes? A. Albumins B. Globulins C. Immunoglobulins D. * Histons E. Cathepsins 119. Name the mechanism of DNA replication: A. * Semiconservative B. Conservative C. Depressive D. Repressive E. Replicative 120. Named the structural monomers of DNA molecule: A. * Mononucleotides B. Nucleosides C. Nitric bases B. C. D. E. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. D. Polynucleotides E. Peptides Normal self-termination of transcription occurs due to the presence of A. Stem-loop sequences in mRNA B. Termination proteins C. * Multiple RNA polymerase molecules D. Polyribosome formation E. All of the above ?Nucleic acids are: A. Mononucleotides B. Nucleosides C. Nucleoproteins D. * Polynucleotides E. Dinucleotides Nutritional mutants A. Grow on minimal medium B. * Lack an essential metabolic protein C. Are also called prototrophs D. Are the same as carbon-source mutants E. Are usually antibiotic resistant Okazaki fragments are used to elongate A. The leading strand toward the replication fork B. The lagging strand toward the replication fork C. Both strands in both directions D. * The leading strand away from the replication fork E. The lagging strand away from the replication fork On which of the following molecules would you find a codon? A. * Messenger RNA B. Ribosomal RNA C. Transfer RNA D. Small nuclear RNA E. Big nuclear RNA On which of the following molecules would you find an anticodon? A. Messenger RNA B. Ribosomal RNA C. * Transfer RNA D. Small nuclear RNA E. Big nuclear RNA Polymerase III is actually a complex containing A. * Сatalytic subunits B. Proofreading subunits C. "Sliding clamp" subunits D. All of the above E. None of the above Polysomes - are structures which are formed during translation from: A. tRNA and one ribosome B. * One molecule of mRNA and several ribosomes C. A few molecules of mRNA and a few ribosomes D. A few molecules of mRNA and one ribosome E. A few molecules of tRNA, mRNA and few ribosomes Primer is synthesized by specific: A. * Primase B. C. D. E. 130. A. B. C. D. E. 131. A. B. C. D. E. 132. A. B. C. D. E. 133. A. B. C. D. E. DNA – ligase RNA – ligase RNA - polymerase None of above Properties of genetic code are all below, except: Universality * Interruption Nonoverlapping Degeneration Specificity Proteins are made from amino acids by the process of * Hydrolysis Pinocytosis Active transport Dehydration synthesis All of the above Proteins that block the passage of RNA polymerase are called: Operons Activators * Repressors Enhancers Promoters Regulatory domains of most activators interact with The transcription factor complex * RNA polymerase Repressors The regulatory factor complex The DNA binding domain Regulatory proteins of the protein synthesis system on ribosomes are all below, 134. except: A. Factors of initiation B. * Factors of polymerization C. Releasing-factors D. Factors of elongation E. Factors of termination 135. Replication fork has configuration like: A. W B. R C. C D. * V E. T 136. Represors of proteins synthesis on the level of transcription are: A. Protamines B. Glutelins C. * Prolamines D. Scleroproteins E. Histons 137. Reverse transcriptase (revertase or RNA-depending-DNA-polymerase) catalyzes: A. * Synthesis of і-RNA on the DNA B. Synthesis of DNA on the DNA C. Synthesis of tRNA on the DNA D. Synthesis of DNA on the RNA matrix E. Synthesis of DNA on the ribosome 138. RNA contains which bases? A. Adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine, uracil B. Adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine C. Thymine, guanine, cytosine, uracil D. * Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil E. None of the above 139. RNA synthesis on a DNA template is called __________. A. Transformation B. Translation C. Transduction D. * Transcription E. Transfection 140. Since the first nucleotides cannot be linked in a newly synthesized strand in DNA replication, ___________ is required A. A DNA primer B. * DNA polymerase C. Ligase D. An RNA primer E. Helicase 141. Synthesis of daughter molecules of DNA, identical to maternal DNA, is named: A. Reverse transcription B. Transcription C. Replication of RNA D. * Replication of DNA E. Translation 142. The acceptor region of t-RNA contains such terminal sequence of nucleotides: A. * CCA B. CAC C. CCU D. GCA E. CGA 143. The actual synthesis of DNA in E. coli is the function of A. * Polymerase I B. Primase C. Polymerase III D. DNA ligase E. Hirase 144. The amino acid sequence of a polypeptide chain comprises the ____ structure of the protein. A. * Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary E. Presecondary 145. The amino acids are transported to the place of synthesis of proteins in the cells by: A. Proteins-carryer B. r-RNA C. * t-RNA D. Lipoproteins E. m-RNA 146. The base thymine is always paired with ___. A. * Adenine B. Guanine C. Cytosine D. Thymine E. Uracil 147. The component of the protein synthesis system on ribosomes is: A. Nucleus B. * mRNA C. RNA- primer D. DNA- primer E. DNA 148. The double strand model of DNA was proposed by: A. Mitchel B. Krebs C. * Watson – Crick D. Knoop E. Nirenberg 149. The effort to decipher the genetic code was led by ____ who was awarded a Nobel Prize for his work. A. * Nirenberg B. Lederberg C. Watson D. Crick E. Van-Helmont 150. The first mRNA codon to specify an amino acid is always A. TAC B. * UAA C. UAG D. AUG E. UGA 151. The following compounds are formed in complete hydrolysis of nucleic acids, except: A. Phosphoric acid B. Pentoses C. Purine bases D. * Acetic acid E. Adenine 152. The four ribonucleotide triphosphates incorporated into mRNA are A. Inosine, Guanine, Uracil, Thymine B. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine C. * Cytosine, Uracil, Adenine, Guanine D. Thymine, Uracil, Guanine, Cytosine E. Inosine, Guanine, Adenine, Cytosine 153. The genetic code is considered "degenerate" because __________. A. The code originated from bacterial genomes B. DNA is unstable C. Degenerate is the name of the person who deciphered the code D. * More than one nucleotide triplet codes for the same amino acid E. None of the above 154. The initiation of synthesis of RNA is started from the including of first nucleotide into the chain. What nucleotide does begin this process in pro- and in eukaryotes? A. B. C. D. E. Pyrimidine nucleosidtriphosphate Urydinmonophosphate Desoxyribonucleosidtriphosphate * Purine nucleosydtriphosphate Cytidyltriphosphate 155. The mode of action of a steroid hormone involves: A. * Binding to a cell membrane receptor B. Activation of protein kinases C. Binding to calmodulin D. Covalent modification of enzyme activity E. Modifaing gene transcription 156. The Okazaki fragment is synthesized in direction: A. Along the movement of replication fork B. 3'-5' C. * Oppositely to the movement of replication fork D. Antiparallely to the daughter chain E. Proportionally to the movement of new synthesized daughter chain 157. The operon that controls tryptophan producing genes in E. coli consists of _______________ . A. Only one gene B. * Two genes C. Three genes D. Four genes E. Five genes 158. The presence of DNA is important for cellular metabolic activities because DNA A. Directs the production of enzymes B. Is a structural component of cell walls C. Directly increases the solubility of nutrients D. * Is the major component of cytoplasm E. Nonproduction f enzymes 159. The process of copying a gene's DNA sequence into a sequence of RNA is called A. Replication B. * Transcription C. Translation D. PCR E. Posttranslation modification 160. The process of DNA synthesis, the nucleotides sequence of which is complementary to the sequence of RNA, is named: A. * Reverse transcription B. Transcription C. Replication of RNA D. Replication of DNA E. Translation 161. The process of producing a RNA polymer from a DNA template is called __. A. Replication B. * Transcription C. Translation D. Duplication E. Iniciation 162. The process of producing an amino acid polymer (polypeptide) from a RNA template is called _. A. Replication B. C. D. E. * Transcription Translation Duplication Transreplication 163. The process of the exchange of genetic materials between the different DNA molecules is named: A. Replication of RNA B. Reverse transcription C. * Recombination D. Reparation E. Transposition 164. The process of translation requires the presence of: A. * mRNA, tRNA and ribosomes B. mRNA, ribosomes and RNA polymerase C. DNA, mRNA and RNA polymerase D. Chromatin, DNA and amino acids E. Free nucleotide bases, amino acids and ribosomes 165. The stages of replication include: A. Recognition of the point of replication beginning B. Untwisting of double spiral of matrix DNA C. Formation of fragments for the imitation synthesis of daughter's chains D. Elongation of synthesis and termination E. * All of the above 166. The synthesis of new chains during replication takes place in such direction: A. 4' – 5' B. 7' - 8' C. * 5' - 3' D. 2' - 6' E. 9' - 4' 167. The synthesis of Okazaki fragments begins from: A. Homonucleotide B. Mononucleotide C. Heteronucleotide D. Polynucleotide E. * Primer 168. The synthesis of primer - fragment of RNA - takes a place in: A. Transcription B. Recognition C. Reparation D. * Replication E. Translation 169. The total length of all DNA of human cell is: A. 20 sm B. * 2 C. 2 sm D. 0,2 sm E. 20 m 170. The transcribing enzyme is A. Ligase. B. DNA polymerase. C. * RNA polymerase. D. Amino-acyl transferase. E. Hydrolases 171. The transcription of DNA to a molecule of messenger RNA occurs: A. * On the ribosomes B. In the cytosol C. In the nucleus D. Only during cell division E. When amino acids are made available by transfer RNA 172. Theory of induction-repression of genes activity or theory of operon was developed by: A. Crick and Watson B. Mitchel and Knoop C. * Jakob and Monod D. Krebs and Knoop E. Gorbachevsky and Parnass 173. There is the dynamic equilibrium between subunits and full ribosomes in the cells. Full ribosomes are formed mainly in period of: A. Transcription B. Activation of amino acids C. * Translation D. Posttranslation modifications E. Posttranslation modification of RNA 174. Three types of RNA involved in comprising the structural and functional core for protein synthesis, serving as a template for translation, and transporting amino acid, respectively, are: A. * mRNA, tRNA, rRNA B. rRNA, tRNA, mRNA C. tRNA, mRNA, rRNA D. tRNA, rRNA, mRNA E. rRNA, mRNA ,tRNA 175. To describe the genetic code as degenerate indicates that A. mRNA is rapidly degraded B. The code is not universal among organisms C. * Some amino acids have more than one codon D. Frameshift mutations are tolerated E. Stop codons may have corresponding tRNA molecules 176. To which of the following does guanine form hydrogen bonds in DNA? A. Adenine B. Thymine C. * Cytosine D. Guanine E. Uracyl 177. Transcription factors appear to be unable to bind to a nucleosome because A. Activators are inhibited by the configuration B. * Of inhibition of RNA polymerase C. Of histones positioned over promoters D. Nucleosomes are especially vulnerable to repressors E. Operators are placed in an inaccessible position 178. Transcription is: A. Activation of amino acids B. * Rewriting of information to RNA on the matrix DNA C. Process of formation of functional ribosome D. Process of elongation of polypeptide chain E. Processing of m-RNA 179. Transcription occurs along a ____ template forming an mRNA in the ____ direction. A. 5' to 3'; 5' to 3' B. * 5' to 3'; 3' to 5' C. 3' to 5'; 5' to 3' D. 3' to 5'; 3' to 5' E. None of the above 180. Transfer RNA's bind during translation by the A. Codon B. * Anticodon C. Template D. Operon E. None of the above 181. Translation repressor proteins may shut down translation of processed mRNA transcripts by A. * Binding with the poly-A tail B. Resetting the reading frame C. Reinserting introns into the transcript D. Excising a short sequence of nucleotides E. Excising a short sequence of nucleosides 182. What amino acid is coded by the triplet of bases UAU? A. * Phenylalanine B. Serine C. Tyrosine D. Cysteine E. Lusine 183. What are the two processes of protein synthesis in order? A. Meiosis, Translation B. Translation, Transcription C. Replication, Mitosis D. * D.Transcription, Translation E. Protein, Synthesis 184. What does a ribosome do? A. Calls the xRNA with no codons B. * Helps create the mRNA C. Nothing D. Calls the tRNA with the appropriate codon E. Explodes 185. What does the speed of initiation process depend of? A. * Structures of promotors sequences B. Nucleotide sequences C. Amount of RNA-depending-DNA-polymerase D. The presence of 3'-5'-phosphodiester bonds E. The structure of coplement dNМP in the coding chain of DNA 186. What form of DNA is a left-handed spiral? A. B B. С C. Т D. A E. * Z 187. What function of gene-operator in the structure of operon? A. On the gene-operator mRNA is transcribed that serves as a matrix for the synthesis of protein-repressor B. * Regulates (turns on) transcription on the structural genes C. On the gene-operator mRNA is transcribed that serves as a matrix for the synthesis of proteins which are necessary for cell D. On the gene-operator mRNA is transcribed that serves as a matrix for the synthesis of protein-inductor E. On the gene-operator rRNA transcribed 188. What happens in Transcription? A. The xRNA is destroyed B. The rRNA is destroyed C. * The mRNA is synthesized D. The mRNA is destroyed E. The xRNA is made 189. What happens in Translation? A. The xRNA is destroyed B. Translation doesn't exist C. The tRNA is called and the protein is made D. * The mRNA creates amino acids E. Amino Acids cause a nuclear reaction 190. What is a polypeptide? A. A strand of DNA B. * An incomplete strand of protein (amino acids and enzymes) C. A strand of mRNA D. An RNA molecule E. It doesn't exist 191. What is operon? A. Area of mRNA which codes the synthesis of one protein B. Area of DNA in which the information about the synthesis of one protein is coded C. * Area of DNA which consists of gene-operator and a few structural genes D. Area of DNA which consists of gene-regulator and promoter E. Area of DNA which consists of gene-regulator and structural genes 192. What is protein made up of? A. Enzymes and DNA B. Happiness and Sadness C. Meat D. * Enzymes and Amino Acids E. Amino Acids and Hydroclorich 193. What is the function of gene-regulator in accordance with the theory of Jakob and Monod? A. * On the gene-regulator mRNA is transcribed that serves as a matrix for the synthesis of protein-repressor B. Directly regulates (turns on) transcription on structural genes C. On the gene-regulator mRNA is transcribed that serves as a matrix for the synthesis of necessary for cell proteins D. On the gene-regulator mRNA is transcribed that serves as a matrix for the synthesis of protein-inductor E. On the gene-regulator rRNA transcribed 194. What is the function of tRNA? A. * Transport of amino acids B. Transferring of genetic information C. Formation of ribosomes D. Storage of genetic information E. Transport of mononucleotides 195. What is the polysome? A. Conglomerate containing few ribosomes B. A few mRNA, that combined with one ribosome C. * Many ribosomes that accommodate on one matrix RNA D. A few tRNA transporting one amino acid to ribosome E. A few amino acids which are transported by one tRNA to ribosome 196. What is the terminal signal in the synthesis of polypeptide chain on ribosome? A. Deficit of ATP energy in a cell B. * Meeting of A-center of ribosome with terminal codon of mRNA C. Dissociation of large and small subunits of ribosome D. Decreasing of the amount of elongation factors in the cell E. Placing methionine of tRNA in the P-center of ribosome 197. What methods of DNA replication do you know? A. * Conservative and semiconservative B. Complete and incomplete C. Completed and uncompleted D. Determined and nondetermined E. Temporal and permanent 198. What of the following changes have relation to posttranslation modification of proteins? A. Formation of disulfide bonds between residues of cystein B. Adding of cofactors or prosthetic groups C. Formation of oligomers from a few polypeptide chains D. Phosphorylation of some amino acids residues E. * All of the above 199. What role does messenger RNA play in the synthesis of proteins? A. It catalyses the process. B. It provides the genetic blueprint for the protein. C. * It translates the genetic code to a specific amino acid. D. It modifies messenger RNA molecules prior to protein synthesis. E. None of the above 200. What role does mRNA play in protein synthesis? A. It explodes B. It blows up C. It helps form ribosomes D. Nothing E. * It is what the tRNA matches up to in order to form protein 201. What role does small nuclear RNA play in the synthesis of proteins? A. It catalyses the process. B. * It provides the genetic blueprint for the protein C. It translates the genetic code to a specific amino acid. D. It modifies messenger RNA molecules prior to protein synthesis. E. None of the above 202. What role does the rRNA play in protein synthesis? A. It is part of a ribosome that calles the tRNA molecules B. It forms the mRNA C. It creates DNA D. It is a harmful molecule that is associated with protein synthesis E. * Play role as adaptor 203. What sequence on the template strand of DNA corresponds to the first amino acid inserted into a protein? A. TAC B. UAA C. UAG D. * AUG E. UUA 204. What term is used to describe the process by which a segment of DNA is copied to produce a molecule of messenger RNA? A. Reproduction B. Replication C. Translation D. * Transcription E. Recombination 205. What term is used to describe the process by which proteins are synthesised from a genetic code? A. Reproduction B. Replication C. * Translation D. Transcription E. Recombination 206. What type of DNA, except nuclear, are in the eukaryotic cells: A. * Mitochondrial B. Lisosomal C. Endoplasmic D. Ribosomal E. Mesosomal 207. What type of enzyme is used in recombinant DNA technology to split a specific sugar phosphate bond in each strand of a DNA double helix? A. * Esterase B. Restriction enzyme C. Lipase D. Ligase E. Transferase 208. Which enzyme catalyzes transcription of RNA on DNA matrix? A. * DNA-depending-RNA-polymerase B. DNA-polymerase II C. DNA-polymerase III D. DNA-ligase E. RNA-depending-DNA-polymerase 209. Which ions are needed for DNA replication? A. Ca2+ and Na+ B. Mg2+ and Mn2+ C. Zn2+ and K+ D. Na+ and Ca2+ E. * Mg2+ and Zn2+ 210. Which is not part of the lac operon? A. * Repressor B. Activator protein C. Operator D. Promotor E. Structural gene 211. Which mode of information transfer usually does not occur? A. DNA to DNA B. DNA to RNA C. * DNA to protein D. All occur in a working cell E. None of the above 212. Which molecule contains the genetic code? A. DNA B. * mRNA C. tRNA D. rRNA E. dRNA 213. Which nitrogenous bases make up DNA nucleotides? A. * Adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine B. Adenine, uracil, guanine and cytosine C. Adenine, thymine, uracil, and cytosine D. Adenine, thymine, guanine, and uracil E. Adenine, thymine, uracil, guanine 214. Which nucleic acids contain the lowest number of nucleotides? A. DNA B. * t-RNA C. m-RNA D. r-RNA E. і-RNA 215. Which of the following are not matched correctly? A. Exon splicing-occurs in nucleus B. Post-translational modifications-phosphorylation C. SnRNA-splice out exons from transcript D. Activated enhancers-trigger transcription E. * All are matched correctly 216. Which of the following does NOT involve introns? A. Alternative splicing B. * Ribozymes C. Intervening sequences D. Heteroduplexes E. Antisense oligonucleotides 217. Which of the following features is common to both DNA replication and transcription? A. Nucleotides are added to the 5' end of the newly synthesized strand B. * A sugar-phosphate bond is formed between the 3' hydroxyl and the 5' phosphate C. Deoxyribonucleotides are incorporated into the growing sequence D. Both RNA and DNA polymerase require oligonucleotide priming E. Both RNA and DNA polymerase initiate at promoter sequences 218. Which of the following is an example of the degeneracy of the genetic code? A. * A given amino acid has more than one codon B. Each codon specifies more than one amino acid C. The first two bases specify the amino acid D. The genetic code is not degenerate E. None of the above 219. Which of the following is part of an operon? A. Structural genes B. An operator 220. 221. 222. 223. 224. 225. 226. 227. 228. C. A promoter D. A CAP binding site E. * All of the above Which of the following is true regarding RNA processing? A. Spliceosomes are present in organelles and nuclei B. Involves removal of exons C. Involves removal of one or more introns. D. Occurs in prokaryotes E. * None of the above Which of the following is true regarding the machinery of translation? A. * Initiation usually begins at an AUG codon B. Eukaryotes have nuclear ribosomes C. Polycistronic mRNA usually has a single ribosome binding site D. tRNAs released from the ribosome are degraded E. Termination is at inverted repeats Which of the following is unique to eukaryotic mRNA synthesis? A. Polycistronic mRNA B. * Coupled transcription-translation C. Removal of introns D. Polysomes E. All of the above Which of the following is unique to prokaryotic mRNA synthesis? A. Coupled transcription-translation B. Exon processing C. 3' polyadenylation D. mRNA capping E. * Promoter sequences Which of the following molecules does not form part of DNA? A. Purine B. Pyrimidine C. Deoxyribose D. * Amino acid E. Phosphate Which of the following nucleotide bases is not found in RNA? A. * Thymine B. Adenine C. Uracil D. Guanine E. Cytosine Which of the following statements is true regarding introns? A. * Introns are the parts of mRNA that are translated. B. Introns have no function. C. In general, human genes have fewer introns than genes of other organisms D. Introns may be involved in exon shuffling. E. None of the above Which of the following statements is true regarding transposons? A. * They are sequences of mRNA that can move around in the genome B. They exist in corn, but are not found in the human genome C. They are the most abundant type of repeat in the genome D. All of the above are true regarding transposons E. None of the above Which of the statements below is false? A. B. C. D. E. The genetic code is overlapping The genetic code is universal Degenerate codons specify the same amino acids * The genetic code is triplet None of the above 229. Which process is the first stage of biosynthesis of proteins? A. * Activation of amino acids B. Elongation C. Termination D. Transcription E. Translation 230. Which statement about the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication is correct? A. * It is synthesized in a 3' --> 5' direction. B. It progresses (grows) toward the replication fork. C. It requires a short RNA primer to proceed. D. It is synthesized by DNA ligase. E. It is synthesized continuously. 231. Which subunits do ribosomes of eukaryotes reversibly dissociate to? A. * 60s and 40s B. 60s and 80s C. 40s and 45s D. 40s and 40s E. 60s and 20s 232. With few exceptions, all nucleic of eukaryotes contain A. Genes to specify the portion of the organism in which they are found B. All the information needed for growing the whole organism C. All of the chromosomes except sex chromosomes which are restricted to sex organs D. * Single stranded DNA E. Only euchromatin except in the case of the Y-chromosome 233. All of the following help to explain the mechanism for releasing insulin from beta-cells in response to the concentration of blood glucose - EXCEPT A. The important regulator of glycolysis in beta cells is the concentration of glucose reacting with glucokinase B. ATP is made in proportion to the rate of glycolysis C. The rate of K+ leaving the cell through a potassium channel is a major determinant of the polarization of the cell membrane D. ATP inhibits the K+-channel, the more ATP, the less K+ leaving the cell, and the less polarized (more depolarized) the cell membrane E. * Depolarization causes Ca++ to exit the cell and insulin leaves the cell through the insulin transporter 234. During an overnight fast, the major source of blood glucose is A. Dietary glucose from the intestine B. * Hepatic glycogenolysis C. Gluconeogenesis D. Muscle glycogenolysis E. Glycerol from lipolysis 235. Inhibitory factors of hypothalamus are: A. somatostatin, melanostatin, folliclestatin B. * somatostatin, melanostatin, prolactostatin C. A. somatostatin, prolactostatin, folliclestatin D. prolactostatin, folliclestatin, luteostatin E. melanostatin, folliclestatin, thyrostatin 236. The absorption of glucose from the gut into intestinal mucosal cells is coupled to Na?,K?-ATPase. In contrast, the movement of glucose from the intestinal epithelial cells into the submucosal bloodstream occurs through passive transport. Given these facts, which of the following statements can be true at one time or another? A. Cytosolic levels of glucose in intestinal mucosal cells are regulated by levels of glucose in skeletal muscle cells B. Free glucose levels in the lumen of the intestine can never be higher than levels in intestinal cells C. Plasma glucose levels are much higher than intestinal cell cytosolic levels of glucose D. Levels of glucose in the intestinal lumen are always higher than those in the cytosol of intestinal epithelial cells E. * Levels of plasma glucose are approximately equal to levels in the cytosol of intestinal epithelial cells 237. A 62 yaears old woman has cataract (lenticular opacity) by diabetes mellitus. Which process increase by diabetes is the reason for lenticular opacity? A. ketogenesis B. lipolysis C. protein proteolysis D. * protein glycosylation E. gluconeogenesis 238. A dysfunction of Langergans islets results in the decline of such hormones: A. * Glucagon and insulin B. Thyroxin and calcitonin C. Insulin and epinephrine D. Callicrein and angiotensin E. Parathormone and cortisol 239. A hormone that secreted in the pancreatic duct is A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Somatostatin D. * Lipocain E. Cortisol 240. A man after 1,5 litres blood loss has suddenly reduced diuresis. The increased secretion of what hormone caused such diuresis alteration? A. Corticotropin B. Natriuretic C. Parathormone D. Cortisol E. * Vasopressin 241. A patient has such sympthoms as hyperglycaemia, glucosuria, increased urine density, thirst, acidosis. What from below mentioned disorders can result in such state? A. * Insufficiency of insulin B. Hyperproduction of insulin C. Insufficiency of vasopressin D. Hyperproduction of glucocorticoids E. Insufficiency of glucagon 242. A patient has such sympthoms as polyuria, decreased urine density, thirst. What from below mentioned disorders can result in such state? A. Insufficiency of insulin B. C. D. E. Hyperproduction of insulin * Insufficiency of vasopressin Hyperproduction of glucocorticoids Insufficiency of glucagon 243. A patient, which visited a doctor, has increased level of glucose in blood and urine. Diabetes mellitus is suspected. What changes in lipid metabolism causes this disease? A. hyperketonemia B. hypercholesterolemia C. * hypoketonemia, ketonuria D. hyperphospholipidemia, hyperketonemia E. hypophospholipidemia , hypoketonemia 244. A typical symptom of cholera is a body water loss and sodium ions loss. The biochemical mechanisms of choleric toxin action is: A. Activation of synthesis of atrial natriuretic factor B. * Activation of adenylate cyclase in small intestine C. Decrease of synthesis of antidiuretic hormone in a hypothalamus D. D. Activation of secretion renin by the cells of yukstaglomerular aparatus E. Oxydation of aldosterone in the adrenal cortex 245. ACTH- hormone of the adenohypophysis. Per oral introduction of ACTH as medical preparation ineffective because this hormone is: A. * Decomposed with the proteolytic enzymes B. Does not absorbed in the intestine C. Inactivated in the cells of intestinal wall D. Inactivated in a liver E. Does not transferred with blood 246. After meal an alimentary hyperglycemia stimulates the secretion of such hormone: A. Cortisol B. Glucagon C. Epinephrine D. Norepinephrine E. * Insulin 247. Alfa-cells of pancreas synthesize the glucagon, which participates in the metabolism of carbohydrates. Which process in a liver it effects. A. Inhibits glycogenolysis B. Activates glycolysis C. * Activates a glycogenolysis D. Ingibits glycolysis E. Activates lipogenesis 248. All other things being constant, an increase in stress hormones would result in an increase in: A. Fatty acid synthesis in adipose tissue B. * Blood amino acids for gluconeogenesis C. Malonyl CoA concentrations in liver D. Protein synthesis in muscle E. Glycogen synthesis in muscle 249. All the following are important in the glucagon second messenger cascade EXCEPT A. Glucagon binds causing the dissociation of GDP from and the association of GTP with the G-protein B. Adenylate cyclase catalyzes the conversion of ATP to cAMP C. Phosphodiesterase catalyzes the conversion of cAMP to AMP D. * The receptor for glucagon undergoes an autophosphorylation which activates adenylate cyclase E. The cAMP binds to Protein Kinase A regulatory subunits, releasing catalytic subunits 250. All the following statements about serotonin are true except A. * It causes vasolidatation B. It causes bronchoconstriction C. It is metabolized by monoamine oxidase D. Its metabolite is 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid E. Both A and B 251. Alpha – cells of pancreas produse such hormon as: A. Insulin B. * Glucagon C. Somatostatin D. Lipocain E. Cortisol 252. As a medical preparations derivates of amino acids are widely used. Which from the below mentioned hormones is derivative of amino acid? A. * Thyroid hormones B. Glucocorticoids C. Androgens D. Hormones of hypophysis E. Estrogens 253. As a result of insulin binding to the insulin receptor, the GRB protein binds to the IRS. The binding of the GRB adaptor protein occurs because the IRS contains A. * A phosphorylated tyrosyl residue B. A phosphorylated seryl residue C. A src homology binding domain (SH2 domain) D. Bound inositol trisphosphate E. An alpha-1 receptor 254. At emotional stress in adipocytes hormone sensitive threeacylglycerollipase is activated. What second mediator does take part in this process? A. * cАМP B. cGМP C. AMP D. Diacylglycerol E. Ions of Ca2+ 255. At pheochromocytoma (adrenal glands medullary substance tumour) epinephrine synthesis is increased. Which of the mentioned changes is observed in such conditions? A. hard hypoglycemia B. * hyperglycemia C. normal glucose amount D. hyperproteinemia E. hypercholesterolemia 256. Ca2+ ions - are an evolutional oldest secondary messenger in cells. They are the activators of glycogenolysis, if cooperate with: A. Calcitonin B. * Calmodulin C. Calciferol D. Kinase of light chains of myosin E. Phosphorylase C 257. Chemical nature of ACTH: A. simple protein B. derivative of amino acid C. derivative of unsaturated fatty acid D. * hormone of peptide structure E. steroid hormone 258. Chemical nature of glucagon is: A. * Peptide B. Protein C. Steroid D. Derivative of amino acid E. Derivative of arachidonic acid 259. Chemical nature of growth hormone: A. * simple protein B. derivatives of amino acid C. derivatives of unsaturated fatty acid D. hormone of peptide structure E. steroid hormone 260. Chemical nature of insulin is: A. * Protein B. Derivative of amino acid of thyrosin C. To the derivates of arachidonic acid D. Oligopeptide E. Steroid 261. Choose a stimulus for rennin formation A. * Diminishing of kidney blood flowing B. Increase of kidney blood flowing C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone D. Aldosterone E. Hypoglycemia 262. Choose a substance which carries out the role of the secondary mediator at the membrane-intracellular mechanism of action of hormones: A. UMP B. GTP C. Oleic acid D. Arachidonic acid E. * Cyclic АМP 263. Choose from below mentioned compouds statins of hypothalamus: A. Thyrostatin, prolactostatin, melanostatin B. Somatostatin, thyrostatin, melanostatin C. Somatostatin, prolactostatin, thyrostatin D. Thyrostatin, lipostatin, melanostatin E. * Somatostatin, prolactostatin, melanostatin 264. Choose from the below mentioned effects of insulin: A. Represses oxidization of glucose in glycolysis, represses a PPP, activates glycogen synthase (synthesis of glycogen) B. Activates oxidization of glucose in glycolysis, represses a PPP, represses glycogen synthase (synthesis of glycogen) C. Represses oxidization of glucose in glycolysis, activates a PPP, represses glycogen synthase (synthesis of glycogen) D. * Activates oxidization of glucose in glycolysis, activates a PPP, activates glycogen synthase (synthesis of glycogen) E. Represses oxidization of glucose in glycolysis, inhibites PPP, represses glycogen synthase (synthesis of glycogen) 265. Choose, which biogenic аmines are the derivates of tryptophane: A. Serotonin and dopamine B. Dopamine and melatonin C. * Serotonin and melatonin D. Dopamine and histamine E. Serotonin and histamine 266. Cooperating of catecholamines with the beta - adrenoreceptors increases the level of cАМP in the cells. Which enzyme catalyses the reaction of cАМP formation: A. * Adenylatecyclase B. Phosphodiesterase C. Phosphatase D. Guanilatciclase E. Creatinkinase 267. Cooperating of catecholamines with the beta - adrenoreceptors promotes the level of cАМP in the cells. Name an enzyme which catalyzes the reaction of cАМP formation: A. Creatinkinase B. Phosphodiesterase C. Phosphatase D. Guanilatcyklase E. * Adenylatecyclase 268. Cyclic nucleotides (cАМP and cGМP) is the secondary mediators at transfer of information. Witch their role as a regulators? A. * Activating of specific proteincinases. B. Phosphorylating of histons. C. Activating of neiromediators. D. Stimulation of CNS E. Stimulation of transcription and translation. 269. Delta cells of pancreas produse such hormon as: A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. * Somatostatin D. Lipocain E. Cortisol 270. Dopamine is biogenic amine which is intermediate in a synthesis: A. * Epinephrine and Norepinephrine B. Serotonin C. Serotonin and melatonin D. Insulin E. All of above correct 271. During stress there takes place a rapid output of glucose into blood with the purpose of providing of organism energy. It takes a place due to: A. * Increased secrection epinephrine which splits a glycogen in a liver and muscles B. Increased secrection of thyroxine, which promotes absorption of glucose in an intestine C. Increased secrection of glucocorticoids which activate formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate components D. Increased secrection of epinephrine which activates a gluconeogenesis E. To the increased secrection of epinephrine which promotes absorption of glucose in an intestine 272. During the series of events following an increase in insulin, all of the following occur EXCEPT: A. Insulin binds its receptor, causing the autophosphorylation of receptor subunits B. Active protein kinases can cause the induction/repression of genes C. Glucagon-stimulated phosphorylation is reversed by the effects of insulin D. Phosphorylation results in more glucose transporters in adipose tissue cells E. * Phosphorylation inhibits 3', 5'-phosphodiesterase 273. Effect of epinephrine on a lipid metabolism is: A. Inhibits a tissue lipase and mobilization of fat from a depot; B. * Activates a tissue lipase and mobilization of fat from a depot; C. Inhibits lipids oxidation D. Stimulates converting of fats into carbohydrates E. Stimulates transformation of fats into proteins 274. Effect of insulin on a carbohydrate metabolism is: A. * Activates transfer of glucose through the cells membranes B. Activates glucokinase C. Activates glycogensynthase D. Activates a gluconeogenesis E. Inhibits transfer of glucose through the cells membranes 275. Effect of insulin on a lipid metabolism is: A. * Activates the synthesis of fatty acids B. Inhibits the synthesis of fatty acids C. Activates converting of fatty acids into carbohydrates D. Inhibits convention of fatty acids into carbohydrates E. Stimulates transformation of lipids into proteins 276. Effect of insulin on a proteins metabolism is: A. * Activation of the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids B. Repression of the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids C. Reducing of permeability of cells membranes for amino acids D. Activation of conversion of amino acids into glucose E. Activation of conversion of amino acids into lipids 277. Effect of somatotropic hormone on a proteins metabolism: A. Represses entering of amino acids into cells B. Represses the biosynthesis of proteins, DNA, RNA C. Activates conversion of amino acids into fats D. Stimulates conversion of amino acids into glucose E. * Activates the biosynthesis of proteins, DNA, RNA 278. Epinephrine increases the glucose level in the blood by activation of: A. * glycogenolysis B. glycolysis C. ketolysis D. gluconeogenesis E. glycogenesis 279. Epinephrine increases the glucose level in the blood by activation of: A. * glycogenolysis B. glycolysis C. ketolysis D. gluconeogenesis E. glycogenesis 280. Epinephrine stimulates a glycogenolysis by: A. * Activation of glycogenphosphorylase B. Inhibition of glycogenphosphorylase C. Activation of glycogensynthase D. Activation of hexokinase E. Inhibition of hexokinase 281. Epinephrine stimulation of lipolysis in adipocytes is thought to differ from epinephrine stimulation of glycogenolysis in the liver in which way? A. Glucagon, not epinephrine, stimulates lipolysis in adipocytes B. The mechanism of hormone-receptor interaction is thought to be fundamentally different in each tissue C. Phosphorylase kinase is activated directly by a second messenger in adipocytes, but not in the liver D. Adenosine 3?,5?-cyclic monophosphate (cyclic AMP) is the second messenger in adipocytes, but not in the liver E. * Only protein kinase is interposed as an amplification factor between the second messenger and the physiologically important enzymes in adipocytes 282. Excess accumulation of which biogenic аmine in the areas of inflammation and areas of cooperation an antigen-antibody is one of mechanisms of development of allergic reactions: A. Serotonin B. Dopamine C. * Histamine D. Melatonin E. Epinephrine 283. Following release of norepinephrine by sympathetic nerves and epinephrine by the adrenal medulla, which of the following metabolic processes is decreased? A. * Glycolysis B. Lipolysis C. Gluconeogenesis D. Glycogenolysis E. Ketogenesis 284. For what from the following hormones are specific such effects as activation of decomposition of glycogen in a liver, activation of lipolysis, stimulation of gluconeogenesis. A. Insulin B. * Glucagon C. Epinephrine D. Cortisol E. Testosteron 285. For what glycolysis enzyme the activator is insulin? A. * hexokinase B. B.glucose-6-phosphatase, phosphoglucom C. C.glucose-6-phosphate-isomerase, aldolase D. aldolase, lactate dehydrogenase E. phosphoglucomutase, aldolase 286. Formation of insulin is increased at: A. During starvation B. During the physical loading C. At emotional stress D. * After meal E. At a flu 287. Glucocorticoids increase the level of glucose in the blood by activation of: A. glycogenogenesis B. glycogenolysis C. * gluconeogenesis D. ketogenesis E. glycolysis 288. Histamine responsible for all of physiological effects, except: A. * Narrowing of peripheral vessels B. Dilatation of peripheral vessels C. Stimulation of secretion of HCl in a stomach D. Narrowing of bronchus E. Participating is in immunological reactions. 289. Hormone, which increase the activity of lipolysis in fatty tissue: A. * epinephrine B. parathyroid hormone C. insulin D. B. vasopressin E. prostaglandins 290. Hormones regulate the numeral processes of metabolism. Which from the below mentioned hormones has аnabolic action: A. * Insulin B. Epinephrine C. Vasopresin D. Glukagon E. Oxytocin 291. How can be diabetic tendency detected? A. Determinating the level of 17-ketosteroids in blood . B. * By the glucose-tolerance test. C. Determinating the glucose level in blood. D. Determinating the glucose level in urine E. Determinating the level of cholesterol in blood 292. How could be an inactive kininogens converted into an active kinins? A. Under the action of rennin B. Under the action of angiotensin C. Under the action of prostaglandins D. Under the action of somatotropin E. * Under the action of kallikreins 293. How do catecholamins influence on a carbohydrate metabolism? A. Activate decomposition of glycogen in a liver B. * Activate decomposition of glycogen in a liver and muscles C. Activate a gluconeogenesis D. Activate suction of glucose in an intestine E. Activate the synthesis of glycogen 294. How do catecholamins influence on a lipids metabolism? A. * Activate mobilization and oxidization of fats B. Activate lipogenesis C. Activate synthesis of phospholipids in a liver D. Activate formation of transport forms of lipids in a liver E. Promote formation of chylomicrons in the wall of intestine 295. How do catecholamins influence on a protein metabolism? A. Promote synthesis of proteins B. Promote synthesis of proteins in a liver and activate its decomposition in connective tissue C. * Promote in a proteins catabolism D. Activate convertion of proteins into carbohydrates E. Activate transformation of carbohydrates into a proteins 296. How does glucagon influence on a carbohydrate metabolism? A. Activates the synthesis of glycogen in a liver B. Activates the synthesis of glycogen in a liver and muscles C. Activates decomposition of glycogen in a liver and muscles D. * Activates decomposition of glycogen in a liver E. Activates the transport of glucose across cellular membranes 297. How does insulin influence on a lipid metabolism? A. Represses synthesis of fats, activates a gluconeogenesis B. * Activates synthesis of fats, represses a gluconeogenesis C. Activates synthesis of fats, activates a gluconeogenesis D. Represses synthesis of fats, represses a gluconeogenesis E. Participates in converting of lipids into carbohydrates, activates oxidization of fatty acids 298. How does insulin influence on a mineral metabolism? A. Regulates calcium-phosphate metabolism B. * Activates a transport of potassium into a cells, and sodium from the cells C. Activates insertionof iron into hemoglobin D. Regulates metabolism of copper in an organism E. Instrumental in insertion of iodine in tyrosine 299. How does insulin influence on a protein metabolism? A. * Promotes permeability of membranes for amino acid, activates the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids, represses a gluconeogenesis B. Reduces permeability of membranes for amino acid, represses the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids, represses a gluconeogenesis C. Reduces permeability of membranes for amino acid, represses the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids, activates a gluconeogenesis D. Promotes permeability of membranes for amino acid, represses the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids, activates a gluconeogenesis E. Promotes permeability of membranes for amino acid, activates the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids, activates a gluconeogenesis 300. How is active insulin formed in a pancreas? A. From the protein - precursor by phosphorylation B. From the protein - precursor by acetylation C. * From the protein - precursor by partial proteolysis D. From the protein - precursor by the methylation E. It formed in an active form 301. How is insulin catabolised after its action? A. Excreted from an organism in an unchanging form with urine B. Excreted from an organism in an unchanging form with a bile C. Excreted from an organism with a bile after oxidization in a liver D. * By the enzyme of insulinase to amino acids E. By lysosomal enzymes in all of rissues 302. How is regulated intensity of insulin secretion? A. By insulinotropin - a hormone of hypophysis B. By insulinoliberin of hypothalamus C. * By the concentration of glucose in blood D. By the somatic nervous system E. By the concentration of calcium and phosphorus in blood 303. How many gramms of glucose is it necessary to eat for a patient half-starving to perform a method of sugary loading aiming to reveal the hidden form of diabetes mellitus? A. B. C. D. E. * 1 g per 1 kg of weight 100 g 20 g 50 g 10 g 304. Impairment in the synthesis of dopamine by the brain is a major causative factor for the disorder: A. * Parkinson’s disease B. Addison’s disease C. Cushing’s syndrome D. Goiter E. Insulin-dependent diabetes 305. In stress the level of glucose increases in blood. Which hormone does result in it with the activating of glycogenolysis? A. Parathyroid hormone B. Aldosterone C. * Epinephrine D. Vasopressin E. Progesterone 306. In diabetes mellitus the tissues of organism have heavy deficit of oxidative substratum, as they can not assimilate glucose. Gluconeogenesis increases and ketone bodies become the main substratum for oxidation. What is one of the reasons for ketonuria by diabetes mellitus? A. lack of HS-CoA B. lactate excess C. * lack of oxaloacetate D. glucose formation E. polyuria 307. In emotional stress threeacylglycerollipase is activated in adipocytes. Concentration of which secondary messenger increases? A. * cАМP B. cGМP C. AMP D. Diacylglycerol E. Ca2+ 308. In liver and muscle, glycogen degradation is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: A. * The activation by insulin of glycogen phosphorylase B. The yielding of glucose-1-phosphate residues by the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase C. The activity of a 4: 4- transferase to ensure the debranching D. The activity of a specific alpha-1, 6- glucosidase that yields free glucose residues E. The use of inorganic phosphate by glycogen phosphorylase 309. In pheochromocytoma (adrenal glands medullary substance tumour) increase epinephrine synthesis. Which of the mentioned changes is observed by such conditions? A. hard hypoglycemia B. * hyperglycemia C. normal glucose amount D. hyperproteinemia E. hypercholesterolemia 310. In the blood of the patient the amount of glucose half-starving is 5,6 mmol/l, in an hour after sugary loading – 13,8 mmol/l, in two hours – 9,2 mmol/l. Such figures are typical for: A. healthy man B. patient with thyrotoxicosis C. * patient with hidden form of diabetes mellitus D. patient with Cushing's syndrome E. patient with acromegaly 311. In the synthesis of Insulin, which of the following is NOT TRUE? A. * The alpha-cells of the pancreas are centered such that blood flow carries new glucagon over the beta-cells explaining the inhibitory effect of glucagon on insulin release B. Glucose is a major regulator of insulin release C. Cleavage of proinsulin to insulin yields a C-Peptide D. The chains of insulin are held together and in active conformation by disulfide bridges E. The A chain of insulin is shorter than the B chain 312. Increace of insulin secretion takes place in a pancreas after the carbohydrate meal. Activity of which enzymes of glycolisis regulates insulin: A. * Glucokinase, phоsphоfructokinase, pyruvatkinase B. Aldolase, LDH, enolase C. Phosphoglyceromutase, LDH, phosphoglucomutase D. Enolase, аldolase, hexokinase E. Phosphoglycerokinase, pyruvatkinase, enolase 313. Increased blood insulin specifically plays a major role in all of the following EXCEPT: A. Glucose storage as glycogen in liver and muscle B. * Conversion of glucose to triacylglycerols in liver C. Amino acid uptake and protein synthesis in skeletal muscle D. Promotion of the sparing of glucose utilized for energy in the brain during a fast E. Stimulation of transport of glucose into muscle and adipose tissue 314. Increased reabsorption of water from the kidney is the major consequence of which of the following hormones? A. Cortisol B. Insulin C. * Vasopressin D. Glucagon E. Aldosterone 315. Insulin decreases the level blood glucose by means of: A. gluconeogenesis activation B. gluconeogenesis oppression C. * glucose phosphorylation oppression D. glucose with urine excretion E. adrenalin excretion decrease 316. Insulin effects on the metabolism of carbohydrates, stimulates the transport of glucose from extracellulary space through cellular membranes inside the cells. Which cells are the target – cells for insulin? A. * Myocytes, adipocytes B. Neurons, myocytes C. Neurons, red blood cells D. Hepatocytes, neurons E. Lymphocytes, red blood cells 317. Insulin has many direct effects on various cell types from such tissues as muscle, fat, liver, and skin. Which of the following cellular activities is decreased following exposure to physiologic concentrations of insulin? A. Plasma membrane transfer of glucose B. Glucose oxidation C. * Gluconeogenesis D. Lipogenesis E. Formation of ATP, DNA, and RNA 318. Insulin is secreted by the B-cells of the pancreas into the hepatic portal vein. Which of the following regarding insulin synthesis is FALSE: A. The active form of insulin is composed of two polypeptide chains linked by two interchain disulfide bonds B. The A-Chain has an intrachain disulfide bond C. Insulin is synthesized as a preprohormone which is converted to proinsulin D. * Stimulation of A-cells by glucose causes exocytosis of the insulin storage vesicles E. Cleavage of proinsulin to insulin yields a C-peptide 319. Introduction of epinephrine to the organism increases the level of glucose in blood. What process is activated mainly? A. * Disintegration of glycogen B. Synthesis of glycogen C. Cycle of Krebs D. Pentosophosphate cycle E. Alcoholic fermentation 320. Introduction of epinephrine to the organism results in the increase of glucose level in blood. Which process is activates mainly? A. Alcoholic fermentation B. Synthesis of glycogen C. Cycle of Krebs D. Pentose phosphate cycle E. * Disintegration of glycogen 321. Melatonin responsible for all of physiological effects, except: A. Synchronization of endogenous biorhythms in an organism B. Adjusting of “sleep-wake” activity C. * Activation of immune reactions D. Inhibition of secretion somatotropic and gonadotropic hormones E. Inhibition of free radical oxidization reactions 322. Name the hormone, predominantly produced in response to fight, fright and flight: A. Thyroxine B. * Epinephrine C. Aldosterone D. ADH E. Insulin 323. One of the following hormones is an amino acid derivate: A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Thyroxine D. * All of them E. Insulin 324. One of the ways of glucose oxidation is pentose-phosphate cycle. What is the main destination of this process? A. * formation of NADPH2 and pentose B. C. D. E. formation of NADPH2 and gluconic acid glycogen synthesis in the liver acetyl CoA formation formation of NADH2 Oversecretion of which hormone causes higher growth, unproportionally large 325. hands? A. * Somatotropic hormone B. Epinephrine C. Thyroxin D. Antidiuretic hormone E. Melanocytostimulation hormone 326. Patient is in condition of constant stress, what caused the violation of lipid metabolism. Characteristic for this condition are the following features, but: A. hyperglycemia B. hyperketonemia C. decrease of total lipids in blood D. organism emaciation E. * fatty liver degeneration 327. Prostaglandins are inactivated by A. * 15-Hydroxyprostaglandin dehydrogenase B. Cyclo-oxygenase C. Lipo-oxygenase D. None of these E. Both B and C 328. Prostaglandins have a common structure based on prostanoic acid which contains carbon atoms: A. 12 B. 16 C. 18 D. * 20 E. 32 329. Specify chemical nature of hormones of a neurohypophysis: A. * Cyclic peptides B. Simple proteins C. Derivates of tyrosine D. Derivates of fatty acids E. Glycoproteins 330. The B-cells of endocrine portion of pancreas are selectively damaged by alloxan poisoning. How will it be reflected in blood plasma? A. The content of fibrinogen decrease B. The content of albumins decreases C. * The content of sugar increases D. The content of globulins decreases E. The level of sugar decreases 331. The cause of insulin dependent diabetes (type II) is: A. * malfunction of structure and insulin receptors function B. decreased insulin synthesis C. increased insulin synthesis D. increased epinephrine synthesis E. decreased epinephrine synthesis 332. The cause of insulin-dependent diabetes (type I) is: A. * decreased insulin synthesis B. C. D. E. increased insulin synthesis increased glucocorticoids synthesis increased glucagon synthesis decreased glucagon synthesis 333. The chemical nature of tropic hormones of adenohypophysis is: A. Simple proteins B. * Glycoproteins C. Lipoproteins D. Derivates of fatty acids E. Derivates of amino acid 334. The feature of tyrosine metabolism is its including in the process of hormones synthesis. Choose one of them that synthesizes in the adrenal medulla. A. Thyroxin B. Glucagon C. * Epinephrine D. Histamine E. Serotonin 335. The following are all effects of insulin EXCEPT A. Stimulation of acetyl CoA carboxylase B. * Stimulation of the lipolytic activity of hormone sensitive lipase (HSL) C. Stimulates adipose cells to synthesize and secrete LPL (lipoprotein lipase) D. Stimulates the enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase E. Increase in the number of glucose transporters in adipose cell membranes 336. The hormone, that depresses lipolysis in fatty tissue: A. * insulin B. epinephrine C. glucagon D. thyroxine E. adrenocorticotropin 337. The hormones of protein – peptide nature regulate biochemical processes with activating of adenylatecyclase. Choose the substance which appears as a result of this enzyme action. A. cCМP B. cGМP C. * cАМP D. cТМP E. cUМP 338. The hypersecretion of which hormone causes development of hyperglycemia? A. * Glucagon B. Insulin C. Somatomedine D. Melanotropin E. Vasopressin 339. The level of glucose in blood of a patient increases. Excess of which hormone could results such effect? A. * Epinephrine B. Insulin C. Testosteron D. Norepinephrine E. Oxytocin 340. The level of glucose in blood of a patient increased. Excess of which hormone could result in such effect? A. B. C. D. E. Oxytocin Insulin Testosterone Norepinephrine * Epinephrine 341. The patient complains for undue fatiguability after working day, constant thirst. A doctor suspected diabetes mellitus. Choose the blood plasma glucose concentration, which proves the diagnosis: A. * 8,5 mmol/l B. 2 mmol/l C. 4,5 mmol/l D. 5 mmol/l E. 3,3 mmol/l 342. The patient complains of polyuria. The pathological components in urine are not detected. The deficiency of what hormone can result in such state? A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Epinephrine D. * Vasopressin E. Cortisol 343. The patient with diabetes mellitus has hypoglycemic coma. The reasons for this can be: A. * overdosage of insulin B. starvation C. dehydration of the organism D. pancreatic islet adenoma E. Addison's disease 344. The patient with diabetes mellitus has hypoglycemic coma. The reasons for this can be: A. * overdosage of insulin B. starvation C. dehydration of the organism D. pancreatic islet ?-cells adenoma E. Addison's disease 345. The precursor of what bioactive substanse is thyrosine? A. Bensoic acid B. Androsteron C. Insulin D. * Epinephrine E. Bilirubin 346. The products of hydrolysis and modification of some proteins are biologically active substances – hormones. Which from the below mentioned proteins is precursor for lipotropin, corticotropin, melanotropin and endorphin? A. * Proopiomelanocortin (POMC). B. Neuroalbumin C. Neurostromin D. Neuroglobulin E. Thyreoglobulin 347. The prostaglandins are synthesized from A. * Arachidonic acid B. Oleic acid C. Linoleic acid D. Linolenic acid E. Both C and D 348. The secondary mediator in the mechanism of action of epinephrine is: A. cCMP B. cGMP C. cUMP D. cTMP E. * cAMP 349. The secondary mediator in the mechanism of epinephrine action is: A. cGМP B. * cАМP C. cUМP D. cТМP E. cCМP 350. The secondary messenger in the mechanism of ACTH action is: A. cТМP B. cGМP C. cUМP D. * cАМP E. cCМP 351. The secretion of glucagon is increased at: A. In a postabsorptive period (after meal) B. * At starvation C. At the use of plenty of carbonhydratess D. At the use of plenty of lipids E. At stress 352. The usage of glucose takes a place with its transport from intracellular space across cell membrane inside cells. This process stimulates such hormone: A. * Insulin B. Glucagon C. Thyroxin D. Aldosterone E. Epinephrine 353. There is only one hormone among the neurohormones which refers to the derivatives of amino acids according to classification. Point it out: A. Oxytocin B. * Melatonin C. Vasopressin D. Thyroliberin E. Somatotropin 354. These compounds relax a smooth muscles of blood vessels and reduce a blood pressure, promote permeability of capillaries and take part in development of inflammatory reactions. Choose this hormones (hormonoids)? A. Renin and angiotensin B. * Kinins C. Prostaglandins D. Glucocorticoids E. Corticosteroids 355. This hormone narrows vessels and promotes a blood pressure, increases a pulse, relaxes a smooth muscles of bronches and intestine. Choose this hormone: A. Thyroxine B. Somatotropic hormone C. Cortisol D. Testosteron E. * Epinephrine 356. Transfer of information from the hormones of peptide nature on intracellular secondary messenger takes place with participation of adenylatecyclase. Which reaction is catalyzed with adenylatecyclase? A. * Breaking up of ATP with formation of cАМP and pyrophosphate. B. Breaking up ATP with formation ADF and phosphorus inorganic. C. Synthesis ATP from AMF and pyrophosphate. D. Breaking up of ADP with formation of AMF and inorganic phosphate. E. Breaking up ATP with formation of AMP and pyrophosphate. 357. ?Tryptophan could be considered as precursor of A. * Melanotonin B. Thyroid hormones C. Melanin D. Epinephrine E. Both A and B 358. Tumor of adenohypophysis caused disorders of tropic hormones synthesis. Choose, high level of which hormone causes acromegalia? A. Melanocytostimulating B. CTH C. Luteinizing D. * Somatotropic E. Folikulostimulating 359. Tumors of endocrine glands enhance amounts of hormones in blood as a rule. What biochemical changes in blood can be at a tumor of adenohypophysis? A. Hypoglycemia B. * Hyperglycemia C. Hypercholesterolemia D. Ketoacidosis E. Acetonuria 360. Vasopressin has a strong antidiuretic action, stimulates the reabsorbtion of water through the membranes of kidney canaliculies. What is its chemical nature? A. * Peptide B. Carbohydrate C. Steroid D. Lipid E. Derivate of amino acid 361. What from below mentioned hormones is antagonist of insulin? A. Somatotropic hormone B. Thyrotropic hormone C. Calcitonin D. * Glucagon E. Parathormone 362. What amino acid is a precursos for epinephrine and norepinephrine synthesis? A. Lysin B. * Tyrosine C. Alanine D. Glutamic acid E. Aspartic acid 363. What are effects of the kallikrein-kinin system action? A. * Relaxion of the smooth muscles of blood vessels, reducing of blood pressure, promotes permeability of capillaries, takes part in development of inflammatory reactions B. Inhibits lipase activity, regulates calcium metabolism, inhibits a gastric secretion, stimulates a lipogenesis C. Narrows vessels, increases a blood pressure, stimulates a secretion of aldosteron D. Promotes glucosemia, activates a gluconeogenesis, stimulates glycogenolysis in a liver E. Rises a blood pressure, a pulse, promotes contractive activity of myocardium. 364. What are effects of the rennin-angiotensin system action? A. Vasoconstriction, oppression of secretion of aldosteron B. * Vasoconstriction, stimulation of secretion of aldosteron C. Relaxion of vessels, oppression of secretion of aldosteron D. Relaxionof vessels, stimulation of secretion of aldosteron E. Stimulation of reabsorption of sodium and potassium in kidney tubulis 365. What biochemical symptoms are specific for diabetes insipidus? A. Hyperglycemia, glucosuria, polyuria, decreased density of urine B. Hypoglycemia, glucosuria, polyuria, increased density of urine C. Normoglycemia, glucosuria, normal density of urine D. Normoglycemia, polyuria, decreased density of urine, acidosis E. * Normoglycemia, polyuria, decreased density of urine 366. What biochemical symptoms are specific for diabetes mellitus? A. Hyperglycemia, glucosuria, decreased urine density B. Hypoglycemia, glucosuria, increased urine density, acidosis C. Hypoglycemia, glucosuria, normal urine density D. Hyperglycemia, glucosuria, decreased urine density, acidosis E. * Hyperglycemia, glucosuria, increased urine density, acidosis 367. What changes in lipid metabolism may be caused by insufficiency of somatotropin excretion? A. emaciation B. fatty liver degeneration C. atherosclerosis D. * obesity E. ketonemia 368. What from below mentioned effects are specific for insulin? A. Increases permeability of cellular membranes for glucose, activates enzymes of Krebs cycle, activates a gluconeogenesis B. Increases permeability of cellular membranes for glucose, represses the Krebs cycle, inhibites a gluconeogenesis C. * Increases permeability of cellular membranes for glucose, activates enzymes of Krebs cycle, inhibites a gluconeogenesis D. Diminishes permeability of cellular membranes for glucose, activates enzymes of of Krebs cycle, inhibites a gluconeogenesis E. Diminishes permeability of cellular membranes for glucose, inhibites enzymes of of Krebs cycle, activates a gluconeogenesis 369. What from next hormones has anabolic effects? A. * Insulin B. Glucagon C. Epinephrine D. Thyroxine in high concentrations E. Norepinephrine 370. What from the below mentioned hormones are catecholamins? A. B. C. D. E. Cortisol, hydrocortisol Thyroxine Estriol, estradiol * Epinephrine, Norepinephrine Insulin, glucagon 371. What from the below mentioned functions specific for lipocain? A. Activates lipogenesis, inhibits lipolysis and mobilization of fats from a depot B. Activates oxidization of fatty acids, promotes converting of carbohydrates into lipids C. * Activates formation of phosphotids in a liver, stimulates the action of lipotropic food’s factors D. Inhibits formation of phospholipids in a liver, assists in the fatty degeneration of liver E. Stimulates formation of triacylglycerols in the wall of intestine, activates the synthesis of chylomicrons in an intestine 372. What from the below mentioned hormones activate formation of phospholipids in a liver? A. Somatostatin B. Insulin C. Lipotropnic hormone D. Thyroxine E. * Lipocain 373. What from the below mentioned hormones are catabolics? A. Thyroxine B. * Catecholamins C. Glucocorticoids D. Sex hormones E. Insulin and glucagon 374. What from the below mentioned hormones does reduce speed of lipolysis in fatty tisuues? A. Hydrocortison B. Epinephrine C. * Insulin D. Somatotropin E. Norepinephrine 375. What from the below mentioned hormones is not produced in adenohypophysis? A. Somatotropic. B. Adrenocorticotropic. C. * Melanotropin. D. Thyrotropnin. E. Prolactin. 376. What from the transferred hormones is not secreted by a pancreas? A. Somatostatin; B. Glucagon; C. * Somatomedin; D. Insulin; E. Lipocain. 377. What hormone promotes glycogen synthesis? A. Glucagon B. Epinephrine C. Thyroxine D. * Insulin 378. 379. 380. 381. 382. 383. 384. 385. E. Parathormone What hormone promotes lipogenesis? A. Epinephrine B. Thyroxine C. Parathormone D. Glucagon E. * Insulin What hormones are prodused in a pancreas? A. Insulin, glucagon, somatomedins, lipotropic hormones B. Insulin, glucagon, melanocytostimulation hormone, lipocain C. Insulin, glucagon, liberines and statines D. * Insulin, glucagon, somatostatin, lipocain E. Insulin, glucagon, lipotropic hormone, oxytocin What is a reason of acidosis development at I type of diabetes mellitus ? A. Insufficiency of insulin results in the increased formation of pyruvate, which transforms into acetyl CoA, which is utillized for the synthesis of ketone bodies B. * Insufficiency of insulin results in oppression of formation of pyruvate which determines insufficiency of oxaloacetate C. Insufficiency of insulin results in activation of glycolysis and the synthesis of ketone bodies is activated as a result D. Insufficiency of insulin results in oppression of PPP and as a result to the increased formation of ketone bodies E. Insufficiency of insulin results in increasing of glucose in blood and it transformation on ketone bodies What is the chemical nature of catecholamins? A. Proteins B. Peptids C. * Derivatives of amino acid D. Steroids E. Derivatives of arachidonic acid What is the chemical nature of insulin? A. Nucleotide B. * Protein C. Steroid D. Carbohydrate E. Lipid What metal is needed for functioning of insulin? A. Iron B. Copper C. Cobalt D. Calcium E. * Zinc What substance is a precursor in the synthesis of prostaglandins in the organism? A. Linolic acid B. Palmitic acid C. Linolenic acid D. Oleic acid E. * Arachidonic acid What types of metabolism does insulin influence on? A. Only on carbohydrate B. On carbohydrate and lipid C. On carbohydrate and albumen D. On carbohydrate, lipid and protein E. * On carbohydrate, lipid, protein and mineral 386. When epinephrine binds to alpha-1 receptors, one result is A. The receptor binds to the IRS-protein B. The receptor inhibits phospholipase-C C. * The endoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions D. There is a reduction in the diacylglycerol concentration E. Calmodulin dissociates from all the proteins to which it normally binds 387. When the blood concentration of insulin is increases, less glucagon is produced and there is a(n) A. Increases in the activity of adenylate cyclase B. * Increase in the activity of cAMP phosphodiesterase (3’, 5’-phosphodiesterase) C. Increase in binding of cAMP to the inhibitory subunits of protein kinase A D. Increase in cAMP E. Increase in protein kinase A activity 388. Where are catecholamins secrected? A. In a thyroid gland B. In a parathyroid glands C. In the cortex of a suprarenal gland D. * In the medulla of a suprarenal gland E. In the islets of Langerhans of pancreas 389. Where is insulin synthesized? A. In alfa-cells of Langergans ilets B. * In the beta-cells of Langergans ilets C. In the delta-cells of Langergansa ilets D. In the endothelial cells of conclusion channels of pancreas E. In стромі of pancreas 390. Where is rennin synthesized? A. In a liver B. In a pancreas C. In a thyroid gland D. * In kidneys E. In a hypophysis 391. Which from below mentioned hormones is a complex protein? A. ACTH. B. * Follicle stimulating hormone C. Oxytocin D. Glucagon E. Somatostatin 392. Which from below mentioned hormones is a derivate of amino acid? A. Calcitonin B. Adrencorticotropic hormone C. Insulin D. Vasopressin E. * Epinephrine 393. Which hormone does stimulate lipolysis in fatty tissue? A. Oxytocin B. * Epinephrine C. Foliculotropin D. Melanotropin E. Calcitonin 394. Which hormone does stimulate lipolysis in fatty tissue? A. B. C. D. E. 395. A. B. C. D. E. 396. A. B. C. D. E. 397. A. B. C. D. E. 398. A. B. C. D. E. 399. A. B. C. D. E. 400. A. B. C. D. E. 401. A. B. C. D. E. 402. A. B. C. D. Folikulotropin Oxytocin * Epinephrine Melanotropin Kalcitonin Which hormones effect on the cells genetic apparatus? Protein nature Peptide nature Hormones - derivates of amino acids * Steroid hormones All of above Which of the following action is improper for insulin? Increases the permeability of cell membranes for glucose. * Inhibits the first enzyme of glycolysis – glucokinase. Activates some enzymes of Krebs cycle. Activates the pentose phosphate cycle; Activates some enzymes of glycolysis Which of the following effect of insulin is correct? Activates the oxidation of fatty acids. Activates the lipolysis. Inhibits the synthesis of lipids. * Enhances the synthesis of lipids. All of the above Which of the following hormone acts on the cell genetic apparatus? Insulin. * Testosteron. Thyroxin. Epinephrine. Glucagon Which of the following hormone acts on the cell genetic apparatus? Insulin. * Testosteron. Glucagon Epinephrine. Vasopressin Which of the following hormone acts through the activation of adenilate cyclase? * Epinephrine. Estrol. Testosteron. Cortisol. Aldosteron Which of the following hormone acts through the activation of adenilate cyclase? * Epinephrine. Estrol. Testosteron. Cortisol. Aldosteron Which of the following hormones promotes hypoglycemia? Epinephrine Norepinephrine * Insulin Glucagon E. Glucocorticoids 403. Which of the following is NOT a result of insulin binding to its receptor on a muscle cell? A. The receptor undergoes a change in conformation B. The receptor autophosphorylates tyrosyl residues C. Phosphorylation of the insulin receptor substrate (IRS) is increased D. More glucose transporters are inserted into the membrane E. * G-protein and adenylate cyclase are activated 404. Which of the following is not true? A. Glucagon causes the breakdown of glycogen in liver to yield glucose to the blood B. Insulin inhibits glycogenolysis in the liver C. Epinephrine causes the glycogen in liver to be degraded to yield glucose to the blood D. Insulin causes the transport of glucose into muscle cells E. * Epinephrine inhibits glycolysis of glucose in muscle cells 405. Which of the following proteins is responsible for secretion of pancreatic juice into the intestine? A. Cholecystokinin B. Gastrin C. Insulin D. Intrinsic factor E. * Secretin 406. Which of the following rules is correct for epinephrine? A. Epinephrine promotes synthesis of proteins. B. * Epinephrine promotes decomposition of proteins. C. Epinephrine promotes synthesis of lipids. D. Epinephrine promotes synthesis of glycogen. E. Epinephrine promotes decomposition of glucose 407. Which of the following rules is correct for epinephrine? A. Epinephrine promotes synthesis of proteins. B. * Epinephrine promotes decomposition of proteins. C. Epinephrine promotes synthesis of lipids. D. Epinephrine promotes synthesis of glycogen. E. All correct 408. Which of the following statements about prostaglandins is true? A. They are precursors to arachidonic acid B. They release arachidonic acid from membranes through the action of phospholipase A C. * They were first observed to cause uterine contraction and lowering of blood pressure D. Although found in many organs, they are synthesized only in the prostate and seminal vesicles E. They may be converted to leukotrienes by lipoxygenase 409. Which of the following statements accurately describes sex hormones? A. They bind specific membrane receptors B. They interact with DNA directly C. They cause release of a proteinaceous second messenger from the cell membrane D. * They enhance transcription when bound to receptors E. They inhibit translation through specific cytoplasmic proteins 410. Which of the following statements correctly describes insulin? A. It is an anabolic signal to cells that glucose is scarce B. It is converted from proinsulin to insulin primarily following secretion from ?cells C. It does not have a prohormone form D. It is a small polypeptide composed of a single chain bridged by disulfide groups E. * Its action is antagonistic to that of glucagon 411. Which of the following tissues is capable of contributing to blood glucose? A. Brain B. Adipose tissues C. Cardiac muscle D. * Duodenal epithelium E. Cartilage 412. With the purpose of analgesia a substance, which imitates the effects of morphine, but produced in CNS, can be used. Choose it. A. Somatoliberin B. Oxytocin C. Vasopressin D. Calcitonin E. * Endorphin 413. ________ is a process in which hormones are made less active or are eliminated by attaching water-soluble molecules such as sulfate or glucuronic acid groups to them in the liver. A. Active transport B. * Conjugation C. Excretion D. Metabolism E. Structural protection 414. A dietary deficiency of iodine can: A. Directly affect the synthesis of thyroglobulin on ribosomes B. * Result in increased secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone C. Result in decreased production of thyrotropin releasing hormone D. Result in increased heat production E. Result in decreased heat production 415. A hormone that increases sodium loss and lowers blood pressure is A. Aldosterone B. * Atrial natriuretic peptide C. Antidiuretic hormone D. Calcitonin E. Glucagon 416. A key intermediate for the synthesis of both testosterone and cortisol from cholesterol is: A. 7-hydroxycholesterol B. * Pregnenolone C. Aldosteron D. Retinoic acid E. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol 417. Action of parathormone is tightly connected with vitamin: A. A. С B. B. A C. * C. D D. D. Е E. E. K 418. Adrenaline is... A. B. C. D. E. Produced by the adrenal cortex * Also called epinephrine Released when the parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated None of the above All of the above 419. An example of a mineralocorticoid is: A. Glucagon B. Cortisol C. * Aldosterone D. Testosterone E. Insulin 420. Associated with increased TBG (thyroxine-binding globulin): A. Androgens B. Colestipol C. * Interleukin 2 D. Amiodarone E. Estrogens 421. Biochemical manifestation of excessive secretion of calcitonin: A. Hypercalciemia B. * Hypocalciemia C. Hyperphosphatemia D. Hypophosphaturia E. Hypernatriemia 422. Chemical nature of calcitonin: A. * Peptide B. Steroid C. Derivative of amino acid D. Derivative of аrachidonic acid E. Glycoprotein 423. Chemical nature of parathormone: A. * Protein B. Steroid C. Derivate of amino acid D. Lipid E. Derivate of arachidonic acid 424. Chemical nature of sex hormones A. Proteins B. Peptides C. * Steroids D. Derivates of the unsaturated fatty acids E. Derivates of amino acids 425. Choose a male sex hormone: A. Estradiole B. * Testosterone C. Cortizon D. Progesterone E. Cortikosterone 426. Choose the correct name of the state of hyperglycemia and glucosuria that appears in hypercorticism? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Diabetes insipidus C. * Steroid diabetes D. Kidney diabetes E. Adrenal diabetes 427. Choose the pair of hormones that have agonistic effects on blood sugar levels: A. Calcitonin and PTH B. * Adrenalin and Glucagon C. Glucagon and Glucose D. ADH and Aldosterone E. Only A 428. Choose the statement about steroid hormones that is incorrect A. Steroids are lipids with complex ring structures. B. * Steroids can pass through their target cell membrane and interact with receptors in the nucleus. C. Steroids employ first and second messengers that amplify the cellular response. D. The estrogens and testosterone are examples of steroid hormones. E. All of the above 429. Chose the effects that are caused by parathormone? A. Hypocalciemia, hypophosphatemia, hyperphosphaturia B. * Hypercalciemia, hypophosphatemia, hyperphosphaturia C. Hypocalciemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperphosphaturia D. Hypercalciemia, hypophosphatemia, hypophosphaturia E. Hypercalciemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypophosphaturia 430. Competitive inhibition of iodide uptake by the thyroid: A. Perchlorate B. Pertechnetate C. * Thiocyanate D. A & C E. A, B & C 431. Cortisol is produced by the: A. * Adrenal cortex B. Adrenal medulla C. Pancreas D. Thyroid gland E. Salivary gland 432. Cyclic AMP functions as a(n) _______________ for _______________ hormones. A. Binding site; nonsteroid B. Membrane receptor; steroid C. Activity site; G protein D. * Second messenger; nonsteroid E. All of the above 433. Diabetes insipidus results from a lack of: A. Glucagon B. Aldosterone C. Calcitonin D. * Antidiuretic hormone E. Insulin 434. Displacement of thyroid hormones (thyroxine, triiodothyronine) from TBG; may cause hyperthyroxinemia: A. * Methadone B. Sucralfate C. Lithium D. Furosemide 435. 436. 437. 438. 439. 440. 441. 442. 443. E. None of the above Down-regulation occurs because A. * Both hormone and receptor are taken into the cell by phagocytosis B. Receptor molecules are degraded more quickly C. There is a decrease in the rate of receptor synthesis D. All of these E. None of thes During emergencies, the "fight-or-flight" response A. Decrease the heartrate B. * Is caused by hormone secretions in the adrenal medulla C. Is stimulated by cortisol D. Is the result of aldosterone causing faster blood flow E. Is ingibitad by cortisol Effective hyperthyroidism on thyroxine (T4) metabolic clearance: A. * Increased B. Decreased C. No change D. C and B E. Only B Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and thyroid hormones are examples of A. Proteins. B. Glycoproteins C. Polypeptides. D. * Amino acid derivatives. E. Steroids. Estrogen, progesterone, testosterone, and glucocorticoids are all examples of A. Proteins B. Glycoproteins C. Polypeptides D. Amino acid derivatives E. * Steroids Excessive production of thyroid hormones by the thyroid gland A. Is called hypothyroidism B. * Can cause nervousness, irregular heartbeat, and weight loss C. Can cause stunted growth and retardation in children D. Can cause a goiter E. Can cause riskets Functions of parathormone: A. Promotes deposition of calcium in bones and decreases Ca in blood B. * Promotes resorption of calcium from bones and increases in blood C. Stimulates reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney D. Stimulates reabsorbtion of sodium in kidney E. Inhibits reabsorption of sodium in kidney Functions of prostaglandins: A. Regulate activity of dehydrogenase in liver B. Regulate reabsorption of water in kidney C. Regulate the functions of nervous system D. * Regulate gastric secretion E. Regulate activity of hydrolase in cells Glands in the endocrine system A. Produce hormones that are secreted into the digestive tract B. * Release hormones into the bloodstream or the fluid around cells 444. 445. 446. 447. 448. 449. 450. 451. 452. C. Release hormones as rapidly as nerve impulses are transmitted D. None of the above E. All of the above Hormon, that binds to receptors on Leydig cells: A. * Luteinizing hormone B. Prolactin C. Thyroid stimulating hormone D. Growth hormone E. Follicle stimulating hormone Hormone associated with diuresis: A. Oxytocin B. * Vasopressin C. Both oxytocine and vasopresine D. Neither oxytocine nor vasopressin E. ACTH Hormone associated with induction of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase: A. * Cortisol B. Aldosteron C. Both cortisol and aldosteron D. Neither cortisol nor aldosterone E. Prolactin Hormone found associated with neurophysin in secretory granules: A. Oxytocin B. Vasopressin C. * Both oxytocine and vasopresine D. Neither oxytocine nor vasopressin E. Melanotonin Hormone produced by anterior pituitary: A. Oxytocin B. Vasopressin C. Both oxytocine and vasopresine D. * Neither oxytocine nor vasopressin E. Melanotonin Hormone secreted in response to angiotensin II A. Cortisol B. * Aldosteron C. Both cortisol and aldosteron D. Neither cortisol nor aldosterone E. Prolactin Hormone that binds to intracellular receptor: A. Cortisol B. Aldosteron C. * Both cortisol and aldosteron D. Neither cortisol nor aldosterone E. Prolactin Hormone that is incoded by the propiomelanocortin gene: A. Luteinizing hormone B. Follicle stimylating hormone C. Growth hormone D. * Melanocyte stimulating hormone E. Thyroid hormones Hormone that mediates its action by the second messenger: A. B. C. D. E. Cortisol Aldosteron Both cortisol and aldosteron * Neither cortisol nor aldosterone Testosterone 453. Hormone that stimulates testosterone production: A. * Luteinizing hormone B. Follicle stimylating hormone C. Growth hormone D. Melanocitostimulating hormone E. Thyroid hormones 454. Hormone that stimulates the production of estradiol by the immature ovarian follicle: A. Luteinizing hormone B. Prolactin C. Thyroid stimulating hormone D. Growth hormone E. * Follicle stimulating hormone 455. Hormone that stimulates the production of progesterone by the corpus luteum: A. * Luteinizing hormone B. Prolactin C. Thyroid stimulating hormone D. Growth hormone E. Follicle stimulating hormone 456. Hormones can be any of these types of molecules EXCEPT A. Proteins B. Glycoproteins C. Polypeptides D. * Glycolipids E. Steroids 457. Hormones released by nerve cells of the _______ regulate hormones secreted by the ____________. A. Hypothalamus, anterior pituitary B. * Hypothalamus, posterior pituitary C. Anterior pituitary, hypothalamus D. Cerebellum, posterior pituitary E. Posterior pituitary, anterior pituitary 458. Hormones that bind to plasma proteins A. Bind reversibly B. Establish an equilibrium between free hormones and bound hormones C. Must be free hormones to diffuse through the capillary walls. D. * Usually bind only to specific types of plasma proteins. E. All of these 459. Hormones with a short half-life regulate activities that have a __________ onset with a __________ duration. A. Rapid, long B. Rapid, short C. Slow, long D. * Slow, short E. Only C 460. Hormones' A. Are not secreted at a constant rate B. C. D. E. 461. A. B. C. D. E. 462. A. B. C. D. E. 463. A. B. C. D. E. 464. A. B. C. D. E. 465. A. B. C. D. E. 466. A. B. C. D. E. 467. A. B. C. D. E. 468. A. Function to regulate the rates of many activities in the body Secretion rate is controlled by negative feedback mechanisms Help maintain homeostasis * All of these How glucocorticoids affect carbohydrate metabolism? Repress gluconeogenesis * Activate gluconeogenesis Activate glycolisis Stimulate the transport of glucose into cells Stimulate pyruvate dehydrogenase complex How glucocorticoids affect lipid metabolism? * Activate lypolysis and transformation of fats into carbohydrates Inhibit lypolysis and transformation of fats into carbohydrates Activate the synthesis of phospholipids and cholesterol in liver Stimulate the synthesis of triacylglycerols and chylomicrones in the walls of intestine Activate oxidation of fatty acids and formation of ketone bodies How glucocorticoids affect protein metabolism? Promote the synthesis of proteins in all organs * Promote the synthesis of proteins in liver and activate their decomposition in connective and muscle tissues Promote the proteolysis in all organs Stimulate the transport of amino acids in cells Activate the transformation of carbohydrates to proteins How iodine containing hormones are transported in blood? In the free state * Connected with albumins Connected with w-globulins Connected with C-globulins Connected with C-globulins How many carbon atoms the molecules of euicosanoids contain? 15 18 * 20 22 24 How sex hormones affect the protein metabolism? Stimulate disintegration of proteins Activate conversion of proteins into carbohydrates * Stimulate the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids Activate transaminases of amino acids Activate the synthesis of urea How thyroid hormones affect lipid metabolism? Stimulate the synthesis of triacylglycerols Stimulate lipogenesis and synthesis of cholesterol in liver Activate formation of chylomicrones in intestine and VLDL in liver * Activate mobilization of fats and their oxidation Activate the synthesis of phospholipids in liver How thyroid hormones affect protein metabolism? * In normal concentration stimulate the synthesis of proteins, in increased – decomposition. B. In a small concentration stimulate decomposition of proteins, in increased their synthesis C. Stimulate the decomposition of proteins and their transformation into carbohydrates D. In certain organs stimulate the synthesis of proteins, in other - decomposition E. Repress desamination and transamination of aminoacids 469. Hypersecretion of Thyroxin would be caused by an increase in the release of: A. FSH or LH B. STHRH or STH C. TSH or ACTH D. * TRH or TSH E. All of the above 470. Hypofunction of thyroid gland in adults results in: A. Cretinism B. Dwarfing C. Toxic goiter D. * Mixedema E. Acromegalia 471. Hypofunction of thyroid gland in children results in: A. Gigantism B. Graves disease C. Toxic goiter D. Dwarfing E. * Cretinism 472. If there is a decrease in the specific plasma protein to which a hormone binds A. More free hormone occurs B. Less hormone binds to target cells C. * Blood levels of the hormone increase D. All of these E. None of above 473. In excess of this hormone uncoupling of the tissue respiration and oxidative phosphorylation takes place. Decrease of ATP formation and increase of heat formation occur. What hormone is it? A. Cortizol B. * Thyroxine C. Progesteron D. Parathormone E. Glucagon 474. In the "second messenger" theory, which is the first messenger? A. cAMP B. Hormone C. Enzyme D. * Receptor E. All of the above 475. In the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is controlled by hormones made where? A. * In the Hypothalamus B. In the Adrenal Gland C. In the Pancreas D. In the Parathyroid E. In the Anterior pituitary 476. Increased blood glucose causes increased insulin secretion from the pancreas. This is an example of A. B. C. D. E. 477. A. B. C. D. E. 478. A. B. C. D. E. 479. A. B. C. D. E. 480. A. B. C. D. E. 481. A. B. C. D. E. 482. A. B. C. D. E. 483. A. B. C. D. E. 484. A. B. C. D. * Hormonal regulation of hormone secretion. Neural regulation of hormone secretion. Nonhormonal regulation of hormone secretion. All of the above None of the above Inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis or release: Amiodarone * Lithium Minoglutethimide Iodides E. All of the above Inhibits iodide transport into thyroid gland: Ipodate * Thiocyanate Thioamides A&C A, B & C Intracellular hormone receptors are located * Floating freely in the cytoplasm of target cells. In the nucleus. In the mitochondria. In the endoplasmic reticulum. Both a and b Lipid-soluble hormones * Can bind to plasma proteins Attach to intracellular receptors in target cells Tend to have slower onset and longer duration Include steroids All of these More potent thyroid hormone: T4 * T3 Equal potent Vasopressin Prolactin Name a biological active compound which is the derivative of arachidonic acid: * Prostaglandin Thyroxine Noradrenaline Cholin Ethanolamine Name female sex hormones? * Estradiol, estrione, estrole, progesterone Testosterone, estrione, estrole Cortisone, progesterone, estrione, estrole Progesterone, corticosterone, estrione, estrole Testosterone, estrole, corticosterone, estrione Name hormone that is synthesized from cholesterol by cells of the adrenal cortex: Cortisol Aldosteron * Both cortisol and aldosteron Neither cortisol nor aldosterone 485. 486. 487. 488. 489. 490. 491. 492. 493. E. Prolactin Name hormone that stimulates production of insulin-like growth factor: A. Luteinizing hormone B. Prolactin C. Thyroid stimulating hormone D. * Growth hormone E. Follicle stimulating hormone Name hormone that stimulates the synthesis of milk proteins: A. Luteinizing hormone B. * Prolactin C. Thyroid stimulating hormone D. Growth hormone E. Follicle stimulating hormone Name hormone which release is inhibited by thyroxine: A. Luteinizing hormone B. Prolactin C. * Thyroid stimulating hormone D. Growth hormone E. Follicle stimulating hormone Parathyroid hormone stimulates the formation of active form of vitamin D: A. In liver B. In blood C. In brain D. In intestine E. * In kidneys Parathyroid hormone stimulates the formation of active form of vitamin D: A. In liver B. In blood C. In brain D. In intestine E. * In kidneys Preparation of choice for thyroid replacement. A. * Dessicated thyroid B. Liothyronine C. Levothyroxine D. Propylthiouracil E. Methimazole Prostaglandins are ___________ substances that regulate neighboring cells. A. Endocrine B. * Paracrine C. Eccrine D. Glycoprotein E. Lipoprotein Prostaglandins are synthesized from: A. Cholesterol B. Amino Acids C. Carbohydrates D. * Fatty Acids E. Vitamins Sex hormones are secreted by ________________. A. All endocrine tissues of the body B. The inner cortex of the adrenal medulla 494. 495. 496. 497. 498. 499. 500. 501. 502. C. The inner cortex of the adrenal medulla and the gonads D. * The gonads E. Pancreas Steroid hormones are synthesized from: A. Fatty acids B. * Cholesterol C. Glucose D. Phospholipids E. Amino acids Target organs for specific hormones are determined by A. Whether the hormone is water-soluble or lipid-soluble B. How close the target organ is to the endocrine gland that secretes that hormone C. * The type of receptors on that organ D. How much hormone is secreted E. The blood supply to the specific organ The body's normal metabolic rate is regulated by A. * Thyroid hormones B. Epinephrine C. Metaboloxin D. Prolactin E. Vasopressin The derivatives of which amino acid are iodthyronines? A. Tryptophane B. Histidine C. Glutamic acid D. Serine E. * Tyrosine The effect of thyroxine on carbohydrate metabolism: A. * Activates decomposition of glycogen B. Represses absorption of carbohydrates in intestine C. Represses decomposition of glycogen D. Represses gluconeogenesis E. Activates the synthesis of glycogen The following compound is a precursor for the synthesis of prostaglandins: A. Tyrosine B. Cholesterol C. Acetyl-CoA D. Glycerol E. * Arachidonic acid The followings hormones are synthesized in thyroid glands: A. Parathormone and iodthyronines B. * Calcitonin and iodthyronines C. Thyrotropic hormone and iodthyronines D. Thyrotropic hormone and calcitonin E. Thyrotropic hormone and parathormone The hormone _____ causes the contractions of labor. A. Prolactin B. Estrogen C. * Oxytocin D. Progesterone E. Thyroid hormon The hormone Progesterone causes what to occur in women? A. B. C. D. E. Follicle Development Development of the Uterine Lining Spermatogenesis * Female Secondary Sex Characteristics Only A 503. The hypothalamus has a dual function in that it A. * Sends nerve impulses and also makes hormones B. Is both a nervous and olfactory organ C. Belongs to both the nervous and circulatory systems D. Is found connected to both kidneys E. All of the above 504. The insufficient production of mineralocorticoids (Addison diseases, bronze diseases) is accompanied with muscle weakness. This is explained by the excretion with urine increased amount of ions of: A. * Na+ B. K+ C. H+ D. Ca2+ E. Mg2+ 505. The islets of Langerhans are found in the: A. Kidney B. Adrenal gland C. * Pancreas D. Pituitary gland E. Liver 506. The large gland located on either side of the larynx is the: A. Parathyroid gland B. Pituitary gland C. * Thyroid gland D. Adrenal gland E. Pancreas 507. The largest number of hormones binds to A. Membrane-bound receptors and control ion channels. B. Membrane-bound receptors and activate G proteins. C. Membrane-bound receptors that phosphorylate intracellular proteins. D. * Intracellular receptors. E. Only C 508. The lipid hormones are either __________ or derivatives of fatty acids. A. Glycolipids B. Phospholipids C. * Steroids D. Triglycerides E. Glycerols 509. The Pancreas produces which 2 hormones: A. Epinephrine and Insulin B. Melatonin and Glucagon C. * Insulin and Glucagon D. Glucagon and Norepinephrine E. Glucagon and vasopressin 510. The pineal gland has been implicated in the disorder A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypothyroidism C. * Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) syndrome D. None of the above E. Scurvy 511. The pituitary gland is controlled by the: A. Anterior LobeB. B. * Hypothalamus C. Posterior Lobe D. Frontal Cortex E. All of thq above 512. The stalk connecting the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland is called the: A. * Pituitary cortex B. Infundibulum C. Anterior lobe D. Hypophysis E. Neurohypophysis 513. The synthesis of sex hormones is controlled by: A. Central nervous system B. Neurophysin C. Hormones of hypothalamus D. Aldosterone E. * Gonadotropic hormones of hypophysis 514. The target of the hormone Erythropoietin is: A. White Blood Cells B. The Kidneys C. * Bone Marrow D. Right Atrium of the Heart E. All of the above 515. This hormone in a normal concentration stimulates the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids, in increased concentration – activates catalytic processes. What hormone is it? A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Somatotropic hormone D. Testosteron E. * Thyroxine 516. This hormone promotes the transition of calcium from bones to blood, inhibits reabsorption of phosphorus in kidneys and stimulates absorption of calcium in intestine. Which hormone is it? A. Calcitonin B. Thyroxine C. Triiodthyronine D. * Parathormone E. Thyrotropin 517. This hormone promotes the transition of calcium from bones to blood, inhibits reabsorption of phosphorus in kidneys and stimulates absorption of calcium in intestine. Which hormone is it? A. Calcitonin B. Thyroxine C. Triiodthyronine D. * Parathormone E. Thyrotropin 518. This hormone stimulates the formation of 1,25- dihydroxycholecalciferol in kidneys. What hormone is it? A. Calcitonin B. Thyroxine C. Triiodthyronine D. * Parathormone E. Thyrotropin 519. This hormone stimulates the formation of 1,25- dihydroxycholecalciferol in kidneys. What hormone is it? A. Calcitonin B. Thyroxine C. Triiodthyronine D. * Parathormone E. Thyrotropin 520. Thyroid hormone more to be completely absorbed following oral administration A. Thyroxine B. Triiodothyronine C. Both equally absorbed D. * Neither absorbed orally, requires parenteral administration E. Vasopressin 521. Water-soluble hormones A. Have a long half-life. B. Have a short half-life. C. * Bind to intracellular receptors. D. Both a and c E. Only A 522. Water-soluble hormones, such as proteins, glycoproteins, epinephrine and norepinephrine A. Have relatively long half-lives. B. * Are degraded rapidly by enzymes. C. Have half-lives that increase and decrease slowly. D. Regulate activities that have a long duration E. A, c, and d 523. What is a precursor for the synthesis of corticosteroids? A. Tyrosine B. Arachidonic acid C. Phenylalanine D. * Cholesterol E. Glycerol 524. What is another name for thyroxine? A. * Tetraiodothyronine B. Thyroid C. Thymus D. Triiodothyronine E. Lipotropic hormon 525. What is the function of aldosterone? A. Represses reabsorption of sodium, activates reabsorption of water B. * Activates reabsorption of sodium, activates reabsorption of water C. Represses reabsorption of sodium, represses reabsorption of water D. Represses the excretion of potassium ions from organism, activates reabsorption of sodium 526. 527. 528. 529. 530. 531. 532. E. Represses the excretion of potassium ions from organism, represses reabsorption of sodium What is the function of calcitonin? A. Promotes the transition of calcium from bones to blood, inhibits reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney B. Promotes the transition of calcium from blood to bones, stimulates reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney C. * Promotes the transition of calcium from blood to bones, inhibits reabsorbtion of phosphorus in kidney D. Promotes the transition of calcium from bones to blood, stimulates reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney E. Inhibits the exit of calcium from bones, activates reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney What is the function of insulin? A. Antagonistic to glucagon B. Decreases glycogen storage in liver and muscle C. Reduces hyperglycemia D. * All of the above E. None of the above What is the function of parathormone? A. * Promotes transition of calcium from bones to blood, inhibits reabsorbtion of phosphorus in kidney B. Promotes transition of calcium from blood to bones, stimulates reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney C. Promotes transition of calcium from blood to bones, inhibits reabsorbtion of phosphorus in kidney D. Promotes transition of calcium from bones to blood, stimulates reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney E. Inhibits the exit of calcium from bones, inhibits reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney What is the half-life time of iodine containing hormones? A. 20 min B. * 1 week C. 20 sec D. 60 min E. 1 month What is the name of disease that is developed in hyperfunction of thyroid glands: A. Cretinism B. Mixedema C. Gigantism D. * Graves disease E. Dwarfism What is the nature of iodthyronines? A. Proteins B. Peptids C. * Derivatives of amino acid D. Derivates of fatty acids E. Steroids What is the target of ACTH? A. Most cells B. Thyroid gland C. Mammary glands D. * Adrenal cortex E. Adrenal medulla 533. What is the ultimate purpose of hormones? A. To maintain growth B. To keep the brain functioning C. * To stimulate metabolism D. None of the above E. All of the above 534. Where is hormone calcitonin synthesized? A. In parathyroid glands B. In a hypophyses C. * In a thyroid gland D. In a pancreas E. In adrenal glands 535. Where progesterone is formed? A. In follicles of ovaries B. In adrenal cortex C. In testicules D. * By a yellow body and placenta E. By follicles, adrenal cortex, testicules 536. Which effects are specific for the thyroid hormones? A. Stimulate the synthesis of glycogen, stimulate decomposition of proteins, stimulate the synthesis of lipids B. Stimulate lipogenesis, promotes the formation of ATP in mithochondria, at large concentrations stimulate the synthesis of proteins C. Activate lipolysis, activate the synthesis of cholesterol, activate a gluconeogenesis D. Activate decomposition of proteins and stimulate a basic metabolism, repress decomposition of fats, stimulate the synthesis of glycogen in muscles and liver E. * Activate breaking up of glycogen and absorbtion of carbohydrates in intestine, activate lipolysis and oxidation of fatty acids, in an increased concentration stimulate the decomposition of proteins 537. Which fatty acid is a precursor in the synthesis of such important compounds as prostaglandins, leucotrienes and thromboxanes? A. * Arachidonic B. Linolic C. Oleic D. Stearic E. Palmitooleic 538. Which hormone directly affects blood pressure? A. * ADH B. Insulin C. PTH D. ACTH E. Glucagon 539. Which hormone has steroid nature? A. Calcitonine B. Parathormone C. Norepinephrine D. Epinephrine E. * Estron 540. Which hormone has the greatest effect on metabolism? A. GH B. C. D. E. 541. A. B. C. D. E. 542. A. B. C. D. E. 543. A. B. C. D. E. 544. A. B. C. D. E. 545. A. B. C. D. E. 546. A. B. C. D. E. 547. A. B. C. D. E. 548. A. B. C. D. E. * Thyroxine TSH ACTH FSH Which hormone has the greatest influence on the ability to secrete milk? Oxytocin Estrogen * Prolactin Progesterone Vasopressin Which hormone is mineralocorticoid? Corticosteron Cortison Hydrocortisone * Aldosterone Progesteron Which hormone is produced in the Beta cells of the islets of Langerhans: Melatonin Glucagon * Insulin Calcitonin Vasopressin Which hormone is the derivative of the unsaturated fatty acids? Estradiol Progesterone Noradrenaline Testosterone * Prostaglandins Which hormone opposes the effects of parathyroid hormone? * Calcitonin Glucagon Growth hormone Prolactin Vasopressin Which hormone stimulates the synthesis of W-lactalbumin: Oxytocin Aldosterone Vasopressin * Prolactin Cortisol Which hormone stimulates the uterine contraction: * Oxytocin Aldosterone Vasopressin Prolactin Cortisol Which hormone works antagonistically to parathormone: Triiodothyronine Insulin Estrogen * Calcitonin Vasopressin 549. Which hormones act on the genetic apparatus of cell? A. Protein nature B. Peptide nature C. Hormones - derivates of amino acids D. * Steroid nature E. Polipeptide nature 550. Which hormones are the derivates of cholesterol? A. * Adrenal cortex, sex hormones B. Tropic hormones of hypophysis C. Vasopressine and oxytocine D. Thyroid gland hormones E. Glucagon and insulin 551. Which hormones belong to glucocorticoids? A. Cortison, hydrocortisone, aldosterone B. * Cortison, hydrocortisone, corticosterone C. Hydrocortisone, corticosterone, aldosterone D. Estriole, corticosterone, aldosterone E. Corticosterone, estradiol, corticosterone 552. Which hormones regulate the metabolism of calcium and phosphorus? A. Liberins and statins B. * Parathormone and calcitonin C. Thyroid hormones and glucagon D. Calcitonin and somatostatin E. Calcitonin and glucagon 553. Which iodthyronines do you know? A. Тriiodthyronine, diiodthyronine B. * Tetraiodthyronine, triiodthyronine C. Thyroxine, calcitonin D. Calcitonin, parathormone E. Thyroxine, diiodthyronine 554. Which is not a function of the hypothalamus? A. * Affect heart rate B. Control temperature C. Affect water balance D. Secrete FSH E. None of the above 555. Which microelement is needed for the synthesis of hormones of thyroid glands? A. Iron B. Fluorine C. * Iodine D. Cobalt E. Zinc 556. Which of the following compounds increases the release of Ca2+ from the endoplasmatic reticulum? A. Diacylglycerol B. * Inositol tryphosphate C. Parathyroid hormone D. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol E. Retinol 557. Which of the following effects are caused by calcitonin? A. * Hypocalciemia, hypophosphatemia, hyperphosphaturia B. Hypercalciemia, hypophosphatemia, hyperphosphaturia 558. 559. 560. 561. 562. 563. 564. 565. 566. C. Hypocalciemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperphosphaturia D. Hypercalciemia, hypophosphatemia, hypophosphaturia E. Hypercalciemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypophosphaturia Which of the following hormones is synthesized in the posterior pituitary? A. * Antidiuretic hormone B. Melatonin C. Growth hormone D. None of the above E. Somatotropic hormon Which of the following is MISMATCHED? A. Oxytocin – hypothalamus B. Insulin – pancreas C. Glucagon – pancrease D. * Thyroid hormone -- pituitary gland E. Vasopressin – posterior pitutery gland Which of the following is NOT a product of the adrenal gland? A. Cortisol B. * Aldosterone C. Progesterone D. Epinephrine E. Insulin Which of the following is true of epinephrine? A. Acts only throught the phosphatidylinositol biphosphate system B. * Is synthesized from tyrosine C. Decreases the level of cAMP in liver cells D. Functions like a steroid hormone E. Is produced from estradiol Which of the following is true of testosterone? A. * May be converted to a more active androgen in its target cells B. Acts by binding to receptors on the cell surface C. Is produced from estradiol D. Stimulates the synthesis of gonadotropin releasing hormone by the hypothalamus E. Stimulates the synthesis of epinephrine Which of these does not directly stimulate the gonads? A. FSH B. * TTH C. LH D. ACTH E. All of the above Which of these hormone types bind to intracellular receptors? A. * Proteins B. Glycoproteins C. Polypeptides D. Epinephrine E. Steroids Which of these hormones is made by the posterior pituitary? A. FSH B. LH C. ACTH D. * ADH E. Prolactin Which of these hormones is secreted in the liver? A. B. C. D. E. Renin * Somatomedin Erythropoietin Estrogen Insulin 567. Which of these is an example of positive-feedback regulation in the endocrine system? A. * An increase in blood glucose causes an increase in insulin secretion; insulin moves glucose into cells. B. An increase in TSH causes an increase in thyroid hormone secretion; thyroid hormones inhibit TSH secretion. C. Before ovulation, an increase in LH causes an increase in estrogen, which causes an increase in LH. D. An increase in TRH causes an increase in TSH secretion; thyroid hormone inhibits TRH secretion. E. An increase in blood calcium causes an increase in calcitonin secretion; calcitonin moves calcium into the blood. 568. Which of these is not an endocrine gland? A. Pancreas B. Testes C. * Salivary gland D. Parathyroid E. All of the above 569. Which statement is false? A. The endocrine system is composed of ductless glands B. Contents of the endocrine system are released into the bloodstream C. * The mammory gland is part of the endocrine system D. Exocrine glands are not part of the endocrine system E. Non of the above 570. Which symptoms are typical for hypofunction of thyroid gland? A. Increase of body temperature, exophthalmia, loss of weight B. Sweat, increased body temperature C. * Lowering of basic metabolism, lowering of body temperature, and swelling. D. Loss of weight, increase sweating, mucosa edema. E. Hyperpigmentation, obesity 571. Which two groups of hormones are synthesized by adrenal cortex? A. Corticosteroids and mineralocorticoids B. Corticosteroids and glucocorticoids C. * Glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids D. Catecholamines and corticosteroids E. Catecholamines and glucocorticoids 572. Which two hormones are released from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? A. ADH and GH B. ACTH and TSH C. * ADH and oxytocin D. TRH and CRH E. Insulin and glucagon 573. ‘Burning foot syndrome’ has been described to the deficiency of: A. * Pantothenic acid B. Thiamin C. Cobalamin D. Pyridoxine E. Ascorbic acid 574. A deficiency of vitamin B12 causes A. Beri-Beri B. Scurvy C. * Perniciuos anemia D. Ricket E. Pellagra 575. A molecule of CO2 is captured by biotin when it acts as coenzyme for carboxylation reaction. The carboxyl group is covalently attached to A. * A nitrogen (N1) of the biotin molecule B. Sulphur of thiophene ring C. ?-Amino group of lysine D. ?-Amino group of protein E. All of these 576. A provitamin D synthesized in human beings is A. Ergosterol B. * 7-Dehydrocholesterol C. Cholecalciferol D. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol E. All of these 577. A vitamin which can be synthesized by human beings is: A. Thiamin B. * Niacin C. Folic acid D. Cyanocobalamin E. Both B and C 578. An important function of vitamin A is A. To act as coenzyme for a few enzymes B. To play an integral role in protein synthesis C. To prevent hemorrhages D. * To maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue E. A and C only 579. Anti-egg white injury factor is: A. Pyridoxine B. * Biotin C. Thiamin D. Liponic acid E. All of these 580. Ascorbic acid can reduce A. 2, 6-Dibromobenzene B. 2, 6-Diiodoxypyridine C. * 2, 6-Dichlorophenol indophenol D. 2, 4-Dinitrobenzene E. All of the above 581. Ascorbic acid is required to synthesise all of the following except: A. Collagen B. Bile acids C. * Bile pigments D. Epinephrine E. Both B and C 582. Biotin is a coenzyme for: A. Pyruvate carboxylase B. C. D. E. 583. A. B. C. D. E. 584. A. B. C. D. E. 585. A. B. C. D. E. 586. A. B. C. D. E. 587. A. B. C. D. E. 588. A. B. C. D. E. 589. A. B. C. D. E. 590. A. B. C. D. E. Acetyl CoA carboxylase Propionyl CoA carboxylase * All of these None of these Biotin is a coenzyme of the enzyme: * Carboxylase Hydroxylase Decarboxylase Deaminase Dehydrogenase Biotin is required as a coenzyme by: Anaerobic dehydrogenases Decarboxylases Aerobic dehydrogenases * Carboxylases All of these Chemically, lipoic acid is: Saturated fatty acid Unsaturated fatty acid Amino acid * Sulphur containing fatty acid Keto acid Coenzyme A contains a nitrogenous base which is: * Adenine Guanine Choline Ethanolamine Tymine Conversion of all-trans-retinal into all-trans-retinol requires: NAD NADH NADP * NADPH FAD Conversion of folate into tetrahydrofolate requires: NADH * NADPH FMNH2 FADH2 TPP Conversion of retinal into retinol requires the presence of: PLP * NADPH FADH2 Lipoic acid Both B and C Daily requirement of niacin is 5 mg 10 mg * 20 mg 35 mg 20 g 591. A. B. C. D. E. 592. A. B. C. D. E. 593. A. B. C. D. E. 594. A. B. C. D. E. 595. A. B. C. D. E. 596. A. B. C. D. E. 597. A. B. C. D. E. 598. A. B. C. D. E. 599. A. B. C. Daily requirement of vitamin C in adults is about: 100 mg 25 mg * 70 mg 100 mg 70 g Deficiency of Vitamin A causes * Xeropthalmia Hypoprothrombinemia Megaloblastic anemia Pernicious anemia Beri-Beri Deficiency of vitamin B12 can occur because of: Decreased intake of vitamin B12 Atrophy of gastric mucosa Intestinal malabsorption * All of these None of these Deficiency of vitamin C causes: Beriberi Pellagra Pernicious anaemia * Scurvy Both A and D Deficiency of vitamin D causes * Rickets and osteomalacia Tuberculosis of bone Hypothyroidism Skin cancer Cretinism Ergosterol is found in Animals * Plants Bacteria All of these Both A and B FAD is a coenzyme for Succinate dehydrogenase Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase Sphingosine reductase * All of these None of these Fat soluble vitamins are Soluble in alcohol one or more Propene units Stored in liver * Cause hypervitaminosis All these Folic acid contains: Pteridine p-Amino benzoic acid Glutamic acid 600. 601. 602. 603. 604. 605. 606. 607. 608. D. * All of these E. None of these Function of Vitamin A: A. Healing epithelial tissues B. Protein synthesis regulation C. Cell growth D. * All of these E. None of these In the body 1 mg of niacin can be produced from: A. 60 mg of pyridoxine B. * 60 mg of tryptophan C. 30 mg of tryptophan D. 30 mg of pantothenic acid E. 60 g of tryptophan Intrinsic factor is chemically a: A. Protein B. * Glycoprotein C. Mucopolysaccaride D. Peptide E. Amino acid Lipoic acid is a conenzyme for: A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase B. ?-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase C. * Both (A) and (B) D. Glutamate dehydrogenase E. None of these Methylcobalamin is required for formation of A. Serin from glycine B. Glycine from serine C. * Methionine from homocysteine D. All of these E. Both (B) and (C) NAD is required as a coenzyme for A. * Malate dehydrogenase B. Succinate dehydrogenase C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase D. HMG CoA reductae Niacin can be synthesised in human beings from A. Histidine B. Phenylalanine C. Tyrosine D. * Tryptophan E. Both (A) and (C) Niacin contains a A. Sulphydryl group B. * Carboxyl group C. Amide group D. All of these E. None of these Niacin deficiency can occur in A. * Hartnup disease B. Phenylketonuria 609. 610. 611. 612. 613. 614. 615. 616. 617. C. Alkaptonuria D. None of these E. Both (A) and (C) Niacin deficiency is common in people whose staple food is A. Wheat B. Polished rice C. * Maize and /or sorghum D. None of these E. Both (A) and (C) Niacin is present in maize in the form of: A. Niatin B. Nicotin C. * Niacytin D. Nicyn E. None of these Niacin is synthesized in the body from: A. * Tryptophan B. Tyrosine C. Glutamate D. Aspartate E. None of the above Niacin or nicotinic acid is a monocarboxylic acid derivative of: A. * Pyridine B. Pyrimidine C. Flavin D. Adenine E. A and B On exposure to light rhodopsin forms A. * All trans-retinal B. Cis-retinal C. Retinol D. Retinoic acid E. All of the above One international unit (I.U) of vitamin D is defined as the biological activity of A. * 0.025 µg of cholecalciferol B. 0.025 µg of 7-dehydrocholecalciferol C. 0.025 µg of ergosterol D. 0.025 µg of ergocalciferol Pantothenic acid contains an amino acid which is: A. Aspartic acid B. Glutamic acid C. * Alanine D. ?-Aminoisobutyric acid E. None of these Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of: A. Ascorbic acid B. Pantothenic acid C. Pyridoxine D. * Niacin E. C and D Pellagra occurs in population dependent on: A. Wheat B. C. D. E. 618. A. B. C. D. E. 619. A. B. C. D. 620. A. B. C. D. E. 621. A. B. C. D. E. 622. A. B. C. D. E. 623. A. B. C. D. E. 624. A. B. C. D. E. 625. A. B. C. D. E. 626. Rice * Maize Milk B and C Pellagra preventing factor is Thiamin Riboflavin * Niacin Pyridoxine Both (A) and (C) Preformed Vitamin A is supplied by Milk, fat and liver * All yellow vegetables All yellow fruits Leafy green vegetables All of the above Provitamin D3 is Cholecalciferol Ergosterol * 7-Dehydrocholesterol Ergocaliferol All of these Provitamins A include Retinal Retionic acid * Carotenes Both B and C All of these Pyridoxal phosphate is a coenzyme for Glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase Glutamate pyruvate transaminase Tyrosine transaminase * All of these None of these Pyridoxal phosphate is required as a coenzyme in Transamination Transulphuration Desulphydration * All of these Dehydrogenation Pyridoxine deficiency can be diagnosed by measuring urinary excretion of Pyruvic acid Oxaloacetic acid * Xanthurenic acid None of these All of these Pyridoxine requirement depends upon the intake of Carbohydrates * Proteins Fats All of these None of these Retinoic acid participates in the synthesis of A. B. C. D. Iodopsin Rhodopsin * Glycoprotein Cardiolipin 627. Retinol and retinal are interconverted requiring dehydrogenase or reductase in the presence of A. * NAD or NADP B. NADH + H+ C. NADPH D. FAD E. PLP 628. Retinol isomerase is present in: A. Retina B. * Liver C. Both (A) and (B) D. Cornea E. None of these 629. Rhodopsin contains opsin and: A. * 11-cis-retinal B. 11-trans-retinal C. All-cis-retinal D. All trans-retinal E. All of these 630. Riboflavin deficiency can cause A. Peripheral neuritis B. Diarrhoea C. * Angular stomatitis D. None of these E. Both (A) and (C) 631. Riboflavin deficiency symptoms are: A. Glossitis B. Stomatis C. Vomitting D. * Both (A) and (B) E. Diarrea 632. Riboflavin is heat stable in A. Acidic medium B. Alkaline medium C. Neutral medium D. * Both (A) and (C) E. Both (B) and (C) 633. Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin K D. * Vitamin C E. B and D only 634. Sterilised milk lacks in A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. * Vitamin C D. Thiamin 635. 636. 637. 638. 639. 640. 641. 642. 643. E. All of the above Sulphydryl group of coenzyme a is contributed by: A. Alanine B. Alfa-Aminoisobutyric acid C. Methionine D. * Thioethanolamine E. Both (A) and (D) The central heavy metal cobalt of vitamin B12 is coordinately bound to A. * Cyanide group B. Amino group C. Carboxyl group D. Sulphide group E. Hydroxyl group The enzymes with which nicotinamide act as coenzyme are: A. * Dehydrogenases B. Transaminases C. Decarboxylases D. Carboxylases E. A and B The following is required for the formation of coenyzme A: A. * ATP B. GTP C. CTP D. None of these E. AMP The most important natural antioxidant is A. Vitamin D B. * Vitamin E C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin K E. All of these The most potent Vitamin D metabolite is A. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol B. * 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol C. 24, 25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol D. 7-Dehydrocholesterol E. All of these The pellagra preventive factor is: A. Riboflavin B. Pantothenic acid C. * Niacin D. Pyridoxine E. Ascorbic acid The requirement of vitamin E is increased with greater intake of A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins C. * Polyunsaturated fat D. Saturated fat E. A and B The vitamin having the highest daily requirement among the following is: A. Thiamin B. Ribovflavin 644. 645. 646. 647. 648. 649. 650. 651. 652. C. Pyridoxine D. * Ascorbic acid E. Both A and D Tocopherols prevent the oxidation of A. * Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin C E. A and B Two molecules of vitamin A can be formed from 1 molecule of: A. Alfa-Carotene B. * Alfa-Carotene C. Alfa-Carotene D. Both A and B E. All of these Vitamin A is stored in the body in: A. * Liver B. Adipose tissue C. Reticuloendothelial cells D. Both A and B E. All of these Vitamin B12 is synthesized by: A. * Bacteria only B. Plants only C. Animals only D. Both (A) and (C) E. All of the above Vitamin B12 is transported in blood by: A. Albumin B. Transcortin C. Transcobalamin I D. * Transcobalamin II E. All of these Vitamin B12 is: A. Not stored in the body B. Stored in bone marrow C. * Stored in liver D. Stored in RE cells E. All of these Vitamin C activity is present in: A. D-Ascorbic acid B. D-Dehydroascorbic acid C. * L-Ascorbic acid D. Both A and B E. Both B and C Vitamin C enhances the intestinal absorption of: A. Potassium B. Iodine C. * Iron D. Calcium E. None of these Vitamin C is required for the synthesis of: A. B. C. D. E. 653. A. B. C. D. E. 654. is A. B. C. D. E. * Bile acids from cholesterol Bile salts from bile acids Vitamin D from cholesterol All of these None of these Vitamin E reduces the requirement of Iron Zinc * Selenium Magnesium Sodium Vitamin required for the conversion of hydroxyphenylpyruvate to homogentisate Folacin Cobalamin Ascorbic acid * Niacin Cholecalciferol 655. Vitamin required in conversion of folic acid to folinic acid is A. Biotin B. Cobalamin C. * Ascorbic acid D. Niacin E. Cholecalciferol 656. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol promotes absorption of: A. P B. Cu C. Zn D. Na E. * Ca 657. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol promotes absorption of: A. P B. Cu C. Zn D. Na E. * Ca 658. A cofactor required in oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate is A. * Lipoate B. Pantothenic acid C. Biotin D. Para aminobenzoic acid E. PLP 659. A lot of biochemical functions of water soluble vitamins are related to their ability to transform in cells in the proper coenzymes. Which from the below mentioned vitamins is needed for formation of FMN and FAD? A. Vitamin B6 B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin B5 D. Vitamin B3 E. * Vitamin B2 660. A poor source of Vitamin D is A. Egg B. C. D. E. Butter * Milk Liver All of these 661. Absorption of Vitamin B12 requires the presence of: A. Pepsin B. Hydrochloric acid C. Intrinsic factor D. * Boh (B) and (C) E. Rennin 662. Absorption of vitamins depends on some factors. Which compound does prevent absorption of biotin? A. * Avidine B. Albumin C. Globulin D. Transferrin E. Ferritin 663. Active coenzyme forms of vitamin B5: A. FAD and FMN B. Pyridoxal phosphate C. * NAD and NADP D. Pyridoxamine E. Coenzyme A 664. Anaemia can occur due to the deficiency of all the following except: A. * Thiamin B. Pyridoxine C. Folic acid D. Cyanocobalamin E. Both A and B 665. Analog of vitamin K: A. * Dicumarol B. Prothrombin C. Fibrinogen D. Proconvertin E. Hesperedin 666. Ascorbic acid is especially abundant in: A. * Citrus fruits; B. White bread; C. Rice; D. Yeast. E. Plant oils 667. At the tissue respiration the primary acceptor of hydrogen is pyridine dependent dehydrogenase. Which from the below mentioned vitamins is needed for the coenzyme NAD+? A. * Vitamin PP B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin B1 D. Vitamin B2 E. Vitamin B3 668. Below named are the main clinical symptoms of scurvy, except: A. Gums bleeding B. Pain in heart 669. 670. 671. 672. 673. 674. 675. 676. C. Tachycardia D. * Xeroftalmia E. Petechias Calcitriol synthesis involves A. * Both liver and kidney B. Intestine C. Adipose tissue D. Muscle E. Liver Chemically, Extrinsic Factor of Castle is a: A. Mucoprotein B. Glycoprotein C. Mucopolysaccharide D. * Cyanocobalamin E. Peptide Choose correct answer according to concept of “vitamins”: A. Are inorganic substances that function in living cells in trace amounts and are vital for many forms of life B. * Are organic substances that function in living cells in trace amounts and are vital for many forms of life C. Are organic substances that function only in liver in trace amounts D. Are inorganic substances that must acquire from endogenous sources E. All answers correct Choose physiological name of vitamin B2: A. Antianemic B. Antineuritic C. Antipellagric D. Antiscurvy E. * Growth factor Choose the active form of vitamin D, which has characteristics of hormone? A. 7-dehydrocholesterol B. * 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol C. 25- hydroxycholecalciferol D. Ergocalciferol E. Cholecalciferol Choose the chemical nature of vitamin B5: A. Amino acid B. * Nicotinic acid C. Pantothenic acid D. Ascorbic acid E. Citric acid Clinical manifestation of riboflavin deficiency are all, except: A. Growth inhibition B. Loss of hair C. Inflammatory processes of lips D. * Defect of nervous system E. Keratitis Consumption of raw eggs can cause deficiency of A. * Biotin B. Pantothenic acid C. Riboflavin D. Thiamin E. Ascorbic acid 677. Corneal vascularisation is found in deficiency of the vitamin: A. B1 B. * B2 C. B3 D. B6 E. D 678. Day necessity of thiamin: A. 10-15 mg B. 1-2 g/l C. * 2-3 mg D. 16-25 mg E. 10-15 g 679. Day's necessity of vitamin D for children: A. 2-3 mg B. 2-3 µg C. С. 70-100 mg D. * 10-15 µg E. Е. 10-12 g 680. Deficiency of vitamin B6 may occur in A. Obese person B. Thin person C. * Alcoholics D. Diabetics E. All of these 681. Differences of water-soluble vitamins from fat-soluble vitamins are all, except: A. * Are included into coenzymes B. Don't have provitamins C. Are not included into the membranes D. Hypervitaminoses are not peculiar for them E. Usually have provitamins 682. Early symptoms of vitamin A deficiency: A. Muscle dystrophy B. Lungs inflammation C. Liver cancer D. * Xerophthalmia ("dry eyes") E. Petechias 683. Epileptiform convulsion in human infants have been attributed to the deficiency of the vitamin: A. B1 B. B2 C. * B6 D. B12 E. D 684. Flavoenzymes take part in the following biochemical processes, except: A. Oxidative degradation of pyruvate B. Oxidative degradation of fatty acids C. Oxidative degradation of amino acids D. * Serves as carrier of acyl groups E. Take part in the process of electron transport. 685. Folate as a coenzyme is involved in the transfer and utilization of A. Amino group B. C. D. E. Hydroxyl group * Single carbon moiety Amido group All of these 686. Folate deficiency causes A. Microcytic anemia B. Hemolytic anemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. * Megaloblastic anemia E. Scurvy 687. Folic acid deficiency can be diagnosed by increased urinary excretion of A. Methylmalonate B. * Figlu C. Cystathionine D. Creatinine 688. Folic acid or folate consists of the A. Base pteridine, p-amino benzoic acid and asparate B. Base purine, p-amino benzoic acid and glutamate C. * Base pteridine, p-amino benzoic acid and glutamate D. Base purine, p-hydroxy benzoic acid and glutamate E. Base pyrimidine, p-amino benzoic acid and glutamate 689. For absorption of which vitamin the Castle’s factor is need (glycoprotein which produced by the cells of stomach)? A. Vitamin B6 B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin B5 E. * Vitamin B12 690. For hypovitaminosis of vitamin Е are proper such symptoms: A. Xerophtalmia, keratomalacia B. Dermatitis, dementia C. Osteoporosis D. Diarrhea, polyneuritis E. * Atrophy of muscles 691. Hydroxylation of vitamin D occurs in A. Skin B. * Liver C. Kidneys D. Intestinal mucosa E. Pancreas 692. Hypervitaminosis K in neonates may cause A. Porphyria B. * Jaundice C. Pellagra D. Prolonged bleeding E. Scurvy 693. In biochemical processes in the human organism all forms of vitamin A take part except: A. Retinol B. Retinal C. Retinoic acid D. * Tocopherol E. Esters forms of vitamin A 694. In biotin-containing enzymes, the biotins bound to the enzyme by A. An amide linkage to carboxyl group of glutamine B. A covalent bond with CO2 C. * An amide linkage to an amino group of lysine D. An amide linkage to carboxyl group of Protein E. All of these 695. In human body highest concentration of ascorbic acid is found in A. Liver B. * Adrenal cortex C. Adrenal medulla D. Spleen E. Pancreas 696. In the large intestine microorganisms synthesize vitamins which take part in the biochemical processes of organism. Choose them: A. * K, B12 B. D, C C. E, H D. B1, D E. B6, E 697. Increased glucose consumption increases the dietary requirement for A. Pyridoxine B. Niacin C. Biotin D. * Thiamin E. Cholecalciferol 698. Insufficiency of which vitamin does cause the inhibition of activity of aminotransferase’s and decarboxylase? A. B3 B. B2 C. * B6 D. B12 E. B15 699. Lack of vitamin K causes: A. Diarrhea B. Kakheksiya C. S. Growth retardation D. * Hemorrhages E. Steatoreya 700. Lipid soluble vitamins are: A. Coenzymes B. * Modulators of cell membranes C. Regulators of secretion of digestive juices D. Transport of substances E. Е. Mediators of nervous system 701. Main function of bioflavonoids is: A. Take part in metabolism of epinephrine B. It necessary for hydroxylation of cholesterol C. * Support the elasticity of capillaries D. Reduce the disulfide bonds to sulphhydryl bonds E. Participation in respiratory chain 702. Main function of coenzyme A is: A. B. C. D. E. 703. A. B. C. D. E. 704. A. B. C. D. E. 705. A. B. C. D. E. 706. A. B. C. D. E. 707. A. B. C. D. E. 708. A. B. C. D. E. 709. A. B. C. D. E. 710. A. B. C. D. A carrier of methyl group Removal of hydrogen atom from specific substrate Catalyze reaction of carbohydrate metabolism * A carrier of acyl groups Participation in respiratory chain Name biologicaly active form of vitamin D: * Ergocalciferol Cholecalciferol 7-dehydrocholesterol 25-hydroxycholecalciferol 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol Name provitamins of vitamin A: Flavonoids Cholecalciferol * Carotenoids Hesperedin Dehydroascorbic acid Name the active coenzyme form of vitamin B2: A.TMP, TDP NAD, NADP * FMN, FAD Coenzyme A THFA One manifestation of vitamin A deficiency is Painful joints * Night blindness Loss of hair Thickening of long bones All of these Pantothenic acid is a constituent of the coenzyme involved in: Decarboxylation Dehydrogenation * Acetylation Oxidation All of these Pantothenic acid was identified as: Coenzyme Q Metalloenzyme Flavoenzyme * Coenzyme A Pyridine coenzyme Pyridoxal phosphate is central to: Deamination Amidation Carboxylation * Transamination Oxidation Pyridoxal phosphate is the active coenzyme form of vitamin: B1. B2. B3. * B6. E. B12 711. pyridoxamine phosphate A. Deamination of serine B. Deamination of threonine C. Conversion of pyridoxal phosphate to D. * Methylation of homocystein to methionine E. Hydroxilation of proline 712. Pyridoxine can biologically convert into such compounds: A. Pyridine and thiamin B. Propionil and pyridine C. * Pyridoxal and pyridoxamine D. Nicotine and nicotinamide E. Pyridine coenzyme 713. RDA of vitamin Е is: A. * A.20-50 mg B. B.20-50 µg C. С.45-60 mg D. D.50-100 µg E. Е.40-80 mg 714. Retinal is a component of A. Iodopsin B. * Rhodopsin C. Cardiolipin D. Glycoproteins E. Lipoproteins 715. Retinal is reduced to retinol in intestinal mucosa by a specific retinaldehyde reductase utilising A. * NADPH + H+ B. FAD C. NAD D. NADH + H+ E. PLP 716. Rhodopsin includes a protein: A. Crioglobulin B. * Opsin C. Transpherin D. Pepsin E. Tyrosine 717. Riboflavin deficiency causes A. * Cheilosis B. Loss of weight C. Mental deterioration D. Dermatitis E. Beriberi 718. Riboflavin is a coenzyme in the reaction catalysed by the enzyme A. Acyl CoA synthetase B. * Acyl CoA dehydrogenase C. ?-Hydroxy acyl CoA D. Enoyl CoA dehydrogenase E. All of these 719. Richest source of Vitamin D is A. * Fish liver oils B. C. D. E. Margarine Egg yolk Butter Meat 720. Rod cells possess a trans-membrane protein which is A. Adenylate cyclase B. Transducin C. * Rhodopsin D. B as well as C E. All of these 721. Sequence of enzymatic reactions of visual cycle is catalyzed by two enzymes: A. Lactate dehydrogenase and phosphatase B. Alcohol dehydrogenase and lactate dehydrogenase C. * Retinal-reductase and retinol-isomerase D. Esterases and glycosidases E. Retinal-reductase and retinol-transferase 722. Subacute combined degeneration of cord is caused due to deficiency of A. Niacin B. * Cobalamin C. Biotin D. Thiamin E. Ascorbic acid 723. Sulpha drugs interfere with bacterial synthesis of A. Lipoate B. Vitamin E C. * Tetrahydrofolate D. Ascorbic acid E. All of these 724. The active form of vitamin D (1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol) maintain in an organism a constant level of: A. Potassium and phosphorus B. * Calcium and phosphorus C. S. Iron and calcium D. Iron and magnesium E. Magnesium and manganese 725. The analogue of vitamin K which takes part in the tissue respiration is: A. Vikasol B. * Ubiquinone C. Naphtoquinon D. Tocopherol E. Cytochrome 726. The antivitamin of vitamin K is: A. Vikasol B. Cholecalciferol C. * Dikumarol D. Thiamin E. Е. Cholin 727. The biochemical function of water soluble vitamins depends on their ability to convert into coenzyme forms. In which coenzyme the vitamin B2(riboflavin) transforms: A. * FMN (flavin mononucleotide) B. NAD+ (nicotine amide dinucleotide) C. TMP (tiaminmonofosphate) D. TDP (thiamine diphosphate) E. PALP (pirodoxal phosphate) 728. The central structure of B12 referred to as corrin ring system consists of A. * Cobalt B. Manganese C. Magnesium D. Iron E. Potassium 729. The coenzyme required for conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate is A. FAD B. NAD C. TPP D. * Biotin E. PLP 730. The cofactor or its derivative required for the conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl-CoA is A. FAD B. ACP C. NAD+ D. * Biotin E. TPP 731. The component of rodopsin A. Trans-retinol B. * Cis-retinal C. Yodopsin D. Trans-retinal E. Cis- retinol 732. The daily requirement of riboflavin for adult in mg is A. 0–1.0 B. * 1.2–1.7 C. 2.0–3.5 D. 4.0–8.0 E. 10.6-15.5 733. The day requirement of vitamin C is: A. 50-70 µg. B. * 50-70 mg. C. 50-70 g. D. 500-700 mg. E. 5-7 g 734. The deficiency of thiamin causes disease: A. Acute pancreatitis B. * Beri-beri C. Pellagra D. Liver cancer E. Loss of hair 735. The deficiency of tocopherol causes many other symptoms, except: A. Infertility in male and female B. Degeneration of the kidneys C. Necrosis of the liver D. * Mental retardation E. Dystrophy of skeletal muscles 736. The derivates of vitamins are included in composition of coenzymes of respiratory chain. The coenzyme form of what vitamin is NAD+? A. B1 B. B2 C. B6 D. * PP E. B3 737. The derivates of vitamins carry out the role of coenzymes. The coenzyme form of which vitamin is a thiamine pyrophosphate? A. Vitamin B5 B. * Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin B2 D. Vitamin B3 E. Vitamin B6 738. The disease pellagra is developed in the lack of vitamin: A. Thiamin. B. Riboflavin. C. * Nicotinic acid. D. Pantothenic acid. E. Ascorbic acid 739. The earliest symptoms of thiamin deficiency cause disorders of some system, except: A. Nervous. B. Cardio-vascular C. Respiratory D. Muscular E. * Digestive 740. The function of coenzyme A is to take part in the following enzymatic reactions, except: A. Fatty acid synthesis B. Fatty acid oxidation C. * Hydrolysis of proteins D. Pyruvate oxidation E. Biological acetylations 741. The main enzymatic reaction requiring pyridoxal phosphate as a coenzyme is : A. Decarboxilation B. * Transamination C. Deamination D. Reamination E. Oxidation 742. The molecule of vitamin A contains: A. Benzene ring B. * ?-Ionone ring C. ?-Carotene ring D. All of these E. None of these 743. The most specific symptoms of pellagra are all, except: A. Dermatitis B. Diarrhea C. Dementia D. * Muscle dystrophy E. Photosensibility 744. A. B. C. D. E. 745. A. B. C. D. E. 746. A. B. C. D. E. 747. A. B. C. D. E. 748. A. B. C. D. E. 749. A. B. C. D. E. 750. A. B. C. D. E. 751. A. B. C. D. E. 752. A. B. C. The precursor of CoA is: Riboflavin Pyridoxamine Thiamin * Pantothenate None of the above The proteins present in maize are deficient in: Lysine Threonine * Tryptophan Tyrosine C and D The Vitamin B1 deficiency causes Ricket Nyctalopia * Beriberi Pellagra Scurvy The vitamin required as coenzyme for the action of transaminases is Niacin Pantothenic acid * Pyridoxal phosphate Riboflavin Ascorbic acid The vitamin required for the formation of hydroxyproline (in collagen) is * Vitamin C Vitamin A Vitamin D Vitamin E Vitamin K The Vitamin which does not contain a ring in the structure is: * Pantothenic acid Vitamin D Riboflavin Thiamin A and D Thiamin deficiency includes Mental depression Fatigue Beriberi Miscle atrophy * All of these Thiamin diphosphate is required for oxidative decarboxylation of * ?-Keto acids ?-Amino acids Fatty acids Glycerol All of these Thiamin is heat stable in * Acidic medium Alkaline medium Both (A) and (B) D. Neutral medium E. None of these 753. Thiamin is oxidized to thiochrome in alkaline solution by A. Potassium permanganate B. * Potassium ferricyanide C. Potassium chlorate D. Potassium dichromate E. All of these 754. Thiamin occurs in cells mainly as its active coenzyme form: A. NAD B. FAD C. NADP D. * TPP E. CoA 755. Thiamin requirement is greater in A. Non-vegetarians B. Alcoholics C. Pregnant women D. * Both B and C E. None of above 756. To the group of fat soluble vitamins peculiar presence of provitamins. The provitamin of vitamin D3 is: A. Ergosterol B. Cholesterol C. * 7-dehydrocholesterol D. 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol E. Ergocalciferol 757. Tocopherols have such property: A. * Antioxidant activity B. Antidermatites activity C. Antipellagric activity D. Antixerophtalmic activity E. Antianemic activity 758. Two coenzymes – NAD and NADP are also referred to as: A. * Pyridine coenzymes B. Flavoenzymes C. Thiamin coenzyms D. Transaminase E. Ligases 759. Vitamin A or retinal is a A. Steroid B. * Polyisoprenoid compound containing a cyclohexenyl ring C. Benzoquinone derivative D. 6-Hydroxychromane E. None of the above 760. Vitamin B12 deficiency can be diagnosed by urinary excretion of A. Pyruvate B. * Methylmalonate C. Malate D. Lactate E. All of these 761. Vitamin B12 forms coenzymes known as: A. B. C. D. E. 762. A. B. C. D. E. 763. A. B. C. D. E. 764. A. B. C. D. E. 765. A. B. C. D. E. 766. A. B. C. D. E. 767. A. B. C. D. E. 768. A. B. C. D. E. 769. A. B. C. D. * Cobamide Transcobalamin I Transcobalamin II Both (B) and (C) All of these Vitamin B12 has a complex ring structure (corrin ring) consisting of four Purine rings Pyrimidine rings * Pyrrole rings Pteridine rings Bensol ring Vitamin B12 is also known as: Folic acid * Cyanocobalamin Piridoxine Orotic acid Biotin Vitamin B6 deficiency may occur during therapy with * Isoniazid Terramycin Sulpha drugs Aspirin All of these Vitamin B6 includes: Pyridoxal Pyridoxamine Pyridoxine * All of these Both A and B Vitamin K is a cofactor for * Gamma carboxylation of glutamic acid residue ?-Oxidation of fatty acids Formation of ?-amino butyrate Synthesis of tryptophan Synthesis of fatty acids Vitamin K is found in * Green leafy plants Meat Fish Milk All of these Vitamin K is required for normal: * Blood-clotting time Development of bones Prevent blood clotting Promotes absorption of Ca in intestine Demineralisation Vitamin P - is the group of compounds, except: Rutin Hesperedin Katechines * Riboflavin E. All of above 770. Vitamin synthesized by bacterial in the intestine is A. A B. C C. D D. * K E. B1 771. Vitamins are A. * Accessory food factors B. Generally synthesized in the body C. Produced in endocrine glands D. Proteins in nature E. All of the above 772. Vitamins are classified into two large groups: A. Organic and inorganic B. Simple and complex C. * Water-soluble and fat-soluble D. Protein-soluble and fat-soluble E. All of above 773. Vitamins at their simultaneous usage can strengthen action of each other. Which of following vitamins assist in anti-hyaluronidase activity of vitamin P? A. Vitamin B2 B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin B1 D. * Vitamin C E. Vitamin A 774. What disease is developed in the vitamin B12 deficiency? A. * Pernicious anemia. B. Pellagra. C. Beri-beri. D. Dermatitis. E. Neuritis. 775. What disease is developed in the vitamin C deficiency? A. * Scurvy. B. Pellagra. C. Beri-beri. D. Dermatitis. E. Neuritis 776. What forms of carotenes do you know? A. A1, 2 2 B. a, b, с C. * C, ,, , D. A1, A2 E. E, , 777. When light falls on rod cells: A. All-cis-retinal is converted into all-trans-retinal B. 11-cis-retinal is converted into 11-trans-retinal C. 11-trans-retinal is converted into all-transretinal D. * 11-cis-retinal is converted into all-trans-retinal E. None of these 778. ?-Carotene, precursor of vitamin A, is oxidatively cleaved by A. * ?-Carotene dioxygenase B. C. D. E. 779. A. B. C. D. E. 780. A. B. C. D. E. 781. A. B. C. D. E. Oxygenase Hydroxylase Transferase ?-Carotene lyase ______ is a measurement of the relative amount of immunoglobulin in the serum * Gamma globulin Secretory antibody Antibody titer Blast formation Fibrinogen The two primary components of whole blood are plasma and Serum Platelets * Formed elements Dissolved proteins Granular leukocytes ____ are agents that stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies. Alpha globulins * Gamma globulins Beta globulins Antigens Platelets ____ is a hormone produced by the ____ when tissue levels of oxygen levels are 782. low. A. Bilirubin stomach B. * Bilirubin; bone marrow C. Erythropoietin; kidneys D. Erythropoietin; bone marrow E. Hemoglobin; liver 783. _____ are to blood clotting as neutrophils are to phagocytosis. A. Eosinophils B. * Platelets C. Blymphocytes D. Monocytes E. Basophils 784. A toxic gas that strongly binds to hemoglobin and deprives the body of oxygen is: A. Hydrogen peroxide B. * Carbon monoxide C. Carbon dioxide D. Sodium bicarbonate E. Ctric acid 785. Ability to link free haemoglobin and to transport her in the cells of RES at the condition of physiological and pathological disintegration of erythtrosytes belongs: A. Transferin B. Crioglobulin C. Ceruloplazmin D. * Haptoglobin E. Ferritin 786. Acid-Base balance is important for: A. Normal enzyme functions B. Normal metabolite solubility C. Normal membrane potentials 787. 788. 789. 790. 791. 792. 793. 794. 795. D. A and C E. * All of the above Acidosis results in increasing levels of what ion? A. Calcium B. Chloride C. Sodium D. Phosphorus E. * Hydrogen Albumin-globulin coefficient of blood plasma of healthy people compose: A. 3,0-4,0 B. 1,0-1,5 C. 5,0-6,5 D. 8,0-10,0 E. * 1,5-2,0 All of the following are functions of blood except A. Transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide B. Regulation of body temperature C. * Synthesis of vitamins D. Defense against infection E. Maintenance osmotic pressure All of the following are true of erythrocytes except A. When mature, they have no nucleus or other organelles B. Their plasma membrane contains many antigens (molecules projecting from the surface) C. They normally contain practically all of the hemoglobin that is present in blood D. They transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues E. * They have a finite life span averaging about 60 days An excessive number of white blood cells is called: A. Lymphoma B. Leukopenia C. * Leukocytosis D. All of the above E. None of the above Anemia resulting from iron deficiency is called : A. Pernicious anemia B. * Hemoffhagic anemia C. Aplastic anemia D. Sickle cell anemia E. Nutritional anemia Antibodies are plasma proteins that are classified as: A. Albumins B. * Globulins C. Fibrinogen D. All of the above E. Prealbumins Antibodies are produced as a reaction to the presence of : A. Red blood cells B. Haemoglobin C. * Antigens D. White blood cells E. Platelets B cells function by promoting ____ . A. B. C. D. E. * Phagocytosis Antibody production Release of histamine Cell to cell killing of viral infected cells The production of erythropoietin 796. Blood fails to clot in the absence of : A. Magnesium B. * Calcium C. Sulphur D. Potassium E. Cooper 797. Blood is composed of : A. Plasma and red blood cells B. * Plasma and formed elements C. Red and white blood cells D. Red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets E. Plasma and platelets 798. Blood perform such functions: A. Gas transport B. Transport of nutritional substances C. Regulative D. Osmotic E. * All of the above 799. Blood platelets are: A. * Cytoplasmic fragments B. Free nuclei C. A kind of red cell D. Found only during clot formation E. Mithochodrial fragment 800. Blood transports dissolved gases, bringing oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and carrying A. * Carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs B. Carbon dioxide from the lungs to the tissues C. Carbon dioxide from the interstitial fluid to the cell D. Carbon dioxide from one peripheral cell to another E. None of the above 801. Cell-to-cell killing is to T cells as antibody production is to : A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. Monocytes D. * B cells E. Eosinophils 802. Ceruloplasmin is the protein of: A. A-globulin fraction. B. B1-globulin fraction. C. * C2-globulin fraction. D. D-globulin fraction. E. prealbumin 803. Chemical nature of immunoglobulins: A. Lipoproteins B. * Glykoproteins C. Phosphoproteins D. Chromoproteins E. Nukleoproteins 804. Choose the factor that is not a major metabolic source of hydrogen ions in the body. A. Anaerobic respiration of glucose B. * Oxidation of amino acids that contain sulfur C. Hydrolysis of phosphoproteins D. Oxydation of fatty acid E. Anaerobic respiration of glucose 805. Choose the indexes of normal maintenance of hemoglobin in women: A. 140-160 g/l B. * 115-145 g/l C. 125-160 g/l D. 50-80 g/l E. 70-100 g/l 806. Choose the indexes of normal maintenance of hemoglobin in men: A. 80-100 g/l B. * 130-160 g/l C. 115-145 g/l D. 70-90 g/l E. 100-120 g/l 807. Circulating mature RBCs lack: A. Ribosomes B. * Mitochondria C. Nuclei D. All of the above E. None of the above 808. Colloid-osmotic pressure of blood is supported by: A. * Albumins B. B1- globulins C. C- globulins D. D- globulins E. E- globulins 809. Combination of haemoglobin with oxygen named: A. Carboxyhemoglobin B. Methemoglobin C. Carbylaminhemoglobin D. Carbhemoglobin E. * Oxyhemoglobin 810. Combination, that transported CO2 from tissues to lung named: A. Methemoglobin B. * Carbhemoglobin C. Oxyhemoglobin D. Carbylaminhemoglobin E. Carboxyhemoglobin 811. Connection of hemoglobin with CO is: A. Oxyhemoglobin. B. Carbhemoglobin. C. * Carboxyhemoglobin. D. Methemoglobin. E. Cyancobalamine 812. Contents of globulins in blood serum of healthy person: A. B. C. D. E. 80-110 g/l 50-60 g/l 40-60 g/l * 20-35 g/l 100-120 g/l 813. Crioglobulin – the protein of C-globulin fraction, which absent in blood plasma of healthy people, appears at: A. Diabetus Mellitus B. Wilson disease C. * С. Leykoses, mielom disease D. Starvation E. Lung emphysema 814. Determination blood proteins fractions of patient is possible the method of electrophoresis owing to following their property: A. High optical activity B. High dyspersity C. S. High hydrophilicity D. High viscidity E. * Electric charge 815. Detoxification function of blood is conditioned: A. Gas transport (CO2 and O2) B. Transport of nutritional substances C. Exchange of heat between tissues and blood D. * Detoxification toxic substanses by the enzymes of blood E. Presents in blood of antibodies and by the phagocit function of leucocytes 816. During RBC recycling, each heme unit is stripped of its iron and converted to: A. Transferrin B. Ferritin C. * Biliverdin D. Urobilin E. None of the above 817. Electrophoresis of blood proteins carry out at pH: A. 5,5 B. 7,0 C. * 8,6 D. 4,7 E. 3,0 818. Eosinophils are to granular white blood cells as ____ are to agranular white blood cells. A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. * Monocytes D. Stem cells E. None of the above 819. Erythropoietin A. * Stimulates red blood cell synthesis B. Stimulates white blood cell synthesis C. Is released in response to a decrease in blood flow to the bone marrow D. A and C E. B and C 820. Fibrinogen - is protein of blood which executes a function: A. Transport B. C. D. E. Strukture * Protective Regulation Reduce 821. Fibrinogen is a precussor of: A. Protrombin B. Haptoglobin C. Fibronektin D. * Fibrin E. Fibroin 822. For account of what fraction of proteins observe hypoproteinemia at the diseases of liver: A. A- globulins B. Transferin C. Gaptoglobin D. Ceruloplazmin E. * Albumins 823. Formed elements in the blood are produced through the process of: A. Diapedesis B. Erythrocytosis C. Hemolysis D. * Hemopoiesis E. None of the above 824. From where do most of the plasma proteins come? A. * Liver B. Spleen C. Red bone marrow D. Progenitor cells that enlarge then rupture E. Old erythrocytes that rupture 825. General antyproteinase activity of blood serum of healthy man is determined the followings inhibitors, except: A. A1 -antitripsyn B. B2-macroglobulin C. С. Inter-I-ingibitor of trypsin D. * Contrikal E. Termoacidstability ingibitor 826. Given that the liver synthesizes most of the plasma proteins, severe liver disorders can be expected to cause A. * Decreased osmotic pressure of the blood plasma B. Less efficient transport of iron ions and lipids C. Diminished clotting ability D. All of the above E. None of the above 827. Haemoglobin A of erythrocytes in the adult include: A. 22 – and 1 polypeptide chains B. 11 – and 2 polypeptide chains C. 4 4 - polypeptide chains D. 4 - polypeptide chains E. * 2 – and 2 - polypeptide chains 828. Hemoglobin buffer system of blood consists: A. * Oxihemoglobin and desoxyhemoglobin B. Carbhemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin C. Carboxyhemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin D. Oxyhemoglobin and metHb E. Methemoglobin and carbhemoglobin 829. Hemoglobine of erythrocytes include: A. * Hem and globin B. Histones and hem C. Protamines and hem D. Globin and NAD E. Iron, copper and protein 830. How is it possible for the rate and depth of breathing to affect hydrogen ion concentrations in body fluids? A. During increased air exchange, more oxygen is exchanged with body cells, binding hydrogen ions B. * During increased air exchange, more carbon dioxide is given off, returning hydrogen ion concentrations to normal C. During increased respiration over the long term, more hemoglobin is produced, thus increasing the buffering of the blood D. The rate and depth of breathing does not alter hydrogen ion concentration in body fluids E. During decreased respiration over the long term, more oxyhemoglobin is produced 831. Immune status of organism is provided by: A. * Leukocytes B. Trombocytes C. Erythrocytes D. Hemoglobin E. Bilirubin 832. In addition to water and proteins, the plasma consists of: A. Albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen B. * Electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes C. Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets D. All of the above E. None of the above 833. In formation of blood clot take part: A. Fibronectin B. Fibroin C. * Fibrin D. Haptoglobin E. Hemoglobin 834. In what combination present (Fe3+): A. Carboxyhemoglobin B. Oxyhemoglobin C. * Met hemoglobin D. Carbhemoglobin E. Mioglobin 835. Increase related to O2 in the perinatal period of child has: A. HbS B. * HbF C. HbA D. HbE E. HbC 836. Indicate proteins that not belong to fractions of globulins: A. B. C. D. E. Ceruloplazmin B1-antitrypsin Transferin Haptoglobin * Fibrinogen 837. Indicate the credible index of albumin-globulin coefficient in the case of kidney disease: A. 2,8 B. * 0,8 C. 1,5 D. 2,5 E. 2,0 838. Indicate the maintenance of albumins in blood serum of healthy person? A. 60-85 g/l B. 40-60 g/l C. * 35-50 g/l D. 80-110 g/l E. 100-120 g/l 839. Indicate types of haemoglobins, that be found in the erythrocytes of healthy people: A. A2, F, С B. M, A1, D C. С, M, Е D. * A1, A2, F E. A2, S 840. Ions of iron (Fe3+), which are absorbed in an intestine, deposited in the different organs of organism in composition of: A. Hemoglobin B. Transferin C. Haptoglobin D. * Feritin E. Ceruloplasmin 841. Kinins of blood execute the followings functions, except: A. Relax smooth muscles of blood vessels B. Promote permeability of vascular walls C. Lowering blood pressure D. Broade vessels in the areas of inflammation E. * Contract smooth muscles of blood vessels 842. Leukocytes are divided into two classes based on the presence or absence of microscopically visible structures called A. Nuclei B. * Granules C. C. Ribosomes D. Mitochondria E. Golgi complexes 843. Maintenances of acid-base balance of blood have the followings buffer systems, except: A. Bycarbonate B. Phosphate C. * Ammonia D. Haemoglobin E. Proteins 844. Many animal contain an oxygen-carrying substance called: A. * Hemoglobin B. Chyme C. Filtrate D. Lymph E. Gglobin 845. Metabolic acidosis arise at all of the followings states, except: A. Diabetus Mellitus B. Starvation C. * Delay hydrocarbonates under the influence of mineralcorticoids D. Muscle hypoxia E. Loss secrets of pancreas and intestine at diarrhea 846. Most of the circulating leukocytes are A. Basophils B. Eosinophils C. Leukocytes D. Monocytes E. * Neutrophils 847. Name basic kinins which enters in the composition of the kallicrein-kinin system of blood: A. Macroglobulins, callydines B. Callydin, protrombin C. * Callydin, bradykinin D. Antithrombins, bradykinin E. Bradykinin, lipoproteins 848. Name protein which appeared in a patient with leucosis in blood plasma: A. Albumins B. * Crioglobulin C. Immunoglobulins D. D1 - globulins E. Fibrinogen 849. Of the following, which are most active as phagocytes? A. Erythrocytes B. * Neutrophils C. Platelets D. Eosinophils E. Monocites 850. Of the following, which mechanisms are important in the death of erythrocytes in human blood? Is it A. Phagocytosis B. Hemolysis C. Mechanical damage D. * All of the above 851. Once the erythrocytes enter the blood in humans, i is estimated that they have an average lifetime of how many days. Is it: A. 10 days B. * 120 days C. 200 days D. 360 days E. 2 days 852. One of the basic allocation of the kallikrein-kinin system of blood, it: A. Supporting of blood oncotic pressure B. C. D. E. * Regulation of vascular tone Transport medical substances Supportin acid - base balance Blood clotting 853. Osmoregulation is concerned with: A. Excretion B. Ionic regulation C. * Control of the body's water content D. Carbon dioxide regulation E. Oxygen regulation 854. Plasma contains all of the following EXCEPT A. Glucose B. Oxygen C. * Hemoglobin D. Electrolytes E. Clotting factors 855. Plasma is made up of water and _______________ A. Metabolites and wastes B. Salts and ions C. Proteins D. * All of the above E. None of the above 856. preferentially with red-staining dyes? A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. * Eosinophils D. Lymphocytes E. Monocytes 857. Proteins of the plasma that function in fighting infections are : A. Albumins B. Fibrinogen C. * Gamma globulins D. Alpha and beta globulins E. Prothrombin 858. Prothrombin and the procoagulants are involved in blood clotting and require vitamin : A. B12 B. E C. * K D. A E. H 859. Protrombin is to thrombin as _____ is/are to fibrin. A. Prothrombin activator B. Blood clot C. * Fibrinogen D. Platelets E. Erythropoietin 860. Red blood cells are destroyed in the : A. Lungs B. * Liver C. Heart D. Spleen E. Kidney 861. Select the fluid tissue that among other things transports dissolved gases, distribute nutrients, stabilizes body temperature and aids in the defense against pathogens and toxins A. Lymph B. Cerebrospinal fluid C. Interstitial fluid D. * Blood E. Water 862. Someone whose blood could not carry enough oxygen to the cells of the body might have a deficiency of : A. Estrogen B. * Hemoglobin C. Carbon dioxide D. Lactose E. Epinephryn 863. Sources of protein in the diet are: A. Fats, oils, butter, and margarine B. Green pepper, cantaloupe, citrus fruits, and broccoli C. Deep green and orange vegetables, and citrus fruits D. * Meats, fish, legumes, nuts, dairy products, and eggs. E. Onion, carrot, oils and apples 864. Surplus red blood cells, needed to meet an emergency, are MAINLY stored in what organ of the human body? Is it the: A. Pancreas B. * Spleen C. Liver D. Kidneys E. Heard 865. The basic event in the formation of a blood clot is the change of A. * Fibrinogen to fibrin B. Fibrin to fibrinogen C. Thrombin to prothrombin D. Vitamin K to prothrombin E. Fibrin to thrombin 866. The basic event in the formation of a blood clot is the change of A. * Fibrinogen to fibrin B. Fibrin to fibrinogen C. Thrombin to prothrombin D. Vitamin K to prothrombin E. Rodopsyn to opsyn 867. The basic function of erythrocytes in blood: A. Promotes agregation of thrombocytes B. * Transport of CО2 and O2 C. Syntheses of proteins of the contraction system (actine, myosine) D. Provide immune status of organism E. Take part in formation of active forms of oxygen 868. The blood component responsible for clotting in injury is: A. White blood cells B. Erythrocytes C. Platelets D. Plasma E. Serum 869. The class of plasma proteins that produces antibodies is A. Albumins B. Alpha globulins C. Beta globulins D. * Gamma globulins E. Fibrinogen 870. The component of blood that is responsible for clotting is: A. * Platelets B. Erythrocytes C. Neutrophils D. Basophils E. None of the above 871. The concentration of fibrinogen in blood of pregnancy women consist 3,8 g/l. Indicate the normal concentration of fibrinogen: A. 1-3 g/l B. 2-7 g/l C. 9-11 g/l D. 5-7 g/l E. * 2-4 g/l 872. The condition in which there is a DECREASE in the number of white blood cells in humans is known as: A. Leukocytosis B. * Leukopenia C. Leukemia D. Leukohyperia E. Anemia 873. The degree of oxigenation of haemoglobin (synthesis of HbO2) depends on such factors: A. Parcial pressure of oxygen B. pH C. Concentration of CO D. Concentration of 2,3 - diphosphoglycerat E. * From all factors, resulted higher 874. The extracellular buffering system for blood and tissue fluids is base on A. Potassium hydroxide B. * Bicarbonate C. Carbonic anhydrase D. Phosphate E. Albumin 875. The final reaction in the formation of a blood clot is A. The formation of prothrombin activator B. * That thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin C. That prothrombin activator converts prothrombin to thrombin D. Hageman factor activates prothrombin E. Vitamin B12 ingibit formation of fibrinogen 876. The fluid that does not form clots is : A. Blood B. Plasma C. Lymph D. * Serum E. Spinal-cord 877. The formed elements of the blood consist of: A. * Red and white blood cells and platelets B. Electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes C. Antibodies, metalloproteins, and lipoproteins D. Albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen E. None of the above 878. The function of antibodies, basic effectors of humoral immunity, execute proteins: A. Fibrinogen B. Albumins C. * C-globulins D. D1-globulins E. E-globulins 879. The function of the lymphatic system is to: A. Drain the blood of nutrients B. * Returning proteins and water to the blood stream C. Prevent blood loss by clotting the blood D. Store energy reserves for the body E. Synthesis of vitamins 880. The functions of providing a gas exhange surface and moving air to and from the exchange surface is performed by the _______________ system. A. Cardiovasular B. * Respiratory C. Digestive D. Lymphatic E. Excretion 881. The greatest concentration of antibodies is found in the fraction of the serum. A. * Gamma globulin B. Albumin C. Beta globulin D. Alpha globulin E. Prealbumin 882. The highest antyproteas activity of blood ( >90%) belongs: A. * A -1-antytripsin B. B-2-macroglobulin C. Inter-I-ingibitor of trypsin D. Termoacidstability inhibitor E. E-1-antychimotripsin 883. The hydrocarbonate buffer system of blood most effectively functions at рН that equal: A. 8,1 B. * 7,4 C. 6,8 D. 7,9 E. 7,0 884. The increase permeability of vascular walls in the zone of inflammation and sense of pain promote: A. Contrikal B. * Kinins C. Renin D. Angiotenzin E. Gordox. 885. The liquid matrix of blood as it exists in the body is called: A. B. C. D. E. 886. A. B. C. D. E. 887. A. B. C. D. E. 888. A. B. C. D. E. 889. A. B. C. D. E. 890. A. B. C. D. E. 891. A. B. C. D. E. 892. A. B. C. D. E. 893. the Lymph Stroma Serum * D Plasma All of the above The liquid portion of the blood is called : Water * Plasma Serum Sap Cells The lymphatic system Is an open circulatory system Contains one-way valves Returns fluids to the bloodstream * All of the above None of the above The lymphatic system is important because it: Collects liquid lost from the circulatory system Returns proteins to circulation Transports fats Carries bacteria to the lymph nodes for destruction * Does all of the above The lymphocyte that is responsible for cell-mediated immunity is the: * T lymphocyte NK cell B lymphocyte None of the above All of the above The main cells present in lymph are : Red blood cells Platelets * Lymphocytes Monocytes Basophils The maintenance of total protein in blood serum of healthy person? 50-60 g/l 80-110 g/l * 65-85 g/l 100-120 g/l 40-60 g/l The major component of plasma is: * Water Nutrients Protein Electrolytes Vitamins The most important buffer system in the intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) is A. * Phosphate buffer system B. Protein buffer system C. Bicarbonate buffer system D. Sulfate buffer system E. Chloride buffer system 894. The most important buffer systems in body fluids include the bicarbonate buffer system, the ______________ buffer system, and the protein buffer system. A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Phosphate D. * Hemoglobin E. Chloride 895. The most numerous white blood cell in normal blood is the: A. * Neutrophil B. Lymphoctye C. Monocyte D. Eosinophil E. B lymphocyte 896. The most powerful vesselsbroaden substance in an organism is: A. Oxitocin B. Histamin C. Serotonin D. Adrenalin E. * Bradikinin 897. The part of the hemoglobin molecule directly interacts with oxygen is: A. The tertiary protein structure B. The sodium ion C. Globin D. * The iron ion E. None of the above 898. The primary function of a mature red blood cell is: A. Defense against toxins and pathogens B. Delivery of enzymes to target tissues C. Transport of respiratory gases D. * All of the above E. None of the above 899. The process that halts bleeding is called: A. Lymphopoiesis B. Hematocrit C. Hemangioma D. * Hemostasis E. None of the above 900. The protein that consists of four protein subunits that each contain heme is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Myoglobin C. * Hemoglobin D. Myosin E. Catalase 901. The several types of white blood cells are sometime collectively referred to as: A. Erythrocytes B. * Leukocytes C. Erythroblasts D. Thrombocytes E. Monocytes 902. The shape of the red blood cell can best be described as a(n): A. B. C. D. E. 903. A. B. C. D. E. 904. A. B. C. D. E. 905. by: A. B. C. D. E. Ellipsoid Sphere * Biconcave disc Donut Circle The sign deficit protein of blood plasma - haptoglobin is: Hemolises Lowering of plasma osmotic pressure * Hemoglobinuria Immunodeficit Increase oncotic pressure The smallest of the FORMED elements of the blood are the: White cells Red cells * Platelets Erythrocytes Erythroblasts The specific binding and transport of ions of copper in blood plasma is carried out Interferon Hemoglobin Haptoglobin Transferin * Ceruloplasmin 906. The strongest buffer system of blood, which compose 75% from all of the buffer system of blood is: A. Hydrocarbonate B. * Hemoglobin C. Phosphate D. Proteins E. Ammonium 907. The sub-group of chromoproteins, which contain ironporphirine complex, take to: A. Ceruloplasmin B. Transferrin C. Hemocianin D. * Catalase E. Xantinoxidase 908. The three primary types of plasma proteins are: A. Antibodies, metallo-proteins, lipoproteins B. Serum, fibrin, fibrinogen C. * Albumins, globulins, fibrinogen D. Heme, iron, globin E. None of the above 909. The type of plasma protein that helps regulate osmotic pressure is: A. * Albumin. B. Globulin. C. Fibrinogen. D. Hemoglobin. E. Oxyhemoglobin 910. The ultimate source of all types of blood cells are the... A. Thrombocytes B. * Hemocytoblasts C. Myeloid stem cells D. Lymphoid stem cells E. Granular leukocytes 911. The white blood cell that is most like the mast cell is the: A. * Basophil B. Lymphocyte C. Neutrophil D. Eosinophil E. Monocyte 912. There is/are ____ heme group(s) in a molecule of hemoglobin. A. Five B. Four C. Three D. Two E. One 913. These cells have red granules when stained and two lobed nuclei. A. Platelets B. Lymphocytes C. Basophils D. * Eosinophils E. none of the above 914. Thick muscular walls are present in: A. * Arteries B. Arterioles C. Veins D. Venules E. Aorta 915. Thrombocytes is the other name of : A. RBC B. WBC C. * Platelets D. Lymphocytes E. Monocytes 916. Transport form of iron, which delivers the ions of iron (Fe3+), which enter in blood after absorbtion in intestine to the places of depositing and using is: A. Albumin B. Hemoglobin C. * Transferin D. C-reactive protein E. Ferritin 917. Transport of drugs, fatty acids, pigments, ions of metals with blood to the different organs and systems characteristic to albumins owing to their: A. High dyspersity B. Acid properties C. High hydrophilic D. * High adsorbtion E. Small molecular mass 918. Violation of acid-base balance of blood which is characterized the accumulation of acid substances named: A. Alcalosis B. Anaciditas C. Achilia D. * Acidosis E. Hyperaciditas 919. Violation of acid-base balance of blood, which is characterized the accumulation of base substances, named: A. * Alkalosis B. Achilia C. Hyperaciditas D. Acidosis E. Anaciditas 920. Vitamin K is needed for: A. * Blood clotting B. Prevention of sickle cell anemia C. Hemoglobin synthesis D. Prevention of hemolysis E. None of the above 921. What are the two major factors that regulate the movement of water and electrolytes from one fluid compartment to the next? A. Hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure B. Sodium concentration and osmotic pressure C. Hydrostatic pressure and potassium concentration D. * Concentration of all electrolytes combined and water pressure E. Osmotic and hydrostatic pressure 922. What converts fibrinogen to fibrin? A. * Thrombin B. Thromboxane A2 C. Factor XIII D. Tissue thrombopla E. ADP 923. What function of blood belong a concept “oncotic pressure of blood”? A. Gas transport B. Protective C. Detoxification D. Termoregulation E. * Osmotic 924. What is the difference between serum and plasma? A. Plasma contains calcium; serum does not. B. Plasma does not have blood cells; serum does. C. * Plasma contains fibrinogen; serum does not. D. Plasma contains albumin; serum does not. E. Plasma contain zinc; serum does not. 925. What is the most effective intracellular inorganic buffer? A. Bicarbonate B. * Phosphate C. Hemoglobin D. Lactate E. Protein 926. What is the organ that pumps blood all throughout the human body? A. The lungs B. * The heart C. The kidneys D. The blood vessels and capillaries E. The spleen 927. What kinds of polypeptide chains are there in hemoglobin F? A. 2222. B. 222?. C. * 2222. D. 332?. E. 1133. 928. What metabolyt, that is present in erythrocytes, lower the related of haemoglobin to oxygen? A. 1,3-diphosphoglycerate B. Laktat C. * 2,3- diphosphoglycerate D. Pyruvat E. 3-phosphoglycerate aldehyde 929. What method is it possible to distribute on separate fractions the proteins of blood plasma? A. Biuret B. * Electrophoresis C. Heller reaction D. Polarimetric E. Roberts-Stolnikov 930. What part of the blood carries minerals, vitamins, sugar, and other foods to the body's cells? A. * Plasma B. Platelets C. Red corpuscles D. Macrophage E. Eosinophil 931. What protein, assigned for transport, does hemoglobin bind ti in the reticuloendotelial system of the liver? A. Haptoglobin B. Albumin C. Ferritin D. Transferrin E. Ceruloplasmin 932. When oxygen is carried by the blood, it is bonded to A. Platelets. B. Antibodies. C. Plasma. D. * Hemoglobin. E. Water 933. Which cell count tends to be elevated when an individual has an allergy or parasitic worms? A. Red blood cells B. Erythrocyte C. * Esinophil D. Platelet E. Monocites 934. Which element in the blood is round and colourless? A. Plasma B. Platelets C. Red blood cells D. * White blood cells E. Globulins 935. Which formed elements are most directly associated with the immune responses that defend the body against pathogens? A. Erythrocytes B. * Leucocytes C. Platelets D. None of the above (the immune response is strictly a function of plasma) E. All of the above 936. Which indexes be responsible for the normal volume of blood in adult? A. 15 l B. 25 l C. * 5 l D. 50 l E. 2 l 937. Which indexes of blood in men indicate hypohemoglobinemia? A. * 100 g/l B. 130 g/l C. 145 g/l D. 155 g/l E. 160 g/l 938. Which indexes of blood in women indicate hypohemoglobinemia? A. 120 g/l B. 130 g/l C. 145 g/l D. 115 g/l E. * 80 g/l 939. Which is the most common type of blood cell in a healthy human? A. * Erythrocytes B. Monocytes C. Lymphocytes D. Eosinophils E. Basophils 940. Which of the following does not occur as a result of a shift in the acid- base balance of the body? A. An alteration in the rate of enzyme-controlled metabolic reactions B. An increase in metabolic efficiency within the cells C. * A shift in the distribution of other ions D. A modification in hormone actions E. Hypovitaminosis 941. Which of the following is a function of the vertebrate circulatory system? A. Temperature regulation B. Transport metabolic wastes C. Provide immune defense D. Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide E. * All of the above 942. Which of the following is a type of leukocyte? A. Macrophage B. Eosinophil C. Monocyte D. * All of the above E. None of the above 943. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of red blood cells? A. B. C. D. E. Biconcave disks No nucleus Some hormones * All of the above None of the above 944. Which of the following is NOT a component of blood plasma? A. Carbon dioxide B. * Hemoglobin C. Oxygen D. Ions E. Hormones 945. Which of the following is NOT a type of blood vessel? A. Artery B. Vein C. * Lymphatic cell D. Aorta E. Venules 946. Which of the following is NOT a type of granular white blood cell? ____ A. Monocytes B. Neutrophils C. * Eosinophils D. Basophils E. None of the above; all are granular 947. Which of the following is not found in blood? A. Fibrinogen B. Glucose C. Urea D. * Glycogen E. Globulins 948. Which of the following is NOT needed for blood clotting? A. * Vitamin A B. Vitamin K C. Calcium D. Thrombin E. Prothrombin 949. Which of the following is the major form of hemoglobin produced in red blood cells during normal adult life? A. * Alpha2/beta2 B. Alpha2/gamma2 C. Zeta2/epsilon2 D. Alpha2/delta2 E. Alpha2/epsilon2 950. Which of the following plasma proteins are not produced by the liver? A. * Gamma globulin B. Albumin C. Beta globulins D. Fibrinogen E. Ceruloplasmin 951. Which of the following statements about circulatory systems is true? A. Hormones are transported in the blood. B. All invertebrates have an open circulatory system. C. Capillaries have thicker walls than veins do. D. The systemic circulation carries blood to and from the lungs. E. * All of the above are true. 952. Which of the following statements concerning platelets is INCORRECT. Platelets: A. Contain DNA B. Are roughly disk-shaped C. Have little ability to synthesize proteins D. Synthesis: actin, miosyn, troponin E. * Take part in reactions: adgesion, agregation, secretion 953. Which of the following would decrease blood pressure? A. * An increase in the enzyme renin B. An increase in blood volume C. A decrease in Angiotensin II D. An increase in hematocrit E. A decrease of globulins 954. Which of these is considered a secondary defense against changes in pH? A. * Renal excretion of hydrogen ions B. The bicarbonate buffer system C. The phosphate buffer system D. The protein buffer system E. The hemoglobin buffer system 955. Which one of the following has the greatest capacity to bind oxygen? A. * Iron in heme portion of hemoglobin B. Carbon in heme portion of hemoglobin C. Hydrogen in heme portion of hemoglobin D. Carbon in non-heme (protein) portion of hemoglobin E. Nitrogen in non-heme (protein) portion of hemoglobin 956. Which one of the following is not one of major classes of plasma protein? A. Albumins B. B-globulins C. Fibrinogen D. * Lipoproteins E. E, ,-globulins 957. Which plasma proteins help to regulate osmotic pressure and blood volume? A. * Albumins B. Alfa - globulins C. Fibrinogens D. Alfa- globulins E. E - globulins 958. Which plasma proteins help transport lipids in the bloodstream? A. * Albumins B. Alpha and beta globulins C. Fibrinogen D. Gamma globulins E. Prealbumins 959. Why is oxygen important to blood and to the cells? A. Oxygen helps the blood to clot. B. Oxygen brings food to the cells C. * Oxygen is necessary for cell growth and energy. D. Oxygen is not important - carbon dioxide is the most important substance to the body. E. Oxygen is not important – oxygen free radical is the most important С. С2-macroglobulin A. C-reactive protein B. Crioglobulin C. Blood inhibitios of proteinas D. Albumins 961. At the electrophoretic research of patient blood plasma found interferon. In the area of what fraction be found this protein? A. Globulins B. Albumins C. C2 – Globulins D. * Globulins E. E - Globulins 962. Ceruloplasmin is the protein of: A. A-globulin fraction. B. B1-globulin fraction. C. * C2-globulin fraction. D. D-globulin fraction. E. prealbumin 963. Electrophoresis of blood proteins carry out at pH: A. 5,5 B. 7,0 C. * 8,6 D. 4,7 E. 3,0 964. Red blood cells are destroyed in the : A. Lungs B. * Liver C. Heart D. Spleen E. Kidney 965. The plasma concentration of IgA is A. 1–5 mg/dl B. 40–200 mg/dl C. * 60–500 mg/dl D. 700–1,500 mg/dl E. None of the above 966. The transport of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver takes place with the help of such enzyme: A. Lipoprotein lipase B. * Lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase C. Cholesterol esterase D. Lecithinase E. Acetyl choline esterase 967. ____________ is hydrolytically cleaved to directly yield urea in the urea cycle. A. ornithine B. glutamate C. * arginine D. carbamoyl phosphate E. None of the above 968. A deficiency in complement proteins or in their regulators can result in A. blood in the urine from erythrocyte lysis. B. decreased levels of certain complement proteins in the circulation. 960. C. immune complex disease. D. increased numbers of infections. E. * All of the above can result from complement deficiencies. 969. A deficiency in complement proteins or in their regulators can result in A. blood in the urine from erythrocyte lysis. B. decreased levels of certain complement proteins in the circulation. C. * immune complex disease. D. increased numbers of infections. E. All of the above can result from complement deficiencies. 970. A Fab fragment: A. * binds antigen. B. is produced by pepsin digestion. C. lacks light chains. D. has no interchain disulfide bonds. E. is all of the above. 971. A reaction of cooperation of antibodies with an antigen is high-specific and takes place due to the followings types of bonds, except: A. Hydrogenic B. Electrostatic C. * Peptide D. Vandervaal's E. Hydrophobic 972. Acidosis results in increasing levels of what ion? A. Calcium B. Chloride C. Sodium D. Phosphorus E. * Hydrogen 973. All of the following processes can be activated by complement except A. inflammation B. * antibody production C. cytolysis D. opsonization E. none of the above 974. Allergic reactions are mediated by A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. * IgE E. All of the above 975. Among transport forms of lipids distinguish LDH (beta-lipoproteins). What from the below mentioned correlations of proteins, triacylglycerols, cholesterol and phospholipids proper to the molecular form of beta – lipoproteins? A. * 21 : 14 : 58: 8 B. 35 : 50 : 12 : 3 C. 10 : 5 : 60 : 25 D. 15 : 20 : 30 : 35 E. 2 : 85 : 5 : 7 976. An antigen after incorporation into an organism contacts with the receptors of lymphocytes, causes the transition of cells to a mitotic cycle. Transfer of the signal from a membrane is carried out with the help of mediators. Which from them does not participate in this process? A. B. C. D. E. Inositol triphosphate Diacylglycerol Ions of Ca++ * UTP cGМP 977. An immunoglobulin found in exocrine secretions is A. * IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE E. All of these 978. An immunoglobulin which can cross the placental barrier is A. IgA B. IgM C. IgD D. * IgG E. None of these 979. Antibodies are powerful weapons in the body's defense against microorganisms. However, there are limits to what an antibody can actually do. Which of the following is NOT an action that an antibody can actually accomplish? A. cause an agglutination of antibodies and antigens, forming an antibody–antigen complex B. attach to a bacterial cell antigen, preventing the bacterium from attaching to anything else C. start a complement protein cascade D. * poke microscopic "holes" in a bacterial cell membrane, causing it to die E. Both A and D are correct 980. Antibodies are produced as a reaction to the presence of : A. Red blood cells B. Haemoglobin C. * Antigens D. White blood cells E. Platelets 981. Antigen presenting cells are important in that they: A. allow B-cells to recognize a viral invader B. * allow helper T-cells to recognize a viral invader C. allow cytotoxic T-cells to be suppressed D. allow helper T-cells to fight a viral invader E. all of the above 982. As a result of development of kidney insufficiency a patient has a necessity for the transplantation of a kidney. Which analysis must be done to avoid tearing away of transplanted organ? A. To define the amount of gamma-globulins in blood B. To define the amount of lymphocytes in blood C. * To define the proteins of main complex of histocompatability in leucocytes D. To discover state of the system of complement in blood of recipient E. To define A/G coefficient. 983. As complement is activated by complexes of antibody-coated bacteria, bystander lysis of nearby host cells is prevented by A. a long-lived thioester bond on active complement proteins. B. covalent attachment of all active complement proteins to the pathogen surface. C. plasma proteins that inactivate the anaphylatoxins. D. * proteins on host cell membranes that inhibit MAC formation. E. the slow catalytic rates of complement proteases. 984. As result of incorporation of antigen in an organism takes place a complex of biochemical processes, directed on it neutralization and deletion. Choose from the below mentioned an incorrect immune responses of organism: A. Binding of antigen to the proteins-receptors of lymphocytes B. * Activating of gluconeogenesis C. Activating, prolipheration, differentiation of T-cell D. Modification of B-lymphocytes in plasmatic cells and synthesis of antibodies E. Activating of the system of complement, endocytosis and lysis of the antigen by tissue macrophages 985. B-cells do which of the following? A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells B. Respond to antigens by making antibodies C. Act as antigen-processing cells D. * All of the above E. None of the above 986. Chemical nature of immunoglobulins: A. Lipoproteins B. * Glykoproteins C. Phosphoproteins D. Chromoproteins E. Nukleoproteins 987. Chylomicrones are formed in the ____________________ and their main function is the __________________________________. A. wall of intestine; transport of cholesterol; B. liver; transport of triacylglycerols synthesized in liver; C. * wall of intestine; transport of dietary triacylglycerols; D. blood; transport of cholesterol. E. all of the above. 988. Complement activity is restricted by all of the following EXCEPT A. dissociation of C3 and C5 convertases. B. Gram positive cell walls that are resistant to MAC polymerization. C. host cell plasma proteins that inactivate C3a, C4a, and C5a activity. D. * LPS in the outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria that inactivates C3b. E. proteolytic cleavage of complement proteins into smaller fragments. 989. Complement factors C5b+C6+C7+C8 make up a membrane attack complex that results in A. enhanced phagocytosis B. opsonization C. * cytolysis D. all of the above E. none of the above 990. Complement is A. activated by binding to specific complement receptors. B. antigen-specific. C. a potent promoter of virus entry into host cells. D. a series of intracellular proteins which work with antibody to eliminate endogenous antigen E. * present in the circulation in an inactive form. 991. Complement is A. activated by binding to specific complement receptors. B. antigen-specific. C. a potent promoter of virus entry into host cells. D. a series of intracellular proteins which work with antibody to eliminate endogenous antigen. E. * present in the circulation in an inactive form. 992. Complement is involved in all of the following except A. attraction of neutrophils to an infection site. B. increased presence of serum proteins in the infected tissues. C. lysis of bacteria in the absence of specific antibodies. D. opsonization of microorganisms for phagocytosis. E. * sensitization of T cells to antigen 993. Complement is involved in all of the following except A. attraction of neutrophils to an infection site. B. increased presence of serum proteins in the infected tissues. C. lysis of bacteria in the absence of specific antibodies. D. opsonization of microorganisms for phagocytosis. E. sensitization of T cells to antigen 994. Complement receptors (CR) A. activate complement on the surface of pathogens. B. bind only activated complement proteins. C. inhibit complement activation on the surface of host cells. D. * on erythrocytes remove immune complexes from the circulation. E. on macrophages signal host cells to make opsonins. 995. Complement system can be activated by binding of antigen to A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. * IgM E. IgC 996. Complement: A. is a group of active proteolytic enzymes found in serum. B. is secreted by macrophages and hepatocytes in response to antigen binding. C. participates in both innate and adaptive immune responses. D. couses lysis of cells. E. * All of the above statements about complement are true. 997. Components of the Fab fragment include: A. an entire light chain. B. the J chain. C. the VH and CH1 domains. D. the carboxyl terminal portion of the heavy chain. E. * a and c are correct 998. Diabetic ketoacidosis is an example of which imbalance? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. * Metabolic acidosis E. Respiratory chain 999. Disulfide linkage between the heavy (H) and light (L) chains of most immunoglobulins is between: A. constant (C) L and CH1 segments. B. variable (V) L and VH segments. C. L chain joining (J) segments and H chain J segments. D. CL and CH2 segments. E. none of the above 1000. Enzyme of capillary walls lipoprotein lipase named the factor of transparensy of blood. What function does it execute? A. Transformation of LDH into HDL B. Hydrolysis of constitutional fats C. * Mobilization of fat from chylomicrons D. Mobilization of cholesterol from peripheral tissues E. Mobilization of reserve fat 1001. Essence of immune reaction of organism is formation of antibodies against foreign factors. Choose what from below mentioned functions are not specific for the antibodies: A. Fastening and activating of complement B. * Ability to change membrane potential of the antigen C. Binding to the receptors on the cells surface of macrophages D. Binding to the receptors of mast cell E. Ability to penetrate the placenta barrier 1002. From a liver neutral fats are transported as VLDL. What from the below mentioned correlations of proteins, triacylglycerols, cholesterol and phospholipids proper to the molecular form of VLDL? A. 15 : 20 : 20 : 45 B. 45 : 8 : 38 : 10 C. 2 : 90 : 5 : 3 D. 21 : 14 : 58 : 8 E. * 8 : 60 : 20 : 15 1003. HDL carry out a transport of: A. Free fatty acids to the liver B. Cholesterol from a liver in extra hepatic tissues C. Cholesterol from tissues to the liver D. Triacylglycerols from an intestine E. Glycerol from adipose tissue to the liver 1004. HDL carry out a transport of: A. Free fatty acids to the liver B. Cholesterol from a liver in extra hepatic tissues C. Cholesterol from tissues to the liver D. Triacylglycerols from an intestine E. Glycerol from adipose tissue to the liver 1005. HDL carry out a transport of: A. Free fatty acids to the liver B. Cholesterol from a liver in extra hepatic tissues C. Cholesterol from tissues to the liver D. Triacylglycerols from an intestine E. Glycerol from adipose tissue to the liver 1006. How is it a mother who is breast feeding positively affects her baby's immune system? A. she gives her baby permanent antibodies she has produced B. she gives her baby antigens she has produced in her breast milk C. * she gives her baby antibodies she has produced in her breast milk D. she gives her baby immune cells to fight incoming invaders E. Both C and B are correct. 1007. Hyperuricemia is the increase of uric acid level more than: A. * 0,5 mmol/l B. C. D. E. 0,1 mmol/l 10 mmol/l 1 mmol/l 2 mmol/l 1008. Hyperuricemia is the increase of uric acid level more than: A. * 0,5 mmol/l B. 0,1 mmol/l C. 10 mmol/l D. 1 mmol/l E. 2 mmol/l 1009. If a person is born without C2 and C4, A. C5 can still be cleaved by the classical pathway. B. C3b will not be able to bind to bacteri C. C9 will polymerize inappropriately and lyse host cells. D. the classical pathway will be changed into the alternative pathway. E. * the amount of C3b produced during bacterial infections will be reduced. 1010. If a person is born without C2 and C4, A. C5 can still be cleaved by the classical pathway. B. C3b will not be able to bind to bacteria C. C9 will polymerize inappropriately and lyse host cells. D. * the classical pathway will be changed into the alternative pathway. E. the amount of C3b produced during bacterial infections will be reduced. 1011. If all of your cells are covered in antigens (and they are), why doesn't your immune system kill/attack all cells? A. because your immune system is dedicated to finding invaders B. * because your immune system is very sophisticated C. because your healthy cells are not "tagged" in any way D. because your cells are "tagged" healthy by cell membrane protiens. E. all of the above 1012. If an amino acid is glucogenic, it will not be degraded to ______. A. pyruvate B. oxaloacetate C. fumarate D. * acetoacetate E. malate 1013. IgD A. is the predominant antibody in colostrum, B. * is present on the surface of all mature B cells, C. has a molecular weight of 150,000, D. mediates precipitation reactions, E. is none of these. 1014. IgE A. * increases in individuals with parasitic infections, B. is the major agglutinating antibody, C. is a and b, D. is none of these E. all of these. 1015. IgG is not A. the major antibody that confers passive immunity on the fetus, B. divided into five subclasses, C. made up of two antigen-binding sites, D. * all of these, E. none of these. 1016. IgM is A. not involved in agglutination (clumping) reactions, B. found as a pentamer on the B lymphocyte’s surface, C. the predominant antibody in the serum, D. * a pentamer in the blood, E. none of these. 1017. IgM possesses A. Two light chains and two heavy chains B. Four light chains and four heavy chains C. Six light chains and six heavy chains D. * Ten light chains and ten heavy chains E. None of these 1018. Immune complexes consist of A. antibody plus complement B. basophil plus complement C. * antigen plus antibody D. antigen plus complement E. antigen plus basophil 1019. Immune status of organism is provided by: A. * Leukocytes B. Trombocytes C. Erythrocytes D. Hemoglobin E. Bilirubin 1020. Immunoglobulins are classified on the basis of A. Type of light chains B. * Type of heavy chains C. Types of light and heavy chains D. Molecular weight E. All of these 1021. In blood of healthy man supported the constant concentration of hydrogen ions, that put in arterial plasma: A. 7,26± 0,04 B. 7,16± 0,04 C. 7,96± 0,04 D. * 7,36± 0,04 E. 7,46± 0,04 1022. In the electrophoresis studies by Tiselius and Kabat, their conclusion was that antibody molecules are: A. alpha-globulins. B. beta-globulins. C. gamma-globulins. D. albumins. E. none of the above 1023. In the membrane attack phase of the classical complement pathway, the role of C5b is to A. activate the C5 convertase activity. B. attract neutrophils to lyse the pathogen. C. * initiate formation of the MAC. D. polymerize into a membrane-spanning channel. E. All of these are activities of C5b. 1024. In the membrane attack phase of the classical complement pathway, the role of C5b is to A. activate the C5 convertase activity. B. attract neutrophils to lyse the pathogen. C. initiate formation of the MAC. D. polymerize into a membrane-spanning channel. E. * All of these are activities of C5b. 1025. In the presence of activated complement, neutrophils A. are repelled B. produce histamine C. cause vasodilation D. * degranulate and release enzymes that cause tissue damage E. cause vasoconstriction 1026. Indicate proteins that dont belong to fractions of globulins: A. Ceruloplazmin B. B1-antitrypsin C. Transferin D. Haptoglobin E. * Fibrinogen 1027. Intermediate size complexes A. become basophils B. * activate complement C. are removed by phagocytosis D. degranulate E. all of the above 1028. Isotypes refer to variations in the A. light chain variable region B. light chain constant region C. heavy chain variable region D. * heavy chain constant region E. Any of the above 1029. LDL are formed in the ____________________ and it is the major carrier of _____________________________________________________. A. wall of intestine; dietary triacylglycerols; B. liver; triacylglycerols synthesized in liver; C. * blood and liver; cholesterol (transport cholesterol to peripheral tissues); D. blood and liver; cholesterol (transport cholesterol to liver from peripheral tissues). E. all of the above. 1030. Light chains of immunoglobulins are of following types: A. Alpha and kappa B. Alpha and gamma C. Lambda and delta D. * Kappa and lambda E. All of these 1031. Lipids are transported in blood with proteins, formed lipoprotein complexes. They are determined with a method: A. Chromatography B. Salting-out C. Spectral analysis D. * Electrophoresis E. Rephractometria 1032. Lipids are transported in blood with proteins, formed lipoprotein complexes. They are determined with a method: A. Chromatography B. Salting-out C. Spectral analysis D. * Electrophoresis E. Rephractometria 1033. Lipoproteinlipase – enzyme which is located ________________________ and hydrolyses _____________________________________. A. in the wall of intestine; triacylglycerols of chylomicrons; B. * within capillaries of muscles and adipose tissue; triacylglycerols of chylomicrons and VLDL; C. within capillaries of muscles and adipose tissue; cholesterol esters of LDL; D. in the blood; cholesterol esters of LDL. E. all of the above. 1034. Lipoproteins have a micellar structure. The nucleus of lipoproteins is made with hydrophobic compounds; the membrane is formed with hydrophilic radicals. Choose compounds of nucleus: A. Free cholesterol B. Free fatty acids C. Ethers of cholesterol, triacylglycerols D. Phospholipids, glycolipids E. Glycerol, monoacylglycerols 1035. Lipoproteins have a micellar structure. The nucleus of lipoproteins is made with hydrophobic compounds; the membrane is formed with hydrophilic radicals. Choose compounds of nucleus: A. Free cholesterol B. Free fatty acids C. Ethers of cholesterol, triacylglycerols D. Phospholipids, glycolipids E. Glycerol, monoacylglycerols 1036. Low density lipoproteins transport ________________ from __________ to _________________. A. triacylglycerols; intestine; liver B. * cholesterol; liver; peripheral tissues; C. cholesterol; peripheral tissues; liver D. triacylglycerols; liver; adipose tissue and muscles E. triacylglycerols; liver; muscles 1037. Name glycogenic amino acids: A. Valine, phenilalanine B. Leucine, tryptophan C. Glutamate, aspartate D. Serine, isoleucine E. * Methionine, valine 1038. Name glycogenic amino acids: A. Valine, phenilalanine B. Leucine, tryptophan C. Glutamate, aspartate D. Serine, isoleucine E. * Methionine, valine 1039. Name glycogenic amino acids: A. Valine, phenilalanine B. C. D. E. Leucine, tryptophan Glutamate, aspartate Serine, isoleucine * Methionine, valine 1040. Neutral fats in blood are transported as chylomicrons. What from the below mentioned correlations of proteins, triacylglycerols, cholesterol and phospholipids proper to the molecular form of chylomicrons? A. 15 : 20 : 30 : 35 B. 21 : 14 : 58 : 8 C. 10 : 5 : 60 : 25 D. * 2 : 90 : 5 : 3 E. 35 : 50 : 12 : 3 1041. Nitric oxide is produced from which reaction? A. * arginine to citrulline B. glutamate to g-ketoglutarate C. bicarbonate to carbamoyl phosphate D. tryptophan to acetyl CoA E. arginine to a-ketoglutarate 1042. Normal level of uric acid in blood is: A. * 0,12-0,46 mmol/l B. 1,7-2,05 mmol/l C. 20-40 grammes/л D. 3,3-5,5 mmol/l E. 3-8 mmol/l 1043. ? On the surface of lymphoid cells (B-lymphocytes) proteins -receptors which recognize and specifically link antigens are placed. Which chemical nature of these receptors? A. Histons B. Proteins C. Krioglobulines D. * Immunoglobulines E. Globin 1044. Once vaccinated, you have had a primary exposure to specific antigens. If you ever encounter this antigen again, you will mount a rapid immune response due to: A. cytotoxic T cells B. antibodies C. antigen presenting cells D. * memory cells E. all of the above 1045. One of the transport forms of lipoproteins o blood there is HDL (alphalipoproteins). What from the below mentioned correlations of proteins, triacylglycerols, cholesterol and phospholipids proper to the molecular form of alpha-lipoproteins? A. 10 : 5 : 60 : 25 B. * 45 : 8 : 38 : 10 C. 25: 15 : 58: 2 D. 2 : 90 : 3 : 5 E. 15 : 20 : 30 : 35 1046. Opsonization is A. a membrane attack complex lysing a bacterium by making a hole in its membrane B. when complement causes inflammation to occur C. when the nine complement factors cascade in order D. * coating of a bacterium with antibody to make it more susceptible to phagocytosis E. none of the above 1047. Pollen often causes such allergic reactions as itch, edem Simultaneously in an organism the enhanceable amount of histamine accompanies: A. * Dilatation of blood vessels and increase their permeability B. High blood pressure C. Diminishing of the synthesis of immunoglobulins D. Degradation of antibodies E. Activation of a histidin decarboxylase 1048. Proteins of main complex of histocompatability are the main proteins of immunological individuality of organism. All below mentioned functions inherent them EXEPT: A. Participating is in cooperation between lymphoid cells B. They are proteins of transplantation C. * Execute a catalytic function D. Participating in cooperating with an antigen on the cells surface E. Send cytotoxic T-effectors to the infected „target”. 1049. Recognition of antigen is the function of A. Variable region of light chains B. * Variable regions of light and heavy chains C. Constant region of heavy chains D. Constant regions of light and heavy chains E. All of these 1050. Recognition of foreign factors (antigens) in an organism carries out lymphocytes with the help of proteins-receptors. How many molecules of immunoglobulin are placed on the surface of lymphoid cell: A. * About 105 B. 10-20 molecules C. Near 1000 molecules D. 1010 E. None of above 1051. Reliability of implementation of protective function of organism is provided by the numerous factors of the immune system. Immune function is inherent to all below mentioned factors except: A. Plenty of clones of B- lymphocytes B. A high affinity of membranes immunoglobulins to the antigens C. Cooperation of many clones of B- lymphocytes with antigen D. Presence in the organism of activated B- lymphocytes as cells of „memory” to the certain antigens E. * Sufficient content of proteins in blood 1052. Secretory component is present in A. * IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. All of these E. None of these 1053. Specific immunity can be acquired either naturally or artificially and involves A. antigens B. antibodies C. the classical complement pathway. D. * All of the above. E. None of the above. 1054. System of complement is important factor of defense of organism from infections. Activating of the system takes place with: A. Oxidation B. hydroxylation C. Conjugation D. * Partial proteolysis E. Association of subunits 1055. Technogenic, ecological, social and other factors often result in the damage of the immune system of organism, reduce resistance of human organism to the infections. Immunological insufficiency can be result of such disorders except: A. * Insufficient synthesis by the liver of gamma-globulins B. Deficiency of stem cells of bony marrow C. Disorders of activating of T-cells D. Disorders of function B-lymphocytes and secretion of antibodies E. Deficiency of the system of complement 1056. The allergic reaction of organism is related to activating of complement by a partial hydrolysis. Among the below named functions of the low-molecular peptides choose correct: A. Diminish the amount of eosinophils and basophiles B. Weaken construction of smooth muscles C. * Increase permeability of walls of capillaries D. Diminish permeability of walls of capillaries E. Strengthen the chemo taxis of leucocytes. 1057. The alternative pathway of complement activation A. causes tissue damage in the absence of C1INH. B. occurs after the classic pathway is activated. C. occurs only if the classical pathway is ineffective in pathogen clearance. D. * requires C3 E. requires C4 1058. The alternative pathway of complement activation A. causes tissue damage in the absence of C1INH B. occurs after the classic pathway is activated C. occurs only if the classical pathway is ineffective in pathogen clearance. D. * requires C3 E. requires C4 1059. The amount of cholesterol in blood plasma is in normal state: A. * 3-7 mmol/l B. 10-15 mmol/l C. 20-25 mmol/l D. 1-3 mmol/l E. 5-7 mmol/l 1060. The antigen-binding sites of an antibody molecule are located in the A. C region of light chains, B. V region of light chains, C. C region of heavy chains, D. V region of heavy chains, E. * regions of both light and heavy chains, 1061. The basic event in the formation of a blood clot is the change of A. * Fibrinogen to fibrin B. Fibrin to fibrinogen C. Thrombin to prothrombin D. Vitamin K to prothrombin E. Fibrin to thrombin 1062. The basic structural units of an immunoglobulin molecule include: A. * two identical heavy and two identical light chains. B. one constant and three variable regions. C. identical kappa and lambda light chains. D. a total of five domains. E. all of the above 1063. The class-specific antigenic determinants of immunoglobulins are associated with: A. chains. B. light chains. C. disulfide bonds. D. * heavy chains E. variable regions 1064. The class-specific antigenic determinants of immunoglobulins are associated with the A. light chain, B. * heavy chain, C. J chain, D. secretory component, E. none of these. 1065. The component of blood that is responsible for clotting is: A. * Platelets B. Erythrocytes C. Neutrophils D. Basophils E. None of the above 1066. The concentration of urea in the blood of healthy adult is: A. 10-12 mM/l B. 12-20 mM/l C. 1-2 mM/l D. * 3-8 mM/l E. 15-18 mM/l 1067. The damage of the immune system reduces resisting of human organism to the infections. Immune status of organism depends on the followings structures, except: A. Bony marrow B. Thymus C. Tissue macrophages D. Lymphatic nodes E. * Hypophysis 1068. The decrease of urea in blood is observed in some conditions, except: A. Kidney diseases B. * Diabetes Mellitus C. Long starvation D. Excessive proteins in food E. Toxic goіter 1069. The decrease of urea in blood is observed in some conditions, except: A. Kidney diseases B. * Diabetes Mellitus C. Long starvation D. Excessive proteins in food E. Toxic goіter 1070. The disease AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). One of the reasons why this disease has resisted a cure is because it attacks the body's immune system, the very system that is designed to resist viral infections. Which of the immune system cells does the AIDS virus specifically target for infection? A. B cells B. * Helper T cells C. memory cells D. natural killer cells E. none of the above 1071. The effector function of antibody is performed by A. Variable region of light chains B. Constant region of heavy chains C. Variable regions of light and heavy chains D. * Constant regions of light and heavy chains E. Constant region of light chains 1072. The following acute phase protein increase dramatically in concentration during inflammation : A. ceruloplasmin B. haptoglobulin C. C-reactive protein D. fibrinogen E. C3 1073. The functions of HDL is a transport of: A. Triacylglycerols from a liver B. Cholesterol from an extra hepatic tissues to liver C. Phospholipids from an intestine D. Free fatty acids to the liver E. * Cholesterol from a liver to extra hepatic tissues 1074. The half-life of IgG is A. 2–3 days B. 5–6 days C. 8–10 days D. * 20–25 days E. 5-6 hours 1075. The hinge region of an IgG heavy chain is located: A. between VH and CH1. B. * between CH1 and CH2. C. between CH2 and CH3. D. between CH3 and CH4. E. within the CH1 intrachain loops. 1076. The idiotype of an antibody molecule is determined by the amino acid sequence of the: A. variable region of the light chain. B. * variable regions of the heavy and light chains. C. constant region of the light chain. D. constant region of the heavy chain. E. constant regions of the heavy and light chains. 1077. The immunoglobulin having the longest half-life is A. IgA B. * IgG C. IgM D. IgE E. IgD 1078. The immunological response of organism for foreign factors is closely related to the functions of proteins of main complex of histocompatability that initiate the lysis of cells. The mechanism of their action includes the row of processes, except: A. Proteins of main complex of histocompatability send cytotoxic T-effectors to the antigen B. Lymphocyte throws out on a membrane of the „target”-cells (antigen) protein perphorin C. Perphorin forms pores in the cellular membrane of „target” -cells D. * Electrochemical potential changes on the membrane of „target” -cells E. Through pores in a membrane water and electrolytes flow and cause lysis of „target” -cells 1079. The largest immunoglobulin is A. IgA B. IgG C. * IgM D. IgD E. IgE 1080. The largest lipoproteins are the __________. A. * chylomicrons B. VLDLs C. LDLs D. HDLs E. none of the above. 1081. The major amino acid that is released from muscle and converted to glucose in the liver is: A. * Alanine B. Glutamine C. Valine D. Aspartate E. Glutamate 1082. The major amino acid that is released from muscle and converted to glucose in the liver is: A. * Alanine B. Glutamine C. Valine D. Aspartate E. Glutamate 1083. The maturation of T cells and the production of particular T cell receptors occurs in the A. thyroid gland B. * thymus gland C. tonsils D. testes E. all of the above 1084. The minimum number of polypeptide chains in an immunoglobulin is A. Two B. * Four C. Five D. Six E. One 1085. The molecular weight of heavy chains is A. B. C. D. E. 20,000–25,000 25,000–50,000 * 50,000–70,000 70,000–1,00,000 None of these 1086. The molecular weight of light chains is A. 10,000–15,000 B. * 20,000–25,000 C. 25,000–50,000 D. 50,000–75,000 E. None of these 1087. The most abundant immunoglobulin in plasma is A. IgA B. * IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE 1088. The plasma and urine of patients with maple syrup urine disease contain elevated levels of each of the following amino acid, except: A. Valine B. Leucine C. * Lysine D. Isoleucine E. none of above 1089. The possible reason of the increase of uric acid content in blood: A. Action of ionizing radiation B. * Kidney insufficiency C. Leucosis D. Burns E. Malignant tumor 1090. The protective functions of organism are closely related to the immunoglobulins. What from below mentioned descriptions incorrect? A. * Immunoglobulins are synthesed in a liver B. Immunoglobulins belong to fraction of gamma-globulins C. Antibodies neutralize bacterial toxins D. Immune proteins take part in maturing and activating of lymphocytes E. Immunoglobulins contact with bacteria and facilitate their absorption by phagocytes 1091. The ratio of cholesterol in the form of LDL to that in the form of HDL in healthy person is __________ and the ______________ of this ratio is the prognostic symptom of atherosclerosis development. A. 3.5; decrease; B. 0.5; decrease; C. * 3.5; increase; D. 0.5; increase E. 1; increase 1092. The surface of bacterial cells is covered with proteins that the human body can recognize as belonging to a foreign, invading microorganism. These molecules are collectively referred to as . A. antibiotics B. antiseptics C. * antigens D. antibodies E. none of the above 1093. The transport of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver takes place with the help of such enzyme: A. Lipoprotein lipase B. * Lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase C. Cholesterol esterase D. Lecithinase E. Acetyl choline esterase 1094. The variable region of heavy chains has A. One hypervariable region B. Two hypervariable regions C. Three hypervariable regions D. * Four hypervariable regions E. None of the above 1095. The variable region of light chains has A. One hypervariable region B. Two hypervariable regions C. * Three hypervariable regions D. Four hypervariable regions E. All of the above 1096. The variable region of light chains is the A. N-terminal quarter B. * N-terminal half C. C-terminal quarter D. C-terminal half E. None of the above 1097. The wide spectrum of immunological effects is related to the row of soluble factors of protein nature, which produced by T-cell, mast cells, macrophages, fibroblasts. All below named proteins belong to these factors, except: A. * Liberines and statins B. Cytokines, monokines C. Lymphokines, lymphotoxins D. Interleukins E. Interferon 1098. To the deficiency of which immune proteins AIDS related? A. B1- antitrypsin B. * ? - globulins C. С-reactive protein D. Macroglobulin E. Ceruloplazmin 1099. Transplantation of organs and cells between persons, which are not relatives, frequently leads to tearing away of transplanted organ. What proteins are unique for each organism and serve as the markers of immunological individuality of organism? A. Immunoglobulins of B- lymphocytes B. Proteins-receptors of T-cell C. Proteins of the system of complement D. * Proteins of I class of main complex of histocompatability E. Proteins of II class of main complex of histocompatability 1100. Transport forms of blood lipids are different lipid-protein complexes. There are all the followings compound in their composition, except: A. * Free fatty acids B. C. D. E. Proteins Neutral fats Phospholipids Esters of cholesterol 1101. Transport forms of blood lipids are different lipid-protein complexes. There are all the followings compound in their composition, except: A. * Free fatty acids B. Proteins C. Neutral fats D. Phospholipids E. Esters of cholesterol 1102. Transport forms of blood lipids are different lipid-protein complexes. There are all the followings compound in their composition, except: A. * Free fatty acids B. Proteins C. Neutral fats D. Phospholipids E. Esters of cholesterol 1103. What are the two types of immunity? A. adaptive, innate B. * active, adaptive C. inactive, innate D. acquired, inactive E. inactive, active 1104. What can be a cause of immunodeficiencies? A. Genetic factors B. Malnutrition C. Both B and C D. Drugs used to treat certain diseases E. * All are correct 1105. What is an allergy, in physiological terms? A. an overreaction to antibodies B. an overreaction to a pathogen C. * an overreaction to antigens D. a pathogen driven result E. none of the above 1106. What is the difference between serum and plasma? A. Plasma contains calcium; serum does not. B. Plasma does not have blood cells; serum does. C. * Plasma contains fibrinogen; serum does not. D. Plasma contains albumin; serum does not. E. Plasma contain zinc; serum does not. 1107. What is the source of control on the immune system? A. cytotoxic T-cells B. macrophages C. B-cells D. * suppressor T-cells E. all of the above 1108. What kind of cells produce antibodies? A. T cells B. * B cells C. NK cells D. Neutrophils E. Basophils 1109. Which amino acids are purely ketogenic? A. arginine and lysine B. leucine only C. tryptophan only D. * lysine and leucine E. None of the above 1110. Which class of antibody binds to poly-Ig receptor in order to cross into the lumen of the gut? A. * IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE 1111. Which class of antibody crosses the placenta and provides the newborn with passive immunity? A. . IgA B. * IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE 1112. Which class of antibody is found in the highest concentration in the blood? A. IgA B. * IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE 1113. Which class of antibody is secreted into breast milk where it is delivered to the suckling neonate, and transported through the gut lumen into blood of the neonate? A. * IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE 1114. Which class of antibody is the first antibody produced in response to an antigen challenge? A. IgA B. IgG C. * IgM D. IgD E. IgE 1115. Which class of antibody that is secreted is most likely of low affinity? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. * IgE 1116. Which do you expect to have the highest protein content by percent? A. VLDLs B. ILDs C. * HDLs D. All of the lipids above have about the same protein content. E. none of the above. 1117. Which does not provide long term immunity? A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. * Artificially acquired passive immunity D. All of the above E. None of the above 1118. Which fraction of lipoproteins the less move during electrophoresis? A. LDL B. HDL C. Chylomicrons D. Albumins E. VLDL 1119. Which fraction of lipoproteins the less move during electrophoresis? A. LDL B. HDL C. Chylomicrons D. Albumins E. VLDL 1120. Which is an example of an autoimmune disease? A. AIDS B. Hepatitis C. * Lupus D. Mumps E. All of these 1121. Which is an example of an immunodeficiency disorder? A. thyroiditis B. rheumatic fever C. systemic lupus erythematosus D. * AIDS E. All of the above 1122. Which of the following are least sensitive to complement-mediated lysis? A. Enveloped viruses B. Erythrocytes C. Gram negative bacteria D. * Gram positive bacteria E. Leukocytes 1123. Which of the following is responsible for opening the calcium ion channel during T-helper cell stimulation? A. cAMP B. cGMP C. Tyrosine kinase D. * Inositol trisphosphate E. Protein kinase C 1124. Which of the following plasma proteins are not produced by the liver? A. * Gamma globulin B. Albumin C. Beta globulins D. Fibrinogen E. Ceruloplasmin 1125. Which of these are the most abundant in circulation? A. B. C. D. E. 1126. A. B. C. D. E. 1127. A. B. C. D. E. 1128. A. B. C. D. E. 1129. A. B. C. D. E. 1130. A. B. C. D. E. 1131. A. B. C. D. E. 1132. A. B. C. D. E. 1133. A. B. C. D. * neutrophils mast cells basophils dendritic cells no correct answer Which of these is a professional antigen presenting cell (APC)? erythrocytes * dendritic cells mast cells eosinophils basophils Which of these is a secondary lymphoid organ? * Spleen Heart Kidney Brain Liver Which of these is an autoimmune disease? Rheumatoid Arthritis Graves Disease Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) * All of these Both A and C Which statement(s) apply to urea? highly soluble in water produced in the liver compound used as a means of removing excess nitrogen * all of the above None of the above Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement? IgE IgG1 IgG2 IgG3 * IgM Why is it important to have lymph nodes - immunologically? to house the fluid in your blood to house the mature B-cells and macrophages to house the mature T-cells and macrophages * Both B and C are correct. Both A and B are correct. Why is it important to have suppressor T-cells as part of your immune system? to act as a feedback mechanism to gear up the immune system * to act as a feedback mechanism to gear down the immune system to lower the defences of the individual. to lower the defences of the invaders. to act as a global reactor cell to all invaders. An immunoglobulin is a protein carbohydrate * glycoprotein fatty acid E. nucleic acid 1134. Cell-associated differentiation antigens (CDs) are functional cell surface proteins or receptors that can be measured in situ. A. In normal individuals the concentration of these molecules in serum is always low. B. * Detecting these soluble molecules may help in the management of disease C. Thousands of CDs have been characterized D. All of the above are true E. None of the above are true 1135. Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent? A. IgA B. IgD C. * IgE D. IgG E. IgM 1136. Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of the immunoglobulin pool? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. * IgG E. IgM 1137. Show on the possible sources formation of glucose-6-phosphate in the liver: A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Galactose D. Glycogen E. * All title sources 1138. The following are synthesized in the liver: A. Anti-thrombin III B. * C-reactive protein C. Angiotensinogen. D. Apolipoprotein B E. Cholecystokinin 1139. What is a result of conjugation of isoniazid via N-acetylation? A. * Detoxification of liver B. Detoxification of kidneys C. Detoxification of blood D. Detoxification of urine E. Hepatotoxicity 1140. ________ is/are produced in the liver by a complicated series of reactions A. Amino acids B. Nucleotides C. Creatine phosphate D. Ammonia E. * Urea 1141. A blood test found out the increase maintenance of residual nitrogen, part of urea in residual nitrogen is considerably lowering. For the disease of what organ is characteristic such analysis? A. * Liver B. Stomach C. Intestine D. Kidney E. Heart 1142. A child manifested yellowish skin and mucous membranes on the second day after birth. The cause of such state is a temporal deficiency of: A. Heme oxygenase B. Sulfotransherase C. Heme synthetase D. * UDP-glucuronyltransferase E. Biliverdin reductase 1143. A concentration of general bilirubin in blood of healthy man is: A. * 8-20 mkM/l B. 15-30 mkM/l C. 2-20 mM/l D. 1-10 mM/l E. 1-2 моль/l 1144. A liver functioning improperly in an ill patient may cause the skin to become A. Сyanotic and dry B. * Jaundiced and warm C. Blue and diaphorectic D. None of the above E. Pellagra 1145. A liver provides other organs and tissues for all of substances, except: A. Glucose B. Proteins C. Ketone bodies D. Phospholipids E. * Chylomicrons 1146. A main supplier NH3 to the liver for the synthesis of urea is: A. Glutamic acid B. * Glutamin C. Karbamoilfosfat D. ammonium sulfate to the E. Free NH3 1147. A snakebite results of a hemolitic jaundice for a victim. Which index of blood plasma for a victim does grow above all things? A. * Indirect bilirubin (unconjugated) B. Direct bilirubin (conjugated) C. Uric acid D. Urea E. Cholesterol 1148. Acetyl-CoA in a liver experience the followings transformations, except: A. Use on the synthesis of ketone bodies B. On the synthesis of fatty acids C. On the synthesis of cholesterol D. * On the synthesis of amino acids E. Oxidase to CO2 and H2O 1149. Activity of which enzyme in hepatocytes is most activated at the terms of carbohydrate starvation? A. Hexokinase B. Glycogensintase C. * Glycogenphosphorilase D. Phosphofructomutase E. Al'dolase 1150. Acute toxin induced liver necrosis can be due to A. * Lipid peroxidation B. Binding of toxin to cellular macromolecules C. Mitochondrial damage D. Disruption of cytoskeleton E. All of the above 1151. After starvation which resulted in general exhaustion of patient, in a liver and kidney increases proceses: A. Synthesis of creatin B. Synthesis of bilirubin C. * Gluconeogenesis D. Formation of gipuric acid E. Formation of uric acid 1152. ?All following functions are characteristic for liver, except: A. Regulator-homoeostatic B. Urea formation C. Bile formation D. Detoxification E. * Urine formation 1153. Although small quantities of lipids are normally stored in the liver, most of the synthesized triglycerides are bound to: A. * Hepatocytes in the liver B. Transport proteins C. Adipocytes D. Glucose molecules E. None of the above 1154. Ammonia is formed in the process desamination of connections in a liver utillized on the synthesis of such connections, except: A. Glutamate B. Glutamin C. Urea D. Nitric bases E. * Nitric acid 1155. An excrement contains sick plenty of the unsplit fat and has a white-grey color. Name reason of this phenomenon: A. * Obstruction of gall-bladder B. Lack of pepsin and HCl C. Hypovitaminoses D. Inflammation of bowels E. A lack of carbonhydratess in a meal 1156. Are such functions of bile acids in an organism, except: A. Activating of lipase in an intestine B. Activating of phospholipase C. Emulsification of fats in an intestine D. Participating in absorbtion of fatty acids in enterocytes E. * Participating in resynthesis of fats 1157. At entering in organism big amount of toxic substances glucose-6-phosphate in a liver including in: A. Glycolysis B. Glycogenogenesis C. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle D. * Pentosophosphate cycle E. Gluconeogenesis 1158. At research of blood plasma for a patient the decline level of proteins is set: albumin, fibrinogen, protrombin, transferrin, ceruloplasmin. What does it testify? A. * About decrease synthesis of proteins by a liver B. About detoxification function of liver C. About violation transformation of amino acids D. About violation synthesis of urea and uric acid E. About violation arrives of matters from liver into blood 1159. At the condition of the limited utilisation of carbohydrates and strengthening metabolism of fatty acids an acetyl-CoA little gets in the Krebs cycle and utillized in ketolises. Which from factors does not promote ketolises: A. Starvation B. Diabets Mellitus C. Kidney glucosuria D. Hard physical work, combined with the consumption of alcohol E. * All of above 1160. At the sharp toxic defeats of liver the level of active forms of oxygen sharply grows, that results in destruction of cellular membranes. For this prevention apply antioxidants. The most strong natural antioxidant is: A. * A-tocoferol B. Uric acid C. Creatinine D. Transferrin E. Bilirubin 1161. Being poisoning with mushrooms a patient manifested yellow skin and scleras coloring. The urine become dark. What pigment colored the patients urine with hemolytic jaundice? A. Biliverdin B. Direct bilirubin C. Indirect bilirubin D. * Stercobilin E. Verdohemoglobin 1162. Bile facilitates digestion by causing the _____ of fats A. Hydrolysis B. Digestion C. Catalysis D. * Emulsification E. Synthesize 1163. Bile is stored between meals in the: A. Pyloris B. * Gall bladder C. Salivary glands D. Jejunum E. Stomac 1164. Bile salts are produced by the A. Stomach B. * Liver C. Pancreas D. Gallbladder E. Duodenum 1165. Bile salts are produced by the A. B. C. D. E. Stomach * Liver Pancreas Gallbladder Duodenum 1166. Bile salts combine with fatty acids to form complexes called _____ that facilitate absorption. A. Chylomicrons B. * Micelles C. Globules D. Lipoproteins E. Globulins 1167. Bilirubin is produced as the result of: A. Digestion of salts B. Digestion of carbohydrates C. Digestion of phospholipid D. * Digestion of hemoglobin E. Absorbtion of carbohydrates 1168. Biosynthesis of glycogen in liver is stimulated all indicated factors, except: A. Insulin B. * Glucagon C. Hyperglycemia D. ATP E. Glycogensynthase, glicosyl-4,6-transferase 1169. Blood test for a patient is discovered: the concentration of albumin makes 20 g/l, increasing activity of lactatgehydrogenase (LDG5). The disease of what organ is correspond to this index? A. * Liver B. Kidney C. Heart D. Pancreas E. Lung 1170. Brake oxidation of glucose and promote its converting into glycogen in a liver all adopted components, except: A. ATP B. NADH C. Fatty acids D. Amino acids, citrate E. * Adrenalin, glucagon 1171. By which ways pyruvat or lactat can transform on glucose-6-phosphate? A. Glycolis B. Crebs cycle C. Condensation D. Penthosophosphate cycle E. * Gluconeogenesis 1172. Chilomicrons enter the A. Kidney B. * Lymphatic capillaries C. Liver D. Blood capillaries E. All of the above 1173. Chilomicrons enter the A. B. C. D. E. Kidney * Lymphatic capillaries Liver Blood capillaries All of the above 1174. Cholesterol formed in many tissues and organs, but most in a liver. What function is not inherent him from transferred? A. Serves as basis for formation of bile acids B. Steroid hormones appear from the cholesterol C. In a skin appears from him the vitamin of D3 D. It is the structural component of cellular membranes E. * Serves as energy source 1175. Choose enzyme which carries out conjugation of toxic substances with glucuronic acid: A. Uridiltransferase B. UDP-dehydrogenase C. * UDP-glyucuroniltransferase D. Acetyltransferase E. Glucokinase 1176. Choose peptid which is often utillized in conjugation of xenobiotics: A. * Glutation B. Anserin C. Carnosine D. Bradykinin E. Kalidin 1177. Cytochrome P450 induction (increased, amount of P450 enzyme protein) is often associated with: A. Increased enzyme synthesis rates B. * Reduced enzyme degradation rates C. Both D. Neither E. Only A and B 1178. Damage at which of the following locations would most affect the goals of phase II biotransformation? A. Skin B. Kidneys C. Lungs D. * Liver E. GI Tract 1179. Decomposition of liver’s glycogen. A. * Glucose is generated B. Electrons are passed along cytochromes C. Carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms are released, and two molecules of ATP form D. Oxaloacetic acid is regenerated from coenzyme A E. Lipids are generated 1180. Detoxification of toxic substances takes a place in all of tissues and organs, but a leading place belongs to the: A. Kidney B. Blood C. Intestine D. * Liver E. Lung 1181. Detoxification of xenobiotics (pharmaceutical drugs, epoxides,arenoxydes, aldehydes, nitro derivates etc.) as well as endogenous metabolites (estradiol, prostaglandins and leukotrienes take place in the liver by means of their conjugation with: A. Phosphoadenosine B. Aspartate C. Glycine D. S-adenosylmethionine E. * Glutathion 1182. During glycogenolysis in liver - glycogen transforms into glucose-1-phosphate under act of enzyme: A. Glucokinase B. Hexokinase C. Phosphatase D. * Phosphorylase E. Phosphokinase 1183. During the rest after hard physical work in a liver will be stimulated: A. Glykolysis B. Glycogenolysis C. * Gluconeogenesis from lactat D. Gluconeogenesis from amino acids E. Biosynthesis of fatty acids 1184. Factors affecting hepatic drug clearance: A. * Drug delivery to liver elimination sites B. Extent of plasma protein-bound drug C. Blood flow D. Carrier saturation E. Wally and filtered in the glomerulus 1185. Fats from liver are secreted to blood in composition of: A. LDL B. * VLDL C. HDL D. Chylomicronss E. Triacylglicerol 1186. Fatty acids and glycerol are released when _____ are broken down by liver or muscle cells. A. Micelles B. Acteals C. * Chylomicrons D. Lipoproteins E. Vitamins 1187. Fatty acids in a liver are utillized in all directions, except: A. On the synthesis of fats B. On the synthesis of phospholipids C. On formation of ethers of cholesterol D. Oxidase to acetyl-CoA E. * On the synthesis of amino acids 1188. Fatty acids in a liver experience such transformations, except: A. Formation of fats B. Formation of phospholipids C. Formation of ethers of cholesterol D. Formation of ketone bodies E. * Formation of cholesterol 1189. Ferritin is a globular protein that transports and stores ______ in the liver and blood A. Glycogen B. Lipids C. Vitamin B12 D. * Iron E. Cupper 1190. Finished products metabolism of nitrogencontaining matters in a liver is: A. Bile acids B. * Urea C. Purine basis D. Karnitin E. Ammonia 1191. For a man the broken process synthesis of urea. To pathology of what organ does it testify? A. Urinary bladder B. Kidney C. * Liver D. Muscles E. Pancreas 1192. For a patient with permanent hypoglycemia after introduction of adrenalin maintenance of glucose did not almost change. About the change of what function of liver can there be a language? A. * Glycogendeponilic B. Cholesterolformation C. Ketogenic D. Glycolitic E. Excretory 1193. For days with urine is selected in healthy people of urea in an amount: A. 2-3 g B. 10-15 g C. * 20-30 g D. 80-100g E. 0,2-0,3 g 1194. For determination of antitoxic function of liver to a pacient was appointed the benzoate of sodium which in a liver convert into hypuric acid. Name connection X in a reaction: benzoate of Na + X X hypuric acid: A. * Glycine B. Cystein C. Methionine D. PAPS E. UDP-glucuronic acid 1195. For microsomal oxidation as a donor of hydrogen atoms in main utillized NADPH. Which metabolic way is the basic source of NADPH? A. Glycolise B. Crebs cycle C. * Pentosophosphate cycle D. Gluconeogenesis E. Glycogenolysis 1196. For the treatment of icterus, barbiturates that induce the synthesis of UDPglucuronyltransferase are prescribed. The curavite effect of barbiturates is conditioned by the formation of: A. * Direct (conjugation) bilirubin B. Indirect (conjugation) bilirubin C. Biliverdin D. Protoporphyrin E. Heme 1197. Formation in liver from the glycogen glucose-1-phosphate experience subsequent transformation: A. In to galactose-1-phosphate B. In to fructose-1-phosphate C. Remains without changes D. * In to glucose-6-phosphate E. In to GAF and DOAF 1198. From amino acids in a liver formed such substances, except: A. Proteins B. B-ketoacids C. NH3, hem D. Purine, pirimidine E. * Fatty acids 1199. Genetic deseases which is predefined the lack of glycogensynthetase in a liver, is named aglycogenose. Thus there is observe all, except: A. Considerable decrease of glycogen B. Hypoglycemia is expressed in intervals between the consumption of meal C. A hyperglycaemia lasted after the reception of meal D. Delay of mental development E. * Increase size of liver 1200. Glucose in liver can experience such transformations, except: A. Transformed into glucose-6-phosphate B. Glicolytic oxidation C. Oxidation in the penthosophosphate passways D. Transformed into glycogen E. * Transformed into the vitamin C 1201. Glucose, that arrive with blood from an intestine to the liver, is utillized for all functions, except: A. Formation of glycogen B. Oxidation to CO2 and H2O with selection of energy C. Convert into fats for stocking of energy D. Carried by blood to the brain as source of energy E. * Use for detoxification of ammonia 1202. Glycogenformation in a liver takes a place in a postabsorbtive period with participation of enzymes, except: A. Phosphoglucomutase B. Glucose-1-phosphateurydiltransferase C. Glycogensynthetase D. Glycosil-4G6-transferase E. * Glycogenphosphorilase 1203. Glycogenolysis in a liver increases in such factors, except: A. Glukagon B. Proteinkinase C. * Hyperglycemia D. ADP E. Phosphorylases A 1204. Greater part of steroid hormones metabolised in liver by reduction to tetrahydroderivatives (I stage). With wich matter do they contact (II stage), that results in the loss of them biological action and excreted through kidney? A. Amino acids B. Glutation C. * Glucuronic acid D. Acetic acid E. Acetyl-CoA 1205. Harmless of toxic substanses in a cytoplasmic net passes in two phases. Indacate 2-nd phase: A. Hydroxylating B. * Conjugation C. Phosphorylation D. Dehydration E. Dehydratation 1206. Hepatic flow-dependent drug elimination refers to: A. Changes in plasma protein concentration B. Rate-limiting step is drug delivery to hepatic elimination sites C. Number of functional hepatocytes D. Carrier saturation E. * Drug transfer rates across hepatic cell membrane 1207. In a liver a major role belongs among all of detoxification enzymes systems: A. Hydrolized system of cytoplasm B. Lysosomal C. Peroxidase D. Sinthetase system with formation of conjugats E. Monooxigenase system of cytoplasmic reticulum 1208. In a liver between proteins, lipids and carbohydrates carried out interconversion. In the following schemes indicate, which transformation is unreality: A. Glucosesfats B. Glucose Acetyl-CoA-cholesterol C. Glucose Acetyl-CoA ketone bodies D. Glucose pyruvatpCO2 and H2O E. * Glucose nonsubstitution amino acidsnproteins 1209. In a liver fatty acids transform in such directions, except: A. Fatty acids tfats B. Fatty acids tacytoacetate C. Fatty acids iketone bodies D. Fatty acids tAcetyl-CoA E. * Fatty acids tglucose 1210. In a liver xenobiotics enter in the reaction of conjugation (and detoxification) only those which have certain functional groups or remains of molecules. Such groups are all, except: A. -ОН B. -COOH C. -NH2 D. * -CH3 E. -SH 1211. In a patient which was in the area of radiation defeat, the concentration of malonic dialdehyde, hydroperoxides was increased in blood. Reason of such changes could be: A. B. C. D. E. * Increase in the organism of oxygen radicals and activating peroxidation of lipids Increase of ketone bodies Increase maintenance of lactic acid Increase maintenance of cholesterol Increase maintenance of proteins in blood 1212. In afteroperation period in a patient periodically complication – bleeding comes from a wound. With deficiency in blood of what substance, that is synthesized in a liver it connected? A. Haptoglobin B. * Protrombin C. Heparin D. Creatin E. Ceruloplasmin 1213. In blood of patient found the increasing activity of LDG4,5, AlAT and ornithine carbamoyltransferase. In wich organ is possible development of pathological process? A. In a cardiac muscle (heart attack) B. * In a liver (hepatitis) C. In skeletal muscles D. In kidney E. In connective tissue 1214. In blood plasma distinguish the stated below proteins. Which from them do not appear in a liver?: A. Albumins B. B1-globulins C. C2-globulins D. D-globulins E. * E-globulins 1215. In humans, the liver _________. A. Removes carbon dioxide from the body B. Stores creatine phosphate C. * Converts ammonia to urea D. Regulates the body temperature E. All of the above are liver functions 1216. In the liver, when large amounts of acetyl-CoA are produced, some of the acetylCoA is used to form A. Pyruvic acid B. Citric acid C. * Ketone bodies D. Lactic acid E. Urea 1217. In the membranes of endoplasmatic reticulum of liver there are monooxigenase reactions in which one atom of oxygen is utillized on oxidation of substrate, and second – on formation of H2O. Reaction flows after such scheme: RH + O2 +reconstricte ROH + H2O + oxidation reconstrict Choose what can not be a reconstrict (by the donor of hydrogen) in these reactions: A. NADPH B. NADH C. Cytochrom P-450 D. Cytochrom B5 E. * Vitamin H 1218. In transition from the mixed ration to carbohydrate the biosynthesis of fats is activated in a liver. Promotes this activating some enzymes, except: A. B. C. D. E. Cytratshyntase Acetyl-CоА-carboxilase Palmitilshyntetase Glucose-6-phosphatedehydrogenase * Triacylglicerinlipase 1219. In which of the following diseases will liver tissue be replaced by inactive fibrous scar tissue? A. Hemolytic jaundice B. Obstructive jaundice C. * Viral hepatitis D. Cirrhosis E. Lactose intolerance 1220. Increased catabolism of nitrogencontain connections are accompanied strengthening formation of urea and increase of its maintenance in blood and urine. All belong to such matters, except : A. Amino acids B. Purins C. Pirimidins D. Biogenic аmins E. * Nitric and nitrous acids 1221. Indicate the basic functional differences of microsomal oxidation from mithohondrial: A. * Using of oxygen with «plastic» aims B. Using of oxygen in bioenergetic processes C. Using of energy in a appearance of ATP D. Using of energy in a appearance of GTP E. Using as substrates of FADH2 and FMNH2 1222. Indicate, which bile acid is promote dissolution of cholesterol and gall-stones: A. Cholic B. Desoxycholic C. * Chenodesoxycholic D. Taurocholic E. Litocholic 1223. Investigation of blood serum rotined an increase activity of AlAT, LDG5 and globulin fractions of proteins. Name possible illness which stipulated these changes: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Heart attack of myocardium C. * Sharp toxic hepatitis D. Pancreatitis E. Sharp damage of muscles 1224. Jaundice shows, when a concentration of bilirubin in blood is: A. 20 – 30 mkM/l B. * 35 mkM/l and higher C. 10-15 mkM/l D. 35-40 mM/l E. 1-2 моль/l 1225. Level of which metabolite in hepatocytes does brake the Krebs cycle, but stimulates ketogenesis? A. ADP B. ATP C. Acetyl-CoA D. * Oxaloacetate E. Fatty acids 1226. Main appointmant formed in the liver glucose-1-phosphate – to serve as an energy source for a brain after transformation in to glucose-6-phosphate and separation from him residual of phosphoric acid. This action is executed by enzymes: A. Phosphoglucomutase, phosphorylase B. * Phosphoglucomutase, phosphatase C. Phosphokinase, phosphoglucoepimerase D. Proteinkinase, glucophosphattranspherase E. Phosphotranskriptase, phosphatase 1227. Mikrosomal oxidation system includes two short chains transport of electrons and protons on oxygen: 1) monooxigenase, for which by the donor of protons and «е-» is mainly NADPH and 2) reductase by the donor of protons and «е-» of NADH. Specify a place, where can not be found this reductase system: A. Microsoms membranes B. Nuclear membrane C. * Inner membrane of mithohondria D. External membrane of mithohondria E. Cellular membrane of erythrosites 1228. Most of the nitrogen amount is excreted from the body in the form of urea. The decrease of acrivity of what liver enzyme result in inhibiting of urea synthesis and accumulation of ammonia in blood and tissues? A. * Carbomoyl phosphate synthase B. Aspartate aminotransferase C. Urease D. Amylase E. Pepsin 1229. Most proteins of blood plasma are synthesized in a liver. Wich from below following proteins not synthesized in a liver? A. Albumin B. B-globulins C. C-globulins D. * D-globulins E. Fibrinogen, protrombin 1230. Name 2 products the first reaction of penthosophosphate cycle which flows in a liver: A. Glucose and phosphatidic acid B. NADH and pentose C. Gluconic acid and ribulose D. Glucose-1,6-diphosphate and NADPH E. * 6-phosphogluconolactone and NADPH 1231. Name enzyme in the ornitine cycle which conduces to the formation of urea: A. Argininosuccinate lyase B. Argininosuccinate synthetase C. Malatdehydrogenase D. * Arginase E. Fumarathidratase 1232. Name matters on which glucose-6-phosphate transforms in a liver: A. Glucose B. Piruvat C. Pentosophosphate D. Glicogen E. * All substances together 1233. Name substance which takes part in reaction formation active form of glucuronic acid: A. ATP B. * UTP C. c-AMP D. TTP E. CTP 1234. Name the enzyme of urea cycle which results to formation of intermediate metabolite argininosuccinate: A. Argininosuccinate lyase B. Succinatdehydrogenase C. Succinatoxidase D. Arginase E. * Argininosuccinate synthetase 1235. Nonbiological foreign chemicals are termed: A. Antibiotics B. Probiotics C. Prebiotics D. * Xenobiotics E. Neurobiotics 1236. Oxidation of ketone bodies takes place every where, except: A. Myocardium B. Skeletal muscles C. Kidney D. Brain E. * Liver 1237. Pentoses which appear from glucose-6-phosphate in the pentosophosphate cycle can be utillized in such aims: A. On the biosynthesis of nucleotides B. On the construction of nucleic acids C. On the construction of coenzymes D. Transformation in to fructose-6-phosphate E. * All adopted processes are correct 1238. Pentosophosphate cycle oxidation of glucose provides reconstraction of NADPH such processes: A. Synthesis of fatty acids B. Synthesis of cholesterol C. Synthesis of bile acids from cholesterol D. Inactivation of steroid hormones E. * All adopted processes are correct 1239. Red blood cells are broken down in abnormally large amounts in ____. A. Hemolytic jaundice B. Obstructive jaundice C. Viral hepatitis D. * Cirrhosis E. Lactose intolerance 1240. Red blood cells are broken down in abnormally large amounts in ____. A. * Hemolytic jaundice B. Obstructive jaundice C. Viral hepatitis D. Cirrhosis E. Lactose intolerance 1241. Some matters are harmless by formation of complex ethers with sulphuric acid. Name substanse which help carried out sulfate conjugation: A. Glucuronilsulphate B. * Phosphoadeninphosphosulfate C. Dimetilsulfate D. S-adenosylmethyonin E. Sulphuric acid 1242. Strengthen oxidation glucose to pyruvat in a liver such regulators, except: A. Insulin B. ADP C. AMP D. Phosphofructokinase E. * NADH 1243. The buildup of bile pigment in tissues that can be caused by gallstones is _____. A. Hyperbilirubinemia B. * Obstructive jaundice C. Hepatitis D. Hepatocellular jaundice E. None of the above 1244. The contents of urea in blood of healthy: A. 1-3 mM/l B. 2-4 mM/l C. * 3-7 mM/l D. 10-12 mM/l E. 20-30 mM/l 1245. The decreasing synthesis of bile acids in a liver results in such violations, except: A. Digestion of fats in an intestine B. * Digestion of carbohydrates C. Absorbtion of fatty acids D. Absorbtion of vitamins A and K E. Activation of lipasas 1246. The digestive fluids that mix with chyme in the ____________ are secreted by A. Stomach; the liver and pancreas B. Biliary apparatus; the liver and gallbladder C. * Duodenum; hepatocytes and cells of the pancreatic lobules and ducts D. Hepatopancreatic ampulla; hepatocytes and cells of the pancreatic islets E. None of the above 1247. The fatty degeneration of liver and general obesity is prevented by lipotropic factors. All belong to them, except: A. Cholin, ethanolamine B. Methionine, inositol C. Serine D. Vitamins B6, B10 E. * Alanin, leucine 1248. The fatty degeneration of liver at the conditions of Diabetes Mellitus and starvation is possible, because in hepatocytes: A. Decrease oxidation of fatty acids B. Decrease synthesis of triacylglicerol C. Lowering formation ketone bodies from fatty acids D. Lowering formation of HDL E. * Increase arrive of fatty acids from adipose tissues 1249. The first step in the utilization of proteins for energy is ________, which occurs in the liver. A. Beta oxidation B. * Deamination C. Hydrolysis D. Amino acid synthesis E. Decarboxilation 1250. The function of bile salts is to: A. Bind with simple sugars B. * Emulsify fats C. Digest proteins D. Absorb water E. Regulate water-salt metabolism 1251. The functional state of liver, effectiveness of treatment and prognosis motion of disease, estimate by such biochemical indexes of blood and urine, except: A. AlAT B. Gamma-glutamintranspeptidase C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Contents of albumins and globulins E. * Diastase 1252. The functions of the gall bladder involve: A. Contraction and synthesis B. * Absorption and digestion C. Contraction and absorption D. Synthesis and absorption E. None of the above 1253. The hepatic portal vein carries blood from the _______________ to the A. * Small intestines, liver B. Small intestines, heart C. Liver, heart D. Stomach, heart E. Small intestines, colon 1254. The hepatic portal vein carries blood from the _______________ to the A. * Small intestines, liver B. Small intestines, heart C. Liver, heart D. Stomach, heart E. Small intestines, colon 1255. The hormone that promotes the flow of bile and of pancreatic juice containing enzymes is: A. * Secretin B. Gastrin C. Enterogastrone D. All of the above E. None of the above 1256. The increase maintenance of indican in urine of patient with disbacterios of intestine testifies about: A. Kidney disease B. * Normal harmless function of liver C. Strengthening fermentation of carbohydratess in an intestine D. Strengthening hydrolysis of fats E. Violetion functions of liver 1257. The increase of total bilirubin content at the expense of indirect (free) fraction was detected in the blood plasma of a patient suffering from icterus. There is also a high level stercobilin in the feces and urine. The level of direct (linked) bilirubin in the blood plasma is within the normal range. What type of icterus is observed in this case? A. Machanical B. Hepatic C. * Hemolitic D. Icterus of newborn E. Gilbert disease 1258. The key intermediate product of carbohydrate metabolism – glucose-6-phosphate – can transformed in a liver by such ways, except: A. From glucose-6-phosphate glycogen is synthesed B. Glucose-6-phosphate under influence of specific phosphates split to free glucose C. Spliting by glycolisis to pyruvate D. Spliting to CO2 and H2O with selection energy of ATP E. * Transforms in uracyl 1259. The Kupffer cells are phagocytic cells found in the A. Gallbladder B. Pancreas C. Intestine D. * Liver E. Kidney 1260. The liver contains special blood channels termed _____. A. Sinusoids B. Central vein C. Hepatic cells D. * Portal veins E. None of the above 1261. The liver is often the target organ for many chemicals with diverse structures because A. First pass uptake of xenobiotics readily occurs due to the thinness of the sinusoidal endothelial cells. B. The liver contains many transport mechanism that concentrate and store substances, including xenobiotics, intracellularly. C. The liver contains mechanisms for storage of heavy metals that can mediate the formation of ROS. D. * The liver contains the highest concentration of biotransforming enzymes compared to other organs. E. All of the above. 1262. The liver produces bile salts that aid in the digestion of: A. * Fats B. Proteins C. Carbohydrates D. Sugars E. Vitamins 1263. The liver stores ______ for energy. A. Nucleic acids B. Glycogen C. * Glucose D. Vitamins E. Simple proins 1264. The low level of what metabolite in hepatocytes does predetermine braking of Krebs cycle and strengthens a ketogenesis? A. ATP and CTP B. ADP and AMP C. Acetyl-KoA D. * Oxaloacetate E. Fatty acids 1265. The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is: A. * Cytochrome P-450 B. Glutation S-transferase C. NADH cytochrom P-450 resuctase D. Glucuronil transferase E. Pyruvatdehydrogenase 1266. The organ(s) of excretion is/are _______. A. Skin B. Lungs C. Liver D. Kidneys E. * EAll of the above 1267. The perenchimatose defeat of liver is accompanied decreases maintenance in blood plasma of proteins, except: A. Albumins B. B-globulins C. Glycoproteins D. Fibrinogen E. * E-globulins 1268. The primary function(s) of the liver is (are): A. * Bile production B. None of the above C. Hematological regulation D. All the above E. Metabolic regulation 1269. The primary function(s) of the liver is (are): A. * Bile production B. Metabolic regulation C. Hematological regulation D. All of the above E. None of the above 1270. The signs of jaundice appeared for a new-born child. Introduction small doses of phenobarbital which induces the synthesis of UDP-glyukuroniltransferase resulted in the improvement of the state of child. Which from the stated below processes is activated in a liver under act of phenobarbital? A. * Conugation B. Microsomal oxidation C. Respiratory chain D. Gluconeogenesis E. Synthesis of glycogen 1271. There are different transformations of lipids in a liver, except: A. Breaking up of complex lipids to the simple components B. Synthesis of lipids, in particular - cholesterol C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Synthesis of palmitic acid E. * Synthesis of linolenic acid 1272. Through 24 ours of starvation, maintenance of glycogen in a liver falls till about a zero. For providing of necessities of organism glucose the process of gluconeogenesis intensifies in a liver. A gluconeogenesis is carried out from all of matters, except: A. Amino acids B. Glycerol C. PVA D. * Fructose E. Lactat 1273. To the liver cholesterol come by such ways, after an exception: A. With a meal B. Synthesised in hepatocytes C. Come from other tissues D. From high density lipoproteins E. * With chylomicrons 1274. Typical biochemical features of serum in obstructive jaundice include A. * Raised bilirubin B. Increased acid phosphatase C. Increased alkaline phosphatase D. Increased amylase E. Hepatitis B surface antigen 1275. Ultrasound examination of a patient gave the possibility to establish an initial diagnosis: cancer of the liver. What protein occurs in blood in this case? A. A-globulin B. Properdin C. Paraproteins D. C-reactive protein E. * E-phetoprotein 1276. Under stress circumstances increases breaking up of glycogen of muscles, one of intermediate metabolites is - glucose-6-phosphate. Why can not he serve as the source of glucose, like it takes a place at breaking up of glycogen in a liver? A. * In muscles there is not an enzyme of glucose-6-phosphate phosphatase and the last does not convert into glucose B. In the muscles glucose-1-phosphate convert into lactat C. Glucose-6-phosphate does not test changes D. Transformed into amino acids E. Transformation of glucose is characteristic only for a liver 1277. Urea is synthesized in a liver from ammonia which appears in result of desamination of such combinations, except: A. Amino acids B. Amins, аmids C. Purine bases D. Pirimidine bases E. * Choline 1278. Violation metabolism of copper is accompanied the deposit of it in a brain and liver – develops Vilson disease. The concentration of protein which is synthesized in a liver decrease in blood: A. Transferrin B. * Ceruloplasmin C. Feritin D. Xantinoxidase E. Carbanhydrase 1279. What coenzyme is needed for synthesis in the liver of cholesterol, higher fatty acids, nucleic acids? A. NADP B. * NADPH C. FMN D. FAD E. Tiamindiphosphate 1280. What enzyme transform glucose of meal in liver on glucose-6-phosphate? A. Phosphoglucomutase B. Phosphatase C. * Hexokinase D. Fructokinase E. Glucosisomerase 1281. What is the goal of the P450 system (microsomes pinched off from endoplasmic reticulum)? A. Metabolism of substances B. * Detoxification of substances C. Increasing pH of compartments containing substances D. Decreasing pH of compartments containing substances E. A & B 1282. What protein, assigned for transport, does hemoglobin bind to in the reticuloendotelial system of the liver? A. * Haptoglobin B. Albumin C. Ferritin D. Transferrin E. Ceruloplasmin 1283. When liver glycogen levels are inadequate to supply glucose, especially to the brain, amino acids and glycerol are used to produce ___________ in a process called A. Glycogen; glycogenesis B. * Glucose; gluconeogenesis C. Lipids; lipogenesis D. Glucose-6-phosphate; glycogenolysis E. None of the above 1284. Which amino acids does not take participating in the synthesis of urea in a liver? A. * Alanin B. Arginine C. Aspartat D. Ornitin E. Citrulline 1285. Which bile acids in most promote formation of gall-stones? A. Cholic B. * Litocholic C. Glycocholic D. Taurocholic E. Desoxycholic 1286. Which blood vessel will transport nutrient molecules that have been absorbed by the small intestine to the liver? A. Hepatic artery B. Renal vein C. Hepatic portal artery D. * Hepatic portal vein E. Inferior vena cava 1287. Which component in bile helps to emulsify fat in the duodenum? A. Bilirubin B. Biliverdin C. * Bile salts D. Cholesterol E. Ketone bodies 1288. Which from the adopted substances are arrive gluconeogenesis in a liver? A. Amino acids B. Piruvat, lactat C. Oxaloacetate D. Glucocorticoids E. * All taken together 1289. Which from the adopted substances that are synthesized in liver do not „go to the export”, that not utillized other tissues? A. Glucose B. * Hormonoids C. Fats D. Ketone bodies E. Proteins of blood plasma 1290. Which from the below matters is promotes in the supply of fatty acids to the liver? A. Albumins B. Tiroksin C. Lipase of fatty tissues D. Glucagon E. * All adopted components 1291. Which from the stated below processes does a major role belong in desintoxification of toxic substances in a liver? A. Demetilation B. Pereamination C. Desamination D. * Hydroxylating E. Decarboxilation 1292. Which metabolic ways of carbohydrates are not stimulated during rest after hard physical work? A. Glycogenesis B. Gluconeogenesis from lactat C. * Glycolisis D. Gluconeogenesis from amino acids E. Transformation of carbohydrates on the fats 1293. Which metabolic ways transformation of glucose-6-phosphate will prevail in a liver at the condition strengthening of biosynthetic processes? A. Gluconeogenesis B. Glycolisis C. Transformation of glucose-6-phosphate on free glucose and phosphate D. * Pentosophosphate cycle E. Glycogenesis 1294. Which molecule represents the storage form of glucose in the liver? A. * Glycogen B. Glucagon C. Disaccharide D. Lactic acid 1295. 1296. 1297. 1298. 1299. 1300. 1301. 1302. E. Pyruvate Which of the following are liver waste products? A. * Bilirubin B. Bile salts C. Cholesterol D. Electrolytes E. A and C Which of the following comparisons is NOT correct? A. * Constipation--hard and dry feces B. Ulcer--open sore in the wall of the stomach C. Peritonitis--inflammation of the cecum D. Cirrhosis--liver first becomes fatty and then replaced by fibrous scar tissue E. Jaundice--abnormally large amount of bilirubin in the skin and the whites of the eyes Which of the following has the most affinity for oxygen? A. Hemoglobin F B. Blood substitute C. * Hemoglobin A D. Hemoglobin S E. Bens-Jonce protein Which of the following is correct regarding hepatic failure? A. The cardinal features are hepatic encephalopathy, coagulopathy, and jaundice. B. Most cases following a sudden massive insult to a previous healthy liver. C. * The activated partial thromoplastin time (APTT) serves as a good indicator of the severity of hepatic failure. D. Prognosis is generally good for recovery. E. None of the above Which of the following is correct regarding liver function tests? A. An isolated rise in alkaline phosphatase level implies biliary disease B. * Liver function tests are always deranged in patients with significant liver disease C. An isolated rise in A-glutamyltransferase (GGT) is often seen in alcoholics D. Mild elevations of bilirubin, alanine aminotransferase, and aspartate aminotransferase E. All of the above Which of the following is not a function of the adult liver? A. Glycogen storage B. * Detoxification C. Synthesis of clotting proteins D. Erythropoiesis E. All of the above Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver? A. Converts hemoglobin from red blood cells to bile pigments that are excreted along with bile salts in bile B. * Detoxifies blood by removing poisonous substances C. Produces urea from the breakdown of amino acids D. Produces enzymes for digestion of food in the duodenum E. Makes plasma proteins from amino acids Which of the following is not a function of the liver? A. Convert glucose to glycogen B. Convert glycogen to glucose C. Detoxify poisonous substances D. Produce blood plasma proteins E. * All of the above are functions of the liver 1303. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver? A. Converts hemoglobin from red blood cells to bile pigments that are excreted along with bile salts in bile B. Detoxifies blood by removing poisonous substances C. Produces urea from the breakdown of amino acids D. * Produces enzymes for digestion of food in the duodenum E. Makes plasma proteins from amino acids 1304. Which of the following is NOT a phase II substrate? A. Glucuronic acid B. Sulfuric acid C. Acetic acid D. Amino acids E. * Alcohol 1305. Which of the following is true about jaundice? A. * Pale stools and dark urine are characteristic of the jaundice of haemalytic anaemia B. Bilirubin is used by the liver in the synthesis of red blood cells C. Itching may be a sign of obstructive jaundice D. Putting a danger of infection sticker on blood samples from an intravenous drug user with jaundice is optional E. None of the above 1306. Which of the following organs functions to remove poisonous substances and works to keep the contents of blood constant? A. Esophagus B. Stomach C. Duodenum D. Pancreas E. * Liver 1307. Which of the following organs produces bile? A. Gallbladder B. * Liver C. Duodenum D. Stomach E. Large intestine 1308. Which of the following reactions is phase II and NOT phase I? A. Oxidations B. Reductions C. * Conjugations D. Deaminations E. Hydrolyses 1309. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about fat digestion? A. Bile salts are needed to emulsify fat into fat droplets. B. Lipase digests the fat droplets into glycerol and fatty acid molecules while removing water molecules C. Glycerol and fatty acids enter the cells of the villi. D. * Glycerol and fatty acids, after entering the cells of the villi, rejoin and are packaged as lipoprotein droplets E. Lipoprotein droplets, which are formed in the cells of the villi, enter the lacteals 1310. Which of the following vitamins is not stored in the liver? A. * C B. C. D. E. D B12 A E 1311. Which organ has the most metabolically active cells? A. Pancreas B. * Liver C. Stomach D. Small intestine E. Lung 1312. Which substanses activate a gluconeogenesis? A. Glucagon B. Oxaloacetate C. PVA D. Glucockortikoids E. * All answers are correct 1313. Which transformation of glucose-6-phosphate will prevail in a liver at a reach in the organism of toxic matters? A. Glycolysis B. Glycogenolysis C. Gluconeogenesis D. * Pentosophosphate cycle E. Glykogenogenesis 1314. Which way is real from the adopted ways the using of cholesterol in a liver? A. Formation of bile acids B. Secretion in a bile and leadingout from organism C. * All of ways are use D. Reducing membranes of hepatocytes E. Transport to other tissues 1315. Which way transformation galactose in a liver on glucose-6-phosphate? A. By specific hecsoisomerase B. Glicolitic to pyruvat, and farther – by gluconeogenesis C. By glucomutase D. By cytidiltransferase E. * Galactose galactose-1-phosphatepglucose-1-phosphatepglucose-6-phosphate 1316. ADH test is based on the measurement of A. * Specific gravity of urine B. Concentration of urea in urine C. Concentration of urea in blood D. Volume of urine in ml/minute E. A and D 1317. An early feature of renal disease is A. * Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to perform osmotic work B. Decrease in maximal tubular excretory capacity C. Decrease in filtration factor D. Decrease in renal plasma flow E. All of the above 1318. Fixation of specific gravity of urine to 1.010 is found in A. Diabetes insipidus B. Polydypsia C. Cystinosis D. * Chronic glomerulonephritis 1319. 1320. 1321. 1322. 1323. 1324. 1325. 1326. 1327. E. None of the above Polyuria can occur in A. * Diabetes mellitus B. Diarrhoea C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. High fever E. All of the above Specific gravity of urine is raised in all of the following except A. Diabetes mellitus B. * Diabetes insipidus C. Dehydration D. Acute glomerulonephritis E. A and D ____________ is hydrolytically cleaved to directly yield urea in the urea cycle. A. ornithine B. glutamate C. * arginine D. carbamoyl phosphate E. None of the above A diuresis of a healthy adult is about: A. * 1000 – 2000 ml daily B. 500 – 1000 ml daily C. 1000 –3000 ml daily D. 100 – 500 ml daily E. 3000 – 5000 ml daily A diuresis of a healthy adult is about: A. * 1000 – 2000 ml daily B. 500 – 1000 ml daily C. 1000 –3000 ml daily D. 100 – 500 ml daily E. 3000 – 5000 ml daily A pH of urine in a norm is: A. * 5,3 – 6,8 B. 3,5 – 5 C. 2,1 – 4,3 D. 1,45 – 1,85 E. 5,5 – 7,5 About the kidney insufficiency testify decrease of filtration to: A. * 40 ml/min B. 50 ml/min C. 70 ml/min D. 60 ml/min E. 80 ml/min About the kidney insufficiency testify decrease of filtration to: A. * 40 ml/min B. 50 ml/min C. 70 ml/min D. 60 ml/min E. 80 ml/min Acid-Base balance is important for: A. Normal enzyme functions. B. Normal metabolite solubility. 1328. 1329. 1330. 1331. 1332. 1333. 1334. 1335. C. Normal membrane potentials. D. A and C E. * All of the above Addis test is the measure of A. * Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to perform osmotic work B. Secretory function of liver C. Excretory function of liver D. Activity of parenchymal cells of liver E. All of the above ADH test is based on the measurement of A. * Specific gravity of urine B. Concentration of urea in urine C. Concentration of urea in blood D. Volume of urine in ml/minute E. Both a and B Albumin-globulin coefficient of blood plasma of healthy adult is: A. 3,0-4,0 B. 1,0-1,5 C. 5,0-6,5 D. 8,0-10,0 E. * 1,5-2,0 All the following are true about phenylketonuria except A. Deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Mental retardation C. * Increased urinary excretion of hydroxyphenyl pyruvic acid D. Decrease serotonin formation E. C and D All the following statements about phenylketonuria are correct except A. Phenylalanine cannot be converted into tyrosine B. Urinary excretion of phenylpyruvate and phenyllactate is increased C. It can be controlled by giving a low phenylalanine diet D. * It leads to decreased synthesis of thyroid hormones, catecholamines and melanin E. Both A and D Amount of uric acid which excreted daily is: A. Not excreted B. 10-12 g/day C. 4-8 mg/day D. * 270-600 mg/day E. 2-5 g/day An early feature of renal disease is A. * Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to perform osmotic work B. Decrease in maximal tubular excretory capacity C. Decrease in filtration factor D. Decrease in renal plasma flow E. Both A and D are correct except A. It is completely non-toxic B. It is completely filtered by glomeruli C. It is not reabsorbed by tubular cells D. * It is secreted by tubular cells E. Both C and D 1336. At a biochemical inspection of a patient were found a hyperglycemia, glucosuria, high urine’s density, in blood found - enhanceable amount of glucocorticoids. At the same time in blood and urine found excess of 17 – ketosteroids. What type of diabetes developed: A. * Steroid diabetes B. Diabetes Mellitus, the I type C. Diabetes Mellitus , the II type D. Kidney diabetes E. Hepatic diabetes 1337. At what disease colour of urine is darkly – brown? A. Pyelonephritis B. Diabetes mellitus C. * Hemolytic anemia D. Acute nephritis E. Diabetes insipidus 1338. At what disease colour of urine is darkly – brown? A. Pyelonephritis B. Diabetes mellitus C. * Hemolytic anemia D. Acute nephritis E. Diabetes insipidus 1339. At what disease glomerular filtration is always decreased? A. Acute nephritis B. Chronic glomerulonephritis C. Acute pyelonephritis D. Amyloidosis of kidneys E. * Acute kidney’s insufficiency 1340. At what disease the excretions of calcium diminish with urine? A. Icenko – Cushing disease B. Osteomalacia C. Addison disease D. * Rickets E. Aldosteronism 1341. At what disease the excretions of calcium increase with urine? A. Rickets B. * Osteomalacia C. Addison disease D. Icenko – Cushing disease E. Aldosteronism 1342. Average creatinine clearance in an adult man is about A. 54 ml/min B. 75 ml/min C. * 110 ml/min D. 130 ml/min E. None of above 1343. Benedict’s test is less likely to give weakly positive results with concentrated urine due to the action of A. Urea B. * Uric acid C. Ammonium salts D. Phosphates E. All of these 1344. Benzoic acid in the organism is transformed to hypuric acid (Quick's test). Name the compound it connects with: A. * glycine B. glycocol C. valine D. alanine E. threonine 1345. By what method is conducted quantitative determination of glucose in urine? A. Felling B. Roberts - Stolnikov C. Gmelin and Rosenbakh D. * Altgauzen E. Salkovskiy 1346. By what test is conducted quantitative determination of proteins in urine? A. Altgauzen B. * Roberts – Stolnikov C. Gmelin and Rosenbakh D. Felling E. Salkovskiy 1347. Choose the normal level of relative density of urine. A. * 1006 - 1020 B. 1015 - 1012 C. 1011 - 1013 D. 1004 - 1010 E. 1010 - 1016 1348. Choose the substance of protein nature which is produced in kidneys: A. Melatonin B. * Eritropoetin C. Epinephrine D. Progesterone E. Aldosterone 1349. Choose the substance of protein nature which is produced in kidneys: A. Melatonin B. * Erythropoietin C. Epinephrine D. Progesterone E. Aldosterone 1350. Chyluria can be detected by addition of the following to the urine: A. Sulphosalicylic acid B. Nitric acid C. Acetic anhydride D. * Chloroform E. Ethanol 1351. Creatinine coefficient for male is: A. 10-25 B. * 20-30 C. 50-100 D. 1-10 E. 2-6 1352. Cystinuria results from inability to A. Metabolise cysteine B. Convert cystine into cysteine C. Incorporate cysteine into proteins D. * Reabsorb cystine in renal tubules E. Both C and D 1353. Cystinuria results from inability to A. Metabolise cysteine B. Convert cystine into cysteine C. Incorporate cysteine into proteins D. * Reabsorb cystine in renal tubules E. Only A and D 1354. Daily excretion of creatinine with urine is: A. 3-5 g B. 4-6 g C. 8-10 g D. 7-9 g E. * 1-2 g 1355. Daily excretion of creatinine with urine is: A. 3-5 g B. 4-6 g C. 8-10 g D. 7-9 g E. * 1-2 g 1356. Daily excretion of urea with urine is: A. 20 – 35 g B. 20 – 35 g C. 20 – 35 g D. * 20 – 35 g E. 20 – 35 g 1357. Daily excretion of urea with urine is: A. 3-5 g B. 4-6 g C. 8-10 g D. 7-9 g E. * 1-2 g 1358. Daily excretion of uric acid with urine is: A. * 0,6 – 1 g B. 0,5 – 1,5 g C. 2 – 3 g D. 1,5 – 3,5 g E. 0,1 – 0,5 g 1359. Determination of which products in urine is important for the estimation of adrenal cortex function? A. * 17-ketosteroids B. Cholesterol C. Cyclopentanoperhydrophenantren D. Ketone bodies E. Lanosterol 1360. Diabetic ketoacidosis is an example of which imbalance? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. * Metabolic acidosis E. Respiratory chain 1361. For a patient was found the increase of maintenance of urea and creatinine in blood and diminishing in urine. What are possible reasons of such state? A. Main reason of such state it is disorder of detoxification, transport and excretion of ammonia with urine B. Main reason is a disease of liver C. Such state appears at the disease of muscles D. * Diseases which result in insufficiency of kidneys E. Such state appears as a result of disorder of acid-base balance in an organism 1362. For diagnostic of acute inflammatory process in kidneys was conducted a specific test - determination of such substance in urine: A. Content of lactose B. Activity of creatinkinase C. Concentrations of creatin D. Activity of pepsin E. * Activity of alanine amino peptidase 1363. For what disease is the most proper urine with low density? A. Itchenko - Cushing B. Addison disease C. * Diabetes insipidus D. Diabetes mellitus E. Chronic pyelonephritis 1364. For what disease is the most proper urine with low density? A. Itchenko - Cushing B. Addison disease C. * Diabetes insipidus D. Diabetes mellitus E. Chronic pyelonephritis 1365. Glomerular filtrate – it is a: A. Whole blood B. Blood plasma with a proteins C. * Blood plasma without any proteins D. Blood plasma without glucose E. Blood plasma without glucose and proteins 1366. Glomerular filtration mostly depends on A. * Permeability of glomerular filter B. Endothelia of capillaries C. Level of filtration pressure D. Hydrostatical pressure E. Oncotic pressure 1367. Glomerular filtration mostly depends on A. * Permeability of glomerular filter B. Endothelia of capillaries C. Level of filtration pressure D. Hydrostatical pressure E. Oncotic pressure 1368. Haematuria can occur in A. Haemolytic anaemia B. Mismatched blood transfusion C. Yellow fever D. * Stone in urinary tract E. All of these 1369. Haematuria can occur in all of the following except A. B. C. D. E. 1370. A. B. C. D. E. 1371. A. B. C. D. E. 1372. A. B. C. D. E. 1373. A. B. C. D. E. 1374. A. B. C. D. E. 1375. A. B. C. D. E. 1376. A. B. C. D. E. 1377. A. B. C. D. Acute glomerulonephritis Cancer of urinary tract Stone in urinary tract * Mismatched blood transfusion Both C and D Hormone associated with diuresis: Oxytocine * Vasopressin Both oxytocine and vasopresin Neither oxytocine nor vasopressin ACTH hours and, then, measure Serum urea Serum creatinine Urine output in one hour * Specific gravity of urine Both C and D How is diminishing of day's diuresis named? Anuria Polyuria * Oliguria Nicturia Polakiuriya How is diminishing of day's diuresis named? Anuria Poliuria * Oliguria Nicturia Polakiuriya How is frequent urination named? * Polakiuria Stranguria Anuria Nicturia Polyuria How is frequent urination named? * Polakiuria Stranguria Anuria Nicturia Poliuria How is the increase of acidity of urine named? * Hyperaciduriya Glucosuria Ketonuria Creatinuriya Hyperacidity How is the increase of acidity of urine named? * Hyperaciduriya Glucosuria Ketonuria Creatinuriya E. Hyperacidity 1378. How is the increase of day's diuresis named? A. Anuria B. Polakiuria C. Oligouria D. Ischuria E. * Polyuria 1379. How is the increase of day's diuresis named? A. Anuria B. Polakiuria C. Oligouria D. Ischuria E. * Poliuria 1380. How long do kidneys need for proceeding of imbalanced acid-base state? A. 30 sec. – 1 minutes B. 1 – 3 minutes C. * 10 - 20 hours D. 5 – 10 minutes E. 1 - 2 hours 1381. How many ascorbic acid in normal condition is excreted per day with urine: A. * 20-30 mg B. 113,5-170,5 mg C. 10-28 g D. 80-100 mg E. 18-33 g 1382. How many ascorbic acid in normal condition is excreted per day with urine: A. * 20-30 mg B. 113,5-170,5 mg C. 10-28 g D. 80-100 mg E. 18-33 g 1383. How many grammes of potassium are contained in daily urine of healthy adult? A. * 2 – 5 g B. 0,5 – 1,5 g C. 2 – 3 g D. 1,5 – 3,5 g E. 0,1 – 0,5 g 1384. How many grammes of proteins can lose with urine patients with a glomerulonephritis daily? A. 100 B. 50 C. 60 -70 D. * 20 - 40 E. 120 - 150 1385. How many litters of blood do flow daily through kidneys? A. 200 – 300 B. 50 – 150 C. * 700 – 900 D. 15 – 35 E. 100 – 500 1386. How much time do kidneys need for proceeding of imbalanced acid-base state? A. 30 sec. – 1 minutes 1 – 3 minutes * 10 - 20 hours 5 – 10 minutes 1 - 2 hours 1387. In a norm the clearance of endogenous creatinine is: A. * 110 – 150 ml/min B. 100 – 250 ml/min C. 110 – 200 ml/min D. 10 – 150 ml/min E. 10 – 100 ml/min 1388. In humans the sulphur of methionine and cysteine is excreted mainly as A. Ethereal sulphate B. * Inorganic sulphate C. Sulphites D. Thioorganic compound E. All of these 1389. In the urine of a patient with liver disease is absent urobilinogen. It is connected with the affection of: A. stercobilin formation B. * direct bilirubin formation C. kidneys function D. transformation of bilirubin in the intestine E. bile passage to the intestine 1390. In what part of nephron does take place filtration of urine? A. * In a glomerulus B. In the loop of Henle C. In a proksimal canaliculi D. In a distal canaliculi E. In the collective tubes 1391. Is there what normal concentration of urea in blood? A. 3 - 8 gramme/l B. 1 - 3 mmol/l C. * 3 - 8 mmol/l D. 3 - 10 mmol/l E. 10 - 15 mmol/l 1392. Ketoacidosis refers to the metabolic acidosis caused by the overproduction of ketoacids. The classic form of ketoacidosis is uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. All of the following would occur in a patient suffering from a diabetes-induced metabolic acidosis (diabetic ketoacidosis) EXCEPT: A. Deep, rapid breathing causes a decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) in the blood. B. The removal of carbon dioxide through deep, rapid breathing results in a rise in the blood pH C. When endogenous acid production rises sharply, net acid excretion cannot keep pace and the bicarbonate lost in buffering is not replaced causing plasma HCO3levels to fall D. * Serum bicarbonate levels will decrease after the administration of an insulin injection E. The fall in insulin causes fat cells to liberate fatty acids, which flood the hepatocytes 1393. Laboratory test of a patient’s urine with intestines dysbacteriosis established the increase of indican. It testifies: B. C. D. E. A. B. C. D. E. kidney disease * normal neutralization liver function increased fat hydrolysis liver malfunction vitamins F hypovitaminosis 1394. Maple syrup urine disease is the disorder of the: A. tyrosine metabolism caused by the absence of homogentisate oxidase B. phenylalanine metabolism caused by an absence or deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase C. * oxidative decarboxylation of o-ketoacids derived from valine, isoleucine, and leucine caused by the defect of branched-chain dehydrogenase D. glutamate metabolism caused by the defect of glutamate dehydrogenase E. None of the above 1395. Maple syrup urine diseases is an inborn error of metabolism of A. Sulphur-containing amino acids B. Aromatic amino acids C. * Branched chain amino acids D. Dicarboxylic amino acids E. B and C 1396. Maple syrup urine diseases is an inborn error of metabolism of A. Sulphur-containing amino acids B. Aromatic amino acids C. * Branched chain amino acids D. Dicarboxylic amino acids E. None of the above 1397. Maximum urea clearance is A. 54 ml/min B. * 75 ml/min C. 110 ml/min D. 130 ml/min E. Both C and D 1398. Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular reabsorption of A. Sodium and calcium B. Sodium and potassium C. * Sodium and chloride D. Potassium and chloride E. Potassium and calcium 1399. Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular secretion of A. Sodium B. * Potassium C. Chloride D. Bicarbonate E. Calcium 1400. Name the compound in the urine, which is a test of protein putrefaction processes in the intestine: A. A.Urates B. B.Urea C. Creatinine D. * Indican E. Lactic acid 1401. Name the end product of protein’s metabolism, which is excreted with urine: A. Uric acid B. C. D. E. * Urea Indican Hyaluronic acid Creatinine 1402. Name the incretory function of kidneys A. Adjusting of acid-base balance B. Excretory function C. Adjusting of water – salt exchange D. * Adjusting of blood pressure, erythropoesis E. Adjusting of electrolyte exchange 1403. Name the incretpory function of kidneys A. Adjusting of acid-base balance B. Excretory function C. Adjusting of water – salt exchange D. * Adjusting of blood pressure, erythropoesis E. Adjusting of electrolyte exchange 1404. Name the matter in the urine, which is a test of intensivity of protein putrefaction processes in the intestine: A. Urates B. Urea C. Creatinine D. * Indican E. Lactic acid 1405. pH of urine of healthy person is between: A. 7-8 B. 8-10 C. 1.5-2.0 D. * 5.0-7.0 E. 4.0-5.0 1406. Physiological glycosuria is met with in A. Renal glycosuria B. * Alimentary glycosuria C. Diabetes Mellitus D. Alloxan diabetes E. All of these 1407. Poliuriya of patients with diabetes insipidus appears as a result: A. * Insufficient level of antidiuretic hormone in blood B. Insufficient level of insulin in blood C. Disorders of reabsorption of water in canaliculies as a result of high osmotic pressure of urine D. Excessive intake of liquid E. Disorders of reabsorption of water in canaliculies as a result of low osmolality of urine 1408. Poliuriya of patients with diabetes mellitus appears as a result: A. * Disorders of reabsorption of water in canaliculies as a result of high osmotic pressure of urine B. Insufficient level of glucagon in blood C. Excessive intake of liquid D. Insufficient level of antidiuretic hormone in blood E. Disorders of reabsorption of water in canaliculies as a result of low osmolality of urine 1409. Principle of quantitative determination of proteins in urine method is based on: 1410. 1411. 1412. 1413. 1414. 1415. 1416. A. * Empiric fixed fact, that at stratification of urine on an nitric acid appears a ring on the margin of both liquids between 2th and 3th minutes at content of proteins in urine 0,033g/l B. Empiric fixed fact, that at stratification of urine on an acetic acid appears a ring on the margin of both liquids between 2th and 3th minutes at content of proteins in urine 0,033g/l C. Empiric fixed fact, that at stratification of urine on an sulphosalicilic acid appears a ring on the margin of both liquids between 2th and 3th minutes at content of proteins in urine 0,033g/l D. Empiric fixed fact, that at stratification of urine on an nitric acid appears a ring on the margin of both liquids between 2th and 3th minutes at content of proteins in urine 0,33g/l E. Empiric fixed fact, that at stratification of urine on an nitric acid appears a ring on the margin of both liquids between 2th and 3th minutes at content of proteins in urine 0,0033g/l Renal glycosuria occurs due to A. Increased filtration of glucose in glomeruli B. Increased secretion of glucose by renal tubular cells C. Decreased reabsorption of glucose by renal tubular cells D. * Increased conversion of glycogen into glucose in tubular cells E. Both C and D Renal threshold for bilirubinglucuronids is: A. 60 ?mol/l B. * 35 ?mol /l C. 20 ?mol /l D. 25 ?mol /l E. 30 ?mol /l Renal threshold for glucose is: A. 8-10 ?mol l/l B. 35 ?mol /l C. * 8-10 mmol/l D. 10-12 mmol/l E. 10-12 ?mol /l Small amount of urinary oxalates is contributed by the amino acid: A. * Glycine B. Tyrosine C. Alanine D. Serine E. Both A and B Specific gravity of urine increases in A. * Diabetes mellitus B. Chronic glomerulonephritis C. Polydypsia D. Hypercalcemia E. All of the above Standard urea clearance is A. * 54 ml/min B. 75 ml/min C. 110 ml/min D. 130 ml/min E. None of above Structural – functional unit of kidneys is: A. B. C. D. E. Glomerulus Kidney papilla Capsule of Bowmen Neuron * Nephron 1417. Syndrome of Lesch-Nyhan – hard hyperuricemia is the genetic deficiency of such enzyme: A. Xantine oxidase B. Adenosine deaminase C. Hypoxanthine oxidase D. Phosphorylase E. * Hypoxanthine – guanine phosphoribosyltransferase 1418. The active form of vitamin D (1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol) maintain in an organism a constant level of: A. Potassium and phosphorus B. * Calcium and phosphorus C. S. Iron and calcium D. Iron and magnesium E. Magnesium and manganese 1419. The amino acid which detoxicated benzoic acid to form hippuric acid is A. * Glycine B. Alanine C. Serine D. Glutamic acid E. Tyrosine 1420. The amount of urea in patient's urine is normal. Which of the listed indexes are true in this case? A. 10-15 g B. 20-40 g C. 10-35 g D. * 25-30 g E. 50-60 g 1421. The concentration of what substance does increase in the blood at disorders of excretory function of kidneys? A. Uric acid and creatinine B. * Creatinine and urea C. Creatinine and creatin D. Creatinine and indican E. Uric acid and indican 1422. The concentration of which substance is increased at an alkaptonuria? A. Leukotrienes B. Phenyl-pyruvic acid C. Melatonin D. * Gomogentisic acid E. Erythropoietin 1423. The constant increase of uric acid concentration in blood is named: A. Uremia B. Hyperazotemiya C. Hyperacidaminemiya D. Hyperlaktatemiya E. Hyperuricemia 1424. The excretion of chlorides with urine decreases at all of the followings states, except: A. Vomiting B. Diabetes insipidus C. Diarrhea D. * Addison disease E. Icenko – Cushing disease 1425. The insufficient production of mineralocorticoids (Addison diseases, bronze diseases) is accompanied with muscle weakness. This is explained by the excretion with urine increased amount of ions of: A. * Na+ B. K+ C. H+ D. Ca2+ E. Mg2+ 1426. The kidney threshold of glucose is: A. * 8 – 9 mmol/l B. 5 – 10 mmol/l C. 1 – 5 mmol/l D. 1 – 2 mmol/l E. 10 – 15 mmol/l 1427. The kidney threshold of glucose is: A. * 8 – 10 mmol/l B. 5 – 10 mmol/l C. 1 – 5 mmol/l D. 1 – 2 mmol/l E. 10 – 15 mmol/l 1428. The level of phenyl-pyruvic acid in urine increases at: A. Osteomalacia B. * Phenylketonuria C. Addison disease D. Icenko – Cushing disease E. Aldosteronism 1429. The main pigment of urine is: A. Bilirubin B. Uroeritrin C. Uroporfirin D. Urobilinoid E. * Urochrome 1430. The man's daily secretion of creatinine with urine is: A. 3-5 g B. 4-6 g C. 8-10 g D. 7-9 g E. * 1-2 g 1431. The most dangerous for life such effect of acute kidney insufficiency: A. Overhydratation B. Hypokaliemia C. Hypermagniyemia D. * Hyperkaliemia E. Hyperkal'ciemia 1432. The normal organic components of urine are all of the followings, except: A. B. C. D. E. Urea Hyaluronic acid * Glucose Uric acid Creatinine 1433. The pathological components of urine are all of the followings, except: A. Ketone bodies B. Blood C. * Amino acid D. Bile pigments E. Glucose 1434. The polysaccharide used in assessing the glomerular fittration rate (GFR) is A. Glycogen B. Agar C. * Inulin D. Hyaluronic acid E. All of these 1435. The possible reason of uric acid excretion decrease: A. Action of ionizing an radiation B. * Kidney insufficiency C. Leucosis D. Burns E. Malignant tumor 1436. The specific gravity of urine normally ranges from A. 0.900–0.999 B. * 1.003–1.030 C. 1.000–1.001 D. 1.101–1.120 E. 1.999 – 2.111 1437. The test of Reberg allows to define: A. Transport of electrolytes B. Concentration ability of kidneys C. Plasma blood flow D. * Glomerular filtration, reabsorption E. Secretion 1438. The test of Reberg allows to define: A. Transport of electrolytes B. Concentration ability of kidneys C. Plasma blood flow D. * Glomerular filtration, reabsorption E. Secretion 1439. Urine has a smell of rotten apples at presence in of: A. Urea B. Glucose C. * Ketone bodies D. Uric acid E. Indican 1440. Urine of patient after staying with oxygen becomes red. Biochemical research of urine set the enhanceable excretion of protoporphyrin IX that is the marker of disorders of synthesis: A. Bilirubin B. Purine nucleotides 1441. 1442. 1443. 1444. 1445. 1446. 1447. 1448. 1449. C. Amino acids D. * Hem E. Pyrimidine nucleotides What area of nephron does take part in the concentration of urine? A. Glomerulus B. * Henle’s loop C. Distal canaliculi D. Proksimal canaliculi E. Collective tubes What area of nephron does take part in the concentration of urine? A. Glomerulus B. * Henle’s loop C. Distal canaliculi D. Proksimal canaliculi E. Collective tubes What basic event in pathogenesis of chronic kidney’s insufficiency? A. * All below transferred B. Decline of glomerular filtration C. Hyperazotemia D. Disorders of water – electrolyte metabolism E. Hyperkaliemia What changes in urine can be a hyperglycemia accompanied? A. * Appearance of glucose B. Appearance of proteins C. Appearance of bilirubin D. Appearance of urobilin E. Appearance of indican What changes in urine can testify kidney insufficiency? A. * Density less than 1,010 B. An acetone in urine C. Absence of proteins in urine D. Excess of urates E. Bacterias in urine What changes in urine can testify kidney insufficiency? A. * Density less than 1,010 B. An acetone in urine C. Absence of proteins in urine D. Excess of urates E. Bacteria in urine What color of urine appears after its oxidation at alkaptonuria? A. White B. Yellow C. Red D. Brown E. * Black What content of mineral components is in daily urine of healthy adult? A. * 15 – 25 g B. 5 – 15 g C. 20 – 30 g D. 15 – 35 g E. 1 – 5 g What does hematuria mean? A. B. C. D. E. 1450. A. B. C. D. E. 1451. A. B. C. D. E. 1452. A. B. C. D. E. 1453. A. B. C. D. E. 1454. A. B. C. D. E. 1455. A. B. C. D. E. 1456. A. B. C. D. E. 1457. A. B. C. D. Appearance of glucose in urine * Appearance of blood in urine Appearance of acetone in urine Appearance of bile pigments in urine Appearance of porphyrin in urine What does hematuria mean? Appearance of glucose in urine * Appearance of blood in urine Appearance of acetone in urine Appearance of bile pigments in urine Appearance of porphyrin in urine What does prevent hyperuricemia: Disorders of urinary acid excretion Disintegration of DNK Radiation defeat of cell Toxemia of pregnancy Application of structural analogue of hypoxanthine What index of blood does represent the nitrogen excretory function of kidneys ? Urea Residual nitrogen Uric acid * Creatinine Electrolytes What index of blood does represent the nitrogen excretory function of kidneys ? Urea Residual nitrogen Uric acid * Creatinine Electrolytes What is average index of urine’s pH of healthy people at the mixed feed? About 4,0 About 5,0 * About 6,0 About 3,0 About 2,0 What is average index of urine’s pH of healthy people at the mixed feed? About 4,0 About 5,0 * About 6,0 About 3,0 About 2,0 What is the basic factor in pathogenesis of edema at an acute nephritis? * Decline of glomerular filtration Increase of permeability of capillaries Decline of secretion of ADH Decline of sodium excretion Secondary hyperaldosteronism What is the basic factor in pathogenesis of edema at an acute nephritis? * Decline of glomerular filtration Increase of permeability of capillaries Decline of secretion of ADH Decline of sodium excretion 1458. 1459. 1460. 1461. 1462. 1463. 1464. 1465. 1466. E. Secondary hyperaldosteronism What is the cause of primary enzymo-pathologies? A. Liver diseases. B. * Genetic disorders. C. Trauma. D. Ischemia. E. All of these What is the main reason of proteinuria? A. * Increase of permeability of filtration barrier of kidney B. Decline of permeability of filtration barrier of kidney C. Increase of osmolality of primary urine D. Increase of osmolality of the secondary urine E. Decrease of osmolality of primary urine What is the main reason of proteinuria? A. * Increase of permeability of filtration barrier of kidney B. Decline of permeability of filtration barrier of kidney C. Increase of osmolality of primary urine D. Increase of osmolality of the secondary urine E. Decrease of osmolality of primary urine What is the normal ratio between a day and night diuresis? A. * 3 : 1 B. 1 : 1 C. 9 : 1 D. 6 : 1 E. 7 : 1 What is the simplest method for determination of urine pH: A. * With the litmus paper B. With biuret reaction C. The Foll’s reaction D. By the method of Altgauzen E. With the ureometer What is used for determination of urine’s density? A. PhEC B. Densitometer C. * Urometer D. Spectrophotometer E. No any correct answer What level of urine’s density at oliguriya? A. Close to low B. Low C. Normal D. * High E. Close to normal What level of urine’s density at oliguriya? A. Close to low B. Low C. Normal D. * High E. Close to normal What level of urine’s density at poliuriya? A. Normal B. High 1467. 1468. 1469. 1470. 1471. 1472. 1473. 1474. 1475. C. * Low D. Close to low E. Close to normal What level of urine’s density at polyuria? A. Normal B. High C. * Low D. Close to low E. Close to normal What method of research is characterized concentration property of kidneys? A. Creatinine of blood B. * Zimnitskiy’s test C. Glomerular filtration D. Electrolytes of blood E. All of the above ?What pathology is developed in the absence of phenylalanine 4-monooxygenase? A. * Phenylketonuria. B. Alkaptonuria C. Galactosemia. D. Hyperglycemia. E. Achilia What substances are precursors of creatin? A. Creatinine, glycine, arginine B. Urinary acid, urea C. Indican, organic acids D. Hyaluronic acid, methionine E. * Glycine, arginine, methionine Which hormone increases sodium and water reabsorption by renal tubule cells: A. A.Oxytocine B. Aldosterone C. Vasopressin D. Prolactin E. Cortisol Which hormone intensify reabsorption of sodium in renal tubules? A. glucagon B. insulin C. foliculin D. * aldosterone E. vasopressin Which hormone intensify reabsorption of sodium in renal tubules? A. glucagon B. insulin C. foliculin D. * aldosterone E. vasopressin Which hormone intensify reabsorption of sodium in renal tubules? A. glucagon B. insulin C. foliculin D. * aldosterone E. vasopressin Which hormone intensify reabsorption of sodium in renal tubules? A. B. C. D. E. glucagon insulin foliculin * aldosterone vasopressin 1476. Which hormone regulates the excretion of chlorides with urine? A. * Aldosterone B. Insulin C. Testosteron D. Corticotropin E. Cortisol 1477. Which hormones take part in formation of urine: A. * Aldosterone and ADH B. Insulin and STH C. Aldosterone and TTH D. Adrenalin and FSH E. Oxytocin and ADH 1478. Which medicine is used to increase solubility of urates - salts of uric acid for patients with gout: A. Allopurinol B. Chenodesoxycholic acid C. Cholic acid and Allopyrinol D. * Salts of lithium and anturan E. Solutin of NaCl 1479. Which of the buffer systems supports constant urine pH? A. citrate B. hemoglobin C. * hydrocarbonate D. protein E. oxyhemoglobin 1480. Which of the buffer systems majorily helps with the support of constant urine pH? A. citrate B. hemoglobin C. * hydrocarbonate D. protein E. oxyhemoglobin 1481. Which of the buffer systems supports constant urine pH? A. citrate B. hemoglobin C. * hydrocarbonate D. protein E. oxyhemoglobin 1482. Which of the following do you expect to see in a patient with metabolic acidosis with no respiratory compensation? A. Decrease of [H+] in blood B. * Decrease of [HCO3-] in blood C. Decrease of [H2CO3] in blood D. Decrease of pCO2 in blood E. Decrease of dissolved CO2 in blood 1483. Which of these is considered a secondary defense against changes in pH? A. * Renal excretion of hydrogen ions B. The bicarbonate buffer system C. The phosphate buffer system D. The protein buffer system E. The hemoglobin buffer system 1484. Which statement(s) apply to urea? A. highly soluble in water B. produced in the liver C. compound used as a means of removing excess nitrogen D. * all of the above E. None of the above 1485. Which substance appears in urine by a secretion? A. * Ammonia B. Uric acid C. Glucose D. Ions of calcium E. Proteins 1486. Which substance appears in urine by a secretion? A. * Ammonia B. Uric acid C. Glucose D. Ions of calcium E. Proteins 1487. Which substance causes the decrease of level of uric acid in blood and urine: A. Antimycin B. Аminopterin C. Barbiturates D. * Allopurinol E. AMP 1488. Which test is used for the detection of blood in urine? A. * Benzidine test B. Ninhidrin reaction C. Biuret reaction D. Method of Al'thauzen E. All of the above are correct 1489. Which types of polyuria do you know? A. Physiological and pathological B. Real and unreal C. * Renal and extra renal D. Pancreatic and nonpancreatic E. Primary and secondary 1490. With urine of a healthy adult is excreted the following product of bilirubin disintegration: A. urobilin B. stercobilin C. mesobilin D. biliverdin 1491. verdoglobin 1. muscles is increased A. After a resistance training session the rate of protein synthesis in the exercised muscles is increased B. After a resistance training session the rate of protein breakdown in the exercised C. Both (a) and (b) D. * Protein cannot be used as a fuel for exercise E. Exercise increases the rate of secretion of growth hormone 1492. A continuous supply of __________ is necessary for muscle contraction. A. * ATP B. Proteins C. Cells D. Water E. Vitamins 1493. A general characteristic of connective tissue is that it A. * Consists of cells with much intercellular material between them B. Has no blood supply to the tissue C. Covers the outside of organs D. Commonly is found lining body cavities E. Consists of cells with smal extracellular material between them 1494. A muscle fibre relaxes when: A. * The nerve stimulus is removed B. The nerve stimulus is too forceful C. The actin binding sites are uncovered D. The actin binding sites are saturated E. All the ATP is used up 1495. A muscle that is not consciously controlled and has a banded appearance would be described as A. Striated voluntary B. * Striated involuntary C. Nonstriated voluntary D. Nonstriated involuntary E. None of the above 1496. A rheumaric arthritis is more frequent combined with disease? A. Gald blader illness B. Gout C. * Rheumatism D. Urolithiasis E. Bronchial asthma 1497. A tissue with collagen fibers, proteoglycans, and chondrocytes is A. Adipose. B. Blood. C. Bone. D. Cartilage. E. * Dense connective tissue. 1498. Actin and myosin filaments are found in ____ tissue. A. Epithelial B. * Connective C. Muscle D. Nervous E. Blood 1499. After calcium ions have been released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum they: A. Initiate an action potential B. Cause sodium channels to open in the sarcolemmal membrane C. * Bind to troponin D. Bind to actin E. Cause oxygen to be released from myoglobin 1500. After microscopic examination, an unknown tissue was found to have numerous white and yellow fibers. What is your diagnosis as to this type of tissue? A. Simple squamous epithelium B. C. D. E. * Smooth muscle tissue Elastic cartilage Adipose tissue Reticular fibers 1501. After wound's recovery on its place scar appeared. What matter is the main component of scar's connective tissue? A. Keratan sulfate B. Elastin C. Hyaluronic acid D. Chondroitin sulfate E. * Collagene 1502. Aggregates of mucin detained water which provides his viscesity and protective action of mucin. It is possible because to the structure of mucin entered: A. * Glucuronic acid and N-acetylgalactosamin B. Cholesterol C. Phospholipids D. Pentoses E. Nucleic acid 1503. Aging affects connective tissues in which of the following ways? A. * Loss of pliability and resiliency B. Decreased efficiency in tissue repair and wound healing C. Joint pains and brittle bones D. All of the above E. Increase pliability and resiliency 1504. Amino acid remnants, most often met in collagene are: A. Tryptophane, oxilysine, cysteine, valine B. Tryptophane, cysteine, glycine, methionine C. Lysine, arginine, cysteine, tryptophane D. * Oxiproline, oxilysine, glycine, proline E. Aminosuccinamic, glutamine, lysine 1505. Ammonia is detoxificated in a liver by converting into urea. Transport of ammonia from skeletal muscles into liver is carried out by: A. * Alanine B. Histidine C. Glycine D. Serine E. Aspartat 1506. An action potential arriving at the motor endplate causes release of: A. * Acetylcholine which traverses the neuromuscular junction B. Sodium ions which binds to sodium receptors on the muscle membrane C. Calcium ions which initiate an action potential along the muscle fibre D. Noradrenaline which increases muscle metabolic activity E. None of the above 1507. are called: A. * Actin and myosin B. Progesterone and testosterone C. Progesterone and estrogen D. Albumins and globulins E. Calmodulin and actin 1508. As individuals age, epithelia become A. Heavier B. Thicker C. * Thinner D. None of the above E. All of the above 1509. At intensive manual labour quickly diminish supplies of carbonhydratess which are stymulator of gluconeogenesis in liver. Which from noted amino acids synthesized in muscles from pyruvic acid, enters liver and here utillized for the synthesis of glucose? A. Valine B. Isoleucine C. * Alanin D. Leucin E. Cystein 1510. At parodontose there is destruction of proteins and polysaccharides components of connective tissue. Which from the resulted proteins does enter in the complement of connective tissue? A. Albumin B. Transferrin C. * Collagen D. Ceruloplazmin E. Antitrypsin 1511. At the hyperfunction of adrenal glan there is thinning of skin and blood vessels, osteoporosis. Reason of it can be: A. Increase synthesis of glycosaminoglycans B. Oppression synthesis of glycolipids C. * Oppression synthesis of proteoglycans and collogen D. Decrease synthesis of glycogen E. Oppression synthesis of nucleoproteins 1512. At the organ level, the term membrane generally refers to a thin lining or covering composed of an epithelium that overlies a layer of ____. A. * Smooth muscle B. Skeletal muscle C. Nerve D. Loose connective tissue E. Fibrous connective tissue 1513. B Skull A. * eart B. Ribs C. Bones D. Lung 1514. By cadaveric rigidity muscle rigidity appears, caused by the lack of energy in the ATP form. What stage of elementary tractions acts is blocked by cadaveric rigidity? A. Separation of myosin head from actin B. * Joining of myosin head to actin C. Joining of calcium to troponin D. ATP hydrolysis in the actin center of myosin E. Separation of troponin from actin 1515. By myocardial ischemia the amount of ATP and creatine phosphate is rapidly decreased as a result of oxidative phosphorylation affection. Among the first symptoms of this state there is: A. Membrane permeability affection B. Contractible proteins synthesis C. * Myoglobine synthesis D. Ribosome malfunction E. Fatty acids F-oxidation malfunction 1516. Cardiac muscle is found in the wall of the A. Stomach B. Intestine C. Urinary bladder D. * Heart E. Bone 1517. Cardiac muscle tissue: A. Is under voluntary control B. All of the above C. * Does not require nerve activity to stimulate a contraction D. Will not contract unless stimulated by nerves E. None of the above 1518. Cardiac muscle tissue: A. Is under voluntary control B. All of the above C. * Does not require nerve activity to stimulate a contraction D. Will not contract unless stimulated by nerves E. None of the above 1519. Cartilage and bone are examples of what classification of connective tissue? A. Supporting connective tissue B. Connective tissue proper C. Fluid connect tissues D. All of the above E. None of the above 1520. Cartilage and bone are examples of what classification of connective tissue? A. Fluid connect tissues B. * Specialized connective tissue C. Connective tissue proper D. All of the above E. None of the above 1521. Cartilage tissues are likely to be slow in healing following an injury because A. Cartilage cells cannot reproduce B. They lack direct blood supplies C. The intercellular material is missing D. * Cartilage cells are surrounded by fluids E. None of the above 1522. Cell types likely to be seen in areolar connective tissue include all except: ________. A. Fibroblasts B. Macrophages C. * Mast cells D. Chondrocytes E. Odontoblasts 1523. Cells in which tissue type are specialized to transmit electrical impulses from one body region to another? A. Muscle B. * Nervous C. Connective D. Epithelial E. Blood 1524. Changes concentration of which cytosol ion is biochemical regulator of including of process of muscle reduction? A. Mg+2 B. Ca+2 C. K+ D. Na+ E. Cl1525. Characteristic for heart and liver troubles is an increase activity of LDG. What additional research does need to be conducted for definition localization of pathological process? A. Determination activity of amylase B. Determination activity of alkaline phosphatase C. Determination isoenzymes of creatinkinase D. Determination isoenzymes of LDG E. Determination activity of aminotranaferase 1526. Collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers in connective tissues are formed by A. Phospholipids B. Carbohydrates C. Adipose tissue D. * Proteins E. Vitamins 1527. Connective tissue cells that produce the extracellular matrix are called A. Blast cells. B. Cyte cells. C. Clast cells. D. * Macrophages. E. Mast cells. 1528. Dense irregular connective tissue that forms a supporting layer around cartilage is called: A. Perichondrium B. * Periosteum C. Dermis D. Сapsule E. Epidermis 1529. Dense regular collagenous connective tissue would be found in A. A nerve B. The brain C. A ligament D. * Skull bone E. Lung 1530. ?Destruction of thin myofilaments is observed during the research of a striated muscle fiber after the action of hydrolytic enzymes. Which structures have been damaged? A. * Actin myofilaments B. Collagen C. T-systems D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum E. Myosin myofilaments 1531. Disorder in the secretory activity of odontoblasts took place during mantle dentin formation in a milk tooth. Formation of what fibers will be changed? A. Elastic B. Reticular C. * Radial collagen fibers D. Tangential collagen fibers E. Nerve 1532. During a race long-distance the skeletal musculature of the trained man utillizes glucose with the purpose of receipt of energy ATP for muscular reduction. Specify the basic process utilization of glucose in these conditions: A. Glicogenesis B. Anaerobic glicolysis C. * Aerobic glicolysis D. Gluconeogenesis E. Glycogenolysis 1533. During the biosynthesis of collagen, in posttranslation modification of proteins with formation of mature collagen, namely hydroxylating of proline and lysine take part ascorbatdepending hydroxilase. For what ascorbic acid is needed? A. * Regenerations of the reconstract form of iron B. Oxidation of iron C. Diminishing concentration reconstract form iron D. Increase maintenance active forms of oxygen E. Influences on apoenzyme of hydroxilase 1534. Embryonic connective tissues include A. * Mesenchyme B. Wharton's jelly C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above E. Basofills 1535. Endocrine and exocrine glands are formed from what type of tissue? A. Connective B. Blood C. Muscle D. Nerve E. * Epithelial 1536. Endurance training increases the muscle’s capacity to: A. Contract faster B. Breakdown phosphocreatine C. * Burn fat and carbohydrate D. Generate energy anaerobically E. Produce more blood cells 1537. Extracellular liquid matrix in blood is A. Adipose B. * Plasma C. Fibroblast D. Calcium salt E. All of the above 1538. Extracellular matrix in bone is formed by A. Mineral salts B. * Reticular fibers C. Collagen and elastin D. Lipids E. All of the above 1539. Fast-twitch fibres contain: A. A relatively large number of mitochondria and low ATPase activity B. A relatively small number of mitochondria and low ATPase activity C. * A relatively small number of mitochondria and high ATPase activity D. A relatively large number of mitochondria and high ATPase activity E. No mitochondria and high ATPase activity 1540. Feeding must contain calcium, which is necessary for traction triggering by connecting it to the: A. * ATP-ase center of myosin B. Molecules of globular actin C. One of troponin subunits D. Tropomyosin E. Calmodulin 1541. Fetal skeleton in early stages is formed by A. * Hyaline cartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. Bone D. Muscular tissue E. Tendon 1542. For bottled fruit of blood apply various anticoagulants, in a that number policacharides of natural origin, namely: A. * Heparinum B. Hyaluronic acid C. Dermatan sulfate D. Chondroitin sulfates E. Dextrane 1543. For maintenance of normal elasticity and regeneration of skin and its appendages is needed the sufficient amount of vitamin: A. * A B. C C. B12 D. K E. B1 1544. For the function of muscles important significance has creatinphosphate which appears from a creatin and ATP. Name amino acids which are needed for the synthesis of creatin: A. Glycine, proline, cystein B. Methionine, leucine, phenilalanin C. * Glycine, arginine, methionine D. Arginine, tryptophane, lisyne E. Valine, leucine, isoleucine 1545. For very high force muscle contractions lasting 1-2 seconds, the initial energy source is from: A. glycolysis B. Creatine phosphorylation C. Phosphocreatine stores D. * ATP stores E. None of the above 1546. For what rheumatic disease characteristic rentgenologic sign of osteoartroses? A. * Gout B. Rheumatic arthritis C. Rheumatism D. Disease of Shegrena E. Pellagra 1547. From what albumins built filaments of muscles? A. B. C. D. E. Albumins and globulins * Actin and miosin Albumins and histons Tubulins and actin Calmodulin and tropomiosine 1548. Hemopoietic tissue is found in A. Adipose tissue B. Cartilage C. The dermis of the skin D. * Red marrow E. Yellow marrow 1549. Heparinum synthesized fat cells and enters to blood where he executes a main function: A. Procoagulant B. Antitripsin C. Oxidant D. Antioxidant E. * Anticoagulant 1550. Hipovitaminoses C is accompanied by violations of connective tissue, namely to the synthesis of collogen. What role in here take part vitamin C? A. * Activates prolinhydroxilase B. Activates hyaluronidase C. Activates creatinphosphokinase D. Activates glutation E. Activates amylase 1551. Hyaline cartilage is classified as ____ tissue. A. Nervous B. Muscle C. * Connective D. Epithelial E. All of the abvove 1552. Hyaline cartilage is different from elastic or fibrocartilage because ________. A. It is more vascularized B. It contains more nuclei C. * It has more elastic fibers D. Fibers are not normally visible E. Fibers are normally visible 1553. Important function in the processes of bone mineralisation is executed by glycosaminoglycans, except: A. Chondroitin 4-sulfate B. Hyaluronic acid C. Dermatan sulfate D. Keratan Sulfates E. * Heparin 1554. In the complement of connective tissue of saliva, teeth enter complex connections of proteins and carbohydrates as glycosaminoglycans. Violation metabolism of these substances is one of reasons development of caries. Specify on these connections: A. Hyaluronic acid B. Chondroitin sulfates C. * Proteoglikans D. Heparin E. Dermatan sulfate 1555. In the process of get olding there is diminishing of elasticity of skin, blood vessels, resiliently elastic properties of cartilages are worsened, reparative ability of connecting tissue goes down. Reason of it can be: A. * Decline amount of proteoglycans B. Maintenance of collogen fibres grows C. Increase degree hydratation of proteoglycans D. Diminishing maintenance of hepatin in muscles E. Increase of amount of elastin 1556. In the process of get olding there is diminishing of elasticity of skin, blood vessels, resiliently elastic properties of cartilages are worsened, reparative ability of connecting tissue goes down. Reason of it can be: A. * Decline amount of proteoglycans B. Maintenance of collogen fibres grows C. Increase degree hydratation of proteoglycans D. Diminishing maintenance of hepatin in muscles E. Increase of amount of elastin 1557. In the process of organism's ageing is decreased bonding of water by connective tissue. This is tied with the decrease of concentration of: A. Glycosaminoglycan B. * Collagene C. Phospholipids D. Hyaluronic acid E. Chondroitin sulphuric acid 1558. In tissues of organism during the update of proteoglycans there is their disintegration in lysosomes by breaking up cathepsins and glycosidases. There is a decline of activity of lysosomal glycosidases at mucopolysaccharidoses. Which products disintegration of proteoglycans will appear in big amounts in urine? A. Glucose-6-phosphate B. Glucose C. * Chondroitin sulfates D. Fructose-6- phosphate E. Glucosamine 1559. In tissues of organism during the update of proteoglycans there is their disintegration in lysosomes by breaking up cathepsins and glycosidases. There is a decline of activity of lysosomal glycosidases at mucopolysaccharidoses. Which products disintegration of proteoglycans will appear in big amounts in urine? A. Glucose-6-phosphate B. Glucose C. * Chondroitin sulfates D. Fructose-6- phosphate E. Glucosamine 1560. In what kinds of tissue would you find gap junctions? A. * Heart and smooth muscle tissue B. Cells lining the digestive tract C. Layers of the skin D. All of the above E. None of the above 1561. In which of the following ways does cardiac muscle tissue differ from skeletal muscle tissue? A. Cardiac muscle fibers are relatively short and branched or bifurcated B. Neighboring cardiac muscle fibers are connected by intercalated discs C. Each cardiac muscle cell has only one or two centrally located nuclei D. * All of the above E. Cardiac muscle, like other muscles, can contract, but it can also carry an action potential 1562. In which of these locations is dense irregular collagenous connective tissue found? A. Walls of large arteries B. * Tendons C. Nuchal ligament D. Dermis of the skin E. Reticular tissue 1563. It is known that a sinovial liquid diminishes the friction of arthral surfaces. At rheumatism or arthritis its viscidity goes down as a result of depolamirisation of such substance: A. Glycogen B. Collagen C. Heparin D. Albumin E. * Hyaluronic acid 1564. Large arteries stretch during systole and return to the start state during diastole to provide bloodstream stability. Which structural components of vessels wall explain this? A. * Elastic fibers B. Muscle fibers C. Reticular fibers D. Collsgen fibers E. Numerous fibriblasts 1565. Ligaments connect A. * Cartilage to bone. B. Bone to muscle. C. Muscle to muscle. D. Bone to bone. E. All of the above 1566. Lisocim provides death of bacterial cells, because have action on the cellular membrane of bacteria, splitting: A. Lipids B. * Carbohydrate components C. Proteins D. Nucleic acids E. Cholesterol 1567. Lizocim is antybacterial factor, for mechanism of action there is muraminidase. To which class of enzymes does he belong, if splits glycosidic bonds in to the polisacharide chain of muramine? A. * Hidrolyse B. Transferase C. Oxidoreductase D. Lyases E. Izomerase 1568. Loose connective tissue contains A. Collagen and elastin fibers B. Myosin and actin fibers C. Plasma D. * All of the above E. Blood serum 1569. Major proteins of connecive tissue are: A. B. C. D. E. Fibroin and keratin Albumins and globulins * Collagene and elastin Myosin and actin Protamines and histons 1570. Microfilaments bunch together to form myofibrils in: A. * Cardiac muscle B. Skeletal muscle C. Smooth muscle D. A and B E. A and C 1571. Mineralization of organic matrixe of bone tissue is related to the big energy outlay, mainly due to the breaking up of: A. Ketone bodies B. Fatty acids C. * Glycogen D. Proteins E. Amino acids 1572. Movement of food through the digestive tract results from the action of A. Cardiac muscle B. * Smooth muscle C. Skeletal muscle D. Undifferentiated muscle E. Tendon 1573. Mucin – one of the basic components of saliva, for chemical nature is complex protein, namely: A. Metalloprotein B. Nukleoprotein C. Phosphoprotein D. Lipoprotein E. * Glycoprotein 1574. Muscle fatigue can result from: A. Depletion of ATP B. Depletion of Ca+ C. Depletion of acetylcholine D. * Both (A) and (B) E. A combination of both (A) & (C). 1575. Muscle tissue cells are contractile, which means they A. Are responsible for the production and secretion of enzymes B. * Are specialized in contraction and relaxation C. Help in the movement of involuntary organs only D. All of the above statements are true. E. None of the above 1576. Muscles are made of A. Silica B. Polyester threads C. Calcium and phosphorous D. * Groups of cells called fibres E. All of the above 1577. Muscles of the pectoral girdle and upper limbs are organized into all of the following groups except A. * Muscles that move the pectoral girdle B. C. D. E. Muscles that move the glenohumeral joint Intrinsic muscles of the forearm Intrinsic muscles of the hand All of the folliwing 1578. Muscular endurance is defined as: A. * Peak ability of a muscle to generate force. B. An ability you are born with and cannot train. C. The ability of a muscle or muscle group to generate force repeatedly D. he ability of the heart to provide oxygen rich blood to the muscles. E. All of above 1579. Muscular endurance is: A. * A muscle's ability to exert force repeatedly without fatiguing B. A force exerted by a muscle that is less than or equal to the resistance C. A withering of muscle tissue that can result from injury or disease D. The length of time a particular movement can be sustained by a muscle or muscle group E. All of the above 1580. Muscular endurance is: A. * A muscle's ability to exert force repeatedly without fatiguing B. A force exerted by a muscle that is less than or equal to the resistance C. A withering of muscle tissue that can result from injury or disease D. The length of time a particular movement can be sustained by a muscle or muscle group E. All of the above 1581. Myosin and actin make up A. Osteoblasts B. * Myofibrils C. Collagen D. Red marrow E. Elastin 1582. Myosin and actin make up: A. Osteoblasts B. Collagen C. * Myofibrils D. Red marrow E. Desmosoms 1583. Name enzyme determination of which in blood is most informing at first hour after the origin of heart attack of myocardium: A. Aspartataminotransferase B. Alaninaminotransferase C. Laktatdehidrogenase D. * Creatinphosfokinase MB E. Glutamatdehidrogenase 1584. Nitric oxide mediates this effect on vascular smooth muscle: A. * Smooth muscle relaxation B. B. Smooth muscle contraction C. No effect D. Provide production of energy E. Smooth muscle protection 1585. One of the important differences between skeletal muscle tissue and cardiac muscle tissue is that cardiac muscle tissue is A. Multinucleated B. C. D. E. * Striated involuntary muscle Striated voluntary muscle Comprised of unusually large cells None of the above 1586. One of the important differences between skeletal muscle tissue and cardiac muscle tissue is that cardiac muscle tissue is: A. Multinucleated B. * Striated involuntary muscle C. Comprised of unusually large cells D. Striated voluntary muscle E. None of the above 1587. One of the rules of surgery is performing sections along the so-called lines of skin tension. What tissue forms the reticular layer of derma? A. Reticular connective tissue B. * Dense irregulat connective tissue C. Loose connective tissue D. Epithelial tissue E. Dense regular connective tissue 1588. One of the sources of formation of ATP in muscles is the reaction 2 ADP?ATP+adenosine monophosphate. By what enzyme is it catalyzed? A. Hexokinase B. Aldolase C. Adenylate kinase D. * Adenylate cyclase E. ATP-ase 1589. Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue. A. Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic B. Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus C. * Its primary function is nutrient storage D. It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix E. All of the above 1590. Select the correct statement regarding the cells of connective tissue. A. * Chondroblasts are the main cell type of connective tissue proper B. Connective tissue cells are nondividing C. Connective tissue does not contain cells D. "Blast" cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells E. Connective tissue contain all type of cells 1591. Skeletal muscle is A. Striated and voluntary B. Nonstriated and involuntary C. * Striated and involuntary D. Nonstriated and voluntary E. All of above 1592. Skeletal muscle is irritated with a series of electropulses in an experiment. Every next impulse is in the period of the shortening of a single muscular contraction. What type of muscular contraction will arise? A. * Smooth tetanus B. Skeletal tetanus C. Asynchronous tetanus D. A series of single contraction E. Muscle contracture 1593. Skeletal muscle is irritated with a series of electropulses in an experiment. Every next impulse is in the period of the shortening of a single muscular contraction. What type of muscular contraction will arise? A. * Smooth tetanus B. Skeletal tetanus C. Asynchronous tetanus D. A series of single contraction E. Muscle contracture 1594. Smooth muscles occur in A. Uterus B. Artery C. Vein D. * All the above E. Bronchi 1595. Striated muscle is also called A. ardiac muscle B. mooth muscle C. * keletal muscle D. nvoluntary muscle E. None of the above 1596. Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of A. Adipose tissue B. * Fibrous connective tissue C. Muscle tissue D. Loose connective tissue E. Elastic connective tissue 1597. Tendons and ligaments contain the protein A. Keratin B. Fibrin C. Lignin D. * Collagen E. Elastin 1598. The "all or nothing" law in muscle contraction refers to . A. The muscle action potential of the motor neuron B. The contraction of the entire muscle C. * Only the contraction of individual muscle fibers D. The myoneural junction generator potential E. The release of Ca+ 1599. The advantage of strength training is that it: A. Helps reduce body weight. B. Improves cardiovascular fitness C. Gives the body a trim muscular appearance D. All of the above E. Produce force and cause motion 1600. The affection of collagenic fibers structure by the lack of vitamin C in the organism is caused by enzymes activity malfunction: A. Glycosyltransferase B. Lysine hydroxylase and lysine oxidase C. * Lysine hydroxylase and proline hydroxylase D. Procolagenpeptidase E. Colagenase 1601. The amount of sialic acids in patient's blood is 1060 mg/l. From the probable diagnosis should be removed the following: A. Atherosclerosis B. Tuberculosis C. Malignant growth D. * Rheumatism E. Cardiac infarction 1602. The basic mechanism of action of glucocorticoids consists in the following: A. Cooperate with receptors on the plasmatic membranes of cells B. Provide disintegration of glycogen in liver C. * Repress inflammatory reaction, related to the hypersensitiveness D. Find out greater ability to retain sodium, than mineralkorticoids E. Provide the mechanism activating of glucose 1603. The cells that act to guard and protect the body are: A. * Connective cells B. Nervous cells C. Endocrine cells D. Epithelial cells E. Muscle cells 1604. The concentration of creatinine in patient's blood is normal. What figures correspond this state? A. 1-2 g/l B. 50-70 mkmol/l C. 20-35 g/l D. 100-150 mlmol/l E. * 70-100 mkmol/l 1605. The connective tissue that forms "packing" around organs and attaches the skin to underlying structures is A. * Loose (areolar). B. Dense regular collagenous. C. Dense regular elastic. D. Dense irregular collagenous. E. Dense irregular elastic. 1606. The dangerous skin cancer that has a dark pigmented spot is ____. A. * Melanoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Prostatic cancer E. Ovarian cancer 1607. The decrease of ATP synthesis by ischemia causes irreversible cells affections mainly as a result of amount growth in the cell of: A. * Lactate B. Sodium ions C. Adenosine monophosphate D. Ketone bodies E. Pyruvate 1608. The end nitrogenated metabolism product of creatine is: A. Ammonia B. Indican C. Hypuric acid D. * Creatinine E. Urea 1609. The energy for all forms of muscle contraction is provided by: A. * ATP B. ADP C. Phosphocreatine D. Oxidative phosphorylation E. Generated in the mitochondria of the cell 1610. The enzyme of hyaluronidase decompose hyaluronic acid, in result increase the intercellular penetrating. Which vitamin does repress activity of hyaluronidase and promote strengthening walls of vessels? A. * Vitamin P B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin B1 D. Vitamin B2 E. Vitamin D 1611. The gel of the extracellular matrix is composed mostly of water and A. * Proteoglycans B. Collagen C. Keratin D. Reticular fibers E. None of the above 1612. The general term for any pain that occurs below the knee and above the ankle is: A. Muscle cramps B. * Muscle strain C. Shin splints D. Tendonitis E. Muscle dystrophy 1613. The major functions of loose connective tissue include A. * Occupying spaces between organs and supporting epithelia B. Supporting and surrounding blood vessels and nerves C. Cushioning organs, storing lipids, and facilitating diffusion D. All of the above E. None of the folloving 1614. The major tissue types in the body are A. * Epithelial, connective, muscle and neural B. Mesothelilum, endothelium, adiocytes and desmosomes C. Stylohyoid, digastric, thyrohyoid and zygomatic D. Squamous, simple cuboidal, columnar and stratified cuboidal E. All of the above 1615. The major types of muscles cells are: A. * Skeletal, cardiac, smooth B. Superficial, subserous, abtruse C. Appositional, osseous, elastic D. All of the above E. None of the above 1616. The man's daily secretion of creatinine with urine is: A. 3-5 g B. 4-6 g C. 8-10 g D. 7-9 g E. * 1-2 g 1617. The maximal ability of a muscle to generate force is: A. * Muscular endurance B. C. D. E. Optimal health. Strength training. Muscular strength. All of the above 1618. The menisci of the knee are made of A. Fibrocartilage. B. Hyaline cartilage. C. * Dense connective tissue similar to ligaments and tendons D. Elastic connective tissue. E. all of the above 1619. The most important function of the skin is A. * Protection B. Sweating C. Storing fat D. Insulation E. Produced energy 1620. The muscle tissue that can be consciously controlled is A. Smooth B. * Skeletal C. Intercalated D. Cardiac E. All of the above 1621. The only type of cell seen in a tendon is A. Muscle fibers B. Reticular cells C. Collagenous cells D. * Fibroblasts E. Elastin 1622. The only type of muscle with multinucleated fibers is A. * Skeletal muscle B. Cardiac muscle C. Smooth muscle D. Visceral muscle E. All of the above 1623. The oxidative deamination of the amino acid alanine in muscle produces: A. * One molecule of pyruvic acid and a molecule of ammonia B. One molecule of pyruvic acid and a molecule of carbon dioxide C. One molecule of pyruvic acid and another amino acid D. One molecule of pyruvic acid and a molecule of water E. One molecule of pyruvic acid and a molecule of urea 1624. The patient has vessel penetration malfunction. Name the connective tissue protein, which synthesis is affected: A. Tropomyosin B. Myoglobine C. * Albumin D. Collagene E. Ceruloplasmin 1625. The perichondrium is a layer of fibroconnective tissue surrounding A. A bone B. * Most cartilage C. A blood vessel D. The pericardial cavity E. All of the above 1626. The process of mineralisation is provided the structure of collagen which give possibility to join: A. N2O B. N+ C. NH3+ D. Lipids E. * Ca2+ 1627. The remnants of desmosine and isodesmosine in elastin are formed from aminoacid radicals of the following amino acids: A. * Lysine B. Glycine C. Proline D. Ornithine E. Hydrooxilysine 1628. The sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells acts as a: A. Store of digestive enzymes B. Store of sodium ions C. Store of lipid D. * Store of calcium ions E. Buffer of hydrogen ions 1629. The secretory cells of a gland are supported by a connective tissue framework called the A. Serosa B. * Stroma C. Parenchyma D. Trabecula E. Plasma 1630. The shape of a person's ear is due mainly to A. Dense regular connective tissue B. Dense irregular connective tissue C. * Elastic cartilage D. Fibrocartilage E. Adipose tissue 1631. The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________. A. Adipose tissue B. Fibrocartilage C. * Elastic cartilage D. Hyaline cartilage E. None of the above 1632. The start of traction is connected with the usage as a donor of muscle energy rich bonds energy: A. Guanosine triphosphate B. Adenosine triphosphate C. 1.3-diphosphoglycerate D. Adenosine diphosphate E. * Creatine phosphate 1633. The three basic components of all connective tissues are: A. * Specialized cells, extracellular protein fibers, ground substance B. Fluid matrix, cartilage, osteocytes C. Free exposed surface, exocrine secretions, endocrine secretions D. All of the above E. None of the above 1634. The three main components of connective tissue are ________. A. Alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells B. Ground substance, fibers, and cells C. * Collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers D. Fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts E. Only B and D 1635. The tissue found under the skin to insulate the body with cells that contain a lot of fat is ___. A. Loose connective tissue B. * Adipose tissue C. Fibrous connective tissue D. Hyaline cartilage E. Stratified squamous epithelium 1636. The toxin of stupor causes tonic tension of skeletal muscles and vessels because represses secretion from nervous completions of neurotransmitter: A. * GABA B. Noradrenalin C. Acetylcholin D. Glycine E. Glutamate 1637. The trigger to initiate the contractile process in skeletal muscle is: A. Potassium binding to myosin B. Calcium binding to tropomyosin C. ATP binding to the myosin cross bridges D. * Calcium binding to troponin E. ATP breakdown by actin 1638. The two principal contractile proteins found in skeletal muscle are: A. Actin and troponin B. * Actin and myosin C. Troponin and tropomyosin D. Myosin and tropomyosin E. Actin and tropomyosin 1639. The type of Connective Tissues are A. * Connective tissue proper B. Fluid connect tissues C. Supporting connective tissue D. All of the above E. None of the above 1640. The type of muscle found in the walls of blood vessels is A. Cardiac B. * Smooth C. Striated D. Voluntary E. Sceletal 1641. The type of muscle that makes up the walls of blood vessels is: A. Cardiac muscle B. Seletal muscle C. * Smooth muscle D. A and b E. A and c 1642. The type of tissue that has specialized cells, extracellular protein fibers and ground substance are: A. * Connective B. Neural C. Muscle D. Epithelial E. All of the above 1643. The types of Connective Tissues are: A. Fluid connect tissues B. Connective tissue proper C. Supporting connective tissue D. * All of the above E. None of the above 1644. The volume of oxygen consumed by muscles during exercise is: A. * Aerobic capacity B. Maximum oxygen capacity C. Flexibility D. Muscle endurance E. Muscle strain 1645. The volume of oxygen consumed by muscles during exercise is: A. * Aerobic capacity B. Flexibility C. Muscle endurance D. Maximum oxygen capacity E. Anaerobic oxidation 1646. These two proteins are called: A. * Actin and myosin B. Progesterone and testosterone C. Progesterone and estrogen D. Albumins and globulins E. Collogen and ekastin 1647. Triggering signal for the processse of tracion is the growth of concentration of calcium ions in sarcoplasma. Which of the mentioned factors is necessary for muscles weakening? A. * ATP B. Reducted NADP C. Sodium ions D. Creatine E. Creatinine 1648. Tropocolagene fibres in colagenic fibre are interconnected by: A. Aldol bonds B. Hydrophobic bonds C. Disulfide bonds D. Hydrogen bonds E. * Peptide bonds 1649. Type I muscle fibres have the following characteristics: A. White, glycolytic, slow contracting B. White, oxidative, slow contracting C. Red, oxidative, fast contracting D. Red, glycolytic, slow contracting E. * Red, oxidative, slow contracting 1650. by: Viscoelastic features of major matter of connective tissue are conditioned mainly A. B. C. D. E. Glycosaminoglycans * Elastin ATP Collagene Keratin 1651. Vitamin P used in treatment of diseases which have a place violation of permeability of vascular walls. Medical effect is related to his participating in: A. Processes of ripening of collagen B. * Ingibition of hyaluronidase C. Activation of hyaluronidase D. Synthesis of elastin E. Synthesis of proteoglycans 1652. What are the three basic components of connective tissue? A. Ground substance, cells, and basement membrane B. Cartilage, intercellular matrix, and serum C. Cells, protein fibers, and ground substance D. * Collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers E. Protein fibers, cells 1653. What enzyme is needed for converting of procollagen into collagen by hydroxylating of residues of proline to 4 – hydroxyproline? A. Mn2+-ascorbatdepending prolinhydroxilase B. Mg2+-ascorbatdepending prolinhydroxilase C. Cu2+-ascorbatdepending prolinhydroxilase D. * Fe2+ -ascorbatdepending prolinhydroxilase E. Ca2+ -ascorbatdepending prolinhydroxilase 1654. What enzyme used for a sclerodermia? A. Trypsin B. Amylase C. Catalase D. * Hyaluronidase E. Pepsin 1655. What happens when the thin filaments in a muscle fiber slide over the thick filaments? A. Muscle contracts. B. Muscle relaxes. C. * A muscle both contracts and relaxes. D. A muscle neither contracts nor relaxes. E. All of above 1656. What happens when the thin filaments in a muscle fiber slide over the thick filaments? A. * Amuscle contracts. B. A muscle relaxes. C. A muscle both contracts and relaxes. D. A muscle neither contracts nor relaxes. E. All of the above 1657. What hydrocarboxylic acid, intermediate product of tricarboxilic acids cycle, does take part in regulation and transportation of blood calcium? A. Isocitric acid (isocitrate) B. Oxalo-acetic acid (oxaloacetate) C. * Citric acid (citrate) D. Succinate acid (succinate) E. ?-ketoglutaric acid (?-ketoglutarate ) 1658. What indexes discover in the sharp phase of rheumatism? A. Seromucoid B. AsAT, AlAT C. * C- reactive protein D. Fibrinogen E. Creatinine 1659. What is the difference between cartilage and bone? A. Bone is rubbery, and cartilage is firm. B. * Cartilage is rubbery, and bone is firm. C. Bone is a more primitive tissue than cartilage. D. Bone is inside the body, and cartilage is outside E. Only C 1660. What is the function of a tendon? A. To link bones to bones B. To link muscles to bones C. To link muscles to ligaments D. * To bind the cells in compact bone closer together E. None of the above 1661. What joins the epithelium to the underlying connective tissue? A. Tight junction B. Desmosome C. * Gap junction D. Microvilli E. Basement membrane 1662. What matter in composition of saliva is synthesized in salivary glands and pose by them and gives saliva thick mucus character? A. Phosphates B. Sulfates C. * Mucin D. Amylase E. Maltase 1663. What neuromediators take part in a nerve-muscle transmission? A. * Acetylcholin B. Histamin C. Adrenalin D. -aminobutiric acid E. Serotonin 1664. What polysacharide (glycosaminoglycan) is the base of connective tissue intercellular matter, vitreous humor, synovial fluid, umbilical cord? A. Chondroitin sulphuric acid B. * Hyaluronic acid C. Keratan sulfate D. Heparin E. Heparan sulfate 1665. What tough connective tissue joins skeletal muscles to bones? A. Joints B. Periosteum C. * Ligaments D. Tendons E. Osteoblasts 1666. When a muscle fiber contracts, what actually shortens? A. Actin and myosin filaments B. A bands and zones of overlap C. * Sarcomeres, H bands, and I bands D. Both b and c E. All of the above 1667. When cardiac muscle cells are damaged by a heart attack, they are usually replaced by A. Connective tissue cells B. New smooth muscle cells C. * New cardiac muscle cells D. Epithelial cells E. Extracellular matrix 1668. Where is cardiac muscle tissue located in the body? A. * Heart B. Skull C. Ribs D. Bones E. Cartilage 1669. Which from amino acids does prevail in the molecule of collogen? A. Tryptophane B. Asparagin C. Glycine D. Alanin E. * Hydroxyproline 1670. Which age human skin undergoes changes, which may declare themselves by reduction of skin elasticity. What structure of connective tissue provide skin elasticity most of all? A. Cells of epidermis B. Ground substance C. * Collagen and elastic fibers D. Connective tissue cells E. Reticular fibers 1671. Which changes from the side of the isolated heart of frog is it possible to expect after introduction to perfunic solution of surplus amount of calcium chloride? A. Stop of heart B. Increase frequency of reductions C. * Increase frequency and force of reductions D. Increase force of reductions E. Decrease force of reductions 1672. Which diagnostic test does represent the degree of muscular destruction at inflammations? A. Uric acid B. Diastase C. Transaminase D. Indican E. * Creatine phosphokinase 1673. Which from amino acids does prevail in the molecule of collagen? A. Triptofan B. Asparagin C. Glycine D. Alanin E. * Hydroxyproline 1674. Which is true concerning muscle tissue? A. Is a single-celled tissue B. Cuboidal shape enhances function C. Highly cellular and well vascularized D. * Contains contractile units made of collagen E. A force exerted by a muscle that is less than or equal to the resistance 1675. Which of the following are elements of skeletal muscle contraction? A. Cross-bridges binding B. Myofibrils shortening C. * Actin filaments sliding past myosin D. All of the above E. In the presence of ATP, the myosin head detaches from F-actin. 1676. Which of the following characteristics is NOT correct about cardiac muscle? A. Found only in the wall of the heart B. Has striations C. Single, centrally placed nucleus; cells branch D. Cells bound end to end at intercalated disks E. * Under voluntary control 1677. Which of the following characteristics of skeletal cartilage limits its thickness? A. It has a girdle of perichondrium that resists outward expansion when it is compressed. B. It is primarily composed of water. C. It is avascular and receives most of its nourishment from the perichondrium that surrounds it D. * It is resilient. E. All of the above 1678. Which of the following factors does not influence success in sport? A. Ability to tolerate heavy training without succumbing to illness or injury B. Tactics C. The diet D. Skill E. * Ingestion of carnitine during exercise 1679. Which of the following is NOT correctly paired? A. Columnar epithelium--lining of intestine B. Fibrous connective tissue--tendons C. * Elastic cartilage--end of long bones D. Smooth muscles--walls of intestine E. Neurons—brain 1680. Which of the following is true? A. Increasing the protein intake above 3 grams per kg body mass per day will stimulate B. * muscle growth and increase strength C. Creatine supplements can increase muscle strength and power D. Amino acid supplements can increase muscle strength and power E. Muscle damage is induced by shortening contractions F. There is an inverse relationship between dietary protein intake and total energy intake 1681. Which of the following organs protect underlying parts from physical trauma, microbes, and water loss and help regulate body temperature? A. Muscle B. * Skin C. Kidney D. Small intestine E. Lungs 1682. Which of the following provides support for the body, attachment sites for muscles, and protection for internal organs? A. Skin B. * Skeleton C. Spinal cord D. Joints E. Blood 1683. Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth of cartilage? A. Cartilage forming cells divide and secrete new matrix on the external surface of the cartilage B. It grows from the outside. C. Cells in the perichondrium differentiate into chondroblasts. D. * Chondrocytes divide and secrete new matrix from within the cartilage. E. All of the above 1684. Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue? A. Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers B. Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures C. * Collagen fibers provide high tensile strength D. When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back E. All of the above 1685. Which of the following structures is made of elastic cartilage? A. The epiglottis B. The costal cartilage C. The larynx D. * Articular cartilage E. None of the above 1686. Which of the following tissues is attached by tendons to bone and has cells with multiple nuclei and striations? A. Tendons B. Ligaments C. Cardiac muscle D. Smooth muscle E. * Skeletal muscle 1687. Which of the following types of connective tissue is MISMATCHED with its matrix? A. * Areolar—loosely packed matrix of protein fibers B. Bone—mineralized matrix C. Cartilage—highly vascular matrix D. Blood—liquid matrix E. None of the above 1688. Which of these is NOT a connective tissue? A. Blood B. * Muscle C. Cartilage D. Areolar tissue E. Skin 1689. Which of these is not considered connective tissue? A. Blood B. * Muscle C. Cartilage D. Adipose E. Bone 1690. Which of these is NOT found in connective tissue? A. Hyaluronic acid B. * Basement membrane C. Collagen fibers D. Fluid E. Reticular fibers 1691. Which of these substances gives cartilage the ability to spring back after being compressed? A. Reticular fibers B. Collagen fibers C. Elastic fibers D. * Proteoglycan aggregates E. Adipocytes 1692. Which of these tissue types does NOT contain collagen fibers? A. Areolar connective tissue B. Dense regular connective tissue C. Skeletal muscle D. Cartilage E. * Bone 1693. Which of these tissues has cells located in lacunae? A. Adipose B. Blood C. Bone D. * Cartilage E. Both C and D 1694. Which one among the following statement about smooth muscle is TRUE? A. * The smooth muscles are responsible for the movements of the internal organs. B. The cells in the smooth muscles have actin, but no striations. C. The muscular cells in the smooth muscles are shorter than the skeletal muscles. D. All of the above statements are true about the smooth muscle. E. All of the above statements are incorrect about the smooth muscle. 1695. Which one of the following is not a type of storage or transport connective tissue? A. * Lymphocytes B. Adipose tissue C. Erythrocytes D. All of the above are types of storage or transport connective tissue. E. None of the above are types of storage or transport connective tissue. 1696. Which one of the following is not a type of tissue? A. Epithelial B. Nervous C. Connective D. Muscle E. * Endocrine 1697. Which statement best describes connective tissue? A. Usually lines a body cavity B. Usually contains a large amount of matrix C. Primarily concerned with secretion D. * Always arranged in a single layer of cells E. None of the above 1698. Which term describes a band of dense regular connective tissue that attaches two bones? A. Aponeurosis B. * Tendon C. Ligament D. Capsule E. Vessels 1699. Which two classes of cells are found in connective tissue proper? A. Resident cells and wandering cells B. * Mast cells and fibroblasts C. Adipocytes and leukocytes D. Macrophages and mesenchyme cells E. Neitrofills and basofils 1700. Which type of connective tissue has a matrix that has a white translucent (milk glass) appearance and is found in the nose and at the ends of long bones? A. Fibrocartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. * Hyaline cartilage D. Spongy bone E. Compact bone 1701. Which type of connective tissue is found in tendons? A. Loose connective tissue B. * Fibrous connective tissue C. Hyaline cartilage tissue D. Elastic cartilage tissue E. Compact bone tissue 1702. Which type of tissue facilitates movement of the skeleton or organ walls? A. Epithelial B. * Muscular C. Connective D. Nervous E. Blood 1703. Which type of tissue has a rigid matrix of calcium salts deposited around protein fibers, has lacunae containing osteocytes arranged in concentric circles, and is found along the shaft of a long bone? A. * Hyaline cartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. Fibrocartilage D. Compact bone E. Spongy bone 1704. Which type of tissue will be found immediately below the skin and most epithelial layers? A. * Loose connective tissue B. Adipose tissue C. Fibrous connective tissue D. Hyaline cartilage E. Bone 1705. Which types of junction will be found in heart and smooth muscle to ensure synchronized contraction? A. Tight junctions B. Adhesion junctions (desmosomes) C. * Gap junctions D. Canaliculi E. Basement membrane 1706. With age of man in cartilaginous tissue goes down speed update of proteoglycans, that results in diminishing degree hydratation of them and loss of resiliency in tissue. Activity of which enzymes of lysosomes does rise here? A. Deaminase, decarboxilase B. Isomerase, dehydrogenase C. Proteases, lipases D. * Cathepsins, glicosydase E. Oxidoreductase, phosphatases 1707. Your heart is a muscle that is made up of highly specialized _______. A. Cartilage B. * Tissue C. Ligaments D. Red blood cells E. Bone 1708. Your skeletal muscles are also called A. Smooth muscle B. * Striated muscle C. Better teeth D. All of the above E. None of the above Real file situation questions 1. Conversion of deoxyuridine monophosphate to thymidine monophosphate is catalysed by the enzyme: A. Ribonucleotide reductase B. * Thymidylate synthetase C. CTP synthetase D. Orotidylic acid decarboxylase E. Thymidylate phosphatase 2. Conversion of uridine diphosphate into deoxyuridine diphosphate requires all the following except A. Ribonucleotide reductase B. Thioredoxin C. * Tetrahydrobiopterin D. NADPH E. Both C and D 3. CTP synthetase forms CTP from A. CDP and inorganic phosphate B. CDP and ATP C. * UTP and glutamine D. UTP and glutamate E. UTP and ammonia 4. Cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate synthetase is activated by A. Glutamine B. * PRPP C. ATP D. Aspartate E. Glutamate 5. Cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate synthetase is inhibited by A. * UTP B. CTP C. PRPP D. TMP E. All of these 6. d-UMP is converted to TMP by A. * Methylation B. Decarboxylation C. Reduction D. Deamination E. Oxidation 7. De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides is regulated by A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase B. Aspartate transcarbamoylase C. * Both (A) and (B) D. Arginase E. None of these 8. Deoxycytidine kinase can salvage A. Adenosine B. Adenosine and deoxyadenosine C. Adenosine and guanosine D. * Adenine and adenosine E. All of these 9. Deoxyribonucleotides are formed by reduction of A. Ribonucleosides B. Ribonucleoside monophosphates C. * Ribonucleoside diphosphates D. Ribonucleoside triphosphates E. All of these 10. DNA does not contain A. Thymine B. Adenine C. * Uracil D. Deoxyribose E. Both C and D 11. DNA is A. Usually present in tissues as a nucleo protein nd cannot be separated from its protein component B. * A long chain polymer in which the internucleotide linkages are of the diester type between C-3’ and C-5’ C. Different from RNA since in the latter the internucleotide linkages are between C2’ and C-5’ D. Hydrolyzed by weal alkali (pH9 to 100°C) E. Both a and B 12. DNA rich in A-T pairs have A. 1 Hydrogen bond B. * 2 Hydrogen bonds C. 3 Hydrogen bonds D. 4 Hydrogen bonds E. None of the above 13. DNA rich in G-C pairs have A. 1 Hydrogen bond B. 2 Hydrogen bonds C. * 3 Hydrogen bonds D. 4 Hydrogen bonds E. None of the above 14. During de novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides, the first ring compound to be formed is A. Carbamoyl aspartic acid B. * Dihydro-orotic acid C. Orotic acid D. Orotidine monophosphate E. Aspartic acid 15. For de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides, aspartate provides A. * Nitrogen 1 B. Nitrogen 3 C. Nitrogen 7 D. Nitrogen 9 E. Both A and B 16. For synthesis of CTP and UTP, the amino group comes from A. Amide group of Asparagine B. * Amide group of glutamine C. ?-Amino group of glutamine D. ?-Amino group of glutamate E. Ammonia 17. For the synthesis of TMP from dump, a coenzyme is required which is A. N10- Formyl tetrahydrofolate B. N5- Methyl tetrahydrofolate C. * N5, N10- Methylene tetrahydrofolate D. N5- Formimino tetrahydrofolate E. None of these 18. Free ammonia is liberated during the catabolism of A. Cytosine B. Uracil C. Thymine D. * All of these E. None of these 19. Genetic information flows from A. DNA to DNA B. * DNA to RNA C. RNA to cellular proteins D. DNA to cellular proteins E. RNA to RNA 20. Genetic information in human beings is stored in A. * DNA B. RNA C. Both (A) and (B) D. ATP E. None of these 21. Gout is a metabolic disorder of catabolism of A. Pyrimidine B. * Purine C. Alanine D. Phenylalanine E. Both A and B 22. Hypouricaemia can occur in A. * Xanthine oxidase deficiency B. Psoriasis C. Leukaemia D. All of these E. None of these 23. In DNA molecule A. Guanine content does not equal cytosine content B. Adenine content does not equal thymine content C. Adenine content equals uracil content D. * Guanine content equals cytosine content E. A and D are correct 24. In humans purine are catabolised to uric acid due to lack of the enzyme: A. Urease B. * Uricase C. Xanthine oxidase D. Guanase E. Both A and B 25. In purine biosynthesis carbon atoms at 4 and 5 position and N at 7 position are contributed by A. * Glycine B. Glutamine C. Alanine D. Threonine E. THFA 26. In purine nucleus nitrogen atom at 1 position is derived from A. * Aspartate B. Glutamate C. Glycine D. Alanine E. THFA 27. In the biosynthesis of purine nucleotides the AMP feed back regulates A. Adenylosuccinase B. * Adenylosuccinate synthetase C. IMP dehydrogenase D. HGPR Tase E. Both B and C 28. Increased urinary excretion of orotic acid can occur in deficiency of A. Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase B. OMP decarboxylase C. Mitochondrial ornithine transcarbamoylase D. * Any of the above E. Both A and B 29. Infantile convulsions due to lesser formation of gamma amino butyric acid from glutamic acid is seen in the deficiency of A. Glutamate-dehydrogenase B. * Pyridoxine C. Folic acid D. Thiamin E. Cobalamine 30. Inherited deficiency of adenosine deaminase causes A. Hyperuricaemia and gout B. Mental retardation C. * Immunodeficiency D. Dwarfism E. Goiter 31. Inherited deficiency of purine nucleoside phosphorylase causes A. Dwarfism B. Mental retardation C. * Immunodeficiency D. Gout E. All of these 32. Intestinal nucleosidases act on nucleosides and produce A. Purine base only B. Phosphate only C. Sugar only D. * Purine or pyrimidine bases and sugars E. All of the above 33. Mammals other than higher primates do not suffer from gout because they A. Lack xanthine oxidase B. Lack adenosine deaminase C. Lack purine nucleoside phosphorylase D. * Possess uricase E. Both c and D 34. Orotic aciduria can be controlled by A. Oral administration of orotic acid B. Decreasing the dietary intake of orotic acid C. Decreasing the dietary intake of pyrimidines D. * Oral administration of uridine E. Both B and D 35. Progressive transmethylation of ethanolamine gives A. Creatinine B. Choline C. * Methionine D. N-methyl nicotinamide E. Adenine 36. PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase, the first enzyme uniquely committed to purine synthesis is feed back inhibited by A. * AMP B. IMP C. XMP D. CMP E. All of these 37. Purine biosynthesis is inhibited by A. * Aminopterin B. Tetracyclin C. Methotrexate D. Chloramphenicol E. Both B and C 38. Pyrimidine and purine nucleoside biosynthesis share a common precursor: A. * PRPP B. Glycine C. Fumarate D. Alanine E. IMP 39. Ring closure of formimidoimidazole carboxamide ribosyl-5-phosphate yields the first purine nucleotide: A. AMP B. * IMP C. XMP D. GMP E. ATP 40. RNA does not contain A. adenine B. * OH methyl cytosine C. d-ribose D. Uracil E. Both A and B 41. Tetrahydrofolate is required as a coenzyme for the synthesis of A. UMP B. CMP C. * TMP D. All of these E. None of these 42. The cofactors required for synthesis of adenylosuccinate are A. ATP, Mg++ B. ADP C. * GTP, Mg++ D. GDP E. AMP 43. The first pyrimidine nucleotide to be formed in de novo synthesis pathway is A. * UMP B. CMP C. CTP D. TMP E. IMP 44. The following cannot be salvaged in human beings: A. Cytidine B. Deoxycytidine C. * Cytosine D. Thymidine E. Both A and B 45. The mean intracellular concentration of ATP in mammalian cell is about A. * 1 mM B. 2 mM C. 0.1 mM D. 0.2 mM E. 10 mM 46. The sugar moiety present in DNA is A. * Deoxyribose B. Ribose C. Lyxose D. Ribulose E. Glucose 47. Transcription is the formation of A. DNA from a parent DNA B. mRNA from a parent mRNA C. * pre mRNA from DNA D. protein through mRNA E. protein through DNA 48. Translation is the formation of A. DNA from DNA B. mRNA from DNA C. * Protein through mRNA D. mRNA from pre mRNA E. Protein through DNA 49. UDP and UTP are formed by phosphorylation from A. AMP B. ADP C. * ATP D. GTP E. All of these 50. UTP is converted to CTP by A. Methylation B. Isomerisation C. * Amination D. Reduction E. Oxidation 51. Whcih of the following compound is present in RNA but absent from DNA? A. Thymine B. Cytosine C. * Uracil D. Guanine E. Both A and B 52. Which of the following contains a deoxy sugar? A. RNA B. * DNA C. ATP D. UTP E. AMP 53. Which of the following statements is correct? A. a nucleo protein usually contain deoxy sugars of the hexose type B. Nucleoproteins are usually absent from the cytoplasm C. Nucleoproteins usually are present in the nucleus only D. * Nucleoproteins usually occur in the nucleus and cytoplasm E. Both B and D 54. 5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate is required for the synthesis of A. Purine nucleotides B. Pyrimidine nucleotides C. * Both (A) and (B) D. Uric acid E. None of these 55. A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme Xanthine oxidase is A. Aspirin B. * Allopurinal C. Colchicine D. Phenyl benzoate E. All of these 56. A nitrogenous base that does not occur in mRNA is A. * Cytosine B. Thymine C. Uracil D. Both A and C E. All of these 57. A purine nucleotide is A. * AMP B. UMP C. CMP D. TMP E. Both A and B 58. A pyrimidine nucleotide is A. GMP B. AMP C. CMP D. IMP E. C and D are correct 59. A synthetic nucleotide analogue, 4-hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine is used in the treatment of A. Acute nephritis B. * Gout C. Cystic fibrosis of lung D. Multiple myeloma E. Goiter 60. Acid hydrolysis of ribonucleic acid would yield the following major products: A. d- deoxyribose, cytosine, adenine B. d-ribose, thymine, Guanine C. d-ribose, cytosine, uracil, thymine D. * d-ribose, uracil, adenine, guanine, cytosine E. Both B and D 61. Adenosine kinase can salvage A. Adenosine B. * Adenosine and deoxyadenosine C. Adenosine and guanosine D. Adenine and adenosine E. All of these 62. Adjusting of purine nucleotides biosynthesis is carried out: A. with c-AMP B. with c-GMP and Ca2+ C. through a hypothalamus D. with ATP E. * with principle of feed back regulation with the usage of inhibitors such as IMP, AMP, GMP 63. Alanine is formed from catabolism of A. Thymine B. Thymine and cytosine C. Thymine and uracil D. * Cytosine and uracil E. Adenine 64. Alimentary hyperuricemia, which can appear due to functioning of „salvage pathway” in which excess of hypoxanthine transforms into: A. Xanthine B. Inosine C. Uric acid D. * Guanine E. Uracil 65. Alkalis cannot hydrolyse A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. * DNA E. Both C and D 66. All below mentioned substances are components of pyrimidine nucleotides except: A. Uracil B. Thymine C. Cytosine D. Phosphoric acid E. * Adenine 67. All of the following statements about uric acid are true except A. It is a catabolite of purines B. It is excreted by the kidneys C. * It is undissociated at pH above 5.8 D. It is less soluble than sodium urate E. Both C and D 68. All of the following statements about uric acid are true except A. * It can be formed from allantoin B. Formation of uric acid stones in kidneys can be decreased by alkalinisation of urine C. Uric acid begins to dissociate at pH above 5.8 D. It is present in plasma mainly as monosodium Urate E. Both A and B 69. All the following statements about primary gout are true except A. Its inheritance is X-linked recessive B. It can be due to increased activity of PRPP synthetase C. * It can be due to increased activity of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase D. De novo synthesis of purines is increased in it E. Both C and D 70. Amount of uric acid which excreted daily is: A. Not excreted B. 10-12 g/day C. 4-8 mg/day D. * 270-600 mg/day E. 2-5 g/day 71. AMP is an allosteric inhibitor of A. PRPP synthetase B. Adenylosucciante synthetase C. * Both (A) and (B) D. IMP dehydrogenase E. None of these 72. An allosteric inhibitor of adenylosuccinate synthetase is A. * AMP B. ADP C. GMP D. GDP E. All of these 73. An allosteric inhibitor of IMP dehydrogenase is A. AMP B. ADP C. * GMP D. GDP E. ATP 74. An allosteric inhibitor of PRPP glutamyl amido transferase is A. AMP B. ADP C. * GMP D. All of these E. None of these 75. An alternate substrate for orotate phosphoribosyl transferase is A. Allopurinol B. Xanthine C. Hypoxanthine D. * Adenine E. None of these 76. An enzyme common to de novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides and urea is A. Urease B. * Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase C. Aspartate transcarbamoylase D. Argininosuccinase E. None of these 77. An enzyme of pyrimidine nucleotide biosynthesis sensitive to allosteric regulation is A. * Aspartate transcarbamoylase B. Dihydroorotase C. Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase D. Orotidylic acid decarboxylase E. A and B 78. An enzyme which acts as allosteric regulator and sensitive to both phosphate concentration and to the purine nucleotides is A. * PRPP synthetase B. PRPP glutamyl midotransferase C. HGPR Tase D. Formyl transferase E. PRPP transferase 79. At the initial stages of degradation the pyrimidine bases transform into: A. ?-amino acids B. * ?-amino acid C. Acetic acid D. Keto-acids E. Biogenic amines 80. Biochemical index, which characterizes the genetic disorder of UMP biosynthesis is following: A. Aspartataciduria B. * Orotaciduria C. Gomogentisinuria D. Uraciluria E. Cytosinuria 81. Carbamoyl phosphate reacts with aspartate with formation: A. Dihydroorotic acid B. Orotic acid C. Orotidine-5-phosphate D. * Carbamoyl aspartate E. UDP 82. Choose enzyme which catalyses the first reaction of pyrimidine nucleotides biosynthesis: A. * Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase B. Phosphoribosil transferase C. Ornitine carbamoyl phosphattransferase D. Aspartate aminotransferase E. Alanine aminotransferase 83. Choose from following regulative enzyme of deoxyribonucleotides synthesis: A. * Ribonucleotidreductase B. Deoxyribonukleotidreductase C. Nucleosidmonophosphatkinase D. Nucleosidphosphorilase E. ATP-ase 84. Choose precursor of pyrimidine nucleotide – uridine monophosphate: A. * Orotidine-5-phosphate B. Ribose-5-phosphate C. Dihydroorotic acid D. Uracil E. Uridine 85. Choose substance which does not take part in formation of pyrimidine ring: A. Carbamoyl phosphate B. NH3 C. SO2 D. Aspartic acid E. * Alanine 86. Choose substrates and products of the third reaction of biosynthesis of purine: A. Ribosephosphateamine + ATP glycineamineribonucleotide B. Ribosephosphateamine + ADP + pp ribosephosphate -aminodiphosphate C. Ribosephosphateamine + ATP + glycine glycineamineribonucleotide D. Glycine + glutamate + ATP glycineamineribonucleotide E. Ribose-5-phosphate + ATP phosphoribosepyrophosphate 87. Choose the substance which gives the most atoms for purine ring: A. aspartate B. * glycine C. glutamine D. formyl -THF E. CO2 88. Conversion of formylglycinamide ribosyl-5-phosphate to formyl-glycinamide ribosyl-5phosphate is inhibited by A. * Azaserine B. Diazonorleucine C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Mycophenolic acid E. Both A and B 89. Conversion of inosine monophosphate to xanthine monophosphate is catalysed by A. * IMP dehydrogenase B. Formyl transferase C. Xanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase D. Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase E. Xanthine oxydase 90. Cyclic AMP can be formed from A. AMP B. ADP C. * ATP D. GTP E. All of these 91. Daily uric acid excretion in adult men is A. 2–6 mg B. 20–40 mg C. 150–250 mg D. * 40–600 mg E. 2-6 g 92. De novo synthesis of purine nucleotide occurs in A. Mitochondria B. * Cytosol C. Microsmes D. Ribosomes E. Nucleus 93. De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides occurs in A. Mitochondria B. * Cytosol C. Microsomes D. Ribosomes E. Nucleus 94. Decarboxilation of which substance results in formation of uridylic acid? A. * Orotidilic acid B. Dihydroorotic acid C. Orotic acid D. Carbamoyl aspartate E. Carbamoyl phosphate 95. Deficiency of all the followings substances causes disorders of pyrimidine nucleotides synthesis except: A. Glutamine B. Aspartate C. CO2 D. * FAD E. Ribose-5-phosphate 96. Deficiency of which of below mentioned enzyme causes orotaciduria? A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase ІІ B. Aspartate carbamoyl transferase C. * Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase D. Orotate carboxylase E. Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase 97. Deposition of uric acid crystals in joints results in development of such desease: A. Pellagra B. Diabetes mellitus C. Xanthinuria D. * Gout E. Alkaptonuria 98. Dietary purines are catabolised in A. Liver B. Kidneys C. * Intesitnal mucosa D. Brain E. All of these 99. Difference of synthesis of purine nucleotides „De novo” from the salvage pathway of biosynthesis: A. a salvage pathway takes place in the liver B. a synthesis „De novo” is in the extrahepatic tissues C. * a salvage pathway converts free purine bases (hypoxantine, guanine) to IMP and GMP D. a salvage pathway is longer E. a salvage pathway is not regulated 100. Disintegration of nucleic acids in small intestine requires such enzymes: A. Lipase B. * DNA and RNA-аse C. Amylase D. Glucose-6-phosphatese E. Alcoholdehydrogenase 101. Disintegration of pyrimidine bases via some intermediate transformations leads to synthesis of: A. Pyruvic acid, glycine. B. * Urea, acetic acid, CO2 C. NH3, CO2 D. Uric acid, NH3. E. NH3, urea. 102. Disorders of pyrimidine nucleotides biosynthesis inhibit all process except: A. Biosynthesis of DNA B. Biosynthesis of m-RNA C. * Transport of amino acid through cell’s membranes D. Transport of amino acid from a cytoplasm to ribosomes E. Biosynthesis of proteins 103. Disorders of pyrimidine nucleotides synthesis take place at blocking of primary synthesis one of them. Choose this nucleotide: A. * UMP B. C. D. E. CMP TMP AMP GMP 104. Double helical structure model of the DNA was proposed by A. Pauling and Corey B. Peter Mitchell C. * Watson and Crick D. King and Wooten E. Horbachevsky 105. dАТP, dGТP, dТТP, dCТP are used for the DNA synthesis. Choose precursors of these substanses: A. * Ribonucleotides B. Products of nucleic acids degradation C. Purines and pyrimidines, deoxyribose and phosphoric acid D. Products of absorption in the intestine E. Ribose at its reduction in composition of DNK 106. For de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides, glycine provides A. One nitrogen atom B. One nitrogen and one carbon atom C. Two carbon atoms D. * One nitrogen and two carbon atoms E. Three carbon atoms 107. For DNA biosynthesis are used dАТP, dGТP, dТТP, dCТP. Which enzyme catalyses their synthesis from nucleosidmonophosphates? A. Phosphorylase B. * Kinase C. Phosphatase D. Phosphodiesterase E. Phosphoglucomutase 108. For modification of inosine monophosphate into guanosine monophosphate is necessary: A. aspartate B. glycine C. * glutamine D. urea E. uric acid 109. For the synthesis of DNA followings nucleosidphosphates is used except: A. dАТP B. * dUТP C. dGТP D. dCТP E. dТТP 110. For the synthesis of pyrimidine bases used all substanses except: A. NH3 B. CO2 C. ATP D. N2O E. * H2SO4 111. For transformation of inosine monophosphate to adenylate NH2 is needed. The donor of it is: A. glycine B. C. D. E. * aspartate glutamine serine methionine 112. Formation of deoxyribonucleotides takes place with reduction of OH-group C-2 ribose with coenzyme: A. * NADPH B. NADH C. FADH2 D. TPP E. HSCoA 113. Four atoms of nitrogen are in purine ring. Which amino acid gives a nitrogen atom for purine synthesis? A. alanine B. methionine C. * aspartate D. glutamate E. serine 114. Free purine bases which can be salvaged are A. Adenine and guanine B. Adenine and hypoxanthine C. Guanine and hypoxanthine D. * Adenine, guanine and hypoxanthine E. Hypoxanthine 115. Genetic information originates from A. * Cistron of DNA B. Codons of mRNA C. Anticodons of tRNA D. Histones of nucleoproteins E. All of these 116. GMP is an allosteric inhibitor of all the following except A. PRPP synthetase B. PRPP glutamyl amido synthetase C. IMP dehydrogenase D. * Adenylosuccinate synthetase E. Both C and D 117. Gout is characterized by increased plasma levels of A. Urea B. * Uric acid C. Creatine D. Creatinine E. Ammonia 118. high energy intermediate is A. ATP B. UTP C. * UDPG D. CMP E. AMP 119. How uric acid excretes from an organism? A. With saliva B. With feces C. With sweat D. * With urine E. With hepato-enteral circulation 120. If the amino group and a carboxylic group of the amino acid are attached to same carbon atom, the amino acid is called as A. * Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. Epsilon E. Delta 121. In DNA, the complementary base of adenine is A. Guanine B. Cytosine C. Uracil D. * Thymine E. Adenine 122. In humans end product of purine catabolism is A. * Uric acid B. Urea C. Allantoin D. Xanthine E. Ammonia 123. In inherited deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase A. De novo synthesis of purine nucleotides is decreased B. * Salvage of purines is decreased C. Salvage of purines is increased D. Synthesis of uric acid is decreased E. All of these 124. In mammals other than higher primates uric acid is converted by A. * Oxidation to allantoin B. Reduction to ammonia C. Hydrolysis to ammonia D. Hydrolysis to allantoin E. None of the above 125. In nucleotides, phosphate is attached to sugar by A. Salt bond B. Hydrogen bond C. * Ester bond D. Glycosidic bond E. Peptide bond 126. In purine biosynthesis ring closure in the molecule formyl glycinamide ribosyl-5phosphate requires the cofactors: A. ADP B. NAD C. FAD D. * ATP and Mg++ E. AMP 127. In the pathway of de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides, all the following are allosteric enzymes except A. PRPP glutamyl amido transferase B. Adenylosuccinate synthetase C. IMP dehydrogenase D. * Adenylosuccinase E. Both A and D 128. In the purine nucleus, carbon 6 is contributed by A. Glycine B. * CO2 C. Aspartate D. Glutamine E. THFA 129. In which process mononucleotides does not take part? A. Synthesis of nucleic acids B. Formation of nucleotide coenzymes C. Realization of genetic information D. Form the products of nitrogenous (nucleic) metabolism E. Treatment of gout 130. Inheritance of primary gout is A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. * X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant E. None of these 131. Inhibitors of deoxyribonucleotides synthesis are the followings factors: A. dАТP B. Structural analogues of pyrimidines C. Structural analogues of purines D. Structural analogues of folic acid E. * All above named 132. Inosine monophophate is an intermediate during the de novo synthesis of A. * AMP and GMP B. CMP and UMP C. CMP and TMP D. ATP and AMP E. All of these 133. Intermediate products of disintegration of purine nucleotides – xanthine and hypoxanthine are products of metabolism: A. TMP and ADP B. * AMP and GMP C. CTP and ATP D. CTP and GTP E. CTP and TMP 134. Last reaction of uric acid synthesis catalyses such enzyme: A. 5-nucleotides B. Adenosine deaminase C. * Xantine oxidase D. Guanine deaminase E. Phosphorylase 135. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, the sex linked recessive disorder is due to the lack of the enzyme: A. * Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferse B. Xanthine oxidase C. Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase D. Adenosine deaminase E. Both A and B 136. Medicine, which is used for treatment of gout is the structural analogue of hypoxanthine, it: A. Salts of lithium B. Anturan C. * Allopyrinol D. Uridine E. Acetilisoniazid 137. Methotrexate blocks the synthesis of thymidine monophosphate by inhibiting the activity of the enzyme: A. * Dihydrofolate reductase B. Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase C. Ribonucleotide reductase D. Dihydroorotase E. Orotate reductase 138. N10-formyl and N5N10-methenyl tetrahydrofolate contributes purine carbon atoms at position A. 4 and 6 B. 4 and 5 C. 5 and 6 D. * 2 and 8 E. 2 and 3 139. Name a coenzyme which takes part in transformation of dihydroorotic acid to orotic acid: A. FAD B. FMN C. * NAD D. PLP E. TDPK 140. Name an enzyme which catalyzes oxidation of hypoxanthine to xanthine and xanthine to uric acid: A. Phosphorylase B. Isocitratdehydrogenase C. Succcinatdehydrogenase D. Cytochromoxidase E. Xanthineoksidase 141. Name nitrogen bases that enter into the structure of DNA: A. Guanine, uracil, thymine B. Cytosine, uracil, thymine C. Uracil, adenine, guanine D. * Adenine, thymine, guanine E. Thymine, adenine, uracil 142. Name nitrogenous bases included into the structure of RNA: A. Guanine, uracil, thymine B. Cytosine, adenine, thymine C. * Uracil, adenine, guanine D. Adenine, thymine, guanine E. Thymine, adenine, uracil 143. Name products of nucleoproteins digesting: A. Carbohydrates and lipids B. Lipids and nucleic acids C. Proteins and nucleic acids D. Lipids and proteins E. Carbohydrates and proteins 144. Name substances, necessary for formation of substrate for synthesis of pyrimidine bases - carbamoyl phosphate: A. Urea, ATP B. ?-alanine, SO2 C. Phosphoribosilpyrophosphate, orotic acid D. * CO2, Ammonia, ATP E. Aspartic acid, CO2 145. Name the first reaction of biosynthesis of purine nucleotides: A. Reaction of ribose-5-phosphate with glycine B. * Reaction of ribose-5-phosphate with ATP C. Reaction of aspartate and THFA D. Condensation of pyrimidine and diazole rings with formation of purine E. Reaction of AMF with ribose-5-phosphate 146. Name the structural monomers of DNA molecule: A. * Mononucleotides B. Nucleosides C. Nitric bases D. Polynucleotides E. Peptides 147. Name the substrate for synthesis of pyrimidine bases: A. Cytosine B. Ornithine C. * Carbamoyl phosphate D. Citrate E. Fumarate 148. Nitrogen at position 1 of pyrimidine nucleus comes from A. Glutamine B. Glutamate C. Glycine D. * Aspartate E. Asparagine 149. Nitrogen at position 3 of pyrimidine nucleus comes from A. * Glutamine B. Glutamate C. Glycine D. Aspartate E. Ammonia 150. Nitrogenous bases are used for the synthesis of such substances as? A. Cholesterol B. Carbohydrates C. Catecholamines D. * Nucleic acids E. Fatty acids 151. Normal level of uric acid in blood is: A. * 0,12-0,46 mmol/l B. 1,7-2,05 mmol/l C. 20-40 grammes/л D. 3,3-5,5 mmol/l E. 3-8 mmol/l 152. Nucleic acids are: A. Mononucleotides B. C. D. E. 153. A. B. C. D. E. 154. A. B. C. D. E. 155. A. B. C. D. E. 156. A. B. C. D. E. 157. A. B. C. D. E. 158. A. B. C. D. E. 159. A. B. C. D. E. 160. A. B. C. D. E. Nucleosides Nucleoproteins * Polynucleotides Dinucleotides Nucleotides required for the synthesis of nucleic acids can be obtained from Dietary nucleic acids and nucleotides De novo synthesis Salvage of pre-existing bases and nucleosides * De novo synthesis and salvage Both A and B Orotaciduriya is accompanied the followings symptoms: Dermatitis of the opened areas of body Bleeding, disorders of growth Disorders of mental development, galactosemia * Disorders of physical and mental development, megaloblastic anemia Diarrhea, dermatitis, demention Orotic aciduria type II reflects the deficiency of the enzyme: Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase * Orotidylate decarboxylase Dihydroorotase Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase Both B and C Phosphodiesterases of intestinal mucous are able to split nucleic acids to: Dipeptides Phosphoric acid, pentoses and nitrogenous bases Riboses and desoxyriboses * Mononucleotides Amino acid and phosphoric acid Phosphorylation of adenosine to AMP is catalysed by * Adenosine kinase Deoxycytidine kinase Adenylosuccinase Adenylosuccinate synthetase Adenosine phosphorylase presence of NAD FMN HS-CoA * B6-PO4 FAD Protein part of nucleoproteins disintegrates to: Enzymes Pentoses Phosphoric acid Nitrogenous bases Amino acids PRPP synthetase is allosterically inhibited by AMP ADP GMP * All of these None of these 161. Purin consists of the condensed rings of two heterocycles – pyrimidine and imidazole. Which substance gives nitrogen atoms simultaneously for pyrimidine and imidazole rings: A. aspartate B. formyl C. methenil -THF D. glycine E. * glutamine 162. Pyrimidine biosynthesis begins with the formation from glutamine, ATP and CO2, of A. Carbamoyl aspartate B. Orotate C. * Carbamoyl phosphate D. Dihydroorotate E. Both A and C 163. Reaction of reduction of C-2 ribose OH-group in biosynthesis of deoxyribonucleotides catalyses an enzyme: A. Glutatione reductase B. CоQ-cytochrom в-reductase C. * Ribonucleotide reductase D. Folatreductase E. Deoxyribonucleotid-reductase 164. Reduction of ribonucleotide diphosphates (NDPs) to their corresponding deoxyribonucleotide diphosphates (dNDPs) involves A. FMN B. FAD C. NAD D. * NADPH E. PLP 165. Salvage of purine bases is regulated by A. Adenosine phosphoribosyl transferase B. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase C. * Availability of PRPP D. All of these E. None of these 166. Synthesis of purine nucleotides requires low-molecular precursors, products of metabolism: A. Lipids and proteins B. * Carbohydrates and proteins C. Enzymes and vitamins D. Lipids and carbohydrates E. Lipids and vitamins 167. Synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides is inhibited with the following substanse: A. GMP B. AMP C. cАМP D. * UMP E. ATP 168. The ‘transforming factor’ discovered by Avery, McLeod and McCarty was later found to be A. mRNA B. tRNA C. * DNA D. Nucleotide E. None of these 169. The atoms of what connections do not enter in the complement of pyrimidine, condensed into purine: A. glutamine B. * methenil THF C. glycine D. CO2 E. Formyl-THF 170. The available PRPP is used preferentially for A. De novo synthesis of purine nucleotides B. De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides C. * Salvage of purine bases D. Salvage of pyrimidine bases E. Both C and D 171. The carbon atom at position 2 of pyrimidine nucleus is contributed by A. * CO2 B. Glycine C. Aspartate D. Glutamine E. None of these 172. The carbon atoms of pyrimidine nucleus are provided by A. Glycine and aspartate B. * CO2 and aspartate C. CO2 and glutamate D. CO2 and glutamine E. Aspartate 173. The carbon of the pentose in ester linkage with the phosphate in a nucleotide structure is A. C1 B. C3 C. C4 D. * C5 E. C2 174. The chemical name of guanine is A. 2,4-Dioxy-5-methylpyrimidine B. * 2-Amino-6-oxypurine C. 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine D. 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine E. None of the above 175. The coenzyme of uracildehydrogenase is: A. FAD B. PLP C. Coenzyme A D. * NAD E. FMN 176. The constant increase of uric acid concentration in blood is named: A. Uremia B. Hyperazotemiya C. Hyperacidaminemiya D. Hyperlaktatemiya 177. 178. 179. 180. by E. Hyperuricemia The correct sequence of the reactions of catabolism of adenosine to uric acid is A. Adenosine>hypoxanthine>xanthine>uricacid B. Adenosine>xanthine>inosine>uric acid C. * Adenosine>inosine>hypoxanthine>?xanthine>uric acid D. Adenosine>xanthine>inosine>hypoxanthine>uric acid E. Adenosine>inosine>>uric acid The degradation of RNA by pancreatic ribonuclease produces A. Nucleoside 2-Phosphates B. Nucleoside 5-phosphates C. Oligonucleosides D. * Nucleoside 3-phosphate and oligonucleotide E. Both C and D The end product of purine catabolism in man is A. Inosine B. Hypoxanthine C. Xanthine D. * Uric acid E. Urea The enzyme aspartate transcarbamoylase of pyrimidine biosynthesis is inhibited A. B. C. D. E. 181. A. B. C. D. E. 182. A. B. C. D. E. 183. A. B. C. D. E. 184. A. B. C. D. E. 185. ATP ADP AMP * CTP GMP The enzyme common to catabolism of all the purines is Adenosine deaminase * Purine nucleoside phosphorylase Guanase All of these None of these The enzyme required for salvage of free purine bases is Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase * Both (A) and (B) PRPP synthetase None of these The fact that DNA bears the genetic information of an organism implies that Base composition should be identical from species to species DNA base composition should charge with age * DNA from different tissues in the same organism should usually have the same base composition DNA base composition is altered with nutritional state of an organism Both a and C The first reaction unique to purine nucleotide synthesis is catalysed by PRPP synthetase * PRPP glutamyl amido transferase Phosphoribosyl glycinamide synthetase Formyl transferase None of these The first true pyrimidine ribonucleotide synthesized is A. B. C. D. E. 186. A. B. C. D. E. 187. A. B. C. D. E. UMP UDP TMP CTP AMP The following abnormality in PRPP synthetase can cause primary gout: High Vmax Low Km Resistance to allosteric inihbition. * All of these None of these The following coenzyme is required for catabolism of pyrimidine bases: NADH * NADPH FADH2 PLP None of these The following compounds are formed in complete hydrolysis of nucleic acids, 188. except: A. Phosphoric acid B. Pentoses C. Purine bases D. * Acetic acid E. Adenine 189. The four nitrogen atoms of purines are derived from A. Urea and NH3 B. NH3, Glycine and Glutamate C. NH3, Asparate and Glutamate D. * Aspartate, Glutamine and Glycine E. Ammonia and Glutamine 190. The genetic disorder of UMP synthesis often blocks such process: A. Formation of carbamoylphospate B. Reaction of carbamoylphospate with aspartate C. Oxidation of dihydroorotic acid D. * Formation of orotidilyc acid from orotic E. Decarboxilation of orotidilyc acid 191. The key substance in the synthesis of purine, phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate is formed by A. * D-ribose 5-phosphate B. 5-phospho -ribosylamine C. D-ribose D. Deoxyribose E. D-ribose 3-phosphate 192. The major catabolic product of pyrimidines in human is A. * Alanine B. Urea C. Uric acid D. Guanine E. All of these 193. The major determinant of the overall rate of denovo purine nucleotide biosynthesis is the concentration of A. * 5-phosphoribosyl 1-pyrophosphate B. C. D. E. 194. A. B. C. D. E. 195. A. B. C. D. E. 196. A. B. C. D. E. 197. A. B. C. D. E. 198. A. B. C. D. E. 199. A. B. C. D. E. 200. A. B. C. D. E. 201. A. B. C. D. E. 5-phospho D-ribosylamine Glycinamide ribosyl-5-phosphate Formylglycinamide ribosyl-5-phosphate Glucose The nitrogen atoms for de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides are provided by Aspartate and glutamate Aspartate and glycine * Aspartate, glutamine and glycine Aspartate, glutamate and Glycine THFA The nitrogen atoms of pyrimidine nucleus are provided by Glutamate Glutamate and aspartate Glutamine * Glutamine and aspartate Ammonia The possible reason of uric acid excretion decrease: Action of ionizing an radiation * Kidney insufficiency Leucosis Burns Malignant tumor The precursor of ?-alanine in the reactions of pyrimidine bases disintegration is: Dihydrouracil Uracil * ? -ureidpropionic acid Thymine Cytosine The product of disintegration of thymine is: ?–alanine Dihydrouracil * ? -aminoisobutyrate Uredoisobutyrate Ant acid The products of pyrimidine nucleotides disintegration are: * ?-alanine, SO2, NH3, ?-aminoisobutyrate. Ribose, SO2. Urinary acid, N2O. Hypoxanthine, FADH2 ? -ureidpropionic acid The reactions of uric acid synthesis take place mainly in: * Cytoplasm of hepatocytes Mitochondria of myocytes Nucleus of hepatocytes Cytoplasm of kidney’s cells Lysosomes of adrenal’s cells ?The structural monomers of nucleic acids are: * Mononucleotides Oligonucleotides Dinukleotides Threenucleotides c-AMP 202. The two nitrogen of the pyrimidine ring are contributed by A. Ammonia and glycine B. * Asparate and carbamoyl phosphate C. Glutamine and ammonia D. Aspartate and ammonia E. Ammonia and ammonia 203. Thymidine nucleotide is a structural component of DNA, which formed from dUМP with: A. Hydroxylating B. Amination C. Phosphorylating D. * Metilation E. Hydrolysis 204. Thymidine nucleotide is a structural component of DNA, which formed from dUМP with metilation of uracil. What is the source of methyl group in this process? A. Methionine B. Valine C. Creatine D. * Methylentetrahydrofolic acid E. Methylcyanocobalamin 205. Thymine is present in A. * tRNA B. Ribosomal RNA C. Mammalian mRNA D. Prokaryotic mRNA E. All of these 206. Uracil and ribose form A. * Uridine B. Cytidine C. Guanosine D. Adenosine E. Uric acid 207. Uracil is formed in reaction of such substance decarboxilation : A. * Orotic acid B. Aspartic acid C. Serine D. Glutamine E. Histidine 208. Which of the following is not an essential attribute that a biological molecule would need to be a useful genetic material? A. * It must carry all of the information needed to direct the specific organization and metabolic activities of the cell B. It must replicate accurately so that the information it contains is precisely inherited by the daughter cells C. It must be capable of undergoing occasional mutations, such that the information it carries is altered in a heritable way D. It must have highly repetitive DNA sequences. E. All are essential attributes of useful genetic material. 209. ____ regulate which genes or subsets of genes are transcribed in a particular cell type. A. * Transcription factors B. Chaperone proteins C. RNA polymerases D. Transcription is not regulated E. All of the above 210. _______________ join DNA fragments to the lagging strand. A. A.Telomeres B. Centromeres C. Helicase D. * Ligases E. Antiparallel strands 211. A DNA strand with the sequence AACGTAACG is transcribed. What is the sequence of the mRNA molecule synthesized? A. AACGTAACG B. UUGCAUUGC C. AACGUAACG D. * TTGCATTGC E. None of the above 212. A molecule of DNA is a polymer composed of A. Glucose B. Amino acids C. Fatty acids D. * Nucleotides E. Vitamins 213. A reaction of the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids in the process of translation is catalyzed by: A. * Peptydyltransferase B. Aminoacylsynthetase C. Peptidylligase D. Peptidase E. Peptydylhydrolase 214. According to Chargaff's rule, the following proportion exists in DNA A. * C=G B. C»T C. C»G D. C=T E. None of the above 215. All of the below mentioned are the components of the protein synthesis system, except: A. Ribosomes B. m-RNA C. t-RNA D. Regulatory proteins E. * DNA 216. Amino acid during synthesis of proteins bounds to the: A. * 33-end of t-RNA B. Anticodon C. Codon D. 55-end of t-RNA E. 33-end of m-RNA 217. Areas of a eukaryotic gene that are represented in the final protein product are termed __________. A. Introns B. Mutons C. Recons D. * Exons E. Cistrons 218. Binding of RNA-polymerase to DNA-matrix takes place in specific areas of genome. What is the name of these areas? A. Active centers B. Contact areas C. * Promotors D. Catalytic areas E. There is not correct answer 219. Biosynthesis of proteins is related to the following organelles: A. Mitochondria B. Lysosomes C. Microsomes D. Endoplasmic reticulum E. * Ribosomes and nucleus 220. By convention, the sequence of bases in a nucleic acid is usually expressed in the _________ direction A. 3' to 1' B. 3' to 5' C. 1' to 3' D. * 5' to 3' E. Clockwise 221. By which mechanism the synthesis of RNA is inhibited by actinomycin D? A. * Penetration inside the double strand of DNA between G-C with local deformation of DNA matrix B. Inhibition of RNA synthesis initiation C. Associates with A-subunit D. Ingibition of elongation process of RNA synthesis E. Oppression of synthesis of matrix RNA 222. Clusters of highly repetitive DNA located near the centromeres and telomeres are called A. * Nucleosomes B. Euchromatin C. Chromatids D. Heterochromatin E. 30 nm chromatin 223. Codons are composed of: A. * Triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in mRNA B. Triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in DNA C. Triplet sequences of amino acids in polypeptide chains D. Triplet sequences of deoxyribose sugars in DNA E. None of the above 224. Common mechanisms of action of tetracyclin, streptomycin and levomycitin: A. All these antibiotics ingibit replication B. All these antibiotics ingibit transcription C. * All these antibiotics ingibit translation D. All these antibiotics stimulate the synthesis of protein E. All these antibiotics ingibit posttraslation modifications of protein 225. Conformity of A-T, G-C in the DNA molecule is defined as a rule of: A. Watson B. Crick C. * Chargaphe D. Jakob E. Starling 226. Decide whether each statement is true (T) or false (F). Place your answer in the blank space given. A. A-T is a possible base pair in a DNA molecule. A. * A-C is a possible base pair in a DNA molecule B. C-A is a possible base pair in a DNA molecule. C. A-G is a possible base pair in a DNA molecule. D. G-A is a possible base pair in a DNA molecule. 227. DNA is made up of a phosphate group, an organic base, and: A. A protein B. * A sugar C. A molecule of ATP D. A fat E. None of the above 228. DNA replication is called semiconservative because _______________ of the original duplex appears in the duplex formed in replication. A. * None B. Most C. Half D. Hardly any E. All 229. DNA–polymerase can show except polymerase activity: A. * Exonuclease activity B. Endonuclease activity C. Intranuclease activity D. Glyconuclease activity E. Liponuclease activity 230. Each individual zone of a chromosome replicates as a discrete section called A. Telomere B. Euchromatin C. * Okazaki fragment D. Replication unit E. Linker DNA 231. Each unit of a nucleic acid consisting of a sugar, attached phosphate group, and base is a A. Nucleolus B. * Nucleotide C. Nucleosome D. Histone E. Genetisome 232. Enzyme which catalyses replication of both chains in eukaryotes: A. DNA – polymerase 4 B. * DNA – polymerase A C. DNA – polymerase D D. DNA – polymerase D E. DNA – ligase 233. First stage of proteins biosynthesis – activation of amino acids is catalyzed by: A. Aminoacyl-kinase B. Aminoacyl- transferases C. Aminoacyl-t-RNA- hydrolases D. * Aminoacyl-t-RNA- synthetases E. Аміноаcyl-t-RNA- lyases 234. For the activation of amino acids in the first stage of proteins biosynthesis the following ion is needed: A. Ca2+ B. Na+ C. K+ D. ClE. * Mg2+ 235. For the process of transcription the followings components are needed, except: A. DNA-matrix B. DNA-depending-RNA-polymerase C. Nucleoside triphosphates D. Ions of Mg2+ E. * Ions of Zn2+ 236. Genetic code is informative only when it is read in direction: A. 55 – 3 B. From right to left C. Direction is not important D. 33 – 4 E. * 33 – 5 237. Give the definition of transcription term: A. * A biosynthesis of RNA on DNA-matrix B. Synthesis of daughter molecules of DNA C. Synthesis of proteins, the amino acid sequence of which is determined by the nucleotide sequence of mRNA D. Enzymatic deleting and repeating synthesis of areas of DNA E. Moving of gene or groups of genes 238. How does protein synthesis begin? A. * The cell divides B. Multiple cells join C. The DNA unzips D. The DNA zips up E. Nothing happens 239. How many combinations of DNA nitrogen bases are possible in a DNA triplet code? A. * 20 B. 32 C. 64 D. 128 E. 19 240. How many molecules of histons does a nucleus of every nucleosome have? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. * 8 E. 10 241. If one side of a DNA molecule contains the following sequence of nucleotides, AGTCCG, the complementary sequence on the other side would be: A. GCCTGA B. AGTCCG C. * TCAGGC D. CTGAAT E. None of the above 242. In a double stranded molecule of DNA, the ratio of purines : pyrimidines is: A. Variable B. Determined by the base sequence in RNA C. Genetically determined D. * Always 1:1 E. Determined by the number of purines in the sense strand of the DNA 243. In DNA guanine always pairs with A. Adenine B. Cytosine C. Guanine D. * Thymine E. Uracil 244. In DNA, thymine always pairs with A. * Adenine B. Cytosine C. Guanine D. Thymine E. Uracil 245. In nucleic acids, the free hydroxyl group is attached to the _______________ carbon of the sugar. A. 5' B. 4' C. * 3' D. 2' E. 1' 246. In nucleic acids, the phosphate group is attached to the ___ carbon of the sugar. A. * 5' B. 4' C. 3' D. 2' E. 1' 247. In replication of DNA, the helix is opened and untwisted by A. Ribase B. Ligase C. Deoxase D. * Helicase E. Polymerase 248. In the DNA molecule: A. * Adenine pairs with thymine B. Guanine pairs with thymine C. Cytosine pairs with thymine D. Adenine pairs with cytosine E. All of the above are possible. 249. In the process of elongation there is untwisting of the double-helical DNA areas with formation of the bonds in polyribonucleotide chain. What bonds are formed? A. 1,6-glycosidic B. B-1,4- glycosidic C. * 3'-5'- phosphodiester D. Disulfide E. Ionic 250. Indicate the difference between RNA transcription and DNA replication: A. B. C. D. E. * In RNA transcription as a matrix only 1 chain of DNA is used In RNA transcription as a matrix 2 chains of DNA are used In RNA transcription ions of Zn2+ are necessary In RNA transcription the factors of replisome are necessary In RNA transcription the whole DNA molecule is transcribed 251. Initiation aminoacyl-t-RNA in eukaryotes is: A. Alanine-t-RNA B. Histidine –t-RNA C. * Methionine –t-RNA D. Glycine- t-RNA E. Cysteine- t-RNA 252. lustersWhat is the percentage of thymine in the DNA molecule, if the content of cytosine is 22%? A. 38 B. * 28 C. 22 D. 44 E. 11 253. Main enzyme which catalyzes the reaction of synthesis of both chains of DNA in prokaryotes: A. DNA - ligase B. DNA – polymerase D C. DNA - synthetase D. * DNA - polymerase 3 E. DNA - ligase 5 254. Name nitrogen bases that enter to the structure of DNA: A. Guanine, uracil, thymine B. Cytosine, uracil, thymine C. Uracil, adenine, guanine D. * Adenine, thymine, guanine E. Thymine, adenine, uracil 255. Name nitrogenous bases included into the structure of RNA: A. Guanine, uracil, thymine B. Cytosine, adenine, thymine C. * Uracil, adenine, guanine D. Adenine, thymine, guanine E. Thymine, adenine, uracil 256. Name process which is catalyzed by aminoacyl-t-RNA synthetases? A. * Recognition and joining of amino acids to t-RNA B. Initiation of translation C. Elongation of polypeptide chain D. Termination of translation E. Synthesis of t-RNA 257. Name proteins that take part in the regulation of transcription in eukaryotes? A. Albumins B. Globulins C. Immunoglobulins D. * Histons E. Cathepsins 258. Name the mechanism of DNA replication: A. * Semiconservative B. Conservative 259. 260. 261. 262. 263. 264. 265. 266. 267. C. Depressive D. Repressive E. Replicative Named the structural monomers of DNA molecule: A. * Mononucleotides B. Nucleosides C. Nitric bases D. Polynucleotides E. Peptides Normal self-termination of transcription occurs due to the presence of A. Stem-loop sequences in mRNA B. Termination proteins C. * Multiple RNA polymerase molecules D. Polyribosome formation E. All of the above ?Nucleic acids are: A. Mononucleotides B. Nucleosides C. Nucleoproteins D. * Polynucleotides E. Dinucleotides Nutritional mutants A. Grow on minimal medium B. * Lack an essential metabolic protein C. Are also called prototrophs D. Are the same as carbon-source mutants E. Are usually antibiotic resistant Okazaki fragments are used to elongate A. The leading strand toward the replication fork B. The lagging strand toward the replication fork C. Both strands in both directions D. * The leading strand away from the replication fork E. The lagging strand away from the replication fork On which of the following molecules would you find a codon? A. * Messenger RNA B. Ribosomal RNA C. Transfer RNA D. Small nuclear RNA E. Big nuclear RNA On which of the following molecules would you find an anticodon? A. Messenger RNA B. Ribosomal RNA C. * Transfer RNA D. Small nuclear RNA E. Big nuclear RNA Polymerase III is actually a complex containing A. * Сatalytic subunits B. Proofreading subunits C. "Sliding clamp" subunits D. All of the above E. None of the above Polysomes - are structures which are formed during translation from: A. B. C. D. E. 268. A. B. C. D. E. 269. A. B. C. D. E. 270. A. B. C. D. E. 271. A. B. C. D. E. 272. A. B. C. D. E. tRNA and one ribosome * One molecule of mRNA and several ribosomes A few molecules of mRNA and a few ribosomes A few molecules of mRNA and one ribosome A few molecules of tRNA, mRNA and few ribosomes Primer is synthesized by specific: * Primase DNA – ligase RNA – ligase RNA - polymerase None of above Properties of genetic code are all below, except: Universality * Interruption Nonoverlapping Degeneration Specificity Proteins are made from amino acids by the process of * Hydrolysis Pinocytosis Active transport Dehydration synthesis All of the above Proteins that block the passage of RNA polymerase are called: Operons Activators * Repressors Enhancers Promoters Regulatory domains of most activators interact with The transcription factor complex * RNA polymerase Repressors The regulatory factor complex The DNA binding domain Regulatory proteins of the protein synthesis system on ribosomes are all below, 273. except: A. Factors of initiation B. * Factors of polymerization C. Releasing-factors D. Factors of elongation E. Factors of termination 274. Replication fork has configuration like: A. W B. R C. C D. * V E. T 275. Represors of proteins synthesis on the level of transcription are: A. Protamines B. Glutelins C. * Prolamines D. Scleroproteins E. Histons 276. Reverse transcriptase (revertase or RNA-depending-DNA-polymerase) catalyzes: A. * Synthesis of і-RNA on the DNA B. Synthesis of DNA on the DNA C. Synthesis of tRNA on the DNA D. Synthesis of DNA on the RNA matrix E. Synthesis of DNA on the ribosome 277. RNA contains which bases? A. Adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine, uracil B. Adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine C. Thymine, guanine, cytosine, uracil D. * Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil E. None of the above 278. RNA synthesis on a DNA template is called __________. A. Transformation B. Translation C. Transduction D. * Transcription E. Transfection 279. Since the first nucleotides cannot be linked in a newly synthesized strand in DNA replication, ___________ is required A. A DNA primer B. * DNA polymerase C. Ligase D. An RNA primer E. Helicase 280. Synthesis of daughter molecules of DNA, identical to maternal DNA, is named: A. Reverse transcription B. Transcription C. Replication of RNA D. * Replication of DNA E. Translation 281. The acceptor region of t-RNA contains such terminal sequence of nucleotides: A. * CCA B. CAC C. CCU D. GCA E. CGA 282. The actual synthesis of DNA in E. coli is the function of A. * Polymerase I B. Primase C. Polymerase III D. DNA ligase E. Hirase 283. The amino acid sequence of a polypeptide chain comprises the ____ structure of the protein. A. * Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary E. Presecondary 284. by: The amino acids are transported to the place of synthesis of proteins in the cells A. B. C. D. E. Proteins-carryer r-RNA * t-RNA Lipoproteins m-RNA 285. The base thymine is always paired with ___. A. * Adenine B. Guanine C. Cytosine D. Thymine E. Uracil 286. The component of the protein synthesis system on ribosomes is: A. Nucleus B. * mRNA C. RNA- primer D. DNA- primer E. DNA 287. The double strand model of DNA was proposed by: A. Mitchel B. Krebs C. * Watson – Crick D. Knoop E. Nirenberg 288. The effort to decipher the genetic code was led by ____ who was awarded a Nobel Prize for his work. A. * Nirenberg B. Lederberg C. Watson D. Crick E. Van-Helmont 289. The first mRNA codon to specify an amino acid is always A. TAC B. * UAA C. UAG D. AUG E. UGA 290. The following compounds are formed in complete hydrolysis of nucleic acids, except: A. Phosphoric acid B. Pentoses C. Purine bases D. * Acetic acid E. Adenine 291. The four ribonucleotide triphosphates incorporated into mRNA are A. Inosine, Guanine, Uracil, Thymine B. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine C. * Cytosine, Uracil, Adenine, Guanine D. Thymine, Uracil, Guanine, Cytosine E. Inosine, Guanine, Adenine, Cytosine 292. The genetic code is considered "degenerate" because __________. A. B. C. D. E. The code originated from bacterial genomes DNA is unstable Degenerate is the name of the person who deciphered the code * More than one nucleotide triplet codes for the same amino acid None of the above 293. The initiation of synthesis of RNA is started from the including of first nucleotide into the chain. What nucleotide does begin this process in pro- and in eukaryotes? A. Pyrimidine nucleosidtriphosphate B. Urydinmonophosphate C. Desoxyribonucleosidtriphosphate D. * Purine nucleosydtriphosphate E. Cytidyltriphosphate 294. The mode of action of a steroid hormone involves: A. * Binding to a cell membrane receptor B. Activation of protein kinases C. Binding to calmodulin D. Covalent modification of enzyme activity E. Modifaing gene transcription 295. The Okazaki fragment is synthesized in direction: A. Along the movement of replication fork B. 3'-5' C. * Oppositely to the movement of replication fork D. Antiparallely to the daughter chain E. Proportionally to the movement of new synthesized daughter chain 296. The operon that controls tryptophan producing genes in E. coli consists of _______________ . A. Only one gene B. * Two genes C. Three genes D. Four genes E. Five genes 297. The presence of DNA is important for cellular metabolic activities because DNA A. Directs the production of enzymes B. Is a structural component of cell walls C. Directly increases the solubility of nutrients D. * Is the major component of cytoplasm E. Nonproduction f enzymes 298. The process of copying a gene's DNA sequence into a sequence of RNA is called A. Replication B. * Transcription C. Translation D. PCR E. Posttranslation modification 299. The process of DNA synthesis, the nucleotides sequence of which is complementary to the sequence of RNA, is named: A. * Reverse transcription B. Transcription C. Replication of RNA D. Replication of DNA E. Translation 300. The process of producing a RNA polymer from a DNA template is called __. A. Replication B. C. D. E. * Transcription Translation Duplication Iniciation 301. The process of producing an amino acid polymer (polypeptide) from a RNA template is called _. A. Replication B. * Transcription C. Translation D. Duplication E. Transreplication 302. The process of the exchange of genetic materials between the different DNA molecules is named: A. Replication of RNA B. Reverse transcription C. * Recombination D. Reparation E. Transposition 303. The process of translation requires the presence of: A. * mRNA, tRNA and ribosomes B. mRNA, ribosomes and RNA polymerase C. DNA, mRNA and RNA polymerase D. Chromatin, DNA and amino acids E. Free nucleotide bases, amino acids and ribosomes 304. The stages of replication include: A. Recognition of the point of replication beginning B. Untwisting of double spiral of matrix DNA C. Formation of fragments for the imitation synthesis of daughter's chains D. Elongation of synthesis and termination E. * All of the above 305. The synthesis of new chains during replication takes place in such direction: A. 4' – 5' B. 7' - 8' C. * 5' - 3' D. 2' - 6' E. 9' - 4' 306. The synthesis of Okazaki fragments begins from: A. Homonucleotide B. Mononucleotide C. Heteronucleotide D. Polynucleotide E. * Primer 307. The synthesis of primer - fragment of RNA - takes a place in: A. Transcription B. Recognition C. Reparation D. * Replication E. Translation 308. The total length of all DNA of human cell is: A. 20 sm B. * 2 C. 2 sm D. 0,2 sm E. 20 m 309. The transcribing enzyme is A. Ligase. B. DNA polymerase. C. * RNA polymerase. D. Amino-acyl transferase. E. Hydrolases 310. The transcription of DNA to a molecule of messenger RNA occurs: A. * On the ribosomes B. In the cytosol C. In the nucleus D. Only during cell division E. When amino acids are made available by transfer RNA 311. Theory of induction-repression of genes activity or theory of operon was developed by: A. Crick and Watson B. Mitchel and Knoop C. * Jakob and Monod D. Krebs and Knoop E. Gorbachevsky and Parnass 312. There is the dynamic equilibrium between subunits and full ribosomes in the cells. Full ribosomes are formed mainly in period of: A. Transcription B. Activation of amino acids C. * Translation D. Posttranslation modifications E. Posttranslation modification of RNA 313. Three types of RNA involved in comprising the structural and functional core for protein synthesis, serving as a template for translation, and transporting amino acid, respectively, are: A. * mRNA, tRNA, rRNA B. rRNA, tRNA, mRNA C. tRNA, mRNA, rRNA D. tRNA, rRNA, mRNA E. rRNA, mRNA ,tRNA 314. To describe the genetic code as degenerate indicates that A. mRNA is rapidly degraded B. The code is not universal among organisms C. * Some amino acids have more than one codon D. Frameshift mutations are tolerated E. Stop codons may have corresponding tRNA molecules 315. To which of the following does guanine form hydrogen bonds in DNA? A. Adenine B. Thymine C. * Cytosine D. Guanine E. Uracyl 316. Transcription factors appear to be unable to bind to a nucleosome because A. Activators are inhibited by the configuration B. * Of inhibition of RNA polymerase C. Of histones positioned over promoters D. Nucleosomes are especially vulnerable to repressors E. Operators are placed in an inaccessible position 317. Transcription is: A. Activation of amino acids B. * Rewriting of information to RNA on the matrix DNA C. Process of formation of functional ribosome D. Process of elongation of polypeptide chain E. Processing of m-RNA 318. Transcription occurs along a ____ template forming an mRNA in the ____ direction. A. 5' to 3'; 5' to 3' B. * 5' to 3'; 3' to 5' C. 3' to 5'; 5' to 3' D. 3' to 5'; 3' to 5' E. None of the above 319. Transfer RNA's bind during translation by the A. Codon B. * Anticodon C. Template D. Operon E. None of the above 320. Translation repressor proteins may shut down translation of processed mRNA transcripts by A. * Binding with the poly-A tail B. Resetting the reading frame C. Reinserting introns into the transcript D. Excising a short sequence of nucleotides E. Excising a short sequence of nucleosides 321. What amino acid is coded by the triplet of bases UAU? A. * Phenylalanine B. Serine C. Tyrosine D. Cysteine E. Lusine 322. What are the two processes of protein synthesis in order? A. Meiosis, Translation B. Translation, Transcription C. Replication, Mitosis D. * D.Transcription, Translation E. Protein, Synthesis 323. What does a ribosome do? A. Calls the xRNA with no codons B. * Helps create the mRNA C. Nothing D. Calls the tRNA with the appropriate codon E. Explodes 324. What does the speed of initiation process depend of? A. * Structures of promotors sequences B. Nucleotide sequences C. Amount of RNA-depending-DNA-polymerase D. The presence of 3'-5'-phosphodiester bonds E. The structure of coplement dNМP in the coding chain of DNA 325. What form of DNA is a left-handed spiral? A. B B. С C. Т D. A E. * Z 326. What function of gene-operator in the structure of operon? A. On the gene-operator mRNA is transcribed that serves as a matrix for the synthesis of protein-repressor B. * Regulates (turns on) transcription on the structural genes C. On the gene-operator mRNA is transcribed that serves as a matrix for the synthesis of proteins which are necessary for cell D. On the gene-operator mRNA is transcribed that serves as a matrix for the synthesis of protein-inductor E. On the gene-operator rRNA transcribed 327. What happens in Transcription? A. The xRNA is destroyed B. The rRNA is destroyed C. * The mRNA is synthesized D. The mRNA is destroyed E. The xRNA is made 328. What happens in Translation? A. The xRNA is destroyed B. Translation doesn't exist C. The tRNA is called and the protein is made D. * The mRNA creates amino acids E. Amino Acids cause a nuclear reaction 329. What is a polypeptide? A. A strand of DNA B. * An incomplete strand of protein (amino acids and enzymes) C. A strand of mRNA D. An RNA molecule E. It doesn't exist 330. What is operon? A. Area of mRNA which codes the synthesis of one protein B. Area of DNA in which the information about the synthesis of one protein is coded C. * Area of DNA which consists of gene-operator and a few structural genes D. Area of DNA which consists of gene-regulator and promoter E. Area of DNA which consists of gene-regulator and structural genes 331. What is protein made up of? A. Enzymes and DNA B. Happiness and Sadness C. Meat D. * Enzymes and Amino Acids E. Amino Acids and Hydroclorich 332. What is the function of gene-regulator in accordance with the theory of Jakob and Monod? A. * On the gene-regulator mRNA is transcribed that serves as a matrix for the synthesis of protein-repressor B. Directly regulates (turns on) transcription on structural genes C. On the gene-regulator mRNA is transcribed that serves as a matrix for the synthesis of necessary for cell proteins D. On the gene-regulator mRNA is transcribed that serves as a matrix for the synthesis of protein-inductor E. On the gene-regulator rRNA transcribed 333. What is the function of tRNA? A. * Transport of amino acids B. Transferring of genetic information C. Formation of ribosomes D. Storage of genetic information E. Transport of mononucleotides 334. What is the polysome? A. Conglomerate containing few ribosomes B. A few mRNA, that combined with one ribosome C. * Many ribosomes that accommodate on one matrix RNA D. A few tRNA transporting one amino acid to ribosome E. A few amino acids which are transported by one tRNA to ribosome 335. What is the terminal signal in the synthesis of polypeptide chain on ribosome? A. Deficit of ATP energy in a cell B. * Meeting of A-center of ribosome with terminal codon of mRNA C. Dissociation of large and small subunits of ribosome D. Decreasing of the amount of elongation factors in the cell E. Placing methionine of tRNA in the P-center of ribosome 336. What methods of DNA replication do you know? A. * Conservative and semiconservative B. Complete and incomplete C. Completed and uncompleted D. Determined and nondetermined E. Temporal and permanent 337. What of the following changes have relation to posttranslation modification of proteins? A. Formation of disulfide bonds between residues of cystein B. Adding of cofactors or prosthetic groups C. Formation of oligomers from a few polypeptide chains D. Phosphorylation of some amino acids residues E. * All of the above 338. What role does messenger RNA play in the synthesis of proteins? A. It catalyses the process. B. It provides the genetic blueprint for the protein. C. * It translates the genetic code to a specific amino acid. D. It modifies messenger RNA molecules prior to protein synthesis. E. None of the above 339. What role does mRNA play in protein synthesis? A. It explodes B. It blows up C. It helps form ribosomes D. Nothing E. * It is what the tRNA matches up to in order to form protein 340. What role does small nuclear RNA play in the synthesis of proteins? A. It catalyses the process. B. * It provides the genetic blueprint for the protein C. It translates the genetic code to a specific amino acid. D. It modifies messenger RNA molecules prior to protein synthesis. E. None of the above 341. What role does the rRNA play in protein synthesis? A. It is part of a ribosome that calles the tRNA molecules B. It forms the mRNA C. It creates DNA D. It is a harmful molecule that is associated with protein synthesis E. * Play role as adaptor 342. What sequence on the template strand of DNA corresponds to the first amino acid inserted into a protein? A. TAC B. UAA C. UAG D. * AUG E. UUA 343. What term is used to describe the process by which a segment of DNA is copied to produce a molecule of messenger RNA? A. Reproduction B. Replication C. Translation D. * Transcription E. Recombination 344. What term is used to describe the process by which proteins are synthesised from a genetic code? A. Reproduction B. Replication C. * Translation D. Transcription E. Recombination 345. What type of DNA, except nuclear, are in the eukaryotic cells: A. * Mitochondrial B. Lisosomal C. Endoplasmic D. Ribosomal E. Mesosomal 346. What type of enzyme is used in recombinant DNA technology to split a specific sugar phosphate bond in each strand of a DNA double helix? A. * Esterase B. Restriction enzyme C. Lipase D. Ligase E. Transferase 347. Which enzyme catalyzes transcription of RNA on DNA matrix? A. * DNA-depending-RNA-polymerase B. DNA-polymerase II C. DNA-polymerase III D. DNA-ligase E. RNA-depending-DNA-polymerase 348. Which ions are needed for DNA replication? A. Ca2+ and Na+ B. Mg2+ and Mn2+ C. Zn2+ and K+ D. Na+ and Ca2+ E. * Mg2+ and Zn2+ 349. Which is not part of the lac operon? A. * Repressor B. Activator protein C. Operator D. Promotor E. Structural gene 350. Which mode of information transfer usually does not occur? A. DNA to DNA B. DNA to RNA C. * DNA to protein D. All occur in a working cell E. None of the above 351. Which molecule contains the genetic code? A. DNA B. * mRNA C. tRNA D. rRNA E. dRNA 352. Which nitrogenous bases make up DNA nucleotides? A. * Adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine B. Adenine, uracil, guanine and cytosine C. Adenine, thymine, uracil, and cytosine D. Adenine, thymine, guanine, and uracil E. Adenine, thymine, uracil, guanine 353. Which nucleic acids contain the lowest number of nucleotides? A. DNA B. * t-RNA C. m-RNA D. r-RNA E. і-RNA 354. Which of the following are not matched correctly? A. Exon splicing-occurs in nucleus B. Post-translational modifications-phosphorylation C. SnRNA-splice out exons from transcript D. Activated enhancers-trigger transcription E. * All are matched correctly 355. Which of the following does NOT involve introns? A. Alternative splicing B. * Ribozymes C. Intervening sequences D. Heteroduplexes E. Antisense oligonucleotides 356. Which of the following features is common to both DNA replication and transcription? A. Nucleotides are added to the 5' end of the newly synthesized strand B. * A sugar-phosphate bond is formed between the 3' hydroxyl and the 5' phosphate C. Deoxyribonucleotides are incorporated into the growing sequence D. Both RNA and DNA polymerase require oligonucleotide priming E. Both RNA and DNA polymerase initiate at promoter sequences 357. Which of the following is an example of the degeneracy of the genetic code? A. * A given amino acid has more than one codon B. Each codon specifies more than one amino acid 358. 359. 360. 361. 362. 363. 364. 365. 366. C. The first two bases specify the amino acid D. The genetic code is not degenerate E. None of the above Which of the following is part of an operon? A. Structural genes B. An operator C. A promoter D. A CAP binding site E. * All of the above Which of the following is true regarding RNA processing? A. Spliceosomes are present in organelles and nuclei B. Involves removal of exons C. Involves removal of one or more introns. D. Occurs in prokaryotes E. * None of the above Which of the following is true regarding the machinery of translation? A. * Initiation usually begins at an AUG codon B. Eukaryotes have nuclear ribosomes C. Polycistronic mRNA usually has a single ribosome binding site D. tRNAs released from the ribosome are degraded E. Termination is at inverted repeats Which of the following is unique to eukaryotic mRNA synthesis? A. Polycistronic mRNA B. * Coupled transcription-translation C. Removal of introns D. Polysomes E. All of the above Which of the following is unique to prokaryotic mRNA synthesis? A. Coupled transcription-translation B. Exon processing C. 3' polyadenylation D. mRNA capping E. * Promoter sequences Which of the following molecules does not form part of DNA? A. Purine B. Pyrimidine C. Deoxyribose D. * Amino acid E. Phosphate Which of the following nucleotide bases is not found in RNA? A. * Thymine B. Adenine C. Uracil D. Guanine E. Cytosine Which of the following statements is true regarding introns? A. * Introns are the parts of mRNA that are translated. B. Introns have no function. C. In general, human genes have fewer introns than genes of other organisms D. Introns may be involved in exon shuffling. E. None of the above Which of the following statements is true regarding transposons? A. B. C. D. E. * They are sequences of mRNA that can move around in the genome They exist in corn, but are not found in the human genome They are the most abundant type of repeat in the genome All of the above are true regarding transposons None of the above 367. Which of the statements below is false? A. The genetic code is overlapping B. The genetic code is universal C. Degenerate codons specify the same amino acids D. * The genetic code is triplet E. None of the above 368. Which process is the first stage of biosynthesis of proteins? A. * Activation of amino acids B. Elongation C. Termination D. Transcription E. Translation 369. Which statement about the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication is correct? A. * It is synthesized in a 3' --> 5' direction. B. It progresses (grows) toward the replication fork. C. It requires a short RNA primer to proceed. D. It is synthesized by DNA ligase. E. It is synthesized continuously. 370. Which subunits do ribosomes of eukaryotes reversibly dissociate to? A. * 60s and 40s B. 60s and 80s C. 40s and 45s D. 40s and 40s E. 60s and 20s 371. With few exceptions, all nucleic of eukaryotes contain A. Genes to specify the portion of the organism in which they are found B. All the information needed for growing the whole organism C. All of the chromosomes except sex chromosomes which are restricted to sex organs D. * Single stranded DNA E. Only euchromatin except in the case of the Y-chromosome 372. All of the following help to explain the mechanism for releasing insulin from beta-cells in response to the concentration of blood glucose - EXCEPT A. The important regulator of glycolysis in beta cells is the concentration of glucose reacting with glucokinase B. ATP is made in proportion to the rate of glycolysis C. The rate of K+ leaving the cell through a potassium channel is a major determinant of the polarization of the cell membrane D. ATP inhibits the K+-channel, the more ATP, the less K+ leaving the cell, and the less polarized (more depolarized) the cell membrane E. * Depolarization causes Ca++ to exit the cell and insulin leaves the cell through the insulin transporter 373. During an overnight fast, the major source of blood glucose is A. Dietary glucose from the intestine B. * Hepatic glycogenolysis C. Gluconeogenesis D. Muscle glycogenolysis E. Glycerol from lipolysis 374. Inhibitory factors of hypothalamus are: A. somatostatin, melanostatin, folliclestatin B. * somatostatin, melanostatin, prolactostatin C. A. somatostatin, prolactostatin, folliclestatin D. prolactostatin, folliclestatin, luteostatin E. melanostatin, folliclestatin, thyrostatin 375. The absorption of glucose from the gut into intestinal mucosal cells is coupled to Na?,K?-ATPase. In contrast, the movement of glucose from the intestinal epithelial cells into the submucosal bloodstream occurs through passive transport. Given these facts, which of the following statements can be true at one time or another? A. Cytosolic levels of glucose in intestinal mucosal cells are regulated by levels of glucose in skeletal muscle cells B. Free glucose levels in the lumen of the intestine can never be higher than levels in intestinal cells C. Plasma glucose levels are much higher than intestinal cell cytosolic levels of glucose D. Levels of glucose in the intestinal lumen are always higher than those in the cytosol of intestinal epithelial cells E. * Levels of plasma glucose are approximately equal to levels in the cytosol of intestinal epithelial cells 376. A 62 yaears old woman has cataract (lenticular opacity) by diabetes mellitus. Which process increase by diabetes is the reason for lenticular opacity? A. ketogenesis B. lipolysis C. protein proteolysis D. * protein glycosylation E. gluconeogenesis 377. A dysfunction of Langergans islets results in the decline of such hormones: A. * Glucagon and insulin B. Thyroxin and calcitonin C. Insulin and epinephrine D. Callicrein and angiotensin E. Parathormone and cortisol 378. A hormone that secreted in the pancreatic duct is A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Somatostatin D. * Lipocain E. Cortisol 379. A man after 1,5 litres blood loss has suddenly reduced diuresis. The increased secretion of what hormone caused such diuresis alteration? A. Corticotropin B. Natriuretic C. Parathormone D. Cortisol E. * Vasopressin 380. A patient has such sympthoms as hyperglycaemia, glucosuria, increased urine density, thirst, acidosis. What from below mentioned disorders can result in such state? A. * Insufficiency of insulin B. Hyperproduction of insulin C. Insufficiency of vasopressin D. Hyperproduction of glucocorticoids E. Insufficiency of glucagon 381. A patient has such sympthoms as polyuria, decreased urine density, thirst. What from below mentioned disorders can result in such state? A. Insufficiency of insulin B. Hyperproduction of insulin C. * Insufficiency of vasopressin D. Hyperproduction of glucocorticoids E. Insufficiency of glucagon 382. A patient, which visited a doctor, has increased level of glucose in blood and urine. Diabetes mellitus is suspected. What changes in lipid metabolism causes this disease? A. hyperketonemia B. hypercholesterolemia C. * hypoketonemia, ketonuria D. hyperphospholipidemia, hyperketonemia E. hypophospholipidemia , hypoketonemia 383. A typical symptom of cholera is a body water loss and sodium ions loss. The biochemical mechanisms of choleric toxin action is: A. Activation of synthesis of atrial natriuretic factor B. * Activation of adenylate cyclase in small intestine C. Decrease of synthesis of antidiuretic hormone in a hypothalamus D. D. Activation of secretion renin by the cells of yukstaglomerular aparatus E. Oxydation of aldosterone in the adrenal cortex 384. ACTH- hormone of the adenohypophysis. Per oral introduction of ACTH as medical preparation ineffective because this hormone is: A. * Decomposed with the proteolytic enzymes B. Does not absorbed in the intestine C. Inactivated in the cells of intestinal wall D. Inactivated in a liver E. Does not transferred with blood 385. After meal an alimentary hyperglycemia stimulates the secretion of such hormone: A. Cortisol B. Glucagon C. Epinephrine D. Norepinephrine E. * Insulin 386. Alfa-cells of pancreas synthesize the glucagon, which participates in the metabolism of carbohydrates. Which process in a liver it effects. A. Inhibits glycogenolysis B. Activates glycolysis C. * Activates a glycogenolysis D. Ingibits glycolysis E. Activates lipogenesis 387. All other things being constant, an increase in stress hormones would result in an increase in: A. Fatty acid synthesis in adipose tissue B. * Blood amino acids for gluconeogenesis C. Malonyl CoA concentrations in liver D. Protein synthesis in muscle E. Glycogen synthesis in muscle 388. All the following are important in the glucagon second messenger cascade EXCEPT A. Glucagon binds causing the dissociation of GDP from and the association of GTP with the G-protein B. Adenylate cyclase catalyzes the conversion of ATP to cAMP C. Phosphodiesterase catalyzes the conversion of cAMP to AMP D. * The receptor for glucagon undergoes an autophosphorylation which activates adenylate cyclase E. The cAMP binds to Protein Kinase A regulatory subunits, releasing catalytic subunits 389. All the following statements about serotonin are true except A. * It causes vasolidatation B. It causes bronchoconstriction C. It is metabolized by monoamine oxidase D. Its metabolite is 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid E. Both A and B 390. Alpha – cells of pancreas produse such hormon as: A. Insulin B. * Glucagon C. Somatostatin D. Lipocain E. Cortisol 391. As a medical preparations derivates of amino acids are widely used. Which from the below mentioned hormones is derivative of amino acid? A. * Thyroid hormones B. Glucocorticoids C. Androgens D. Hormones of hypophysis E. Estrogens 392. As a result of insulin binding to the insulin receptor, the GRB protein binds to the IRS. The binding of the GRB adaptor protein occurs because the IRS contains A. * A phosphorylated tyrosyl residue B. A phosphorylated seryl residue C. A src homology binding domain (SH2 domain) D. Bound inositol trisphosphate E. An alpha-1 receptor 393. At emotional stress in adipocytes hormone sensitive threeacylglycerollipase is activated. What second mediator does take part in this process? A. * cАМP B. cGМP C. AMP D. Diacylglycerol E. Ions of Ca2+ 394. At pheochromocytoma (adrenal glands medullary substance tumour) epinephrine synthesis is increased. Which of the mentioned changes is observed in such conditions? A. hard hypoglycemia B. * hyperglycemia C. normal glucose amount D. hyperproteinemia E. hypercholesterolemia 395. Ca2+ ions - are an evolutional oldest secondary messenger in cells. They are the activators of glycogenolysis, if cooperate with: A. Calcitonin B. * Calmodulin C. Calciferol D. Kinase of light chains of myosin E. Phosphorylase C 396. Chemical nature of ACTH: A. simple protein B. derivative of amino acid C. derivative of unsaturated fatty acid D. * hormone of peptide structure E. steroid hormone 397. Chemical nature of glucagon is: A. * Peptide B. Protein C. Steroid D. Derivative of amino acid E. Derivative of arachidonic acid 398. Chemical nature of growth hormone: A. * simple protein B. derivatives of amino acid C. derivatives of unsaturated fatty acid D. hormone of peptide structure E. steroid hormone 399. Chemical nature of insulin is: A. * Protein B. Derivative of amino acid of thyrosin C. To the derivates of arachidonic acid D. Oligopeptide E. Steroid 400. Choose a stimulus for rennin formation A. * Diminishing of kidney blood flowing B. Increase of kidney blood flowing C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone D. Aldosterone E. Hypoglycemia 401. Choose a substance which carries out the role of the secondary mediator at the membrane-intracellular mechanism of action of hormones: A. UMP B. GTP C. Oleic acid D. Arachidonic acid E. * Cyclic АМP 402. Choose from below mentioned compouds statins of hypothalamus: A. Thyrostatin, prolactostatin, melanostatin B. Somatostatin, thyrostatin, melanostatin C. Somatostatin, prolactostatin, thyrostatin D. Thyrostatin, lipostatin, melanostatin E. * Somatostatin, prolactostatin, melanostatin 403. Choose from the below mentioned effects of insulin: A. Represses oxidization of glucose in glycolysis, represses a PPP, activates glycogen synthase (synthesis of glycogen) B. Activates oxidization of glucose in glycolysis, represses a PPP, represses glycogen synthase (synthesis of glycogen) C. Represses oxidization of glucose in glycolysis, activates a PPP, represses glycogen synthase (synthesis of glycogen) D. * Activates oxidization of glucose in glycolysis, activates a PPP, activates glycogen synthase (synthesis of glycogen) E. Represses oxidization of glucose in glycolysis, inhibites PPP, represses glycogen synthase (synthesis of glycogen) 404. Choose, which biogenic аmines are the derivates of tryptophane: A. Serotonin and dopamine B. Dopamine and melatonin C. * Serotonin and melatonin D. Dopamine and histamine E. Serotonin and histamine 405. Cooperating of catecholamines with the beta - adrenoreceptors increases the level of cАМP in the cells. Which enzyme catalyses the reaction of cАМP formation: A. * Adenylatecyclase B. Phosphodiesterase C. Phosphatase D. Guanilatciclase E. Creatinkinase 406. Cooperating of catecholamines with the beta - adrenoreceptors promotes the level of cАМP in the cells. Name an enzyme which catalyzes the reaction of cАМP formation: A. Creatinkinase B. Phosphodiesterase C. Phosphatase D. Guanilatcyklase E. * Adenylatecyclase 407. Cyclic nucleotides (cАМP and cGМP) is the secondary mediators at transfer of information. Witch their role as a regulators? A. * Activating of specific proteincinases. B. Phosphorylating of histons. C. Activating of neiromediators. D. Stimulation of CNS E. Stimulation of transcription and translation. 408. Delta cells of pancreas produse such hormon as: A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. * Somatostatin D. Lipocain E. Cortisol 409. Dopamine is biogenic amine which is intermediate in a synthesis: A. * Epinephrine and Norepinephrine B. Serotonin C. Serotonin and melatonin D. Insulin E. All of above correct 410. During stress there takes place a rapid output of glucose into blood with the purpose of providing of organism energy. It takes a place due to: A. * Increased secrection epinephrine which splits a glycogen in a liver and muscles B. Increased secrection of thyroxine, which promotes absorption of glucose in an intestine C. Increased secrection of glucocorticoids which activate formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate components D. Increased secrection of epinephrine which activates a gluconeogenesis E. To the increased secrection of epinephrine which promotes absorption of glucose in an intestine 411. During the series of events following an increase in insulin, all of the following occur EXCEPT: A. Insulin binds its receptor, causing the autophosphorylation of receptor subunits B. Active protein kinases can cause the induction/repression of genes C. Glucagon-stimulated phosphorylation is reversed by the effects of insulin D. Phosphorylation results in more glucose transporters in adipose tissue cells E. * Phosphorylation inhibits 3', 5'-phosphodiesterase 412. Effect of epinephrine on a lipid metabolism is: A. Inhibits a tissue lipase and mobilization of fat from a depot; B. * Activates a tissue lipase and mobilization of fat from a depot; C. Inhibits lipids oxidation D. Stimulates converting of fats into carbohydrates E. Stimulates transformation of fats into proteins 413. Effect of insulin on a carbohydrate metabolism is: A. * Activates transfer of glucose through the cells membranes B. Activates glucokinase C. Activates glycogensynthase D. Activates a gluconeogenesis E. Inhibits transfer of glucose through the cells membranes 414. Effect of insulin on a lipid metabolism is: A. * Activates the synthesis of fatty acids B. Inhibits the synthesis of fatty acids C. Activates converting of fatty acids into carbohydrates D. Inhibits convention of fatty acids into carbohydrates E. Stimulates transformation of lipids into proteins 415. Effect of insulin on a proteins metabolism is: A. * Activation of the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids B. Repression of the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids C. Reducing of permeability of cells membranes for amino acids D. Activation of conversion of amino acids into glucose E. Activation of conversion of amino acids into lipids 416. Effect of somatotropic hormone on a proteins metabolism: A. Represses entering of amino acids into cells B. Represses the biosynthesis of proteins, DNA, RNA C. Activates conversion of amino acids into fats D. Stimulates conversion of amino acids into glucose E. * Activates the biosynthesis of proteins, DNA, RNA 417. Epinephrine increases the glucose level in the blood by activation of: A. * glycogenolysis B. glycolysis C. ketolysis D. gluconeogenesis E. glycogenesis 418. Epinephrine increases the glucose level in the blood by activation of: A. * glycogenolysis B. C. D. E. glycolysis ketolysis gluconeogenesis glycogenesis 419. Epinephrine stimulates a glycogenolysis by: A. * Activation of glycogenphosphorylase B. Inhibition of glycogenphosphorylase C. Activation of glycogensynthase D. Activation of hexokinase E. Inhibition of hexokinase 420. Epinephrine stimulation of lipolysis in adipocytes is thought to differ from epinephrine stimulation of glycogenolysis in the liver in which way? A. Glucagon, not epinephrine, stimulates lipolysis in adipocytes B. The mechanism of hormone-receptor interaction is thought to be fundamentally different in each tissue C. Phosphorylase kinase is activated directly by a second messenger in adipocytes, but not in the liver D. Adenosine 3?,5?-cyclic monophosphate (cyclic AMP) is the second messenger in adipocytes, but not in the liver E. * Only protein kinase is interposed as an amplification factor between the second messenger and the physiologically important enzymes in adipocytes 421. Excess accumulation of which biogenic аmine in the areas of inflammation and areas of cooperation an antigen-antibody is one of mechanisms of development of allergic reactions: A. Serotonin B. Dopamine C. * Histamine D. Melatonin E. Epinephrine 422. Following release of norepinephrine by sympathetic nerves and epinephrine by the adrenal medulla, which of the following metabolic processes is decreased? A. * Glycolysis B. Lipolysis C. Gluconeogenesis D. Glycogenolysis E. Ketogenesis 423. For what from the following hormones are specific such effects as activation of decomposition of glycogen in a liver, activation of lipolysis, stimulation of gluconeogenesis. A. Insulin B. * Glucagon C. Epinephrine D. Cortisol E. Testosteron 424. For what glycolysis enzyme the activator is insulin? A. * hexokinase B. B.glucose-6-phosphatase, phosphoglucom C. C.glucose-6-phosphate-isomerase, aldolase D. aldolase, lactate dehydrogenase E. phosphoglucomutase, aldolase 425. Formation of insulin is increased at: A. During starvation B. C. D. E. During the physical loading At emotional stress * After meal At a flu 426. Glucocorticoids increase the level of glucose in the blood by activation of: A. glycogenogenesis B. glycogenolysis C. * gluconeogenesis D. ketogenesis E. glycolysis 427. Histamine responsible for all of physiological effects, except: A. * Narrowing of peripheral vessels B. Dilatation of peripheral vessels C. Stimulation of secretion of HCl in a stomach D. Narrowing of bronchus E. Participating is in immunological reactions. 428. Hormone, which increase the activity of lipolysis in fatty tissue: A. * epinephrine B. parathyroid hormone C. insulin D. B. vasopressin E. prostaglandins 429. Hormones regulate the numeral processes of metabolism. Which from the below mentioned hormones has аnabolic action: A. * Insulin B. Epinephrine C. Vasopresin D. Glukagon E. Oxytocin 430. How can be diabetic tendency detected? A. Determinating the level of 17-ketosteroids in blood . B. * By the glucose-tolerance test. C. Determinating the glucose level in blood. D. Determinating the glucose level in urine E. Determinating the level of cholesterol in blood 431. How could be an inactive kininogens converted into an active kinins? A. Under the action of rennin B. Under the action of angiotensin C. Under the action of prostaglandins D. Under the action of somatotropin E. * Under the action of kallikreins 432. How do catecholamins influence on a carbohydrate metabolism? A. Activate decomposition of glycogen in a liver B. * Activate decomposition of glycogen in a liver and muscles C. Activate a gluconeogenesis D. Activate suction of glucose in an intestine E. Activate the synthesis of glycogen 433. How do catecholamins influence on a lipids metabolism? A. * Activate mobilization and oxidization of fats B. Activate lipogenesis C. Activate synthesis of phospholipids in a liver D. Activate formation of transport forms of lipids in a liver 434. 435. 436. 437. 438. 439. 440. 441. E. Promote formation of chylomicrons in the wall of intestine How do catecholamins influence on a protein metabolism? A. Promote synthesis of proteins B. Promote synthesis of proteins in a liver and activate its decomposition in connective tissue C. * Promote in a proteins catabolism D. Activate convertion of proteins into carbohydrates E. Activate transformation of carbohydrates into a proteins How does glucagon influence on a carbohydrate metabolism? A. Activates the synthesis of glycogen in a liver B. Activates the synthesis of glycogen in a liver and muscles C. Activates decomposition of glycogen in a liver and muscles D. * Activates decomposition of glycogen in a liver E. Activates the transport of glucose across cellular membranes How does insulin influence on a lipid metabolism? A. Represses synthesis of fats, activates a gluconeogenesis B. * Activates synthesis of fats, represses a gluconeogenesis C. Activates synthesis of fats, activates a gluconeogenesis D. Represses synthesis of fats, represses a gluconeogenesis E. Participates in converting of lipids into carbohydrates, activates oxidization of fatty acids How does insulin influence on a mineral metabolism? A. Regulates calcium-phosphate metabolism B. * Activates a transport of potassium into a cells, and sodium from the cells C. Activates insertionof iron into hemoglobin D. Regulates metabolism of copper in an organism E. Instrumental in insertion of iodine in tyrosine How does insulin influence on a protein metabolism? A. * Promotes permeability of membranes for amino acid, activates the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids, represses a gluconeogenesis B. Reduces permeability of membranes for amino acid, represses the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids, represses a gluconeogenesis C. Reduces permeability of membranes for amino acid, represses the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids, activates a gluconeogenesis D. Promotes permeability of membranes for amino acid, represses the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids, activates a gluconeogenesis E. Promotes permeability of membranes for amino acid, activates the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids, activates a gluconeogenesis How is active insulin formed in a pancreas? A. From the protein - precursor by phosphorylation B. From the protein - precursor by acetylation C. * From the protein - precursor by partial proteolysis D. From the protein - precursor by the methylation E. It formed in an active form How is insulin catabolised after its action? A. Excreted from an organism in an unchanging form with urine B. Excreted from an organism in an unchanging form with a bile C. Excreted from an organism with a bile after oxidization in a liver D. * By the enzyme of insulinase to amino acids E. By lysosomal enzymes in all of rissues How is regulated intensity of insulin secretion? A. By insulinotropin - a hormone of hypophysis B. C. D. E. By insulinoliberin of hypothalamus * By the concentration of glucose in blood By the somatic nervous system By the concentration of calcium and phosphorus in blood 442. How many gramms of glucose is it necessary to eat for a patient half-starving to perform a method of sugary loading aiming to reveal the hidden form of diabetes mellitus? A. * 1 g per 1 kg of weight B. 100 g C. 20 g D. 50 g E. 10 g 443. Impairment in the synthesis of dopamine by the brain is a major causative factor for the disorder: A. * Parkinson’s disease B. Addison’s disease C. Cushing’s syndrome D. Goiter E. Insulin-dependent diabetes 444. In stress the level of glucose increases in blood. Which hormone does result in it with the activating of glycogenolysis? A. Parathyroid hormone B. Aldosterone C. * Epinephrine D. Vasopressin E. Progesterone 445. In diabetes mellitus the tissues of organism have heavy deficit of oxidative substratum, as they can not assimilate glucose. Gluconeogenesis increases and ketone bodies become the main substratum for oxidation. What is one of the reasons for ketonuria by diabetes mellitus? A. lack of HS-CoA B. lactate excess C. * lack of oxaloacetate D. glucose formation E. polyuria 446. In emotional stress threeacylglycerollipase is activated in adipocytes. Concentration of which secondary messenger increases? A. * cАМP B. cGМP C. AMP D. Diacylglycerol E. Ca2+ 447. In liver and muscle, glycogen degradation is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: A. * The activation by insulin of glycogen phosphorylase B. The yielding of glucose-1-phosphate residues by the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase C. The activity of a 4: 4- transferase to ensure the debranching D. The activity of a specific alpha-1, 6- glucosidase that yields free glucose residues E. The use of inorganic phosphate by glycogen phosphorylase 448. In pheochromocytoma (adrenal glands medullary substance tumour) increase epinephrine synthesis. Which of the mentioned changes is observed by such conditions? A. B. C. D. E. hard hypoglycemia * hyperglycemia normal glucose amount hyperproteinemia hypercholesterolemia 449. In the blood of the patient the amount of glucose half-starving is 5,6 mmol/l, in an hour after sugary loading – 13,8 mmol/l, in two hours – 9,2 mmol/l. Such figures are typical for: A. healthy man B. patient with thyrotoxicosis C. * patient with hidden form of diabetes mellitus D. patient with Cushing's syndrome E. patient with acromegaly 450. In the synthesis of Insulin, which of the following is NOT TRUE? A. * The alpha-cells of the pancreas are centered such that blood flow carries new glucagon over the beta-cells explaining the inhibitory effect of glucagon on insulin release B. Glucose is a major regulator of insulin release C. Cleavage of proinsulin to insulin yields a C-Peptide D. The chains of insulin are held together and in active conformation by disulfide bridges E. The A chain of insulin is shorter than the B chain 451. Increace of insulin secretion takes place in a pancreas after the carbohydrate meal. Activity of which enzymes of glycolisis regulates insulin: A. * Glucokinase, phоsphоfructokinase, pyruvatkinase B. Aldolase, LDH, enolase C. Phosphoglyceromutase, LDH, phosphoglucomutase D. Enolase, аldolase, hexokinase E. Phosphoglycerokinase, pyruvatkinase, enolase 452. Increased blood insulin specifically plays a major role in all of the following EXCEPT: A. Glucose storage as glycogen in liver and muscle B. * Conversion of glucose to triacylglycerols in liver C. Amino acid uptake and protein synthesis in skeletal muscle D. Promotion of the sparing of glucose utilized for energy in the brain during a fast E. Stimulation of transport of glucose into muscle and adipose tissue 453. Increased reabsorption of water from the kidney is the major consequence of which of the following hormones? A. Cortisol B. Insulin C. * Vasopressin D. Glucagon E. Aldosterone 454. Insulin decreases the level blood glucose by means of: A. gluconeogenesis activation B. gluconeogenesis oppression C. * glucose phosphorylation oppression D. glucose with urine excretion E. adrenalin excretion decrease 455. Insulin effects on the metabolism of carbohydrates, stimulates the transport of glucose from extracellulary space through cellular membranes inside the cells. Which cells are the target – cells for insulin? A. B. C. D. E. * Myocytes, adipocytes Neurons, myocytes Neurons, red blood cells Hepatocytes, neurons Lymphocytes, red blood cells 456. Insulin has many direct effects on various cell types from such tissues as muscle, fat, liver, and skin. Which of the following cellular activities is decreased following exposure to physiologic concentrations of insulin? A. Plasma membrane transfer of glucose B. Glucose oxidation C. * Gluconeogenesis D. Lipogenesis E. Formation of ATP, DNA, and RNA 457. Insulin is secreted by the B-cells of the pancreas into the hepatic portal vein. Which of the following regarding insulin synthesis is FALSE: A. The active form of insulin is composed of two polypeptide chains linked by two interchain disulfide bonds B. The A-Chain has an intrachain disulfide bond C. Insulin is synthesized as a preprohormone which is converted to proinsulin D. * Stimulation of A-cells by glucose causes exocytosis of the insulin storage vesicles E. Cleavage of proinsulin to insulin yields a C-peptide 458. Introduction of epinephrine to the organism increases the level of glucose in blood. What process is activated mainly? A. * Disintegration of glycogen B. Synthesis of glycogen C. Cycle of Krebs D. Pentosophosphate cycle E. Alcoholic fermentation 459. Introduction of epinephrine to the organism results in the increase of glucose level in blood. Which process is activates mainly? A. Alcoholic fermentation B. Synthesis of glycogen C. Cycle of Krebs D. Pentose phosphate cycle E. * Disintegration of glycogen 460. Melatonin responsible for all of physiological effects, except: A. Synchronization of endogenous biorhythms in an organism B. Adjusting of “sleep-wake” activity C. * Activation of immune reactions D. Inhibition of secretion somatotropic and gonadotropic hormones E. Inhibition of free radical oxidization reactions 461. Name the hormone, predominantly produced in response to fight, fright and flight: A. Thyroxine B. * Epinephrine C. Aldosterone D. ADH E. Insulin 462. One of the following hormones is an amino acid derivate: A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Thyroxine D. * All of them E. Insulin 463. One of the ways of glucose oxidation is pentose-phosphate cycle. What is the main destination of this process? A. * formation of NADPH2 and pentose B. formation of NADPH2 and gluconic acid C. glycogen synthesis in the liver D. acetyl CoA formation E. formation of NADH2 464. Oversecretion of which hormone causes higher growth, unproportionally large hands? A. * Somatotropic hormone B. Epinephrine C. Thyroxin D. Antidiuretic hormone E. Melanocytostimulation hormone 465. Patient is in condition of constant stress, what caused the violation of lipid metabolism. Characteristic for this condition are the following features, but: A. hyperglycemia B. hyperketonemia C. decrease of total lipids in blood D. organism emaciation E. * fatty liver degeneration 466. Prostaglandins are inactivated by A. * 15-Hydroxyprostaglandin dehydrogenase B. Cyclo-oxygenase C. Lipo-oxygenase D. None of these E. Both B and C 467. Prostaglandins have a common structure based on prostanoic acid which contains carbon atoms: A. 12 B. 16 C. 18 D. * 20 E. 32 468. Specify chemical nature of hormones of a neurohypophysis: A. * Cyclic peptides B. Simple proteins C. Derivates of tyrosine D. Derivates of fatty acids E. Glycoproteins 469. The B-cells of endocrine portion of pancreas are selectively damaged by alloxan poisoning. How will it be reflected in blood plasma? A. The content of fibrinogen decrease B. The content of albumins decreases C. * The content of sugar increases D. The content of globulins decreases E. The level of sugar decreases 470. The cause of insulin dependent diabetes (type II) is: A. * malfunction of structure and insulin receptors function B. decreased insulin synthesis C. increased insulin synthesis D. increased epinephrine synthesis E. decreased epinephrine synthesis 471. The cause of insulin-dependent diabetes (type I) is: A. * decreased insulin synthesis B. increased insulin synthesis C. increased glucocorticoids synthesis D. increased glucagon synthesis E. decreased glucagon synthesis 472. The chemical nature of tropic hormones of adenohypophysis is: A. Simple proteins B. * Glycoproteins C. Lipoproteins D. Derivates of fatty acids E. Derivates of amino acid 473. The feature of tyrosine metabolism is its including in the process of hormones synthesis. Choose one of them that synthesizes in the adrenal medulla. A. Thyroxin B. Glucagon C. * Epinephrine D. Histamine E. Serotonin 474. The following are all effects of insulin EXCEPT A. Stimulation of acetyl CoA carboxylase B. * Stimulation of the lipolytic activity of hormone sensitive lipase (HSL) C. Stimulates adipose cells to synthesize and secrete LPL (lipoprotein lipase) D. Stimulates the enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase E. Increase in the number of glucose transporters in adipose cell membranes 475. The hormone, that depresses lipolysis in fatty tissue: A. * insulin B. epinephrine C. glucagon D. thyroxine E. adrenocorticotropin 476. The hormones of protein – peptide nature regulate biochemical processes with activating of adenylatecyclase. Choose the substance which appears as a result of this enzyme action. A. cCМP B. cGМP C. * cАМP D. cТМP E. cUМP 477. The hypersecretion of which hormone causes development of hyperglycemia? A. * Glucagon B. Insulin C. Somatomedine D. Melanotropin E. Vasopressin 478. The level of glucose in blood of a patient increases. Excess of which hormone could results such effect? A. * Epinephrine B. Insulin C. Testosteron D. Norepinephrine E. Oxytocin 479. The level of glucose in blood of a patient increased. Excess of which hormone could result in such effect? A. Oxytocin B. Insulin C. Testosterone D. Norepinephrine E. * Epinephrine 480. The patient complains for undue fatiguability after working day, constant thirst. A doctor suspected diabetes mellitus. Choose the blood plasma glucose concentration, which proves the diagnosis: A. * 8,5 mmol/l B. 2 mmol/l C. 4,5 mmol/l D. 5 mmol/l E. 3,3 mmol/l 481. The patient complains of polyuria. The pathological components in urine are not detected. The deficiency of what hormone can result in such state? A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Epinephrine D. * Vasopressin E. Cortisol 482. The patient with diabetes mellitus has hypoglycemic coma. The reasons for this can be: A. * overdosage of insulin B. starvation C. dehydration of the organism D. pancreatic islet adenoma E. Addison's disease 483. The patient with diabetes mellitus has hypoglycemic coma. The reasons for this can be: A. * overdosage of insulin B. starvation C. dehydration of the organism D. pancreatic islet ?-cells adenoma E. Addison's disease 484. The precursor of what bioactive substanse is thyrosine? A. Bensoic acid B. Androsteron C. Insulin D. * Epinephrine E. Bilirubin 485. The products of hydrolysis and modification of some proteins are biologically active substances – hormones. Which from the below mentioned proteins is precursor for lipotropin, corticotropin, melanotropin and endorphin? A. * Proopiomelanocortin (POMC). B. Neuroalbumin C. Neurostromin D. Neuroglobulin E. Thyreoglobulin 486. The prostaglandins are synthesized from A. * Arachidonic acid B. Oleic acid C. Linoleic acid D. Linolenic acid E. Both C and D 487. The secondary mediator in the mechanism of action of epinephrine is: A. cCMP B. cGMP C. cUMP D. cTMP E. * cAMP 488. The secondary mediator in the mechanism of epinephrine action is: A. cGМP B. * cАМP C. cUМP D. cТМP E. cCМP 489. The secondary messenger in the mechanism of ACTH action is: A. cТМP B. cGМP C. cUМP D. * cАМP E. cCМP 490. The secretion of glucagon is increased at: A. In a postabsorptive period (after meal) B. * At starvation C. At the use of plenty of carbonhydratess D. At the use of plenty of lipids E. At stress 491. The usage of glucose takes a place with its transport from intracellular space across cell membrane inside cells. This process stimulates such hormone: A. * Insulin B. Glucagon C. Thyroxin D. Aldosterone E. Epinephrine 492. There is only one hormone among the neurohormones which refers to the derivatives of amino acids according to classification. Point it out: A. Oxytocin B. * Melatonin C. Vasopressin D. Thyroliberin E. Somatotropin 493. These compounds relax a smooth muscles of blood vessels and reduce a blood pressure, promote permeability of capillaries and take part in development of inflammatory reactions. Choose this hormones (hormonoids)? A. Renin and angiotensin B. * Kinins C. Prostaglandins D. Glucocorticoids E. Corticosteroids 494. This hormone narrows vessels and promotes a blood pressure, increases a pulse, relaxes a smooth muscles of bronches and intestine. Choose this hormone: A. Thyroxine B. Somatotropic hormone C. Cortisol D. Testosteron E. * Epinephrine 495. Transfer of information from the hormones of peptide nature on intracellular secondary messenger takes place with participation of adenylatecyclase. Which reaction is catalyzed with adenylatecyclase? A. * Breaking up of ATP with formation of cАМP and pyrophosphate. B. Breaking up ATP with formation ADF and phosphorus inorganic. C. Synthesis ATP from AMF and pyrophosphate. D. Breaking up of ADP with formation of AMF and inorganic phosphate. E. Breaking up ATP with formation of AMP and pyrophosphate. 496. ?Tryptophan could be considered as precursor of A. * Melanotonin B. Thyroid hormones C. Melanin D. Epinephrine E. Both A and B 497. Tumor of adenohypophysis caused disorders of tropic hormones synthesis. Choose, high level of which hormone causes acromegalia? A. Melanocytostimulating B. CTH C. Luteinizing D. * Somatotropic E. Folikulostimulating 498. Tumors of endocrine glands enhance amounts of hormones in blood as a rule. What biochemical changes in blood can be at a tumor of adenohypophysis? A. Hypoglycemia B. * Hyperglycemia C. Hypercholesterolemia D. Ketoacidosis E. Acetonuria 499. Vasopressin has a strong antidiuretic action, stimulates the reabsorbtion of water through the membranes of kidney canaliculies. What is its chemical nature? A. * Peptide B. Carbohydrate C. Steroid D. Lipid E. Derivate of amino acid 500. What from below mentioned hormones is antagonist of insulin? A. Somatotropic hormone B. Thyrotropic hormone C. Calcitonin D. * Glucagon E. Parathormone 501. What amino acid is a precursos for epinephrine and norepinephrine synthesis? A. Lysin B. * Tyrosine C. Alanine D. Glutamic acid E. Aspartic acid 502. What are effects of the kallikrein-kinin system action? A. * Relaxion of the smooth muscles of blood vessels, reducing of blood pressure, promotes permeability of capillaries, takes part in development of inflammatory reactions B. Inhibits lipase activity, regulates calcium metabolism, inhibits a gastric secretion, stimulates a lipogenesis C. Narrows vessels, increases a blood pressure, stimulates a secretion of aldosteron D. Promotes glucosemia, activates a gluconeogenesis, stimulates glycogenolysis in a liver E. Rises a blood pressure, a pulse, promotes contractive activity of myocardium. 503. What are effects of the rennin-angiotensin system action? A. Vasoconstriction, oppression of secretion of aldosteron B. * Vasoconstriction, stimulation of secretion of aldosteron C. Relaxion of vessels, oppression of secretion of aldosteron D. Relaxionof vessels, stimulation of secretion of aldosteron E. Stimulation of reabsorption of sodium and potassium in kidney tubulis 504. What biochemical symptoms are specific for diabetes insipidus? A. Hyperglycemia, glucosuria, polyuria, decreased density of urine B. Hypoglycemia, glucosuria, polyuria, increased density of urine C. Normoglycemia, glucosuria, normal density of urine D. Normoglycemia, polyuria, decreased density of urine, acidosis E. * Normoglycemia, polyuria, decreased density of urine 505. What biochemical symptoms are specific for diabetes mellitus? A. Hyperglycemia, glucosuria, decreased urine density B. Hypoglycemia, glucosuria, increased urine density, acidosis C. Hypoglycemia, glucosuria, normal urine density D. Hyperglycemia, glucosuria, decreased urine density, acidosis E. * Hyperglycemia, glucosuria, increased urine density, acidosis 506. What changes in lipid metabolism may be caused by insufficiency of somatotropin excretion? A. emaciation B. fatty liver degeneration C. atherosclerosis D. * obesity E. ketonemia 507. What from below mentioned effects are specific for insulin? A. Increases permeability of cellular membranes for glucose, activates enzymes of Krebs cycle, activates a gluconeogenesis B. Increases permeability of cellular membranes for glucose, represses the Krebs cycle, inhibites a gluconeogenesis C. * Increases permeability of cellular membranes for glucose, activates enzymes of Krebs cycle, inhibites a gluconeogenesis D. Diminishes permeability of cellular membranes for glucose, activates enzymes of of Krebs cycle, inhibites a gluconeogenesis E. Diminishes permeability of cellular membranes for glucose, inhibites enzymes of of Krebs cycle, activates a gluconeogenesis 508. What from next hormones has anabolic effects? A. * Insulin B. Glucagon C. Epinephrine D. Thyroxine in high concentrations E. Norepinephrine 509. What from the below mentioned hormones are catecholamins? A. Cortisol, hydrocortisol B. Thyroxine C. Estriol, estradiol D. * Epinephrine, Norepinephrine E. Insulin, glucagon 510. What from the below mentioned functions specific for lipocain? A. Activates lipogenesis, inhibits lipolysis and mobilization of fats from a depot B. Activates oxidization of fatty acids, promotes converting of carbohydrates into lipids C. * Activates formation of phosphotids in a liver, stimulates the action of lipotropic food’s factors D. Inhibits formation of phospholipids in a liver, assists in the fatty degeneration of liver E. Stimulates formation of triacylglycerols in the wall of intestine, activates the synthesis of chylomicrons in an intestine 511. What from the below mentioned hormones activate formation of phospholipids in a liver? A. Somatostatin B. Insulin C. Lipotropnic hormone D. Thyroxine E. * Lipocain 512. What from the below mentioned hormones are catabolics? A. Thyroxine B. * Catecholamins C. Glucocorticoids D. Sex hormones E. Insulin and glucagon 513. What from the below mentioned hormones does reduce speed of lipolysis in fatty tisuues? A. Hydrocortison B. Epinephrine C. * Insulin D. Somatotropin E. Norepinephrine 514. What from the below mentioned hormones is not produced in adenohypophysis? A. Somatotropic. B. Adrenocorticotropic. C. * Melanotropin. D. Thyrotropnin. E. Prolactin. 515. What from the transferred hormones is not secreted by a pancreas? A. Somatostatin; B. Glucagon; C. * Somatomedin; D. Insulin; E. Lipocain. 516. What hormone promotes glycogen synthesis? A. B. C. D. E. 517. A. B. C. D. E. 518. A. B. C. D. E. 519. A. B. C. D. E. 520. A. B. C. D. E. 521. A. B. C. D. E. 522. A. B. C. D. E. 523. A. B. C. D. E. Glucagon Epinephrine Thyroxine * Insulin Parathormone What hormone promotes lipogenesis? Epinephrine Thyroxine Parathormone Glucagon * Insulin What hormones are prodused in a pancreas? Insulin, glucagon, somatomedins, lipotropic hormones Insulin, glucagon, melanocytostimulation hormone, lipocain Insulin, glucagon, liberines and statines * Insulin, glucagon, somatostatin, lipocain Insulin, glucagon, lipotropic hormone, oxytocin What is a reason of acidosis development at I type of diabetes mellitus ? Insufficiency of insulin results in the increased formation of pyruvate, which transforms into acetyl CoA, which is utillized for the synthesis of ketone bodies * Insufficiency of insulin results in oppression of formation of pyruvate which determines insufficiency of oxaloacetate Insufficiency of insulin results in activation of glycolysis and the synthesis of ketone bodies is activated as a result Insufficiency of insulin results in oppression of PPP and as a result to the increased formation of ketone bodies Insufficiency of insulin results in increasing of glucose in blood and it transformation on ketone bodies What is the chemical nature of catecholamins? Proteins Peptids * Derivatives of amino acid Steroids Derivatives of arachidonic acid What is the chemical nature of insulin? Nucleotide * Protein Steroid Carbohydrate Lipid What metal is needed for functioning of insulin? Iron Copper Cobalt Calcium * Zinc What substance is a precursor in the synthesis of prostaglandins in the organism? Linolic acid Palmitic acid Linolenic acid Oleic acid * Arachidonic acid 524. What types of metabolism does insulin influence on? A. Only on carbohydrate B. On carbohydrate and lipid C. On carbohydrate and albumen D. On carbohydrate, lipid and protein E. * On carbohydrate, lipid, protein and mineral 525. When epinephrine binds to alpha-1 receptors, one result is A. The receptor binds to the IRS-protein B. The receptor inhibits phospholipase-C C. * The endoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions D. There is a reduction in the diacylglycerol concentration E. Calmodulin dissociates from all the proteins to which it normally binds 526. When the blood concentration of insulin is increases, less glucagon is produced and there is a(n) A. Increases in the activity of adenylate cyclase B. * Increase in the activity of cAMP phosphodiesterase (3’, 5’-phosphodiesterase) C. Increase in binding of cAMP to the inhibitory subunits of protein kinase A D. Increase in cAMP E. Increase in protein kinase A activity 527. Where are catecholamins secrected? A. In a thyroid gland B. In a parathyroid glands C. In the cortex of a suprarenal gland D. * In the medulla of a suprarenal gland E. In the islets of Langerhans of pancreas 528. Where is insulin synthesized? A. In alfa-cells of Langergans ilets B. * In the beta-cells of Langergans ilets C. In the delta-cells of Langergansa ilets D. In the endothelial cells of conclusion channels of pancreas E. In стромі of pancreas 529. Where is rennin synthesized? A. In a liver B. In a pancreas C. In a thyroid gland D. * In kidneys E. In a hypophysis 530. Which from below mentioned hormones is a complex protein? A. ACTH. B. * Follicle stimulating hormone C. Oxytocin D. Glucagon E. Somatostatin 531. Which from below mentioned hormones is a derivate of amino acid? A. Calcitonin B. Adrencorticotropic hormone C. Insulin D. Vasopressin E. * Epinephrine 532. Which hormone does stimulate lipolysis in fatty tissue? A. Oxytocin B. * Epinephrine 533. 534. 535. 536. 537. 538. 539. 540. 541. C. Foliculotropin D. Melanotropin E. Calcitonin Which hormone does stimulate lipolysis in fatty tissue? A. Folikulotropin B. Oxytocin C. * Epinephrine D. Melanotropin E. Kalcitonin Which hormones effect on the cells genetic apparatus? A. Protein nature B. Peptide nature C. Hormones - derivates of amino acids D. * Steroid hormones E. All of above Which of the following action is improper for insulin? A. Increases the permeability of cell membranes for glucose. B. * Inhibits the first enzyme of glycolysis – glucokinase. C. Activates some enzymes of Krebs cycle. D. Activates the pentose phosphate cycle; E. Activates some enzymes of glycolysis Which of the following effect of insulin is correct? A. Activates the oxidation of fatty acids. B. Activates the lipolysis. C. Inhibits the synthesis of lipids. D. * Enhances the synthesis of lipids. E. All of the above Which of the following hormone acts on the cell genetic apparatus? A. Insulin. B. * Testosteron. C. Thyroxin. D. Epinephrine. E. Glucagon Which of the following hormone acts on the cell genetic apparatus? A. Insulin. B. * Testosteron. C. Glucagon D. Epinephrine. E. Vasopressin Which of the following hormone acts through the activation of adenilate cyclase? A. * Epinephrine. B. Estrol. C. Testosteron. D. Cortisol. E. Aldosteron Which of the following hormone acts through the activation of adenilate cyclase? A. * Epinephrine. B. Estrol. C. Testosteron. D. Cortisol. E. Aldosteron Which of the following hormones promotes hypoglycemia? A. B. C. D. E. Epinephrine Norepinephrine * Insulin Glucagon Glucocorticoids 542. Which of the following is NOT a result of insulin binding to its receptor on a muscle cell? A. The receptor undergoes a change in conformation B. The receptor autophosphorylates tyrosyl residues C. Phosphorylation of the insulin receptor substrate (IRS) is increased D. More glucose transporters are inserted into the membrane E. * G-protein and adenylate cyclase are activated 543. Which of the following is not true? A. Glucagon causes the breakdown of glycogen in liver to yield glucose to the blood B. Insulin inhibits glycogenolysis in the liver C. Epinephrine causes the glycogen in liver to be degraded to yield glucose to the blood D. Insulin causes the transport of glucose into muscle cells E. * Epinephrine inhibits glycolysis of glucose in muscle cells 544. Which of the following proteins is responsible for secretion of pancreatic juice into the intestine? A. Cholecystokinin B. Gastrin C. Insulin D. Intrinsic factor E. * Secretin 545. Which of the following rules is correct for epinephrine? A. Epinephrine promotes synthesis of proteins. B. * Epinephrine promotes decomposition of proteins. C. Epinephrine promotes synthesis of lipids. D. Epinephrine promotes synthesis of glycogen. E. Epinephrine promotes decomposition of glucose 546. Which of the following rules is correct for epinephrine? A. Epinephrine promotes synthesis of proteins. B. * Epinephrine promotes decomposition of proteins. C. Epinephrine promotes synthesis of lipids. D. Epinephrine promotes synthesis of glycogen. E. All correct 547. Which of the following statements about prostaglandins is true? A. They are precursors to arachidonic acid B. They release arachidonic acid from membranes through the action of phospholipase A C. * They were first observed to cause uterine contraction and lowering of blood pressure D. Although found in many organs, they are synthesized only in the prostate and seminal vesicles E. They may be converted to leukotrienes by lipoxygenase 548. Which of the following statements accurately describes sex hormones? A. They bind specific membrane receptors B. They interact with DNA directly C. They cause release of a proteinaceous second messenger from the cell membrane D. * They enhance transcription when bound to receptors E. They inhibit translation through specific cytoplasmic proteins 549. Which of the following statements correctly describes insulin? A. It is an anabolic signal to cells that glucose is scarce B. It is converted from proinsulin to insulin primarily following secretion from ?cells C. It does not have a prohormone form D. It is a small polypeptide composed of a single chain bridged by disulfide groups E. * Its action is antagonistic to that of glucagon 550. Which of the following tissues is capable of contributing to blood glucose? A. Brain B. Adipose tissues C. Cardiac muscle D. * Duodenal epithelium E. Cartilage 551. With the purpose of analgesia a substance, which imitates the effects of morphine, but produced in CNS, can be used. Choose it. A. Somatoliberin B. Oxytocin C. Vasopressin D. Calcitonin E. * Endorphin 552. ________ is a process in which hormones are made less active or are eliminated by attaching water-soluble molecules such as sulfate or glucuronic acid groups to them in the liver. A. Active transport B. * Conjugation C. Excretion D. Metabolism E. Structural protection 553. A dietary deficiency of iodine can: A. Directly affect the synthesis of thyroglobulin on ribosomes B. * Result in increased secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone C. Result in decreased production of thyrotropin releasing hormone D. Result in increased heat production E. Result in decreased heat production 554. A hormone that increases sodium loss and lowers blood pressure is A. Aldosterone B. * Atrial natriuretic peptide C. Antidiuretic hormone D. Calcitonin E. Glucagon 555. A key intermediate for the synthesis of both testosterone and cortisol from cholesterol is: A. 7-hydroxycholesterol B. * Pregnenolone C. Aldosteron D. Retinoic acid E. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol 556. Action of parathormone is tightly connected with vitamin: A. A. С B. B. A C. * C. D D. D. Е E. E. K 557. Adrenaline is... A. Produced by the adrenal cortex B. * Also called epinephrine C. Released when the parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated D. None of the above E. All of the above 558. An example of a mineralocorticoid is: A. Glucagon B. Cortisol C. * Aldosterone D. Testosterone E. Insulin 559. Associated with increased TBG (thyroxine-binding globulin): A. Androgens B. Colestipol C. * Interleukin 2 D. Amiodarone E. Estrogens 560. Biochemical manifestation of excessive secretion of calcitonin: A. A. Hypercalciemia B. * B. Hypocalciemia C. C. Hyperphosphatemia D. D. Hypophosphaturia E. E. Hypernatriemia 561. Chemical nature of calcitonin: A. * A. Peptide B. B. Steroid C. C. Derivative of amino acid D. D. Derivative of аrachidonic acid E. E. Glycoprotein 562. Chemical nature of parathormone: A. * A. Protein B. B. Steroid C. C. Derivate of amino acid D. D. Lipid E. E. Derivate of arachidonic acid 563. Chemical nature of sex hormones A. A. Proteins B. B. Peptides C. * C. Steroids D. D. Derivates of the unsaturated fatty acids E. E. Derivates of amino acids 564. Choose a male sex hormone: A. A. Estradiole B. * B. Testosterone C. C. Cortizon D. D. Progesterone E. E. Cortikosterone 565. Choose the correct name of the state of hyperglycemia and glucosuria that appears in hypercorticism? A. B. C. D. E. A. Diabetes mellitus B. Diabetes insipidus * C. Steroid diabetes D. Kidney diabetes E. Adrenal diabetes 566. Choose the pair of hormones that have agonistic effects on blood sugar levels: A. A. Calcitonin and PTH B. * B. Adrenalin and Glucagon C. C. Glucagon and Glucose D. D. ADH and Aldosterone E. E. Only A 567. Choose the statement about steroid hormones that is incorrect A. Steroids are lipids with complex ring structures. B. * Steroids can pass through their target cell membrane and interact with receptors in the nucleus. C. Steroids employ first and second messengers that amplify the cellular response. D. The estrogens and testosterone are examples of steroid hormones. E. All of the above 568. Chose the effects that are caused by parathormone? A. A. Hypocalciemia, hypophosphatemia, hyperphosphaturia B. * B. Hypercalciemia, hypophosphatemia, hyperphosphaturia C. C. Hypocalciemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperphosphaturia D. D. Hypercalciemia, hypophosphatemia, hypophosphaturia E. E. Hypercalciemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypophosphaturia 569. Competitive inhibition of iodide uptake by the thyroid: A. Perchlorate B. Pertechnetate C. * Thiocyanate D. A & C E. A, B & C 570. Cortisol is produced by the: A. * Adrenal cortex B. Adrenal medulla C. Pancreas D. Thyroid gland E. Salivary gland 571. Cyclic AMP functions as a(n) _______________ for _______________ hormones. A. Binding site; nonsteroid B. Membrane receptor; steroid C. Activity site; G protein D. * Second messenger; nonsteroid E. All of the above 572. Diabetes insipidus results from a lack of: A. Glucagon B. Aldosterone C. Calcitonin D. * Antidiuretic hormone E. Insulin 573. Displacement of thyroid hormones (thyroxine, triiodothyronine) from TBG; may cause hyperthyroxinemia: A. * Methadone B. C. D. E. 574. A. B. C. D. E. 575. A. B. C. D. E. 576. A. B. C. D. E. 577. A. B. C. D. E. 578. A. B. C. D. E. 579. A. B. C. D. E. 580. A. B. C. D. E. 581. A. B. C. D. E. Sucralfate Lithium Furosemide None of the above Down-regulation occurs because * Both hormone and receptor are taken into the cell by phagocytosis Receptor molecules are degraded more quickly There is a decrease in the rate of receptor synthesis All of these None of thes During emergencies, the "fight-or-flight" response Decrease the heartrate * Is caused by hormone secretions in the adrenal medulla Is stimulated by cortisol Is the result of aldosterone causing faster blood flow Is ingibitad by cortisol Effective hyperthyroidism on thyroxine (T4) metabolic clearance: * Increased Decreased No change C and B Only B Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and thyroid hormones are examples of Proteins. Glycoproteins Polypeptides. * Amino acid derivatives. Steroids. Estrogen, progesterone, testosterone, and glucocorticoids are all examples of Proteins Glycoproteins Polypeptides Amino acid derivatives * Steroids Excessive production of thyroid hormones by the thyroid gland Is called hypothyroidism * Can cause nervousness, irregular heartbeat, and weight loss Can cause stunted growth and retardation in children Can cause a goiter Can cause riskets Functions of parathormone: A. Promotes deposition of calcium in bones and decreases Ca in blood * B. Promotes resorption of calcium from bones and increases in blood C. Stimulates reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney D. Stimulates reabsorbtion of sodium in kidney E. Inhibits reabsorption of sodium in kidney Functions of prostaglandins: A. Regulate activity of dehydrogenase in liver B. Regulate reabsorption of water in kidney C. Regulate the functions of nervous system * D. Regulate gastric secretion E. Regulate activity of hydrolase in cells 582. A. B. C. D. E. 583. A. B. C. D. E. 584. A. B. C. D. E. 585. A. B. C. D. E. 586. A. B. C. D. E. 587. A. B. C. D. E. 588. A. B. C. D. E. 589. A. B. C. D. E. 590. A. B. C. Glands in the endocrine system Produce hormones that are secreted into the digestive tract * Release hormones into the bloodstream or the fluid around cells Release hormones as rapidly as nerve impulses are transmitted None of the above All of the above Hormon, that binds to receptors on Leydig cells: * Luteinizing hormone Prolactin Thyroid stimulating hormone Growth hormone Follicle stimulating hormone Hormone associated with diuresis: Oxytocin * Vasopressin Both oxytocine and vasopresine Neither oxytocine nor vasopressin ACTH Hormone associated with induction of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase: * Cortisol Aldosteron Both cortisol and aldosteron Neither cortisol nor aldosterone Prolactin Hormone found associated with neurophysin in secretory granules: Oxytocin Vasopressin * Both oxytocine and vasopresine Neither oxytocine nor vasopressin Melanotonin Hormone produced by anterior pituitary: Oxytocin Vasopressin Both oxytocine and vasopresine * Neither oxytocine nor vasopressin Melanotonin Hormone secreted in response to angiotensin II Cortisol * Aldosteron Both cortisol and aldosteron Neither cortisol nor aldosterone Prolactin Hormone that binds to intracellular receptor: Cortisol Aldosteron * Both cortisol and aldosteron Neither cortisol nor aldosterone Prolactin Hormone that is incoded by the propiomelanocortin gene: Luteinizing hormone Follicle stimylating hormone Growth hormone D. * Melanocyte stimulating hormone E. Thyroid hormones 591. Hormone that mediates its action by the second messenger: A. Cortisol B. Aldosteron C. Both cortisol and aldosteron D. * Neither cortisol nor aldosterone E. Testosterone 592. Hormone that stimulates testosterone production: A. * Luteinizing hormone B. Follicle stimylating hormone C. Growth hormone D. Melanocitostimulating hormone E. Thyroid hormones 593. Hormone that stimulates the production of estradiol by the immature ovarian follicle: A. Luteinizing hormone B. Prolactin C. Thyroid stimulating hormone D. Growth hormone E. * Follicle stimulating hormone 594. Hormone that stimulates the production of progesterone by the corpus luteum: A. * Luteinizing hormone B. Prolactin C. Thyroid stimulating hormone D. Growth hormone E. Follicle stimulating hormone 595. Hormones can be any of these types of molecules EXCEPT A. Proteins B. Glycoproteins C. Polypeptides D. * Glycolipids E. Steroids 596. Hormones released by nerve cells of the _______ regulate hormones secreted by the ____________. A. Hypothalamus, anterior pituitary B. * Hypothalamus, posterior pituitary C. Anterior pituitary, hypothalamus D. Cerebellum, posterior pituitary E. Posterior pituitary, anterior pituitary 597. Hormones that bind to plasma proteins A. Bind reversibly B. Establish an equilibrium between free hormones and bound hormones C. Must be free hormones to diffuse through the capillary walls. D. * Usually bind only to specific types of plasma proteins. E. All of these 598. Hormones with a short half-life regulate activities that have a __________ onset with a __________ duration. A. Rapid, long B. Rapid, short C. Slow, long D. * Slow, short 599. 600. 601. 602. 603. 604. 605. 606. 607. E. Only C Hormones' A. Are not secreted at a constant rate B. Function to regulate the rates of many activities in the body C. Secretion rate is controlled by negative feedback mechanisms D. Help maintain homeostasis E. * All of these How glucocorticoids affect carbohydrate metabolism? A. A. Repress gluconeogenesis B. * B. Activate gluconeogenesis C. C. Activate glycolisis D. D. Stimulate the transport of glucose into cells E. E. Stimulate pyruvate dehydrogenase complex How glucocorticoids affect lipid metabolism? A. * A. Activate lypolysis and transformation of fats into carbohydrates B. B. Inhibit lypolysis and transformation of fats into carbohydrates C. C. Activate the synthesis of phospholipids and cholesterol in liver D. D. Stimulate the synthesis of triacylglycerols and chylomicrones in the walls of intestine E. E. Activate oxidation of fatty acids and formation of ketone bodies How glucocorticoids affect protein metabolism? A. A. Promote the synthesis of proteins in all organs B. * B. Promote the synthesis of proteins in liver and activate their decomposition in connective and muscle tissues C. C. Promote the proteolysis in all organs D. D. Stimulate the transport of amino acids in cells E. E. Activate the transformation of carbohydrates to proteins How iodine containing hormones are transported in blood? A. A. In the free state B. * B. Connected with albumins C. C. Connected with w-globulins D. D. Connected with C-globulins E. E. Connected with C-globulins How many carbon atoms the molecules of euicosanoids contain? A. A. 15 B. B. 18 C. * C. 20 D. D. 22 E. E. 24 How sex hormones affect the protein metabolism? A. A. Stimulate disintegration of proteins B. B. Activate conversion of proteins into carbohydrates C. * C. Stimulate the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids D. D. Activate transaminases of amino acids E. E. Activate the synthesis of urea How thyroid hormones affect lipid metabolism? A. A. Stimulate the synthesis of triacylglycerols B. B. Stimulate lipogenesis and synthesis of cholesterol in liver C. C. Activate formation of chylomicrones in intestine and VLDL in liver D. * D. Activate mobilization of fats and their oxidation E. E. Activate the synthesis of phospholipids in liver How thyroid hormones affect protein metabolism? A. * A. In normal concentration stimulate the synthesis of proteins, in increased – decomposition. B. B. In a small concentration stimulate decomposition of proteins, in increased their synthesis C. C. Stimulate the decomposition of proteins and their transformation into carbohydrates D. D. In certain organs stimulate the synthesis of proteins, in other - decomposition E. E. Repress desamination and transamination of aminoacids 608. Hypersecretion of Thyroxin would be caused by an increase in the release of: A. FSH or LH B. STHRH or STH C. TSH or ACTH D. * TRH or TSH E. All of the above 609. Hypofunction of thyroid gland in adults results in: A. A. Cretinism B. B. Dwarfing C. C. Toxic goiter D. * D. Mixedema E. E. Acromegalia 610. Hypofunction of thyroid gland in children results in: A. A. Gigantism B. B. Graves disease C. C. Toxic goiter D. D. Dwarfing E. * E. Cretinism 611. If there is a decrease in the specific plasma protein to which a hormone binds A. More free hormone occurs B. Less hormone binds to target cells C. * Blood levels of the hormone increase D. All of these E. None of above 612. In excess of this hormone uncoupling of the tissue respiration and oxidative phosphorylation takes place. Decrease of ATP formation and increase of heat formation occur. What hormone is it? A. A. Cortizol B. * B. Thyroxine C. C. Progesteron D. D. Parathormone E. E. Glucagon 613. In the "second messenger" theory, which is the first messenger? A. cAMP B. Hormone C. Enzyme D. * Receptor E. All of the above 614. In the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is controlled by hormones made where? A. * In the Hypothalamus B. In the Adrenal Gland C. In the Pancreas D. In the Parathyroid E. In the Anterior pituitary 615. Increased blood glucose causes increased insulin secretion from the pancreas. This is an example of A. * Hormonal regulation of hormone secretion. B. Neural regulation of hormone secretion. C. Nonhormonal regulation of hormone secretion. D. All of the above E. None of the above 616. Inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis or release: A. Amiodarone B. * Lithium C. Minoglutethimide D. Iodides E. E. All of the above 617. Inhibits iodide transport into thyroid gland: A. Ipodate B. * Thiocyanate C. Thioamides D. A & C E. A, B & C 618. Intracellular hormone receptors are located A. * Floating freely in the cytoplasm of target cells. B. In the nucleus. C. In the mitochondria. D. In the endoplasmic reticulum. E. Both a and b 619. Lipid-soluble hormones A. * Can bind to plasma proteins B. Attach to intracellular receptors in target cells C. Tend to have slower onset and longer duration D. Include steroids E. All of these 620. More potent thyroid hormone: A. T4 B. * T3 C. Equal potent D. Vasopressin E. Prolactin 621. Name a biological active compound which is the derivative of arachidonic acid: A. * A. Prostaglandin B. B. Thyroxine C. C. Noradrenaline D. D. Cholin E. E. Ethanolamine 622. Name female sex hormones? A. * A. Estradiol, estrione, estrole, progesterone B. B. Testosterone, estrione, estrole C. C. Cortisone, progesterone, estrione, estrole D. D. Progesterone, corticosterone, estrione, estrole E. E. Testosterone, estrole, corticosterone, estrione 623. Name hormone that is synthesized from cholesterol by cells of the adrenal cortex: A. Cortisol B. Aldosteron 624. 625. 626. 627. 628. 629. 630. 631. 632. C. * Both cortisol and aldosteron D. Neither cortisol nor aldosterone E. Prolactin Name hormone that stimulates production of insulin-like growth factor: A. Luteinizing hormone B. Prolactin C. Thyroid stimulating hormone D. * Growth hormone E. Follicle stimulating hormone Name hormone that stimulates the synthesis of milk proteins: A. Luteinizing hormone B. * Prolactin C. Thyroid stimulating hormone D. Growth hormone E. Follicle stimulating hormone Name hormone which release is inhibited by thyroxine: A. Luteinizing hormone B. Prolactin C. * Thyroid stimulating hormone D. Growth hormone E. Follicle stimulating hormone Parathyroid hormone stimulates the formation of active form of vitamin D: A. A. In liver B. B. In blood C. C. In brain D. D. In intestine E. * E. In kidneys Parathyroid hormone stimulates the formation of active form of vitamin D: A. A. In liver B. B. In blood C. C. In brain D. D. In intestine E. * E. In kidneys Preparation of choice for thyroid replacement. A. * Dessicated thyroid B. Liothyronine C. Levothyroxine D. Propylthiouracil E. Methimazole Prostaglandins are ___________ substances that regulate neighboring cells. A. Endocrine B. * Paracrine C. Eccrine D. Glycoprotein E. Lipoprotein Prostaglandins are synthesized from: A. Cholesterol B. Amino Acids C. Carbohydrates D. * Fatty Acids E. Vitamins Sex hormones are secreted by ________________. A. B. C. D. E. 633. A. B. C. D. E. 634. A. B. C. D. E. 635. A. B. C. D. E. 636. A. B. C. D. E. 637. A. B. C. D. E. 638. A. B. C. D. E. 639. A. B. C. D. E. 640. A. B. C. D. All endocrine tissues of the body The inner cortex of the adrenal medulla The inner cortex of the adrenal medulla and the gonads * The gonads Pancreas Steroid hormones are synthesized from: A. Fatty acids * B. Cholesterol C. Glucose D. Phospholipids E. Amino acids Target organs for specific hormones are determined by Whether the hormone is water-soluble or lipid-soluble How close the target organ is to the endocrine gland that secretes that hormone * The type of receptors on that organ How much hormone is secreted The blood supply to the specific organ The body's normal metabolic rate is regulated by * Thyroid hormones Epinephrine Metaboloxin Prolactin Vasopressin The derivatives of which amino acid are iodthyronines? A. Tryptophane B. Histidine C. Glutamic acid D. Serine * E. Tyrosine The effect of thyroxine on carbohydrate metabolism: * A. Activates decomposition of glycogen B. Represses absorption of carbohydrates in intestine C. Represses decomposition of glycogen D. Represses gluconeogenesis E. Activates the synthesis of glycogen The following compound is a precursor for the synthesis of prostaglandins: A. Tyrosine B. Cholesterol C. Acetyl-CoA D. Glycerol * E. Arachidonic acid The followings hormones are synthesized in thyroid glands: A. Parathormone and iodthyronines * B. Calcitonin and iodthyronines C. Thyrotropic hormone and iodthyronines D. Thyrotropic hormone and calcitonin E. Thyrotropic hormone and parathormone The hormone _____ causes the contractions of labor. Prolactin Estrogen * Oxytocin Progesterone E. Thyroid hormon 641. The hormone Progesterone causes what to occur in women? A. Follicle Development B. Development of the Uterine Lining C. Spermatogenesis D. * Female Secondary Sex Characteristics E. Only A 642. The hypothalamus has a dual function in that it A. * Sends nerve impulses and also makes hormones B. Is both a nervous and olfactory organ C. Belongs to both the nervous and circulatory systems D. Is found connected to both kidneys E. All of the above 643. The insufficient production of mineralocorticoids (Addison diseases, bronze diseases) is accompanied with muscle weakness. This is explained by the excretion with urine increased amount of ions of: A. * A. Na+ B. B. K+ C. C. H+ D. D. Ca2+ E. E. Mg2+ 644. The islets of Langerhans are found in the: A. Kidney B. Adrenal gland C. * Pancreas D. Pituitary gland E. Liver 645. The large gland located on either side of the larynx is the: A. Parathyroid gland B. Pituitary gland C. * Thyroid gland D. Adrenal gland E. Pancreas 646. The largest number of hormones binds to A. Membrane-bound receptors and control ion channels. B. Membrane-bound receptors and activate G proteins. C. Membrane-bound receptors that phosphorylate intracellular proteins. D. * Intracellular receptors. E. Only C 647. The lipid hormones are either __________ or derivatives of fatty acids. A. Glycolipids B. Phospholipids C. * Steroids D. Triglycerides E. Glycerols 648. The Pancreas produces which 2 hormones: A. Epinephrine and Insulin B. Melatonin and Glucagon C. * Insulin and Glucagon D. Glucagon and Norepinephrine E. Glucagon and vasopressin 649. The pineal gland has been implicated in the disorder A. B. C. D. E. Diabetes mellitus Hypothyroidism * Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) syndrome None of the above Scurvy 650. The pituitary gland is controlled by the: A. A. Anterior LobeB. B. * B. Hypothalamus C. C. Posterior Lobe D. D. Frontal Cortex E. E. All of thq above 651. The stalk connecting the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland is called the: A. * Pituitary cortex B. Infundibulum C. Anterior lobe D. Hypophysis E. Neurohypophysis 652. The synthesis of sex hormones is controlled by: A. A. Central nervous system B. B. Neurophysin C. C. Hormones of hypothalamus D. D. Aldosterone E. * E. Gonadotropic hormones of hypophysis 653. The target of the hormone Erythropoietin is: A. White Blood Cells B. The Kidneys C. * Bone Marrow D. Right Atrium of the Heart E. All of the above 654. This hormone in a normal concentration stimulates the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids, in increased concentration – activates catalytic processes. What hormone is it? A. A. Insulin B. B. Glucagon C. C. Somatotropic hormone D. D. Testosteron E. * E. Thyroxine 655. This hormone promotes the transition of calcium from bones to blood, inhibits reabsorption of phosphorus in kidneys and stimulates absorption of calcium in intestine. Which hormone is it? A. A. Calcitonin B. B. Thyroxine C. C. Triiodthyronine D. * D. Parathormone E. E. Thyrotropin 656. This hormone promotes the transition of calcium from bones to blood, inhibits reabsorption of phosphorus in kidneys and stimulates absorption of calcium in intestine. Which hormone is it? A. A. Calcitonin B. B. Thyroxine C. C. Triiodthyronine D. * D. Parathormone E. E. Thyrotropin 657. This hormone stimulates the formation of 1,25- dihydroxycholecalciferol in kidneys. What hormone is it? A. A. Calcitonin B. B. Thyroxine C. C. Triiodthyronine D. * D. Parathormone E. E. Thyrotropin 658. This hormone stimulates the formation of 1,25- dihydroxycholecalciferol in kidneys. What hormone is it? A. A. Calcitonin B. B. Thyroxine C. C. Triiodthyronine D. * D. Parathormone E. E. Thyrotropin 659. Thyroid hormone more to be completely absorbed following oral administration A. Thyroxine B. Triiodothyronine C. Both equally absorbed D. * Neither absorbed orally, requires parenteral administration E. Vasopressin 660. Water-soluble hormones A. Have a long half-life. B. Have a short half-life. C. * Bind to intracellular receptors. D. Both a and c E. Only A 661. Water-soluble hormones, such as proteins, glycoproteins, epinephrine and norepinephrine A. Have relatively long half-lives. B. * Are degraded rapidly by enzymes. C. Have half-lives that increase and decrease slowly. D. Regulate activities that have a long duration E. A, c, and d 662. What is a precursor for the synthesis of corticosteroids? A. A. Tyrosine B. B. Arachidonic acid C. C. Phenylalanine D. * D. Cholesterol E. E. Glycerol 663. What is another name for thyroxine? A. * Tetraiodothyronine B. Thyroid C. Thymus D. Triiodothyronine E. Lipotropic hormon 664. What is the function of aldosterone? A. A. Represses reabsorption of sodium, activates reabsorption of water B. * B. Activates reabsorption of sodium, activates reabsorption of water C. C. Represses reabsorption of sodium, represses reabsorption of water D. D. Represses the excretion of potassium ions from organism, activates reabsorption of sodium 665. 666. 667. 668. 669. 670. 671. E. E. Represses the excretion of potassium ions from organism, represses reabsorption of sodium What is the function of calcitonin? A. A. Promotes the transition of calcium from bones to blood, inhibits reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney B. B. Promotes the transition of calcium from blood to bones, stimulates reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney C. * C. Promotes the transition of calcium from blood to bones, inhibits reabsorbtion of phosphorus in kidney D. D. Promotes the transition of calcium from bones to blood, stimulates reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney E. E. Inhibits the exit of calcium from bones, activates reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney What is the function of insulin? A. Antagonistic to glucagon B. Decreases glycogen storage in liver and muscle C. Reduces hyperglycemia D. * All of the above E. None of the above What is the function of parathormone? A. * Promotes transition of calcium from bones to blood, inhibits reabsorbtion of phosphorus in kidney B. Promotes transition of calcium from blood to bones, stimulates reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney C. Promotes transition of calcium from blood to bones, inhibits reabsorbtion of phosphorus in kidney D. Promotes transition of calcium from bones to blood, stimulates reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney E. Inhibits the exit of calcium from bones, inhibits reabsorption of phosphorus in kidney What is the half-life time of iodine containing hormones? A. A. 20 min B. * B. 1 week C. C. 20 sec D. D. 60 min E. E. 1 month What is the name of disease that is developed in hyperfunction of thyroid glands: A. A. Cretinism B. B. Mixedema C. C. Gigantism D. * D. Graves disease E. E. Dwarfism What is the nature of iodthyronines? A. A. Proteins B. B. Peptids C. * C. Derivatives of amino acid D. D. Derivates of fatty acids E. E. Steroids What is the target of ACTH? A. Most cells B. Thyroid gland C. Mammary glands D. * Adrenal cortex E. Adrenal medulla 672. What is the ultimate purpose of hormones? A. To maintain growth B. To keep the brain functioning C. * To stimulate metabolism D. None of the above E. All of the above 673. Where is hormone calcitonin synthesized? A. In parathyroid glands B. In a hypophyses C. * In a thyroid gland D. In a pancreas E. In adrenal glands 674. Where progesterone is formed? A. A. In follicles of ovaries B. B. In adrenal cortex C. C. In testicules D. * D. By a yellow body and placenta E. E. By follicles, adrenal cortex, testicules 675. Which effects are specific for the thyroid hormones? A. Stimulate the synthesis of glycogen, stimulate decomposition of proteins, stimulate the synthesis of lipids B. Stimulate lipogenesis, promotes the formation of ATP in mithochondria, at large concentrations stimulate the synthesis of proteins C. Activate lipolysis, activate the synthesis of cholesterol, activate a gluconeogenesis D. Activate decomposition of proteins and stimulate a basic metabolism, repress decomposition of fats, stimulate the synthesis of glycogen in muscles and liver E. * Activate breaking up of glycogen and absorbtion of carbohydrates in intestine, activate lipolysis and oxidation of fatty acids, in an increased concentration stimulate the decomposition of proteins 676. Which fatty acid is a precursor in the synthesis of such important compounds as prostaglandins, leucotrienes and thromboxanes? A. * Arachidonic B. Linolic C. Oleic D. Stearic E. Palmitooleic 677. Which hormone directly affects blood pressure? A. * ADH B. Insulin C. PTH D. ACTH E. Glucagon 678. Which hormone has steroid nature? A. Calcitonine B. Parathormone C. Norepinephrine D. .Epinephrine E. * Estron 679. Which hormone has the greatest effect on metabolism? A. GH B. C. D. E. 680. A. B. C. D. E. 681. A. B. C. D. E. 682. A. B. C. D. E. 683. A. B. C. D. E. 684. A. B. C. D. E. 685. A. B. C. D. E. 686. A. B. C. D. E. 687. A. B. C. D. E. * Thyroxine TSH ACTH FSH Which hormone has the greatest influence on the ability to secrete milk? Oxytocin Estrogen * Prolactin Progesterone Vasopressin Which hormone is mineralocorticoid? Corticosteron Cortison Hydrocortisone * Aldosterone Progesteron Which hormone is produced in the Beta cells of the islets of Langerhans: Melatonin Glucagon * Insulin Calcitonin Vasopressin Which hormone is the derivative of the unsaturated fatty acids? Estradiol Progesterone Noradrenaline Testosterone * Prostaglandins Which hormone opposes the effects of parathyroid hormone? * Calcitonin Glucagon Growth hormone Prolactin Vasopressin Which hormone stimulates the synthesis of W-lactalbumin: A.Oxytocin Aldosterone Vasopressin * Prolactin Cortisol Which hormone stimulates the uterine contraction: * Oxytocin Aldosterone Vasopressin Prolactin Cortisol Which hormone works antagonistically to parathormone: Triiodothyronine Insulin Estrogen * Calcitonin Vasopressin 688. Which hormones act on the genetic apparatus of cell? A. Protein nature B. Peptide nature C. Hormones - derivates of amino acids D. * Steroid nature E. Polipeptide nature 689. Which hormones are the derivates of cholesterol? A. * Adrenal cortex, sex hormones B. Tropic hormones of hypophysis C. Vasopressine and oxytocine D. Thyroid gland hormones E. Glucagon and insulin 690. Which hormones belong to glucocorticoids? A. Cortison, hydrocortisone, aldosterone B. * Cortison, hydrocortisone, corticosterone C. Hydrocortisone, corticosterone, aldosterone D. Estriole, corticosterone, aldosterone E. Corticosterone, estradiol, corticosterone 691. Which hormones regulate the metabolism of calcium and phosphorus? A. Liberins and statins B. * Parathormone and calcitonin C. Thyroid hormones and glucagon D. Calcitonin and somatostatin E. Calcitonin and glucagon 692. Which iodthyronines do you know? A. Тriiodthyronine, diiodthyronine B. * Tetraiodthyronine, triiodthyronine C. Thyroxine, calcitonin D. Calcitonin, parathormone E. Thyroxine, diiodthyronine 693. Which is not a function of the hypothalamus? A. * Affect heart rate B. Control temperature C. Affect water balance D. Secrete FSH E. None of the above 694. Which microelement is needed for the synthesis of hormones of thyroid glands? A. Iron B. Fluorine C. * Iodine D. Cobalt E. Zinc 695. Which of the following compounds increases the release of Ca2+ from the endoplasmatic reticulum? A. Diacylglycerol B. * Inositol tryphosphate C. Parathyroid hormone D. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol E. Retinol 696. Which of the following effects are caused by calcitonin? A. * Hypocalciemia, hypophosphatemia, hyperphosphaturia B. Hypercalciemia, hypophosphatemia, hyperphosphaturia 697. 698. 699. 700. 701. 702. 703. 704. 705. C. Hypocalciemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperphosphaturia D. Hypercalciemia, hypophosphatemia, hypophosphaturia E. Hypercalciemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypophosphaturia Which of the following hormones is synthesized in the posterior pituitary? A. * Antidiuretic hormone B. Melatonin C. Growth hormone D. None of the above E. Somatotropic hormon Which of the following is MISMATCHED? A. Oxytocin – hypothalamus B. Insulin – pancreas C. Glucagon – pancrease D. * Thyroid hormone -- pituitary gland E. Vasopressin – posterior pitutery gland Which of the following is NOT a product of the adrenal gland? A. Cortisol B. * Aldosterone C. Progesterone D. Epinephrine E. Insulin Which of the following is true of epinephrine? A. Acts only throught the phosphatidylinositol biphosphate system B. * Is synthesized from tyrosine C. Decreases the level of cAMP in liver cells D. Functions like a steroid hormone E. Is produced from estradiol Which of the following is true of testosterone? A. * May be converted to a more active androgen in its target cells B. Acts by binding to receptors on the cell surface C. Is produced from estradiol D. Stimulates the synthesis of gonadotropin releasing hormone by the hypothalamus E. Stimulates the synthesis of epinephrine Which of these does not directly stimulate the gonads? A. FSH B. * TTH C. LH D. ACTH E. All of the above Which of these hormone types bind to intracellular receptors? A. * Proteins B. Glycoproteins C. Polypeptides D. Epinephrine E. Steroids Which of these hormones is made by the posterior pituitary? A. FSH B. LH C. ACTH D. * ADH E. Prolactin Which of these hormones is secreted in the liver? A. B. C. D. E. Renin * Somatomedin Erythropoietin Estrogen Insulin 706. Which of these is an example of positive-feedback regulation in the endocrine system? A. * An increase in blood glucose causes an increase in insulin secretion; insulin moves glucose into cells. B. An increase in TSH causes an increase in thyroid hormone secretion; thyroid hormones inhibit TSH secretion. C. Before ovulation, an increase in LH causes an increase in estrogen, which causes an increase in LH. D. An increase in TRH causes an increase in TSH secretion; thyroid hormone inhibits TRH secretion. E. An increase in blood calcium causes an increase in calcitonin secretion; calcitonin moves calcium into the blood. 707. Which of these is not an endocrine gland? A. Pancreas B. Testes C. * Salivary gland D. Parathyroid E. All of the above 708. Which statement is false? A. The endocrine system is composed of ductless glands B. Contents of the endocrine system are released into the bloodstream C. * The mammory gland is part of the endocrine system D. Exocrine glands are not part of the endocrine system E. Non of the above 709. Which symptoms are typical for hypofunction of thyroid gland? A. Increase of body temperature, exophthalmia, loss of weight B. Sweat, increased body temperature C. * Lowering of basic metabolism, lowering of body temperature, and swelling. D. Loss of weight, increase sweating, mucosa edema. E. Hyperpigmentation, obesity 710. Which two groups of hormones are synthesized by adrenal cortex? A. Corticosteroids and mineralocorticoids B. Corticosteroids and glucocorticoids C. * Glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids D. Catecholamines and corticosteroids E. Catecholamines and glucocorticoids 711. Which two hormones are released from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? A. ADH and GH B. ACTH and TSH C. * ADH and oxytocin D. TRH and CRH E. Insulin and glucagon 712. Disorders of the nervous system which can be observed at hypovitaminosis of B6 is related to insufficient formation of biogenic amine which is the inhibitor of CNS activity of. Choose this biogenic amine: A. Gamma-amino-butyric acid B. Histamine C. Serotonin D. Dopamine E. Thriptamine 713. For a patient megaloblastic anaemia ( Addison-birmer disease). The expedient setting of treatment the vitamin of B12 is in combination with the following preparation: A. Nicotinic acid B. Lipoic acid C. Ascorbic acid D. * Folic acid E. Pangamic acid 714. A doctor-dietitian advises to a patient with perinecious anaemia to use a half raw liver in the diet. The presence of which vitamin in this product does stimulate the process of hemopoesis? A. Vitamin B2 B. Vitamin B1 C. * Vitamin. B12 D. Vitamin C E. Vitamin H 715. A patient complains about a general weakness and bleeding of gums. Insufficiency of which vitamin can be reason of such state? A. * Vitamin C B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin H E. Vitamin D 716. A patient complains about absence of appetite, nausea, pain of stomach, diarrhea, head ache, disorders of memory. There is dermatitis in the area of the neck and face. Insufficiency of which vitamin does cause such symptoms? A. * Vitamin B5 B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin B3 D. Vitamin B2 E. Vitamin B6 717. A patient complains about loss of weight, general weakness, pain in the area of heart, petehial hemorrhages, bleeding of gums, loss of teeth. The lack of which vitamin does cause such symptoms? A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin PP C. * Vitamin B1 D. Vitamin C E. Vitamin B2 718. A patient was diagnosed with beri-beri disease. Activity of which enzyme is inhibited in an organism of the patient? A. Fumarase B. Citrate synthase C. Malate dehydrogenase D. Succinate dehydrogenase E. * Pyruvate dehydrogenase 719. Activation of peroxide oxidation of lipids takes place due to lack of vitamin E. Vitamin of Е is a powerful and main antioxidant. What from the mentioned function does not confirm it? A. Participating in the transport of electrons and protons in a respiratory chain B. C. D. E. Stimulation of ubikhinon synthesis Serves as a trap for „free radicals” * Stimulates mobilization of Ca from bones Prevents peroxide oxidation of unsaturated fatty acids in composition of cells membranes 720. At bleeding the synthetic analogue of vitamin K was used. Choose it A. Dikumarol B. * Vikasol C. Phylokhinon D. Galascorbin E. Ubikhinon 721. Biochemical research of patient with complaints about pain in a stomach, diminishing of secretory function of stomach which accompanied anaemia was established. Choose vitamin, which has an antianaemic action: A. * Coballamin B. Thiamine C. Retinol D. Nicotinic acid E. Tocopherol 722. Biotin deficiency has been found in patient. He consumes large amounts of: A. Meat B. * Raw eggs. C. Milk D. Potato E. Liver 723. Concentration of Ca in blood of a patient is increased. Tubular reabsorption of calcium is increased by A. Cholecalciferol B. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol C. * Calcitriol D. Both B and C E. All of these 724. Concentration of pyruvic acid and lactic acid in blood of a patient with sympthoms of beri beriis is increased due to deficiency of the vitamin: A. * Thiamin B. Riboflavin C. Niacin D. Pantothenic acid E. Ascorbic acid 725. Determination of activity of alanine aminotransferases (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferases (AST) widely used in medical practice with the purpose of diagnostics of internal organs damages. The coenzyme form of what vitamin is a prostetic group of these enzymes? A. Vitamin B5 B. * Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin B1 D. Vitamin C E. Vitamin P 726. For the patient with decreased immunity and frequent cold diseases was recommend to use ascorutin as more effective preparation than ascorbic acid. Which component in this preparation does strengthen the action of vitamin of C? A. * Vitamin P B. C. D. E. Vitamin A Glucose Lactose Vitamin D 727. For treatment of dermatitises, wounds and ulcers which heal badly are used coenzyme preparations of flavin mononucleotide and flavinate. The active forms of which vitamin are they? A. B1 B. * B2 C. B5 D. B3 E. C 728. For treatment of heart diseases apply preparation cocarboxylase. The coenzyme form of which vitamin is this preparation? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin C E. Vitamin P 729. Formation of collagen in the organism needs hydroxylating of proline which takes a place with participation of proline hydroxylase. Which vitamin activates this process: A. NAD B. Biotin C. * Ascorbic acid D. FAD E. Pyridoxine phosphate 730. Hyaluronidase splits hyaluronic acid, intercellular permeability rises as a result. Which vitamin does inhibit activity of hyaluronidase, assist in strengthening of walls of vessels? A. * Vitamin P B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin B1 D. Vitamin B2 E. Vitamin D 731. Insufficiency of ascorbic acid results in development of scurvy. Synthesis of which protein is diminished? A. * Collagen B. Protrombin C. Fibrinogen D. Albumin E. Ceruloplasmin 732. It was established disorders of hydroxylation of proline and lysine in composition a collagen of a patient with scurvy. Inhibition of which biochemical process does result in this disorders? A. * Microsomal oxidation B. Peroxidation of lipids C. Tissue respiration D. Peroxidase oxidation E. Phosphorylation 733. It was established of POL. Activation of peroxide oxidation of lipids (POL) and biopolymers is one of basic mechanisms of damage of structure and function of cellular membranes. Reason of such effect is: A. B. C. D. E. * Formation of free radicals of oxygen and suppression of anti-oxidant system Hypovitaminosis B1 Hypervitaminosis B1 Hypovitaminosis B12 Hypervitaminosis B9 734. Laboratory diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency can be made by measuring the urinary excretion of A. Xanthurenic acid B. Formiminoglutamic acid C. * Methylmalonic acid D. Homogentisic acid E. Both A and C 735. Magenta tongue of a patient is found at the deficiency of the vitamin: A. * Riboflavin B. Thiamin C. Nicotinic acid D. Pyridoxine E. Ascorbic acid 736. Maintenance of vitamin C in an patient’s organism is normal. How much ascorbic acid in normal condition is excreted per day with urine: A. * 20-30 mg B. 113,5-170,5 mg C. 10-28 g D. 80-100 mg E. 18-33 g 737. Patien with pancreatitis has hypovitaminisis of vitamin A. Vitamin A play a general role in the folowing biochemical processes, except: A. * The transport of Ca2+ across certain membranes B. Processes of growth and cell differentiation C. Inhibits the oxidation of hemoglobin D. Processes of glycoproteins formation E. Reduces the disulfide bonds to sulfhydril bonds 738. Patien with pancreatitis has hypovitaminisis of vitamin A. The deficiency of tocopherol causes many other symptoms, except: A. Infertility in male and female B. Degeneration of the kidneys C. Necrosis of the liver D. * Mental retardation E. Dystrophy of skeletal muscles 739. Patient complains for dry lips, cracks and “crusts” in the mouth corners, bright red tongue, dermatitis of nasolabial folds, photophobia and conjunctivitis. To the lack of which vitamin is it related? A. * Riboflavin B. Cholecalciferol C. Pyridoxin D. Coballamin E. Ascorbic acid 740. Patient suffers from redness of oral mucous, crack of mouth corners, shelling of skin, dryness of face, inflammation of conjunctiva, vascularisation of a cornea. Possible reason of this pathology is lack of: A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin C C. Antioxidants D. Vitamin K E. * Vitamin B2 741. Patient after resection of stomach. For absorption of which vitamin the Castle’s factor is need (glycoprotein which produced by the cells of stomach)? A. Vitamin B6 B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin B5 E. * Vitamin B12 742. Patient has prolonged dark adaptation time. Prosthetic group in cone cell photoreceptors is: A. Iodine B. Opsin C. * 11-cis-retinal D. all-trans-retinal E. Both C and D 743. Patient has prolonged dark adaptation time. Which from the below mentioned enzymes does take part in the vision? A. Glucose-6-phosphatase B. * Alcohol dehydrogenase C. Lactate dehydrogenase D. Malonyl transferase E. Alanine aminotransferase 744. Patient has sympthoms of beri beri (lack of B1). B1 formes coenzyme TPP which is involved in: A. * Oxidative decarboxylation B. Hydroxylation C. Transamination D. Carboxylation E. Oxidation 745. Patient has sympthoms of beri beri. Both Wernicke’s disease and beri beri can be reversed by administrating: A. Retinol B. * Thiamin C. Pyridoxine D. Vitamin B12 E. Cholecalciferol 746. Patient has sympthoms of lack of vitamin A. An early effect of vitamin A deficiency is A. Xerophthalmia B. Keratomalacia C. * Prolonged dark adaptation time D. Follicular hyperkeratosis E. All of these 747. Patient has sympthoms of pellagra. In pellagra, dermatitis usually affects: A. * Exposed parts of body B. Covered parts of body C. Trunk only D. All parts of the body E. Both (A) and (C) 748. Patient suffers from disoders of lipids metabolism and hypovitaminosis. For normal absorption of lipid soluble vitamins are needed: A. Lipase B. Phospholipase A2 C. * Bile acids and fats D. Chylomicrones E. Beta-lipoproteins 749. Patient suffers from disoders of lipids metabolism and hypovitaminosis. Vitamin F is necessary for the normal vital functions of human organism. Which from the transferred functions are not inherent him? A. Necessary for normal growth and regeneration of a skin epithelium B. Decrease of cholesterol level in blood C. Necessary for the biosynthesis of prostoglandins D. Participating in the synthesis of phopho- and glycolipids E. * Takes part in hydroxylation of proline and lysine 750. Patient suffers from disoders of lipids metabolism. In the human organism vitamins are transformed. Which vitamin does take part in formation of the coenzyme of acylation (CoASH)? A. Vitamin D3 B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin A E. * Vitamin B3 751. Patient suffers from disoders of proteins metabolism. Determination of activity of some transaminases is widely used in medical practice with a purpose of diagnostics of internal organs damages. The coenzyme of these enzymes is an active form of such vitamin: A. * B6 B. B1 C. B12 D. B2 E. PP 752. Patient suffers from disoders of proteins metabolism. Avitaminosis of which vitamin can decrease activity of transaminases of blood? A. * B6 (pyridoxine) B. B1 (Thiaminum) C. B2 (riboflavin) D. B5 (nicotine amide) E. B10 (folic acid) 753. Patient suffers from hypovitaminosis and disoders of lipids metabolism. Lipid soluble vitamins execute numerous functions in an organism except: A. * They are components of enzymes B. Modulators of cell membranes C. Antioxidants D. They have provitamins E. Cause hypervitaminosis 754. Patient suffers from lack of vitamin K. All the following conditions cause a real or functional deficiency of vitamin K except: A. Prolonged oral, broad spectrum antibiotic therapy B. * Total lack of red meat in the diet C. The total lack of green leafy vegetables inthe diet D. Being a new born infant E. A and D 755. Patient suffers from lack of vitamin K. Vitamin K is involved in posttranslational modification of the blood clotting factors by acting as cofactor for the enzyme: A. * Carboxylase B. Decarboxylase C. Hydroxylase D. Oxidase E. Dehydrogenase 756. Patient suffers from scurvy. Below named are the main clinical symptoms of scurvy, except: A. Gums bleeding B. Pain in heart C. Tachycardia D. * Xeroftalmia E. Petechias 757. Patient’s wounds heal badly. For treatment of dermatitises, wounds and ulcers are used coenzymes preparations of flavin mononucleotide and flavinate. The active forms of what vitamin are they? A. * B2 B. B1 C. B5 D. B3 E. C 758. People consuming polished rice as their staple food are prone to A. * Beriberi B. Pellagra C. Both (A) and (B) D. Scurvy E. None of these 759. ?Pernicious anemia was developed in patient suffering from atrophic gastritis. What cause of this state? A. Increasing of HCI in gastric juice B. Increasing of amylase action in urine C. Increasing of pepsin secretion D. * The lack of a intrinsic factor in gastric juice E. All of above 760. Proline and lysine was founded in composition of collagen fibres of a patient with the frequent bleeding from internal organs and mucous membranes. Lack of which vitamin does cause disorders of hydroxylation? A. Vitamin E B. Vitamin K C. Vitamin A D. Thiamin E. * Vitamin C 761. Pyridoxine deficiency can be diagnosed by measuring the urinary excretion of xanthurenic acid following a test dose of A. Glycine B. Histidine C. * Tryptophan D. Pyridoxine E. All of these 762. Sulfanilamides of bacteriostatic action repress the synthesis of nucleotides, nucleic acids and proteins in microorganisms cells, however in pharmacological doses don’t change the synthesis of these compounds in the human organism because eukaryotic cells: A. * Don’t synthesize folic acid B. Don’t synthesize paraaminobenzoic acid C. Don’t synthesize nucleotides D. Impermeable for Sulphanilamide E. Very quickly іnactivate Sulphanilamide 763. Sulphanilamide was prescribed to the patient with tonsillitis. The antimicrobial action of this preparation is caused with disorders of folic acid synthesis. With which compound does sulphanilamide compete for a active site of enzyme? A. Glutamic acid B. Citric acid C. Succinate D. Ubikhinon E. * Para amino benzoic acid 764. The accumulation of pyruvate in blood, decrease of activity of red blood cells transketolase takes place of a 36 years patient, which suffers with chronic alcoholism. Insufficiency of coenzyme form of which vitamin causes such changes? A. * Thiamine diphosphate B. Carboxybiotin C. Metylcobalamin D. Phosphopyridoxal E. Tetrahydrofolate 765. The lack of vitamin D in the organism of children causes a rickets. All below mentioned are reasons of this disease except: A. Disorders of Ca and Р metabolism B. Disorders of mineralisation C. * Lower activity of alkaline phosphatase D. Lack of ultraviolet 766. The level of hemoglobin is substantially mionectic in blood of patient. A deficit of what vitamin is more frequent all reason of origin of anaemia? A. B2 B. A C. E D. * B12 E. PP 767. The vitamin which would most likely become deficient in an individual who develop a completely carnivorous life style is A. Thiamin B. Niacin C. * Vitamin C D. Cobalamin E. Cholecalciferol 768. To the patient with the heavy form of diarrhea, dermatitis and dementia was prescribed vitamin PP. What is its role in metabolism? A. * Participating in oxidation-reduction processes B. Participating in the transport of oxygen C. Participating in the hydrolysis of peptide bonds D. Participating is in the reactions of isomerization E. Participating is in formation of peptide bonds 769. Vitamins are the essential components of the human diet. What from below mentioned vitamins is used for a prophylaxis and treatment of pellagra? A. * Vitamin B5 B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin B1 E. Vitamin D 770. Woman which long time ingest the polished rice was diagnosed with polyneuritis (beri-beri disease). Absence of which vitamin in a meal does result in development of this disease? A. Folic acid B. Ascorbic acid C. Pyridoxal D. * Thiamin E. E Riboflavin 771. Appearance of what protein of fraction of A1-globulins in blood plasma, determined by method of electrophoresis, is confirmation of diagnosis the „Primary cancer of liver”? A. * A-fetoprotein B. Transferin C. Haptoglobin D. Ceruloplasmin E. Interferon 772. Appearance of what protein of fraction of A1-globulins in blood plasma, determined by method of electrophoresis, is confirmation of diagnosis the „Primary cancer of liver”? A. * A-fetoprotein B. Transferin C. Haptoglobin D. Ceruloplasmin E. Interferon 773. At the electrophoretic research of patient blood plasma found interferon. In the area of what fraction be found this protein? A. A - Globulins B. Albumins C. C2 – Globulins D. * D - Globulins E. E - Globulins 774. Biochemical blood test of patient B. in 70 years indicate hyperproteinemia. Which indexes be responsible such state? A. 40-60 g/l B. 20-40 g/l C. * 100-120 g/l D. 50-60 g/l E. 60-85 g/l 775. Boy С., 16 years, from babyhood is sick by emphysema of lung which probably are result of born insufficiency: A. Fyibronektyin B. Ceruloplazmin C. Haptoglobin D. * D1-antitrypsin E. Transferin 776. Clinico-biochemical research of patient K., 52 years, found hypoproteinemia, on what specifies such index? A. * 40 g/l B. 70 g/l C. 100 g/l D. 85 g/l E. 120 g/l 777. Contents of C- globulins in blood plasma consist 30 gr/l. It can meet at all of the followings states, except: A. Chronic inflammatory processes B. Infection diseases C. Polyartrites D. * Lung emfizema E. Inflammatory of lung 778. Courtmedexamination for identification of haemoglobin and manifestation of poisoning of CO or methemoglobinformations used method: A. Photoelectrocolorimetryc B. Polarimetryc C. * Spektral analysis D. Oxyidometryc E. Rentgenstructure analysis 779. Exit of ions of copper from a vascular river-bed and his accumulation of proteoglicans of connective tissue, which shows up pathological changes in a liver, brain (hepatocerebralic degeneration), cornea, probably is the result of lowering of maintenance in blood plasma: A. Feritin B. * Ceruloplasmin C. Transferin D. Fibronektyn E. Haptoglobin 780. For diagnostics of rheumatism in a patient was appointed analisis of blood on the С-reactiv-protein. In the zone of what fraction of proteins does this protein appear on the electrophoregrame? A. Albumins B. B1-globulins C. С. С2- globulins D. D- globulins E. * E-globulins 781. Genetic deases which arise in result of violation formation G - and -polypeptide chains in equal amounts in the molecule of haemoglobin named: A. Adisson-Birmer oncotic anaemia B. Beri-beri deases C. Porphirinuria D. Sickle cell anaemia E. * Talasemia 782. In a pacient С. 38 years is uncompensated form of Diabetus Mellitus. What type of hemoglobin does appear in erythrocytes at these terms? A. Fetal haemoglobin (HbF) B. Mutant haemoglobin (HbS) C. * Glycosilic haemoglobin (HbA1c) D. Anomalic haemoglobin G E. Metgemoglobin (MetHb) 783. In a patient during operation arise a stop of respiration. What consequences of this state are observed in blood: A. * Increase parcial pressure of CO2 and decline рН of blood B. Lowering of parcial pressure of CO2 in blood C. Increase рН of blood D. Lowering рН of blood E. Respiratory alkalosis 784. In a patient observe hypoalbuminemia, which can be accompanied: A. Hyperglicemia B. * Hypocalciemia C. Hypochloremia D. Hypercholesterolemia E. Hyperketonemia 785. In a patient which appealed to the doctor, found out the method of electrophoresis the increase of 1 – globulin fraction of blood, which is possible mainly for an account: A. Haptoglobin B. Ceruloplasmin C. * C1-fetoprotein D. Ferritin E. Transferin 786. In biochemical laboratory by the method of electrophoreses is conduct fractionating of hemolysate of new-born child. It is set that correlation of haemoglobin A the adult (HbA) and haemoglobin F (HbF) new-born is within the limits of norm and makes: A. HbA- 50% ; HbF- 50% B. HbA- 40% ; HbF- 60% C. * HbA- 80% ; HbF- 20% D. HbA- 5% ; HbF- 95% E. HbA- 20% ; HbF- 80% 787. In blood of healthy man supported the constant concentration of hydrogen ions, that put in arterial plasma: A. 7,26± 0,04 B. 7,16± 0,04 C. 7,96± 0,04 D. * 7,36± 0,04 E. 7,46± 0,04 788. In hospital brought an ambulance a patient L., 28 years, with the signs of the sharp poisoning. A biochemical investigation of blood indicate high maintenance in it methemoglobin. Which from the substances can reduce to such state? A. Lead solts B. Alcaloids C. Radionuklyds D. * Cianids E. Carbon monoxide CO 789. In man 30 years, that have kidney disease, which accompanied with proteinuria, appeared the signs of violation of rolling up to blood. One of the credible causes is: A. * Hypoalbuminemia and lowering maintenance of Ca B. Lowering maintenance of globulins C. Glucosuria D. Lowering maintenance of transdoerine E. Hypoproteinemia and increase maintenance of Ca 790. In sick B. 41 years, is diagnosed - myelomatosis. Except for clinical signs, characteristic for this disease, pay aattention to hypoproteinemia (180 g/l), main causes of which is increase maintenance of: A. Albumins B. B1- globulins C. C2- globulins D. * Bens-Jonson protein E. Ceruloplazmin 791. In sick M. 30 years diagnosed hepatitis, main cause - violation transporting by blood: A. Glucose B. Renin C. * Calcium D. Amino acids E. Silfur 792. In the patient - cirrhosis of liver. What changes on the electrophoregramme of proteins of blood plasma can be here? A. * Decrease fractions of albumins and D- globulins B. Increases fractions of s- and - globulins C. Increases fractions of albumins and lowering of I- and - globulins D. Increase fractions of albumins and lowering of I- globulins E. Changes are not observed 793. In the patient M., 30 years, that during a few years suffers chronic hepatitis, decline decreases of oncotic pressure of blood plasma which characterized the rise of edemata. What situations can corresponding to this case? A. Increase concentrations of albumins B. Elevation maintenance of E - globulins C. Decrease maintenance of D - globulins D. * Decrease concentrations of albumins E. Decrease maintenance of D - globulins 794. Influence of toxic exogenous matters on the organism of man cause formation of additional fraction of proteins in blood plasma, that discovered the method of electrophoresis. It is: A. Albumins B. * Prealbumins C. C1- globulins D. D2-globulins E. E-globulins 795. Influence of toxic exogenous matters on the organism of man cause formation of additional fraction of proteins in blood plasma, that discovered the method of electrophoresis. It is: A. Albumins B. * Prealbumins C. C1- globulins D. D2-globulins E. E-globulins 796. Lowering of oncotic pressure of blood and, as result the exit of water from blood at tissues which is accompanied edemata, comes at decreasing of albumins in blood plasma below: A. 60 g/l B. 80 g/l C. 50 g/l D. * 30 g/l E. 40 g/l 797. On sharpening of rheumatic process in the patients, specifies the increase of maintenance of all the followings indexes of blood, except: A. С-reactive protein B. B1 - antitrypsin C. Sialic acids D. Haptoglobin E. * Albumins 798. Patient A., 58 years, that suffers a chronic pyelonephritis (kidney disease), found out research proteins of blood plasma by method of electrophoresis additional fraction which confirms this diagnosis: A. * Prealbumin B. B2-globulin C. Albumin D. D1- globulin E. Bens-Jonson protein 799. Patient A., 58 years, that suffers a chronic pyelonephritis (kidney disease), found out research proteins of blood plasma by method of electrophoresis additional fraction which confirms this diagnosis: A. * Prealbumin B. B2-globulin C. Albumin D. D1- globulin E. Bens-Jonson protein 800. Relative hyperproteinemia takes place at all of the below states, except: A. Diarrhea B. Burns C. Violetion of hemodynamics D. Vomiting E. * Mielomnic disease 801. Sick women, 50 years, it is hospitalized concerning sharpening of rhematoid process. The presence high maintenance of what protein of „acute phase of inflammation” in blood plasma will probably confirm this diagnosis? : A. Transferin B. * C-reactive protein C. Albumin D. Ceruloplasmin E. E-fetoprotein 802. Sick women, 50 years, it is hospitalized concerning sharpening of rhematoid process. The presence high maintenance of what protein of „acute phase of inflammation” in blood plasma will probably confirm this diagnosis? : A. Transferin B. * C-reactive protein C. Albumin D. Ceruloplasmin E. E-fetoprotein 803. The degree of oxygenation of haemoglobin (formation of HbO2) depends from the followings factors, except: A. Parcial pressure of blood B. Lowering рН C. Concentration of carbon dioxide D. * Concentration of 1,3-dyphosphoglicerate E. Concentration of 2,3- dyphosphoglicerate 804. The most credible clinical-biochemical sign of sickle cell anaemia is: A. Uremia B. Hemoragy C. Hyperglicemia D. * Anemia E. Glukosuria 805. The people-transmitters of gene of HbS have replacement in position 6 of T-chain of hemoglobin glutamic acid on: A. Phenilalanin B. Serin C. Aspartat D. * Valin E. Methionin 806. The people-transmitters of gene of HbS have replacement in position 6 of t-chain of hemoglobin on a valine: A. Methionine B. * Glutamic acid C. Serine D. Cysteine E. Tryptophan 807. The people-transmitters of gene of HbS have an origin and development of desease: A. Talasemia B. Hemoglobinose С C. * Sickle cell anaemia D. Hemoglobinose F E. Hemoglobinose D 808. To the doctor appealed a patient with complaints about a general weakness, enhanceable fatigueability, mionectic capacity, turn attention on itself the blue color of scleroticas is enhanceable. In anamnesis - disease of Konovalov-Vilson is diagnosed in family of patient. What diagnostic test of blood plasma confirm or eliminate this disease for a patient? A. * Contents of ceruloplasmin B. Aktivity of A-amilase C. Aktivity of trypsin D. Contents of properdin E. Contents of macroglobulin 809. What fractions of proteins discover the method of electrophoresis in blood plasma of healthy people: A. Prealbumins, P1-, ,2- globulins B. B1-, ,2-, , -, ,-globulins, protein of Bens-jonson C. * Albumins, A1-, ,2-, ,-, ,-globulins D. Prealbumins, P1-, ,2-, ,-, ,-globulins E. Albumins, prealbumins, A1-, ,2-, ,- globulins 810. What protein of blood absent in blood plasma of healthy man? A. Ceruloplasmin B. Transferin C. Haptoglobin D. D2-macroglobulin E. * C-reactive protein 811. A 3- month child has development asevere form of hypoxia manifested by dyspnea and cyanosis. What way of hemoglobin formation is broken? A. Replacement of hemoglobin F with hemoglobin M B. Replacemenr of hemoglobin F woth hemoglobin S C. Replacement of hemoglobin F with glycosylated hemoglobin D. Replacement of hemoglobin F with methemoglobin E. Replacement of hemoglobin F with hemoglobin A 812. A 38-year-old women suffers from rheumatism in its active phase. The determination of which of the following laboratory indexes is essential for diagnostics in case of the pathology? A. Urea B. Uric acid C. C-reactive protein D. Creatinine E. Transferrin 813. A 70-year-old man has an intensified blood clotting, caused, first and foremost, by the decrease of the level of ……. In the blood plasma A. Vitamin D. B. Albumin C. Immunoglobulin A D. Calcium E. Antithrombin 814. A considerable rise activities of MB-form of creatine kinase amf LDH1 is revealed in the blood of a pscient. Name the most probable pathology. A. Hepatitis B. Myocardial infarction C. Reumatism D. Pancreatitis E. Cholectstitis 815. A disease of newborns caused by maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells is A. Hemophilia B. Erythryblastosis fetalis C. Pernicious anemia D. Erythropoietin E. Chronic leukemia 816. A man in the state of rest purposely makes himself breathe frequently and deeply for 3 or 4 minutes. How does this exercise influence the acid-baseic balance of the organism? A. Metabolic alkalosis appears B. Respiratory acidosis appears C. Respiratory alkalosis appears D. Metabolic acidosis appears E. Acid-base balance does not change 817. A patient has sicle-cell anemia diagnosed. Replacement of which amino acid in the hemoglobin polypeptide chains with valine result in this disease? A. Glutamate B. Aspartate C. Leucine D. Arginine. E. Threonine 818. A patient shows rapid development of edemata. The decrease of which serum blood proteins is responsible for edemata appearance? A. B. C. D. E. A1-globulins Albumins C2-globulins D-globulins Fibrinogen 819. A patient with alkalosis would experience A. Hyperventilation B. Hypoventilation C. * Increased acid secretion at kidney D. Higher blood pressures E. Increased sodium retention 820. A six month-old child has manifestations of frequent and axpressed hypodermic hemorrhages.The administration of synthetic analogue of vitamin K (vikasol) proved to have a favorable effect. In the reaction of i-carboxylation of glutamate of what blood coagulation system proteins does this this vitamin take pert? A. Fibrinogen B. Prothrombin C. Hademan factor D. Antihemophilic globulin A E. Rosenthal factor 821. After repairing a car ion a garage, a car driver was brought to a clinic with symptoms of poisoning with exhaust fumes. The concentration of what type of hemoglobin is ncreased in his blood? A. Carboxyhemoglobin B. Methemoglobin C. Carbhemoglobin D. Oxyhemoglobin E. Glycosylated hemoglobin 822. Among the types of haemoglobin, indicate type of Hb of healthy person: A. HbE B. HbD C. С. HbN D. * HbA E. Е. HbS 823. An emergency doctor stated the sign of poisoning by carbon monoxide. What compound became the reason for in? A. Carboxyhemoglobin B. Carbhemoglobin C. Methemoglobin D. Deoxyhemoglobin E. * Oxyhemoglobin 824. As a result of poisoning with carbon monoxide a person has got a head-ache, short breath, vertigo. The decline of the content of what compound in blood resulted in this? A. * Oxyhemoglobin B. Carboxyhemoglobin C. Carbhemoglobin D. Methemoglobin E. Deoxyhemoglobin 825. Basic amount of energy necessary for the transport systems through membranes and for maintenance of integrity of cellular membrane, erythrocyte get for an account: A. A-oxidation of higher fatty acids B. Krebs cycle C. * Anaerobic glycolysis D. Aerobic glycolysis E. Penthosophosphate pathways 826. Currently, many states perform capital punishment (execution) using potassium chloride injection. Why would this kind of an injection cause death? A. Increased K+ results in disruption of the electric potential of cardiac tissue B. Hypokalemia causes dehydration C. Potassium chloride is an adrenergic receptor mimic D. Hyperkalemia results in acidosis which is lethal E. * Increased K+ causes hyperpolarization of membranes 827. Diabetic ketoacidosis is an example of which imbalance? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. * Metabolic acidosis E. Respiratory chain 828. Hemoglobin catabolism is accompanied by the release of iron which enters bone marrow in composition with special transport protein and there after is repetedly used for the synthesis of hemoglobin. The transport protein for iron is: A. * Transferrin (siderifilin) B. Transcobalamin C. Haptoglobin D. Ceruloplasmin E. Albumin 829. If a patient's pH is 7.3, PCO2 is 50 mmHg and bicarbonate level is higher than normal, she is in A. * Metabolic acidosis compensated B. Respiratory acidosis compensated C. Respiratory acidosis uncompensated D. Metabolic alkalosis compensated E. Metabolic acidosis uncompensated 830. In the hospital of first-aid brought the patient M. which was poisoned carbon monoxide (CO). The spectral analysis of blood of patient confirmed a presence in it: A. * Carboxyhemoglobin B. Methemoglobin C. Carbhemoglobin D. Oxyhemoglobin E. Carbylaminhemoglobin 831. Intoxicationcan occuer as a result of the increase of carbon monoxide concentration in the air. Thus, transport of oxygen from the lungd to tissues realized by hemoglobin breaks. What hemoglobin derivative appers in this case? A. Methemoglobin B. Oxyhemoglobin C. Carboxyhemoglobin D. Carbhemoglobin E. Hemochromogen 832. lymphatic vessels are blocked because of injury or disease? A. Hemophilia B. * Stroke C. Edema D. Acidosis E. Alcalosis 833. many weeks for the body RESERVE of red corpuscles to be replaced? Is it: A. 1 week B. 3 weeks C. * 7 weeks D. 21 weeks E. 12 days 834. Normal arterial blood pH is A. Highly acidic B. 6.45 C. Neutral D. Strongly alkaline E. * Between 7.35 and 7.45 835. Once CO2 enters the blood stream in the tissues it is transported to the lungs A. As a dissolved gas in the blood plasma. B. In red blood cell cytoplasm C. Bound to hemoglobin. D. * As HCO3 - ion in the blood plasma E. As HCO3 - ion in the red blood cell cytoplasm 836. Patient С., 24 years have anaemia during few years. Hospitalized concerning great pains in the area of stomach and joints. Laboratory information: erythrocytes – 3200000, leucocytes – 14000, thrombocytes – 537000. During electrophoresis of hemolysate HbS was found and 3,2% HbF. Most credible diagnose: A. Hemoglobinose F B. Hemoglobinose C C. Talasemia D. * Sickle cell anaemia E. Hemoglobinose D 837. The molecular analysis of hemoglobin of a patient suffering from anemia showed replacement of 6Glu with 6Val in rWhat is the molecular mechanism of this pathology? A. Gene mutation B. Chromosome mutation C. Genomic mutation D. Amplification of genes E. Transduction of genes 838. The right side of the heart deals with : A. Oxygenated blood B. * Deoxygenated blood C. Mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood D. Either a or b at a time E. All above 839. The threads formed during clotting are made up of : A. Thrombin B. Prothrombin C. Fibrinogen D. * Fibrin E. Fibronectin 840. Under normal circumstances, _________ is probably the greatest source of H+. A. Сarbon dioxide B. Lactic acid C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. * Hydrolysis reactions E. Salts 841. Under the action of oxidants (hydrogen peroxide, nitrogen axides atc/),Fe2+containing hemoglobin is converted into the substance that includes Fe3+ and is not able to transport oxygen. What substabce is it? A. Carbhemoglobin B. Carboxyhemoglobin C. Methemoglobin D. Oxyhemoglobin E. Glycosylated hemoglobin 842. Water, nutrients,.wastes, and gases are to the plasma as ____ is/are to the red blood cells. A. Carbon dioxide B. * Oxygen C. Gamma globulins D. Bicarbonate E. Hemoglobin 843. What compound of hemoglobin will have the inhabitans of the house, where the flue was blocked untimely? A. Deoxyhemoglobin B. Carbhemoglobin C. * Carboxyhemoglobin D. Methemoglobin E. Oxyhemoglobin 844. Which of the following is a treatment for leukemia? A. Radiation B. Chemotherapy C. Vitamin B12 shots D. Both a and b E. * A, B, and C 845. Which of the following is not likely to cause acidosis? A. * Lung cancer B. Hipoxia C. Ketonemia D. Diarrhea E. Diabets mellitus 846. Which of the following is the cause of sickle cell anemia: A. A deletion of the beta globin gene promoter B. The increased production of the alpha globin gene due to a duplication. C. The increased production of the beta globin gene due to a duplication D. * A missense mutation in the coding region of the beta globin gene. E. A nonsense mutation in the coding region of the beta globin gene 847. Which of these is not a consequence of vomiting? A. Dehydration B. * Metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic alkalosis E. Deleytion of hydrocarbonates in organism 848. С-thalassemia of a patient is diagnosed. What disturbances concerning hemoglobin synthesis are observed in case of this disease? A. Inhibition of I-chains synthesis B. Inhibition of I-chains synthesis C. Inhibition of I-chains synthesis D. Inhibition of I- and --chains synthesis E. Inhibition of I- and --chains synthesis 849. A patient was diagnosed with the hereditary deficiency of lipoprotein lipase. Which biochemical changes in the blood serum of this patient are possible? A. * An increase of chylomicrons and VLDL B. Increase of amount of chylomicrons and free fatty acids C. Increase of amount of LDH D. Increase of amount of chylomicrons and LDH E. Increase of amount of HDL 850. The plasma and urine of patients with maple syrup urine disease contain elevated levels of each of the following amino acid, except : A. Valine B. Leucine C. * Lysine D. Isoleucine E. none of above 851. . In the patient M., 30 years, that during a few years suffers chronic hepatitis, decline decreases of oncotic pressure of blood plasma which characterized the rise of edema. What situations can corresponding to this case? A. Increase concentrations of albumins B. Elevation maintenance of E - globulins C. Decrease maintenance of r - globulins D. * Decrease concentrations of albumins E. Decrease maintenance of D - globulins 852. A 38-year-old women suffers from rheumatism in its active phase. The determination of which of the following laboratory indexes is essential for diagnostics in case of the pathology? A. Urea B. Uric acid C. C-reactive protein D. Creatinine E. Transferrin 853. A 45 years old women after long starvation has hyperketonemia. Where the synthesis of ketone bodies takes place: A. * mitochondria of hepatocytes B. cytoplasm of hepatocytes C. mitochindria of cardiomyocytes D. nucleus of cardiomyocytes E. cytoplasm of adipocytes 854. A 5 years old child intestinal worms discovered. Which changes in a blood test do testify the allergic state of organism of child? A. Increase of amount of red blood cells B. Worsening of blood clotting C. * Increase of amount of eosinophils, basophiles D. Diminishing of lymphocytes and thrombocytes E. A blood test is in a norm 855. A 5 years old child suffers from xanthomatos, increase of liver. Table of contents of general lipids in blood 16 g/l, the cholesterol 9 mmol/l. After centrifugation of blood a white layer appears. The increase of maintenance of what transport forms of lipids in blood does take a place in this case and to the defect of what enzyme it is related? A. Alpha-lipoproteins, LCHAT B. Beta- lipoproteins, cholesterol estherase C. Chylomicrons , lipoprotein lipase D. VLDL, lipoprotein lipase E. Chylomicrons, tissue lipase 856. A 70-year-old man has an intensified blood clotting, caused, first and foremost, by the decrease of the level of ________in the blood plasma A. Vitamin D. B. Albumin C. Immunoglobulin A D. Calcium E. Antithrombin 857. A patient has increased content of chylomicrons on an empty stomach, the concentration of fats is extraordinarily enhanced in blood after meal, there are depositions of fat in a skin (xanthoma). The possible reason of such state is: A. Excess usage of animal fats B. Hyperactivity of tissue lipase C. Disorders of fats oxidation D. * Insufficient activity of lipoprotein lipase in endothelium of vessels E. The organism don’t need energy of fats oxidation 858. A patient has increased content of chylomicrons on an empty stomach, the concentration of fats is extraordinarily enhanced in blood after meal, there are depositions of fat in a skin (xanthoma). The possible reason of such state is: A. Excess usage of animal fats B. Hyperactivity of tissue lipase C. Disorders of fats oxidation D. * Insufficient activity of lipoprotein lipase in endothelium of vessels E. The organism don’t need energy of fats oxidation 859. A patient is found to have a high concentration of cholesterol in the blood and deposits of cholesterol under the skin. The patient is diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolemia. What is the likely cause of this condition? A. A deficiency in insulin production by the pancreas. B. Insufficient chylomicron concentration in the blood. C. Overproduction of lysosomal lipases. D. * Lack of LDL receptors on the surfaces of nonhepatic cells. E. all of the above. 860. A patient suffers from obesity, atherosclerosis, in blood was established the increase of atherogenic lipoproteins. What from the below mentioned is not reason of such state? A. Genetic inclination B. Hormonal disorders C. A lack of carbohydrates in a diet D. Excess of carbohydrates in a diet E. Hypodynamia 861. A patient was diagnosed with the hereditary deficiency of lipoprotein lipase. Which biochemical changes in the blood serum of this patient are possible? A. * An increase of chylomicrons and VLDL B. Increase of amount of chylomicrons and free fatty acids C. Increase of amount of LDH D. Increase of amount of chylomicrons and LDH E. Increase of amount of HDL 862. A reaction of cooperation of antibodies with an antigen is high-specific and takes place due to the followings types of bonds, except: A. Hydrogenic B. Electrostatic C. * Peptide D. Vandervaal's E. Hydrophobic 863. A reaction of cooperation of antibodies with an antigen is high-specific and takes place due to the followings types of bonds, except: A. Hydrogenic B. Electrostatic C. * Peptide D. Vandervaal's E. Hydrophobic 864. An antigen after incorporation into an organism contacts with the receptors of lymphocytes, causes the transition of cells to a mitotic cycle. Transfer of the signal from a membrane is carried out with the help of mediators. Which from them does not participate in this process? A. Inositol triphosphate B. Diacylglycerol C. Ions of Ca++ D. * UTP E. cGМP 865. Antibodies are powerful weapons in the body's defense against microorganisms. However, there are limits to what an antibody can actually do. Which of the following is NOT an action that an antibody can actually accomplish? A. cause an agglutination of antibodies and antigens, forming an antibody–antigen complex B. attach to a bacterial cell antigen, preventing the bacterium from attaching to anything else C. start a complement protein cascade D. * poke microscopic "holes" in a bacterial cell membrane, causing it to die E. Both A and D are correct. 866. As a result of development of kidney insufficiency a patient has a necessity for the transplantation of a kidney. Which analysis must be done to avoid tearing away of transplanted organ? A. To define the amount of gamma-globulins in blood B. To define the amount of lymphocytes in blood C. * To define the proteins of main complex of histocompatability in leucocytes D. To discover state of the system of complement in blood of recipient E. To define A/G coefficient. 867. As result of incorporation of antigen in an organism takes place a complex of biochemical processes, directed on it neutralization and deletion. Choose from the below mentioned an incorrect immune responses of organism: A. Binding of antigen to the proteins-receptors of lymphocytes B. * Activating of gluconeogenesis C. Activating, prolipheration, differentiation of T-cell D. Modification of B-lymphocytes in plasmatic cells and synthesis of antibodies E. Activating of the system of complement, endocytosis and lysis of the antigen by tissue macrophages 868. Crioglobulin – the protein of C-globulin fraction, which absent in blood plasma of healthy people, appears at: A. Diabetus Mellitus B. Wilson disease C. * Leykoses, mielom disease D. Starvation E. Lung emphysema 869. During the complex inspection of 48-years-old patient was determined HDL/LDL which used for diagnostic: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Chronic pancreatitis C. Hypothyroidism D. * Atherosclerosis E. Myocardium infarction 870. During the complex inspection of 65-years-old patient was determined HDL/LDL which used for diagnostic of: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Chronic pancreatitis C. Hypothyroidism D. * Atherosclerosis E. Myocardium infarction 871. Essence of immune reaction of organism is formation of antibodies against foreign factors. Choose what from below mentioned functions are not specific for the antibodies: A. Fastening and activating of complement B. * Ability to change membrane potential of the antigen C. Binding to the receptors on the cells surface of macrophages D. Binding to the receptors of mast cell E. Ability to penetrate the placenta barrier 872. How is it a mother who is breast feeding positively affects her baby's immune system? A. she gives her baby permanent antibodies she has produced B. she gives her baby antigens she has produced in her breast milk C. * she gives her baby antibodies she has produced in her breast milk D. she gives her baby immune cells to fight incoming invaders E. Both C and B are correct. 873. If all of your cells are covered in antigens (and they are), why doesn't your immune system kill/attack all cells? A. because your immune system is dedicated to finding invaders B. * because your immune system is very sophisticated C. because your healthy cells are not "tagged" in any way D. because your cells are "tagged" healthy by cell membrane protiens. E. all of the above 874. In the patient - cirrhosis of liver. What changes on the electrophoregramme of proteins of blood plasma can be here? A. * Decrease fractions of albumins and D- globulins B. Increases fractions of I- and - globulins C. Increases fractions of albumins and lowering of I- and - globulins D. Increase fractions of albumins and lowering of f- globulins E. Changes are not observed 875. Intoxication can occur as a result of the increase of carbon monoxide concentration in the air. Thus, transport of oxygen from the lungd to tissues realized by hemoglobin breaks. What hemoglobin derivative appers in this case? A. Methemoglobin B. Oxyhemoglobin C. Carboxyhemoglobin D. Carbhemoglobin E. Hemochromogen 876. On the surface of lymphoid cells (B-lymphocytes) proteins -receptors which recognize and specifically link antigens are placed. Which chemical nature of these receptors? A. Histons B. Proteins C. Krioglobulines D. * Immunoglobulines E. Globin 877. On the surface of lymphoid cells (B-lymphocytes) proteins -receptors which recognize and specifically link antigens are placed. Which chemical nature of these receptors? A. Histons B. Proteins C. Krioglobulines D. * Immunoglobulines E. Globin 878. Once vaccinated, you have had a primary exposure to specific antigens. If you ever encounter this antigen again, you will mount a rapid immune response due to: A. cytotoxic T cells B. antibodies C. antigen presenting cells D. * memory cells E. all of the above 879. Patient has ketonemia and ketonuria, amount of glucose in blood 3,5 mM/l, cholesterol – 4,5 mM/l. What malfunctions could cause this? A. * diabetes mellitus B. carbohydrates deficit in nutrition C. atherosclerosis D. excessive usage of fats E. liver disease 880. Pollen often causes such allergic reactions as itch, edem Simultaneously in an organism the enhanceable amount of histamine accompanies: A. * Dilatation of blood vessels and increase their permeability B. High blood pressure C. Diminishing of the synthesis of immunoglobulins D. Degradation of antibodies E. Activation of a histidin decarboxylase 881. Pollen often causes such allergic reactions as itch, edema. Simultaneously in an organism the enhanceable amount of histamine accompanies: A. * Dilatation of blood vessels and increase their permeability B. High blood pressure C. Diminishing of the synthesis of immunoglobulins D. Degradation of antibodies E. Activation of a histidin decarboxylase 882. Proteins of main complex of histocompatability are the main proteins of immunological individuality of organism. All below mentioned functions inherent them EXEPT: A. Participating is in cooperation between lymphoid cells B. They are proteins of transplantation C. * Execute a catalytic function D. Participating in cooperating with an antigen on the cells surface E. Send cytotoxic T-effectors to the infected „target”. 883. Recognition of foreign factors (antigens) in an organism carries out lymphocytes with the help of proteins-receptors. How many molecules of immunoglobulin are placed on the surface of lymphoid cell: A. * About 105 B. 10-20 molecules C. Near 1000 molecules D. 1010 E. None of above 884. Recognition of foreign factors (antigens) in an organism carries out lymphocytes with the help of proteins-receptors. How many molecules of immunoglobulin are placed on the surface of lymphoid cell: A. * About 105 B. 10-20 molecules C. Near 1000 molecules D. 1010 E. None of above 885. Reliability of implementation of protective function of organism is provided by the numerous factors of the immune system. Immune function is inherent to all below mentioned factors except: A. Plenty of clones of B- lymphocytes B. A high affinity of membranes immunoglobulins to the antigens C. Cooperation of many clones of B- lymphocytes with antigen D. Presence in the organism of activated B- lymphocytes as cells of „memory” to the certain antigens E. * Sufficient content of proteins in blood 886. Technogenic, ecological, social and other factors often result in the damage of the immune system of organism, reduce resistance of human organism to the infections. Immunological insufficiency can be result of such disorders except: A. * Insufficient synthesis by the liver of gamma-globulins B. Deficiency of stem cells of bony marrow C. Disorders of activating of T-cells D. Disorders of function B-lymphocytes and secretion of antibodies E. Deficiency of the system of complement 887. The allergic reaction of organism is related to activating of complement by a partial hydrolysis. Among the below named functions of the low-molecular peptides choose correct: A. Diminish the amount of eosinophils and basophiles B. Weaken construction of smooth muscles C. * Increase permeability of walls of capillaries D. Diminish permeability of walls of capillaries E. Strengthen the chemo taxis of leucocytes. 888. The allergic reaction of organism is related to activating of complement by a partial hydrolysis. Among the below named functions of the low-molecular peptides choose correct: A. Diminish the amount of eosinophils and basophiles B. Weaken construction of smooth muscles C. * Increase permeability of walls of capillaries D. Diminish permeability of walls of capillaries E. Strengthen the chemo taxis of leucocytes. 889. The amount of urea in the patient's blood is 16 mmol/l, in daily urine 6 g. Which of the following is the possible reason for this: A. liver disease B. C. D. E. starvation * kidney disease acidosis thyrotoxicosis 890. The amount of urea in the patient's blood is 16 mmol/l, in daily urine 6 g. Which of the following is the possible reason for this: A. liver disease B. starvation C. * kidney disease D. acidosis E. thyrotoxicosis 891. The concentration of urea in the blood of healthy adult is: A. 10-12 mM/l B. 12-20 mM/l C. 1-2 mM/l D. * 3-8 mM/l E. 15-18 mM/l 892. The damage of the immune system reduces resisting of human organism to the infections. Immune status of organism depends on the followings structures, except: A. Bony marrow B. Thymus C. Tissue macrophages D. Lymphatic nodes E. * Hypophysis 893. The damage of the immune system reduces resisting of human organism to the infections. Immune status of organism depends on the followings structures, except: A. Bony marrow B. Thymus C. Tissue macrophages D. Lymphatic nodes E. * Hypophysis 894. The disease AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). One of the reasons why this disease has resisted a cure is because it attacks the body's immune system, the very system that is designed to resist viral infections. Which of the immune system cells does the AIDS virus specifically target for infection? A. B cells B. * Helper T cells C. memory cells D. natural killer cells E. none of the above 895. The following acute phase protein increase dramatically in concentration during inflammation : A. ceruloplasmin B. haptoglobulin C. C-reactive protein D. fibrinogen E. C3 896. The immunological response of organism for foreign factors is closely related to the functions of proteins of main complex of histocompatability that initiate the lysis of cells. The mechanism of their action includes the row of processes, except: A. Proteins of main complex of histocompatability send cytotoxic T-effectors to the antigen B. Lymphocyte throws out on a membrane of the „target”-cells (antigen) protein perphorin C. Perphorin forms pores in the cellular membrane of „target” -cells D. * Electrochemical potential changes on the membrane of „target” -cells E. Through pores in a membrane water and electrolytes flow and cause lysis of „target” -cells 897. The patient has symptoms of general adiposity and atherosclerotic changes. From the list of possible reasons should be ixcluded: A. * lack of carbohydrates in food B. smoking C. alcohol addiction D. genetic factors E. excess of carbohydrates and lipids in nutrition 898. The patient possibly has atherosclerosis. What of the below helped to prove this? A. increase of general lipids in blood B. increase of ketone bodies in blood C. increase of high density liporoteins D. decrease of phospholipids in blood E. * increase of low density liporoteins 899. The surface of bacterial cells is covered with proteins that the human body can recognize as belonging to a foreign, invading microorganism. These molecules are collectively referred to as ... A. antibiotics B. antiseptics C. * antigens D. antibodies E. none of the above 900. The wide spectrum of immunological effects is related to the row of soluble factors of protein nature, which produced by T-cell, mast cells, macrophages, fibroblasts. All below named proteins belong to these factors, except: A. * Liberines and statins B. Cytokines, monokines C. Lymphokines, lymphotoxins D. Interleukins E. Interferon 901. To the deficiency of which immune proteins AIDS related? A. B1- antitrypsin B. * Alfa - globulins C. С-reactive protein D. Macroglobulin E. Ceruloplazmin 902. Transplantation of organs and cells between persons, which are not relatives, frequently leads to tearing away of transplanted organ. What proteins are unique for each organism and serve as the markers of immunological individuality of organism? A. Immunoglobulins of B- lymphocytes B. Proteins-receptors of T-cell C. Proteins of the system of complement D. * Proteins of I class of main complex of histocompatability E. Proteins of II class of main complex of histocompatability 903. Which class of antibody is secreted into breast milk where it is delivered to the suckling neonate, and transported through the gut lumen into blood of the neonate? A. * IgA B. C. D. E. IgG IgM IgD IgE 904. A new-born child manifests symptoms of icterus. The introduction of low doses of Phenobarbital (the inductor of the synthesis of UDP-glucuronyltransferase) promoted the improvement of the clinical state. Which of the biochemical processes listed below is activated by the Phenobarbital-induced enzyme? A. Gluconeogenesis B. Microsomal oxidation C. Tissue respiration D. * Conjugation E. Glycogen synthesis 905. In a patient increased rotting of proteins in an intestine. How are the toxic products of this process harmless? A. Hydrolysis B. Isomerisation C. Solvatacion D. Partial proteolisis E. * Conugation with sulphuric and glucuronic acids 906. 50-years patient is disturbed by pains in right underrib after the reception of fatty food. Esteblish yellow colour of sclerotic and skin, acholic excrement, urine, – to the color of beer. Presence of what matter in urine of patient did stipulate the dark coloure of urine? A. Bilirubinglucoronids B. Ketone bodies C. Urobilin D. Sterkobilin E. Urea 907. A 16-year patient is diagnosedwith hereditary deficiency of UDPglucuronyltransferase. Laboratory investigation showed hyperbilirubinemia conditioned mainly by the increase of concentration of….. in the blood. A. Urobilinogen B. Direct bilirubin C. * Indirect bilirubin D. Stercobilinogen E. Biliverdin 908. A 20-year-old patient is diagnised with inherited deficiency of UDPglucuronyltransferase. The increased concentration of what blood component confirms the diagnosis? A. Stercobilinogen B. Direct (conjugative) bilirubin C. Urobilin D. * Indirect (conjugation) bilirubin E. Indican 909. A 26 years-old women complain the lowering concentration of urea in blood on such conditions, except: A. Defeat of liver by a pathological process B. Insufficiency one of enzymes which form urea C. Acidosis D. Protein starvation E. * Surplus using of proteins 910. A 26 years-old women on 2-7 days of complete starvation maintenance of glucose in blood of healthy man is supported within the limits of norm to due to: A. Gluconeogenesis from lactat and pyruvat B. Breaking up to glucose of glycogen of liver C. * Gluconeogenesis from amino acids and glycerin D. Breaking up to glucose of glycogen of muscles E. Converting into glucose of fatty acids 911. A 35-year-old developed immune hemolytic anemia. The level of what substance increase in the serum of blood to the utmost? A. Mesobilinogen B. Direct bilirubin C. Stercobilinogen D. * Indirect bilirubin E. Protoporphyrin 912. A 46-year women, suffering from cholelithiasis developed icterus. The urine become dark-yellow colour and the feces discolored. The concentration of what substance in the blood serum woulde rise mostly? A. Non-conjugation bilirubin B. * Conjugation bilirubin C. Biliverdin D. Mesobilirubin E. Urobilinogen 913. A 54 years-old man at the short starvation after the consumption of carbohydrate meal, hexosis in a liver transform into glucose-6-phosphate, which can feel farther transformations, except: A. * Gluconeogenesis B. Pentosophosphate cycle C. Synthesis of glycogen D. Glycolysis E. Synthesis of fatty acids 914. A 57-year-old woman suffered an attack of hepatic colic followed by jaundice. Ultrasound examination revealed an accluson of the general bile duct with a stone. The rising level of what substance in blood is indicative of mechanical jaundice? A. Verdohemoglobin B. Biliverdin C. * Direct bilirubin D. Indirect bilirubin E. Stercobilin 915. A 68-year-old woman visits her physician complaining of labored breathing and swelling in her lower extremities. Physical examination is consistent with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure. An increase in which of the following is the most likely explanation for the swelling in her legs? A. Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure B. Lymph flow C. Plasma colloid osmotic pressure D. * Right atrial pressure E. Stroke volume 916. A 70 years –old man have fatty infiltration of liver, which often drive to fatty degeneration, can cause all factors, except: A. Exessive arrive of fats from fatty tissues B. Lag of metabolisation of fat from arrive C. Chronic protracted and infectious illnesses D. Arrive to organism galogen derivatives of carbochydrates E. * Predominance in a ration of proteins 917. A new-born child shows signs of yellow coloring of skin and mucous membranes. A possible cause of this state is the provisional deficiency of the enzyme: A. * UDP-glucuronyltransferase B. Uridine transferase C. Heme synthetase D. Heme oxygenase E. Biliverdin reductase 918. A newborn child is found to have physiological icterus. The level of free bilirubin in the blood considerably exceeds the normal range. The deficiency of what enzyme is status conditioned by? A. Heme oxygenase B. Transaminase C. Xanthine oxidase D. D.Adenosine deaminase E. * UDP-glucuronyltransferase 919. A newborn with hemolytic illness has developed encephalopathy. The increased level of what substance in blood caused the lesion of the CNS? A. * Bilirubin unrelated to albumin B. Bilirubin-albumine complex C. Bilirubin-glucuronide complex D. Verdohemoglobin E. Bile asids 920. A pacient with concentration of cholesterol in blood - higher 7 mmol/l can result in such changes, except: A. Formation of cholesterol stones in a gall-bladder B. Atherosclerosis C. Strengthening selection through an intestine D. Deposit in a skin and other tissues E. * Oxidation to CO2 and H2O 921. A patient appealed to the hospital with complaints about a general weakness, aching stomach-aches, bad appetite, yellowing skin. In the blood serum of patient 77,3 mkM/l of general bilirubin and 70,7 mkM/l conjugated. Which most credible pathology for a patient? A. * Mechanical jaundice B. Sharp hepatitis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Hemolitic jaundice E. Hepatic jaundice 922. A patient has yellow coloring of the skin, dark urine and yellow –colored feces. The increase concentration of what substance will be observed in the blood serum? A. Conjugation bilirubin B. * Non-conjugation bilirubin C. Mesobilirubin D. Verdoglobin E. Biliverdin 923. A patient with complaints of general weakness, stomachache and bad appetite was admitted to a clinic. A doctor suspected icterus. In the blood serum the total bilirubin content is 77>3 mM/l, the direct bilirubin content is 70,76 mM/l. What type of icterus is the most credible in this case? A. * Mechanical icterus B. C. D. E. Acute hepatitis Liver cirrhosis Hepatic icterus Hemolitic icterus 924. A toxic waste product of protein metabolism that produced in the liver must be excreted from the body is A. * Ammonia B. Carbon dioxide C. Urea D. Uric acid E. Only B and D 925. A woman with chronic hepatitis complains of sensitivily to barbiturates which she tolerated before without of the liver is damaged? A. Excretory B. * Disintoxification C. Hemodinamic D. Hemopoetic E. Cytophagus 926. After blood transfusion in a patient a skin and mucus shells yellow colour, increase the level of general and nondirect bilirubin in blood, maintenance of urobiline in urine increase, in feces – appear level of stercobilin. Which type of jaundice does it testify? A. Inherited jaundice B. * Hemolitic jaundice C. Obstructive jaundice D. Hepatic jaundice E. Jaundice of new-born 927. After hard physical work during rest there are stimulation some metabolic ways of carbohydrates, except: A. Glycogenes B. Gluconeogenesis from lactat C. Gluconeogenesis from glycerin D. * Glycolysis, Krebs cycle E. Gluconeogenesis from amino acids 928. At complete starvation during 12-24 ours maintenance of glucose level in blood of healthy man in norm is supported within the limits mainly to: A. Gluconeogenesis from amino acids B. Gluconeogenesis from lactat C. Breaking up of glycogen in muscles D. * Breaking up of glycogen in a liver E. Transformation of proteins on glucose 929. At the inspection of blood of patient found out the considerable increase level isoenzyme LDG5 and activity of AlAT. Do supposition about possible disease: A. Heart attack of myocardium B. * Hepatitis C. Rheumatism D. Pancreatitis E. Gout 930. At the inspection of patient found out stagnation of bile and stone in a gallbladder. Name the basic component of stones which appeared in this state: A. Protein B. * Cholesterol C. Triglycerides D. Direct bilirubin E. Mineral salts 931. Excess intake of iron may be pathological because it may accumulate in the liver and cause cirrhosis. The term used to describe excess iron accumulation in the body is A. Anemia B. Polycythemia C. Erythrocythemia D. * Hemochromatosis E. Xeropthalmia 932. For a child which borned 2 days ago, observe the yellowing colour of skin and mucus shells. Reason of such state can be a lack of enzyme: A. * UDP-glyucuroniltransferase B. Sulphontransferase C. Hemshyntetase D. Hemoxigenase E. Biliverdinreductase 933. For a patient 27 years found out the pathological changes of liver and brain. In blood plasma decrease, and in urine – increases maintenance of copper. Diagnosed Vilson disease. Activity of what enzyme does need investigate in blood plasma for conformation of diagnosis? A. Xantinoxidase B. Carboangidrase C. * Ceruloplasmin D. Leycinaminopeptidase E. Alkogoldehydrogenase 934. For a patient 45 years with the intoxication of liver during the leadthrough of test with the bensoate of sodium (test of Kvik) on detoxification ability found out a low level in urine: A. * Hipuric acid B. Oxiproline C. Kreatinine D. Urea E. Amino acids 935. For a patient edemata appeared with the cirrhosis of liver. What is possible reason of their appearance? A. * Diminishing maintenance of albumin in blood B. Diminishing maintenance of haptoglobin C. Increase in blood of ceruloplasmin D. Diminishing in blood of Na+ ions E. Lowering maintenance of glucose in blood 936. For a patient increase in the blood plasma conjugated (direct) bilirubin is set at a simultaneous increase unconjugated (undirect) and decrease in fecees and urine of stercobilinogen. What type of jaundice does it testify? A. * Obstractive B. Hepatic C. Hemolitic D. Jilbert disease E. Jaundice is absent 937. For a patient which practises upon smoking, found out a tumour of lung. What is condition the carcinogenic action of tobacco? A. * Transformation of benzpiren into oxibenzpiren in a liver B. C. D. E. Disintegration of benzpiren of tobacco to NH3 in tissues Binding of benzpiren with glucuronic acid in a liver Dissolution of benzpiren in blood plasma Accumulation of benzpiren in tissues 938. For a patient which use a dicoumarol, found the decreasing level of protrombin from a 0,15 g/l to 0,05g/l, necessity for a hemopexis – formation of blood clot. It took a place as a result: A. * Insufficiency of vitamin K B. Insufficiency of vitamin B2 C. Insufficiency of vitamin C D. Lowering concentration of calcium in blood E. Lowering maintenance of globulins 939. For a patient with surplus formation of ketone bodies in liver, which shows hyperketonemia, ketonuria and smell of acetone is named - ketosis. He is in such cases, except: A. Starvation B. Diabetes Mellitus C. * Diabetes insipidus D. Surplus use of alcohol E. In pregnant woman at protracted vomiting 940. For youth 16 years diagnosed the deficit of UDP-glyucuroniltransferase. Laboratory determined a hyperbilirubinemia, predefined mainly an increase in blood concentration of: A. Direct bilirubin B. * Undirect bilirubin C. Urobilin D. Biliverdin E. Transferrin 941. For youth 18 years with sharp toxic hepatitis in the blood serum will be enhanceable level: A. * Alaninaminotransferase B. Creatinkinase C. Alkilane phosphatase D. D-amilase E. Laktatdehydrogenase-1 (LDG1) 942. Harmless of xenobiotis (medications, epoxides, aldehydes, nitroderivatives and others) and endogenous metabolits (estradiol, prostaglandins, leukotrienes) takes place in a liver by them conjugation with: A. * Glutation B. Aspartat C. Glycine D. S-adenosilmetionin E. Phosphoadenosine 943. Hepatic detoxification of natural metabolites and xenobiotics in the patients liver is broken. Name the cytochrome, the activity of which is presumably decreased: A. Cytochrom c1 B. Cytochrome oxidase C. Hemoglobin D. Cytochrom b E. * Cytochrom P450 944. Hepatitis can cause the urine to be the color A. * Yellow B. C. D. E. Black Amber Greenish-brown Blue 945. Hepatitis, cirrhosis and tumours of liver, can take a place such violations of protein metabolism, except: A. Hypoalbuminemia B. Hypoprothrombinemia C. Gemoraggi D. Asotemia E. * Hyper-gamma-globulinemia 946. In a patient cirrhosis of liver. Research of which from the adopted matters which are exreted with urine can characterize the state of antitoxic function of liver? A. Creatinine B. Amino acids C. Uric acid D. Ammonia salts E. * Hypuric acid 947. In a patient with jaundice arose up: increase in blood plasma of general bilirubin due to nondirect (free), in feces and urines – high maintenance of stercobilin, level of direct bilirubin (conjugative) in blood plasma within the limits of norm. About which type of patology of liver is it possible? A. * Hemolitic jaundice B. Hepatic jaundice C. Mechanical jaundice D. Cirrhosis E. Hepatitis 948. In blood of healthy adult man and nonpregnant women this protein does not appear. But at primary liver cancer his level grows. Name him: A. Transferrin B. Feritin C. * C-fetoprotein D. Tiroxintranspoting protein E. Crioglobulin 949. In man 70 years predefined an enhanceable level of blood clotting, conditioned by a decrease in blood plasma: A. Albumin B. Immunoglobulin A C. * Heparin D. Vitamin D E. Calcium 950. ? In sick M. 24 years during starvation, glycogen in liver decompose to glucose-1phosphate. How does from him free glucose formed , which can act from a liver to the brain in time of hypoglicemia? A. Glucose-1-phosphate split on glucose and inorganic phosphate in a liver B. Glucose-1-phosphate disintegrates on constituent component in blood C. * Glucose-1-phosphate transforms at first on glucose-6-phosphate, on which act specific phosphatase D. Glucose-1-phosphate at first passes on fructose-6-phosphate E. Glucose-1-phosphate experience changes from the side of phosphofructikinase 951. In sick with complaints about feeling of heaving in right anderib, itch of skin, crabbiness, fatigueability, it is discovered at a laboratory inspection: hyperbilirubinemia with predominance of conjugative bilirubin, tymol test in a norm. What pathology testify these changes? A. Sharp hepatitis B. * Mechanical jaundice C. Gemolitic jaundice D. Cirrhosis of liver E. Pancreatitis 952. In the girl of 23 years, exhausted starvation, more reliable in liver increases: A. Synthesis of triacylglicerol B. * Gluconeogenesis C. Synthesis of cholesterol D. Formation of uric acid E. Formation of conjugative bilirubin 953. Liver cirrhosis of a patient was diagnosed. Determination of which of the compounds exreted with irine characterizes the state of antitoxic function of the licer? A. * Hippuric acid B. Ammonia salts C. Creatinine D. D.Uric acid E. Amono acid 954. The new-born have violation in binding of bilirubin reason of heavy forms of jaundice in hepatocytes. What matter is used for formation of conjugate? A. * Glucuronic acid B. Sulphuric acid C. Uric acid D. Lactic acid E. Piruvat 955. To the patient which suffers on chronic hepatitis, for verification of detoxification function of liver was conducted loading of sodium benzoate. Exreated of what matter with urine will testify the detoxification function of liver? A. Fenilacetic acid B. Citric acid C. * Hypuric acid D. Oxalic acid E. Mevalonic acid 956. To the patient with suspicion pathology of liver with diagnostic purpose appoint research of such biochemical indexes, except: A. Proteins fractions of blood, AlAT/AsAT B. Alkaline phosphatase, arginase C. Laktatdegidrogenaze, urea D. Protrombin, ceruloplasmin E. * Cholesterol, triacylglicerol 957. Vilson disease found (hepatocerebral dystrophy) in blood lowering maintenance of ceruloplasmin. Violation of which processes it can cause? A. * Complexformation of amino acids with copper B. Disintegration of tissue proteins C. Decarboxilation of amino acids D. Intensification synthesis of urea E. Intensification synthesis of uric acid 958. Visual inspection of a patient revealed the presence of bilirubin and increased pigmentation of skin that evolves after ultraviolet irradiation. The patients urine becones red in the open air. Wich of the following urine constituent determination is required for the vertification of Gunter disease. A. Acetone B. Hemoglobin C. Bilirubin D. Creatinine E. * Uroporphyrinogen 1 959. Which transformation of carbohydrates will prevail in a liver, if the concentration of glucose in blood equal 3 mmol/l? A. Gluconeogenesis B. * Transformation of glycogen to free glucose C. Pentosophosphate cycle D. Glycolisis E. Formation of UDP-glucuronic acid 960. Worker of dry-cleaning had fatty dystrophy of liver. Violation synthesis of what matter in a liver can result in such situation? A. Tristearine B. * Cholin phosphatidic C. Urea D. Phosphatidic acid E. Cholic acid 961. Yellowish skin and mucous membranes of a patient are observed after blood transfusion. There also increased levels of total and indirect bilirubin in the blood, urobilin in the urine and stercobilin in the feces. What type of icterus is observed in this case? A. Icterus of newborn B. Inherited icterus C. Posthepatic icterus D. Hepatic icterus E. * Hemolytic icterus 962. You are presented with a patient’s liver specimen and you notice that the cells seem to have an abnormally large amount of smooth endoplasmic reticulum for liver cells. You conclude that this sample is probably from a patient. A. Who cannot break down fats B. With a bacterial infection C. Who is a habitual user of narcotics D. * Who may be exposed to toxic chemicals i.e. in their workplace E. A, c. and d are correct 963. Patient has increased amount of urea and creatinine in blood and their decrease in urine. Possible reason of this state are: A. this state is observed at muscle disease B. main reason – liver disease C. * diseases, which cause kidney failure D. the main reason are affection of neutralization, transportation and excretion of ammonia with urine E. this state is observed as a result of acid-base equilibrium in the organism 964. Patient has increased amount of urea and creatinine in blood and their decrease in urine. Possible reason of this state are: A. this state is observed at muscle disease B. main reason – liver disease C. * diseases, which cause kidney failure D. the main reason are affection of neutralization, transportation and excretion of ammonia with urine E. this state is observed as a result of acid-base equilibrium in the organism 965. Sportsman who was on a diet with great amount of protein has acidic reaction of urine. Presence of which substances causes such change? A. urates and sulphates B. * chlorides and phosphates C. chlorides and sulphates D. phosphates and sulphates E. urates and chlorides 966. The of 56 years old patient complains for general weakness, nausea, bad appetite. Is observed icteric discolor of skin, hyperbilirubinemia (direct bilirubin), urine is foamy, acholic stool. Which state are these changes characterized? A. * obturative jaundice B. hepatocellular jaundice C. hemolytic jaundice D. Gilbert's syndrome E. Johnson's syndrome 967. ? Urine transparency is one of the parameters, evaluated by the analysis. Presence of what substance causes turbidity of alkaline urine? A. * calcium phosphate B. magnesium sulfate C. ammonium acids D. uric acid salts E. chloride salts 968. 52-years old patient for few days suffered from pain in the right hypogastrium after having of fatty meal. It was observed sclera and skin yellowing, acholic stool, darkcolored urine. Diagnosis is obstructive jaundice. Presence of which substanse in the urine caused its dark colour? A. bilirubinglucuronid B. ketone bodies C. urobilin D. stercobilin E. glucose 969. A 2 years old child showed the symptoms of psychomotor development inhibition, thin hair. Laboratory tests: increased amount of ammonia and arginino succinate in blood and urine. What enzyme deficiensy in liver causes argininosuccinic acidemia? A. * argininosuccinatliase B. ornithyn carbamoil transferase C. arginase D. glutaminase E. xanthine oxidase 970. A 45 years old patient suffers from pain in lumbar department of the back and its limited mobility. It is takes place darkening of urine with air. What inherited disease has the patient? A. Phenylketonuria B. Galactosemia C. * Alkaptonuria D. Cystinosis E. Syndrome of Fankoni 971. A 6 years old child suffers from glomerulonephritis. Which of the below mentioned indexes prove it? A. * proteinuria B. phosphaturia C. glycosuria D. ketonuria E. creatinuria 972. A 6 years old child suffers from glomerulonephritis. Which of the below mentioned indexes prove it? A. * proteinuria B. phosphaturia C. glycosuria D. ketonuria E. creatinuria 973. A 6 years old child suffers from glomerulonephritis. Which of the below mentioned indexes prove it? A. proteinuria B. phosphaturia C. glycosuria D. ketonuria E. creatinuria 974. A man after 1,5 litres blood loss has suddenly reduced diuresis. The increased secretion of what hormone caused such diuresis alteration? A. Corticotropin B. Natriuretic factor C. Parathormone D. Cortisol E. * Vasopressin 975. A patient complains about acute stomach-ache, nausea, vomit. Diastase activity is 800 grammes/l• hour What diagnosis is the most possible? A. Acute cholecystitis B. * Acute pancreatitis C. Ulcer of stomach D. Acute appendicitis E. Enterocolitis 976. A patient, which visited a doctor, has increased level of glucose in blood and urine. Diabetes mellitus is suspecteds. What changes in lipid metabolism can cause this disease? A. hyperketonemia B. hypercholesterolemia C. * hypoketonemia, ketonuria D. hyperphospholipidemia, hyperketonemia E. hypophospholipidemia , hypoketonemia 977. A specific test on the damage of kidneys tissues for the proof of diagnosis inflammatory process in kidneys of the patient was conducted. This test is determination in urine: A. Concentrations of creatin B. Activity of creatin phosphokinase MB C. Presence of lactose D. * Activity of transamidinase E. Activity of pepsin 978. A two years old child was delivered to the hospital with symptoms of mental and physical underdevelopment, which suffers from the frequent vomiting after meal. In urine found out phenyl-pyruvic acid. Disorder of which substances metabolism is this pathology? A. Phosphorus-calcium metabolism B. Water-salt metabolism C. * Metabolism of amino acids D. Carbohydrates metabolism E. Lipids metabolism 979. A woman of 58 years, сondition is hard. Consciousness is blear, skin is dry, and eyes are sunken, cyanosis, the smell of rotting apples from the mouth. Laboratory test: blood glucose 15,1 mmol/l, urine glucose 3,5%. What is the most real reason for such condition? A. uremic coma B. hypovalemic coma C. anaphylactic shock D. * hyperglycemic coma E. hypoglycemic coma 980. An acute pancreatitis and parotitis are diagnosed. How will it influence on the activity of amylase in urine? A. * High activity of amylase is in urine. B. Low activity of amylase is in urine. C. No any of amylase in urine. D. No any changes. E. All answers are correct. 981. At a biochemical inspection of a patient were found a hyperglycemia, glucosuria, high urine’s density, in blood found - enhanceable amount of glucocorticoids. At the same time in blood and urine found excess of 17 – ketosteroids. What type of diabetes developed: A. * Steroid diabetes B. Diabetes Mellitus, the I type C. Diabetes Mellitus , the II type D. Kidney diabetes E. Hepatic diabetes 982. At what disease glomerular filtration is always decreased? A. Acute nephritis B. Chronic glomerulonephritis C. Acute pyelonephritis D. Amyloidosis of kidneys E. * Acute kidney’s insufficiency 983. At what disease in urine appears the protein of Bens - Jones? A. * Myeloma B. Amyloidosis of kidneys C. Glomerulonephritis D. Tuberculosis of kidneys E. Pyelonephritis 984. At what disease in urine appears the protein of Bens - Jones? A. * Myeloma B. Amyloidosis of kidneys C. Glomerulonephritis D. Tuberculosis of kidneys E. Pyelonephritis 985. At what disease more frequent alkaline reaction of urine? A. * Uremia B. Acute nephritis C. Festering pyelitis D. Abscess of kidneys E. Diabetes insipidus 986. At what disease more frequent alkaline reaction of urine? A. * Uremia B. Acute nephritis C. Festering pyelitis D. Abscess of kidneys E. Diabetes insipidus 987. Decreased diuresis, hypernatremia, hypokaliemia were observed. Hypersecretion of which hormone can cause such changes? A. Parathormone B. Epinephrine C. Vasopressin D. Natriuretic factor E. * Aldosterone 988. For a patient was found the increase of maintenance of urea and creatinine in blood and diminishing in urine. What are possible reasons of such state? A. Main reason of such state it is disorder of detoxification, transport and excretion of ammonia with urine B. Main reason is a disease of liver C. Such state appears at the disease of muscles D. * Diseases which result in insufficiency of kidneys E. Such state appears as a result of disorder of acid-base balance in an organism 989. For a patient which suffers from chronic kidney insufficiency, developed osteoporosis. Disorder of what process is a principal reason of osteoporosis development? A. Hydroxylating of proline B. Hydroxylating of lysine C. Carboxylation of glutamate D. * Formation of 1,25(ОН)2 D3 E. Hydroxylating of cortisol 990. For diagnostic of acute inflammatory process in kidneys was conducted a specific test - determination in urine of such substance: A. Content of lactose B. Activity of creatinkinase C. Concentrations of creatin D. Activity of pepsin E. * Activity of alanine amino peptidase 991. How many proteins do excrete daily with urine healthy adult? A. * 30 mg B. 50 mg C. 60 mg D. 100 mg E. 120 mg 992. How uric acid excretes from an organism? A. With saliva B. With feces C. With sweat D. * With urine E. With hepato-enteral circulation 993. Hyperuricemia is increase of uric acid level more than: A. * 0,5 mmol/l B. 0,1 mmol/l C. 10 mmol/l D. 1 mmol/l E. 2 mmol/l 994. Hyperuricuria is observed at all of diseases which are accompanied the increased disintegration: A. Glycoproteins B. Phosphoproteins C. * Nucleoproteins D. Lipoproteins E. Chromoproteins 995. In a norm reabsorption of glucose is: A. * 100% B. 90% C. 96% D. 30% E. 10% 996. In a norm the clearance of endogenous creatinine is: A. * 110 – 150 ml/min B. 100 – 250 ml/min C. 110 – 200 ml/min D. 10 – 150 ml/min E. 10 – 100 ml/min 997. In blood and urine of a patient it was takes place increase value of pyruvic and ?ketoglutaric acids. The deficiency of which coenzyme causes these changes? A. Pyridoxal phosphate B. * Thiamin pyrophosphate C. Flavin mononucleotide D. Biotin E. Ubiqinon 998. In blood of patient hypercalciemia, hypophosphatemia were observed, in urine – hyperphosphaturia. The possible reason of such state is: A. Depression of parathormone secretion B. Increased secretion of calcitonine C. Depression of calcitonine secretion D. * Increased secretion of parathormone E. Increased secretion of thyroxine 999. In the normal state reabsorption of water is: A. * 98% B. 40% C. 55% D. 79% E. 100% 1000. In the urine of a 42 years man, who was in stress for a long time, the amount of 17-ketosteroids is increased. This testifies about the increased secretion of: A. * Cortisol B. Estradiol C. Epinephrine D. Norepinephrine E. Aldosterone 1001. In what part of nephron does take place filtration of urine? A. * In a glomerulus B. In the loop of Henle C. In a proksimal canaliculi D. In a distal canaliculi E. In the collective tubes 1002. In which units the clearance of endogenous creatinine determined? A. Mm/minute B. Gramm/l C. Mmol/l D. Ml/hour E. * Ml/minute 1003. Indicate the credible index of albumin-globulin coefficient in the case of kidney disease: A. 2,8 B. * 0,8 C. 1,5 D. 2,5 E. 2,0 1004. indicator of glomerular function is A. Serum urea B. Serum creatinine C. Urea clearance D. * Creatinine clearance E. Both A and D 1005. Interpret the results of urine analysis - a color is dark, foamy, density - 1,022, bilirubin - positive, urobilin – negative: A. * Mechanical jaundice B. Hepatic jaundice C. Hemolytic jaundice D. Normal condition E. No any correct answer 1006. Interpret the results of urine analysis: a color is dark, foamy, density - 1,026, bilirubin - positive, urobilins – positive: A. * Hepatic jaundice B. Mechanical jaundice C. Hemolytic jaundice D. Normal condition E. No any correct answer 1007. Interpret the results of urine analysis: color – brown – orange, density - 1,020, bilirubin – negative, urobilin – positive: A. * Hemolytic jaundice B. Hepatic jaundice C. Mechanical jaundice D. Normal condition E. No any correct answer 1008. Inulin clearance in an average adult man is about A. 54 ml/min B. 75 ml/min C. 110 ml/min D. * 130 ml/min E. 250 ml/min 1009. It was determinate high activity of amylase in urine of a patient. How properly interpret this analysis? A. * It is possible acute pancreatitis, parotitis. B. Pathology of liver. C. This analysis testifies disorders of gastrointestinal tract. D. It is possible at nephropathies E. This analysis testifies disorders of carbohydrate metabolism in an organism. 1010. Laboratory test of a patient’s urine with intestines dysbacteriosis established the increase of indican. It testifies: A. kidney disease B. normal neutralization liver function C. increased fat hydrolysis D. * liver malfunction E. vitamins F hypovitaminosis 1011. Laboratory test of a patient’s urine with intestines dysbacteriosis established the increase of indican. It testifies: A. kidney disease B. normal neutralization liver function C. increased fat hydrolysis D. * liver malfunction E. vitamins F hypovitaminosis 1012. Mother with her 5 years old child visited a doctor. Child after beeing under sunlight has the erythema of skin. Laboratory tests showed decrease of iron in blood plasma, increase of uroporphyrinogen I excretion with urine. The most possible pathology is: A. erythropoietic porphyria B. methemoglobinemia C. hepatic porphyria D. coproporphyria E. hemolytic jaudice 1013. Name laboratory tests which should be conducted for the patients with suspicion on a acute pancreatitis: A. total blood test B. Activity of LDH C. Activity of AlAT D. * Activity of amylase in urine and blood E. A level of sugar in blood 1014. Name the pathological compounds of urine at diabetes mellitus: A. bile pigments, acetone B. * acetone, glucose C. blood, bilirubin D. protein, blood E. bile pigments, indican 1015. Name the pathological compounds of urine at diabetes mellitus: A. bile pigments, acetone B. * acetone, glucose C. blood, bilirubin D. protein, blood E. bile pigments, indicant 1016. Name the pathological compounds of urine at diabetes mellitus: A. B. C. D. E. bile pigments, acetone * acetone, glucose blood, bilirubin protein, blood bile pigments, indican 1017. Name the pathological compounds of urine at diabetes mellitus: A. bile pigments, acetone B. * acetone, glucose C. blood, bilirubin D. protein, blood E. bile pigments, indican 1018. Name the pathological compounds of urine at diabetes mellitus: A. bile pigments, acetone B. * acetone, glucose C. blood, bilirubin D. protein, blood E. bile pigments, indicant 1019. of which of the following hormones? A. Cortisol B. Insulin C. * Vasopressin D. Glucagon E. Aldosterone 1020. Patient B. suffers from polyuria. Pathological components do not discovered in urine. What possible reason of this state? A. Deficiency of oxytocin B. Excess of vasopressin C. * Deficiency of vasopressin D. Excess of oxytocin E. Disorders of liver and kidney’s functions 1021. Patient has increased amount of urea and creatinine in blood and their decrease in urine. Possible reason of this state are: A. this state is observed at muscle disease B. main reason – liver disease C. * diseases, which cause kidney failure D. the main reason are affection of neutralization, transportation and excretion of ammonia with urine E. this state is observed as a result of acid-base equilibrium in the organism 1022. Phenylketonuria of newborn may be diagnosed after a reaction of urine with: A. * FeCI3 B. CuSO4 C. NaCl D. Fe+ E. Na3PO4 1023. Polyuria of patients with diabetes insipidus appears as a result: A. * Insufficient level of antidiuretic hormone in blood B. Insufficient level of insulin in blood C. Disorders of reabsorption of water in canaliculies as a result of high osmotic pressure of urine D. Excessive intake of liquid E. Disorders of reabsorption of water in canaliculies as a result of low osmolality of urine 1024. A. B. C. D. E. Polyuria of patients with diabetes mellitus appears as a result: * Disorders of reabsorption of water in canaliculies as a result of high osmotic pressure of urine Insufficient level of glucagon in blood Excessive intake of liquid Insufficient level of antidiuretic hormone in blood Disorders of reabsorption of water in canaliculies as a result of low osmolality of urine Possible reasons of hypoproteinemia at a nephrotic syndrome are all the following 1025. except: A. * Convertion of proteins into fats B. Diet with the deficiensy of proteins C. Diarrea D. Proteinuria E. Increased catabolism 1026. Sportsman who was on a diet with great amount of protein has acidic reaction of urine. Presence of which substances causes such change? A. urates and sulphates B. * chlorides and phosphates C. chlorides and sulphates D. phosphates and sulphates E. urates and chlorides 1027. The amount of urea in the patient's blood is 16 mmol/l, in daily urine 6 g. The possible reason for this is the following: A. Liver disease B. Starvation C. * Kidney disease D. Acidosis E. Thyrotoxicosis 1028. The analysis demonstrated a 10 times increase of diastase activity. The danger of autolysis of a patient’s pancreas caused with activating of enzyme: A. Amylase B. Pepsin C. * Trypsin D. Lipase E. Nuclease 1029. The density of urine of a healthy adult is: A. * 1,012 – 1,020 B. 1,020 – 1,050 C. 1,025 – 1,045 D. 1,005 – 1,010 E. 1,010 – 1,035 1030. The most dangerous for life such effect of acute kidney insufficiency: A. Overhydratation B. Hypokaliemia C. Hypermagniyemia D. * Hyperkaliemia E. Hyperkal'ciemia 1031. The patient complains of polyuria. The pathological components in urine are not detected. The deficiency of what hormone can result in such state? A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Epinephrine D. * Vasopressin E. Cortisol 1032. The patient L., 46 years, complains for dry mouth, thirst, quickened urination, general weakness. Biochemical blood investigation showed hyperglycemia, hyperketonemia. In the urine glucose, ketone bodies were found. Electrocardiogram showed diffuse myocardial changes. Possible diagnosis is: A. * A.diabetes mellitus B. alimentary hyperglycemia C. acute pancreatitis D. diabetes insipidus E. ischemic heart disease 1033. The results of Zimnytskiy's test showed density of urine about 1.003-1.008. Name this state? A. hypersthenuria B. * hyposthenuria and isosthenuria C. hyposthenuria D. oliguria E. pyuria 1034. The results of Zimnytskiy's test showed density of urine about 1.003-1.008. Name this state? A. hypersthenuria B. * hyposthenuria and isosthenuria C. hyposthenuria D. oliguria E. pyuria 1035. Urine of patient after staying with oxygen becomes red. Biochemical research of urine set the enhanceable excretion of protoporphyrin IX that is the marker of disorders of synthesis: A. Bilirubin B. Purine nucleotides C. Amino acids D. * Hem E. Pyrimidine nucleotides 1036. Urine transparency is one of the parameters, evaluated by the analysis. Presence of what substance causes turbidity of acidic urine? A. calcium phosphate B. magnesium sulfate C. ammonium acids D. * uric acid salts E. chloride salts 1037. Urine transparency is one of the parameters, evaluated by the analysis. Presence of what substance causes turbidity of alkaline urine? A. * calcium phosphate B. magnesium sulfate C. ammonium acids D. uric acid salts E. chloride salts 1038. Urine transparency is one of the parameters, evaluated by the analysis. Presence of what substance causes turbidity of acidic urine? A. calcium phosphate B. magnesium sulfate C. ammonium acids D. * uric acid salts E. chloride salts 1039. What basic event in pathogenesis of chronic kidney’s insufficiency? A. * All below transferred B. Decline of glomerular filtration C. Hyperazotemia D. Disorders of water – electrolyte metabolism E. Hyperkaliemia 1040. What method of research is characterized concentration property of kidneys? A. Creatinine of blood B. * Zimnitskiy’s test C. Glomerular filtration D. Electrolytes of blood E. All of the above 1041. Which method is used for determination of acid-base state of organism? A. Determination of creatinine of blood B. Zimnitskiy’s test C. Research of kidney blood flow D. Test of Reberga E. * Excretion of bicarbonates with urine 1042. With urine of a healthy adult is excreted the following product of bilirubin disintegration: A. urobilin B. * stercobilin C. mesobilin D. biliverdin E. verdoglobin 1043. With urine of newborn was done a reaction with FeCI3 and a positive reaction (dark color) got. What disease is possible? A. Galactosemia B. Tirosinosis C. * Phenylketonuria D. Alkaptonuria E. Aminoaciduria. 1044. You suspect that your 12 year old male patient has an inborn error in methionine metabolism. His methionine levels are low and his homocysteine levels are high. A liver biopsy indicates that his cystathionine synthase and cystathionase levels are normal. This patient may have a deficiency: A. Of vitamin B12 B. Of folic acid C. A deficiency in the pathway that synthesizes methyl cobalamin D. A deficiency in the pathway that synthesizes N5-methyl tetrahydrofolate E. * All of the above 1045. 43 years old man suffers from muscle spasms as a result of intensive physical action. Muscle biopsy discovered increased concentration of glycogen. This state appears as a result of transformation affection of: A. Glucose-6-phosphate > glycogen B. * Glycogen > glucose-6-phosphate C. Creatine > creatinine D. Myoglobine ? heme >?bilirubin E. Lactate >?glucose 1046. A doctor with the purpose of conformation diagnosis sent a patient with the early stage of muscular dystrophy in a biochemical laboratory for the leadthrough of blood test. Growth activity of what enzyme can be observed in this patient? A. * Creatinkinase B. Alaninaminotransferase C. Colagenase D. Gialuronidase E. Glutaminases 1047. A patient has a general tooth pain, bleeding of gums, depolamerisation of proteoglycans and destruction of odontoblasts and ostepblasts, loosen of teeth. Reason of such state is hypovitaminoses of: A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin E C. * Vitamin C D. Vitamin B6 E. Vitamin D 1048. A patient has a making progress muscular weakness and low capacity, in skeletal and to cardiac muscles, liver and plasma of blood, maintenance of carnitin goes down. Which amino acids insufficient in food stuffs? A. Alanine and proline B. * Lysine and methionine C. Arginine and valine D. Aspartic and Glutamic acids E. Histidine and serine 1049. A patient have the frequent bleeding from internalss, mucus shells. Analysis found out insufficiency of hydroxyproline and hydroxilisine in composition of collogen tissue. Deficiency of what vitamin broken the processes of hydroxylating of adopted amino acids in the organism of patient? A. Vitaminu H B. * Vitaminu C C. Vitaminu PP D. Vitaminu A E. Vitaminu K 1050. A patient is hospitalized in a hospital with a diagnosis is a syndrome of the protracted squashing. Finiteness at a review – filling out, “wooden”. Anurya. At taking by a catheter urine of red color. The presence of what matter does influence on the color of urine? A. Haemoglobin B. Bilirubin C. * Myoglobin D. Coproporphyrin III E. Porfobilinogen 1051. A patient, which grumbles about pain in front breast area which is not taken off nitroglycerine, weakness, enhanceable perspire, is hospitalized in a clinic. For him cyanosys of lips, pallor of skin, is marked, bradicardia. 4 hours passed from the moment of beginning of anginose attack. Determination activity of what enzyme will allow to diagnose – heart attack of myocardium? A. * Creatinkinase (MB) B. LDG1 C. LDG5 D. AsAT E. AlAT 1052. A sportsmen leg has been injured during training. A traumatologist has diagnosed tendon rupture. What type of connective tissue forms this organ? A. Cartilaginous B. Dense irregular connective tissue C. Loose connective tissue D. Reticular E. * Dense regular connective tissue 1053. A woman of 30 years has disease for about a year, when she first felt pain in the joints region, intumescence, skin reddening. Probable diagnosis is pseudorheumatism. One of the possible reasons of this disease is the change in the structure of connective tissue protein: A. Mucin B. Ovoalbumin C. Troponin D. * Colagene E. Myosin 1054. ?After myocardial infarction pacients morphological heart wall integrity was regenerated. Owing to what tissues did the regeneration take place? A. Nerve B. Smooth muscle C. Striated muscle D. Epithelial E. * Connective 1055. At a sprint the untrained people have a muscle pain as a result of piling up of lactat. With strengthening of what biochemical process can it be constrained in organism? A. * Glycogenolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Pentosophosphate cycle D. Lipogeneses E. Glycogeneses 1056. By myocardial ischemia are characteristic decrease of oxidative phosphorylation and increase of aerobic metabolism. By this there is an increased activity of phosphorylase A and phosphofructokinase. This is connected with the increase in myocard of: A. Catecholamine B. * Glycogen C. Glucocorticoid D. Mineral corticoid E. Glucose 1057. For a patient the weakness of muscles, osteoporosis, atrophy of skin, bad cicatrization of wounds, is marked, laying of fat is increased in overhead part of body (on face, neck). At a blood test found out the increase of sodium and chlorine, and diminishing of potassium. What disease in this patient? A. Addison disease B. Reklingauzen disease C. * Icenko-kushing disease D. Bazedov disease E. Syndrome of Konn 1058. For a patient which has scurvy, violate the processes formation of connective tissue which resulted in dicking and fall of teeth. Violation activity of what enzyme does cause these symptoms? A. Glycosiltransferase B. C. D. E. Lizyloxidase * Lisynhydroxilase Prokolagenpeptidase N- terminal peptide Prokolagenpeptidase C - terminal peptide 1059. For a patient which suffers on chronic kidney insufficiency, developed osteoporosis. Violation of what process is principal reason development of osteoporosis? A. Hydroxylating of proline B. Hydroxylating of lysine C. Carboxylation of glutamate D. * Formation of 1,25(ОН)2 D3 E. Hydroxylating of cortisol 1060. For a patient with systematic scleriasis increased the biosynthesis of collogen and his disintegration. Concentration of what amino acid will be increased in urine of this patient? A. * Oxyproline B. Lysine C. 5-Oxitryptophan D. Serine E. Dioksiphenilalanine 1061. For patients with collagenose takes a place the process destruction of connective tissue. It is confirmed an increase in blood: A. Activity of isoenzymes of LDG B. Activity of transaminase C. Contents of urates D. Contents of creatin and creatinine E. * Contents of hydroxyproline and oxylisine 1062. For pregnant 28 years determine enzymes in the cells of amniotic liquid. Appeared insufficiensy activity of glucuronidase. What pathological process is observed? A. Aglicogenose B. Collagenoses C. * Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Glycogenosis E. Lipidosis 1063. For sportsmen after the physical loading the process of gluconeogenesis is activated after some time. Specify, what substrate is used in this process: A. * Lactat B. Valine C. Leucine D. Isoleucine E. Phenylalanine 1064. For the increase of results to sportsman recommended to accept preparation which contains carnitin. Which process in a most measure activated by carnitin? A. Synthesis of steroids hormones B. Synthesis of ketone bodies C. Synthesis of lipids D. Tissue respiration E. * Transport of fatty acids in mithohondria 1065. In a 23-years-old man diagnosed muscle dystrophy. Doctor for strengthening synthesis of pirimidine nucleotides appointed him: A. Ascorbic acid B. * Potassium orotat C. Lipoic acid D. Cokarboxilase E. Cyancobalamin 1066. In a clinic with the break of ribs got a patient with a hypercorticoidism. Roentgenologic analisis found out the osteoporoses changes of skeleton. Name one of reasons of such violations: A. Excessive synthesis of glycosaminoglycans B. * Ingibition of collagen synthesis C. Ingibition of vitamin D synthesis D. Excessive of calcium salts E. Excessive of phosphates 1067. In a hospital put got patient which have previous diagnosis – progressive muscular dystrophy. The presence of what substance in urine can confirm this diagnosis? A. * Creatin B. Creatine phosphate C. Creatinine D. Protein E. Hydroxyproline 1068. In blood of patient found out the increase activity of LDG1, LDG2, AsAT, creatinkinase. In which organ of patient the most reliable development of pathological process? A. Kidney B. Liver C. Skeletal muscles D. * Heart E. Pancreas 1069. In the organism of 7 years old girl was discovered lack of copper. The possibility of break of flexible fibres, in which desmosine and isodesmosine are absent, grows. This is caused by the decrease of activity of coppercontaining enzyme: A. Lysyl oxidase B. Proline hydrooxilase C. * Cytochrome oxidase D. Clastase E. Peptidase 1070. In the organism of patient found out the decline of synthesis of collogen and diminishing of calcium in bone tissues. Contents of hyaluronic acid is enhanceable, and chondroitin silphate is mionectic. The deficit of what vitamin does cause these changes? A. Vitamin C B. * Vitamin A C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin P E. Vitamin B1 1071. In the patient's blood plasma is discovered the increase of hyaluronidase activity. What biochemical figure of blood plasma determination will allow to prove the connective tissue pathology? A. * Sialic acid B. Bilirubin C. Uric acid D. Glucose E. Galactose 1072. It is known that possibilities of sportsman run on short or long distances determines by correlation of red and white muscular fibres, to what is related different speed breaking up of ATP. Which component of muscles does carry out this process? A. B. C. D. E. Troponin * Miosin Creatin Aktin Carnosine 1073. Patient complains for pain in joints. By sight can be seen edemas and reddening in the joints area. What enzyme activity to be investigated to draw out a diagnosis? A. Hyaluronidase B. * Creatine kinase C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Acidic phosphatase E. Urease 1074. Patient has muscle atony. Name the muscle tissue enzyme, which activity can be decreased by this state: A. A-glutamine transferase B. Amylase C. Transketolase D. * Creatine phosphokinase E. Catalase 1075. Patient has progressive myodystrophy. Name the figure of urine nitrogen metabolism, characteristic for this state. A. Creatine B. Ammonium salts C. * Creatinine D. Uric acid E. Urea 1076. Patient of 18 years has the diagnosis of muscle dystrophy. What matter increase in the blood plasma is the most possible by this pathology? A. Myoglobine B. * Creatine C. Myosin D. Lactate E. Alanine 1077. Patient of 46 years for a long time suffers from childhood pseudohypertrophic muscular (Duchenne's) dystrophy. What blood enzyme increase is the diagnostic test in this case? A. Adenylate kinase B. Lactate dehydrogenase C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase D. Glutamate dehydrogenase E. * Creatine phosphokinase 1078. Patient of 62 years has diabetes mellitus. Glomerulosclerosis has evolved. The most possible reason for this complication is the affection in renal plexus of: A. Calcium excretion B. Formation of primary urine C. Gluconeogenesis process D. Glucose reabsorption E. * Colagene structure 1079. Patient of 63 years has rheumatism. The concentration of oxiprolin in blood and urine is increased. What is the main reason of hyperoxiprolinemia? A. Hyaluroprotein degradation B. Colagene degradation C. Kidney malfunction D. Cathepsin activation E. * Prolyl hydroxylase activation 1080. Patient of 63 years has symptoms of pseudorheumatism. Which of the belowmentioned blood figures level increase will be the most important for diagnosis provement? A. General cholesterol B. Lipoprotein C. Total glycoaminglycans D. * Acid phosphatase E. R-glycosidase 1081. The increase fragility of vessels, destruction of enamel and dentine of teeth, at scurvy in majority is predefined a dyspoiesis stable triple spiral of collogen. What stage of modification of procollagen is violated at this avitaminosis? A. Formation of polipeptide chains B. * Hydroxylating of proline C. Glicolisation of hydroxilic tailings D. Pinch off from procollagen of С-final peptid E. Pinch off of N- final peptid 1082. The patient has myopathy. There is observed acute decrease of myofibrillar proteins in muscles. What urine component amount increase accompanies this disease? A. * Creatine B. Creatinine C. Urobilin D. Amylase E. Ketone bodies 1083. To the clinic got the child of 1 year with the signs of defeat of muscles. After inspection found out the deficit of carnitine in muscles. Violation of what process is biochemical basis of this pathology? A. Regulation level of Ca2+ in mitochondria B. * Ttransport of fatty acids in mitochondria C. Substrate phosphorylating D. Utilization of lactic acid E. Synthesis of actin and miosin 1084. To the cosmetologist a patient appealed with a request to deprive him tattoo on a shoulder. What matter which is contained in connective tissue does limit distribution of paint and does possible such type of “painting”? A. * Elastin B. Heparin C. Fibrinogen D. Hyaluronic acid E. Gamma-globulin 1085. To the patient with ischemic heart trouble appointed riboxine (Inosinum), which is an intermediate metabolite synthesis of: A. Metalloproteins B. Lipoproteins C. * Purine nucleotides D. Glycoproteins E. Ketone bodies 1086. To the patient with the torn tendon muscle of foot a doctor in a holiatry appointed ascorbic acid which will be instrumental in formation of mature collagen by hydroxylating of some amino acids. Which amino acids do test such changes? A. B. C. D. E. * Proline, lysine Phenilalanine, glycine Valine, leucine Tryptophane, treonine Histidin, arginine Test questions for figures 1. Deficiency of vitamin shown in figure 28 causes scurvy. Below named are the main clinical symptoms of scurvy, except: A. Gums bleeding B. Pain in heart C. Tachycardia D. * Xeroftalmia E. Petechias 2. A 48 year old woman is shown in figure 21. To 40 years she was in a normal state. What pathology did develop in an organism of this woman and what reasons are possible? A. * General obesity. Hypofunction of adenohypophysis B. Icenko-Kushing disease. Hyperproduction of ACTH C. Miksedema. Hypofunction of thyroid gland D. General obesity. Hypofunction of adrenal glands E. Masculinization. Hypofunction of sex glands 3. A direct precursor of heme is compound, marked by digit 1 in figure 70: A. Glycine B. Succcinyl-CoA C. Coproporphyrinogen D. Gamma-aminolevulinic acid E. * Protoporphyrin ІХ 4. A low concentration of PTH in blood that is shown in figure 33 causes A. Increase in plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorous B. Decrease in plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorous C. Increase in plasma calcium and decrease in plasma inorganic phosphorous D. * Decrease in plasma calcium and increase in plasma inorganic phosphorous E. Increase in plasma sodium 5. At the electrophoretic research of patient blood plasma shown in figure 31 found interferon. In the area of what fraction be found this protein? A. - Globulins B. Albumins C. С2 – Globulins D. * D - Globulins E. Е - Globulins 6. By a digit 2 in figure 43 the structure of collagen is marked: A. Primary B. * Tertiary C. Secondary D. Quaternary E. Domen 7. Catalytic activity of salivary amylase shown in figure 76 requires the presence of A. * Chloride ions B. Bromide ions C. Iodide ions D. Sodium ions E. All of these 8. Collagen, structure of its molecule represented in figure 43, belongs to: A. Simple proteins B. * Glycoproteins C. Lipoproteins D. Phosphoproteins E. Nucleoproteins 9. Composition of saliva is shown in figure 76.What matter in composition of saliva is synthesized in salivary glands and causes thick mucus character of saliva ? A. Phosphates B. Sulfates C. * Mucin D. Amylase E. Maltase 10. DNA replication scheme is shown in figure 90. What enzyme is indicated by the digit 1? A. Primase B. DNA-polymerase C. Ligase D. * Helicase E. Transferase 11. DNA replication scheme is shown in figure 90. What enzyme is indicated by the digit 4? A. Primase B. * DNA-polymerase C. Ligase D. Helicase E. Transferase 12. DNA replication scheme is shown in figure 90. What is indicated by the digit 2? A. Primase B. DNA-polymerase C. Ligase D. Helicase E. * Primer 13. DNA replication scheme is shown in figure 90. What is indicated by the digit 3? A. Primase B. DNA-polymerase C. Ligase D. Helicase E. * Okazaki fragments 14. DNA replication scheme is shown in figure 91. What is indicated by the digit 1? A. Primase B. DNA-polymerase C. Ligase D. Helicase E. * Okazaki fragments 15. DNA replication scheme is shown in figure 91. What is indicated by the digit 2? A. * Leading strand B. Lagging strand C. Ligase D. Helicase E. Okazaki fragments 16. DNA replication scheme is shown in figure 91. What is indicated by the digit 3? A. Leading strand B. * Lagging strand C. Ligase D. Helicase E. Okazaki fragments 17. Double-stranded DNA is shown in figure 87. Which bonds pair nitrogenous bases in one strand with bases in the opposite strand? A. Peptide bond B. Ester bond C. Glycosidic bond D. * Hydrogen bond E. Phosphodiester bond 18. Excess of F in an organism, particular in children, causes a fluorosis shown in figure 50 and such pathology of teeth as: A. Hypoplasia B. * Hyperplasia C. Loose of teeth D. Caries E. Excess of F is not dangerous for teeth 19. Fluorosis that is shown in figure 50 occurs due to: A. Drinking water without fluorine B. Drinking water containing high calcium C. * Drinking water containing excessive amount of fluroine D. Drinking water containing heavy metals E. All of these 20. Fluorosis that is shown in figure 50 occurs due to excessive intake of fluoride.Main source of fluoride for human beings is: A. Milk B. * Water C. Vegetables D. Eggs E. All of these 21. For transformation, shown in figure 70 , the presence of ions, marked by digit 2 is needed: A. Fe3+ B. * Fe2+ C. Transferrin D. Ferritin E. Fe3+ and transferrin 22. Formula of vitamin C is shown in figure 28. What disease is developed in the vitamin C deficiency? A. * Scurvy. B. Pellagra. C. Beri-beri. D. Dermatitis. E. Neuritis 23. Formula of which vitamin is shown in figure 71? A. B1 B. B5 C. B6 D. B10 E. * B12 24. Good diet source for the compounds shown in figure 79 is: A. Carrots B. Apples C. Lemons D. * Oil E. Bread 25. In a figure 47 the structure of proteoglycan is schematically represented. What is marked with digit 1? A. * Core protein B. Albumin C. Immunoglobulin D. Hyaluronic acid E. Procollagen 26. In a figure 47 the structure of proteoglycan is schematically represented. What is marked with digits 2, 3, 4? A. * Glycosaminoglycans B. Glycoproteins C. Homopolysaccharides D. Monosaccharides E. Glycolipids 27. In a figure 47 the structure of proteoglycan is schematically represented, where by numbers 2, 3, 4 the molecules of glycosaminoglycans are marked. They are all the below mentioned compounds, except: A. * Gangliosides B. Chondroitin sulphates C. Keratan sulphates D. Dermatan sulphates E. Heparan sulphates 28. In a figure 49 compound that is the component of mineral basis of dentine is represented. Choose it from the below mentioned: A. Strontium apatite B. Fluorapatite C. Hydroxyapatite D. Collagen E. Fibronectin 29. In a figure 49 compound that is the component of mineral basis of enamel is represented. Choose it from the below mentioned: A. Strontium apatite B. Fluorapatite C. Hydroxyapatite D. Collagen E. Fibronectin 30. In a figure 49 compound that is the component of mineral basis of cementum is represented. Choose it from the below mentioned: A. Strontium apatite B. Fluorapatite C. Hydroxyapatite D. Collagen E. Fibronectin 31. In a figure 49 the structure of hydroxyapatite is represented, that is the component of mineral basis of dentine. Choose it formula from the below mentioned: A. Са9Н2 (РО4)6(ОН)2 B. Са10 (РО4)6(ОН)2 C. Са10 (РО4)6F2 D. Са10 (РО4)6 E. Са20 (РО4)6(ОН)2 32. In a figure 49 the structure of hydroxyapatite is represented, that is the component of mineral basis of enamel. Choose it formula from the below mentioned: A. Са9Н2 (РО4)6(ОН)2 B. Са10 (РО4)6(ОН)2 C. Са10 (РО4)6F2 D. Са10 (РО4)6 E. Са20 (РО4)6(ОН)2 33. In figure 44 the formulas (№1, № 2) are shown that met mainly in the molecules of proteins of connective tissue: A. Oxytriptophan, oxyphenilalanine B. * Hydroxyproline, oxylysine C. Treonin, hydroxyproline D. Serine, oxylysine E. Lysine, arginine 34. In figure 45 desmosin - the structural component of elastin is represented. Residues of what amino acid do it form? A. * Lysine B. Oxylysine C. Proline D. Hydroxy-proline E. Thyrosin 35. In saliva there is an enzyme which has a strong bactericide action due to ability to destroy 1-4 glycoside bonds of peptide-glycans of bacterial wall that is shown in figure 53. Choose this enzyme: A. Amylase B. * Lysocyme (muraminidase) C. Trypsin D. Phosphatase E. Ribonuclease 36. In saliva there is an enzyme which has a strong bactericide action due to ability to destroy 1-4 glycoside bonds of peptide-glycans of bacterial wall that is shown in figure 53. Choose this enzyme: A. Amylase B. * Lysocyme (muraminidase) C. Trypsin D. Phosphatase E. Ribonuclease 37. In saliva there is an enzyme which has a strong bactericide action due to ability to destroy 1-4 glycoside bonds of peptide-glycans of bacterial wall that is shown in figure 53. Choose this enzyme: A. Amylase B. * Lyzocyme (muraminidase) C. Trypsin D. Phosphatase E. Ribonuclease 38. Lack of which vitamin causes disorders of hydroxylation of proline and lysine in composition of collagen fibres shown in figure 43? A. Vitamin E B. Vitamin K C. Vitamin A D. Thiamin E. * Vitamin C 39. Lysozyme is a antibacterial factor, muraminidase as a mechanism of action (splits 1-4 glycoside bonds of muramine that is shown in figure 53). What class of enzymes does it belong to? A. Transferases B. Oxidoreductases C. Lyases D. Isomerases E. * Hydrolases 40. Molecule of collagen, the structure of that is represented in figure 43 contains near thousand amino acid residues, among the one third of them is: A. Alanine B. * Glycine C. Proline D. Lysine E. Serine 41. Normal metabolism of bile pigments is shown in figure 98. Which enzyme is replaced with character 10 in this scheme? A. UDP-glucoronyltransferase B. * Glucoronidase C. Bilirubinidase D. Stercobilinidase E. Mesobilinidase 42. Normal metabolism of bile pigments is shown in figure 98. Which compound is replaced with character 1 in this scheme? A. * Verdoglobin B. Biliverdin C. Indirect bilirubin D. Mesobilirubin E. Mesobilinogen 43. Normal metabolism of bile pigments is shown in figure 98. Which compound is replaced with character 2 in this scheme? A. Verdoglobin B. * Biliverdin C. Indirect bilirubin D. Mesobilirubin E. Mesobilinogen 44. Normal metabolism of bile pigments is shown in figure 98. Which compound is replaced with character 3 in this scheme? A. Verdoglobin B. Biliverdin C. * Indirect bilirubin D. Mesobilirubin E. Mesobilinogen 45. Normal metabolism of bile pigments is shown in figure 98. Which compound is replaced with character 5 in this scheme? A. Verdoglobin B. Biliverdin C. Indirect bilirubin D. * Mesobilirubin E. Mesobilinogen 46. Normal metabolism of bile pigments is shown in figure 98. Which compound is replaced with character 6 in this scheme? A. Verdoglobin B. Biliverdin C. Indirect bilirubin D. Mesobilirubin E. * Mesobilinogen 47. Normal metabolism of bile pigments is shown in figure 98. Which compound is replaced with character 7 in this scheme? A. Verdoglobin B. Biliverdin C. Indirect bilirubin D. Mesobilirubin E. * Stercobilinogen 48. Normal metabolism of bile pigments is shown in figure 98. Which compound is replaced with character 8 in this scheme? A. Verdoglobin B. Biliverdin C. Indirect bilirubin D. * Stercobilin E. Stercobilinogen 49. Normal metabolism of bile pigments is shown in figure 98. Which enzyme is replaced with character 4 in this scheme? A. * UDP-glucoronyltransferase B. Glucoronidase C. Bilirubinidase D. Stercobilinidase E. Mesobilinidase 50. Obesity of the face (“moon face“) shown in figure 23 is specific for: A. The deficit of ACTH in the organism B. * The excess of ACTH in the organism C. The deficit of insulin in the organism D. The excess of insulin in the organism E. The excess of STH in the organism before puberty 51. Plastic, trophyc, sensory - are the functions of the following tooth tissue (figure 51): A. Enamel (digit 3) B. * Pulp(digit 5) C. Cementum (digit 6) D. Dentine (digit 4) E. Periodontal ligaments (digit 7) 52. Posttranscriptional modification of RNA is shown in figure 92. What is indicated by the digit 1? A. * Exons B. Introns C. Okazaki fragments D. Ligase E. Polymerase 53. Posttranscriptional modification of RNA is shown in figure 92. What is indicated by the digit 2? A. Exons B. * Introns C. Okazaki fragments D. Ligase E. Polymerase 54. Saliva is a mixed secret containing water, organic and inorganic components. In composition saliva over 100 enzymes are selected. What substrate isn’t decomposed with the partisipation of amylase and is indicated with a question-mark in figure 76? A. Lactose B. Glycogen C. Starch D. * Triglycerides E. Maltose 55. Saliva is a mixed secret containing water, organic and inorganic components. In composition saliva over 100 enzymes are selected. What substrate is decomposed with the partisipation of amylase and is indicated with a question-mark in figure 76? A. Proteins B. Cholesterol C. * Starch D. Triglycerides E. Maltose 56. Saliva is a mixed secret containing water, organic and inorganic components. What maintenance of mucin is marked with digit 2 in figure 76? A. * 2,0-3,0 g/l B. 2,0-5,0 mg/l C. 0,8-1,5 g/l D. 15-25 g/l E. 10-12 g/l 57. Saliva is a mixed secret which containing water, organic and inorganic components. What maintenance of lysozyme is marked with digit 3 in figure 76? A. 2,0-3,0 g/l B. 2,0-5,0 mg/l C. 0,15-0,25 g/l D. 15-25 g/l E. 10-12 g/l 58. Saliva is a mixed secret which contains water, organic and inorganic components. What maintenance of water is marked with digit 1in figure 76? A. * 99% B. 25% C. 50% D. 10% E. 80% 59. Scheme of monooxygenase system is shown in figure 80. Which components are replaced with character 1 in this scheme? A. TPP and TMP B. * FAD and FADH2 C. PLP and PMP D. Cytochrome b5 and cytochrome c E. Cytochrome P450 (Fe2+) and Cytochrome P450 (Fe3+) 60. Scheme of monooxygenase system is shown in figure 80. Which components are replaced with character 2 in this scheme? A. TPP and TMP B. FAD and FADH2 C. PLP and PMP D. Cytochrome b5 and cytochrome c E. * Cytochrome P450 (Fe2+) and Cytochrome P450 (Fe3+) 61. Scheme of monooxygenase system is shown in figure 80. Which components are replaced with character 3 in this scheme? A. H2 B. * H2O C. O2 D. H2O2 E. OH 62. Scheme of regulation of blood pressure by kidneys is shown in figure 99. Which component is replaced with character 1 in this scheme? A. * Rhenin B. Angiotensin I C. Kallikrein D. Kallikreinogen E. Aldosteron 63. Scheme of regulation of blood pressure by kidneys is shown in figure 99. Which component is replaced with character 2 in this scheme? A. Rhenin B. * Angiotensin I C. Kallikrein D. Kallikreinogen E. Aldosteron 64. Scheme of regulation of blood pressure by kidneys is shown in figure 99. Which enzyme is replaced with character 3 in this scheme? A. Dehydrogenase B. Angiotensin I isomerase C. Angiotensin I hydratase D. Rhenin E. * Angiotensin-converting enzyme 65. Scheme of regulation of blood pressure by kidneys is shown in figure 99. Which component is replaced with character 4 in this scheme? A. Rhenin B. Angiotensin I C. Kallikrein D. Kallikreinogen E. * Aldosteron 66. Scheme of regulation of blood pressure by kidneys is shown in figure 99. Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular reabsorption of: A. Sodium and calcium B. Sodium and potassium C. * Sodium and chloride D. Potassium and chloride E. Calcium 67. Scheme of regulation of blood pressure by kidneys is shown in figure 99. Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular reabsorption of sodium and chloride and the tubular secretion of: A. Sodium B. * Potassium C. Chloride D. Bicarbonate E. Phosphate 68. Structure of collagen molecule is represented in figure 43. It contains in the composition amino acid that are specific for this protein: A. Oxytriptophan, oxyphenilalanine B. * Hydroxyproline, oxylysine C. Treonin, hydroxyproline D. Serine, oxylysine E. Lysine, arginine 69. The bond indicated by question-mark in figure 86 is called: A. Peptide bond B. Ester bond C. Glycosidic bond D. Hydrogen bond E. * Phosphodiester bond 70. The characteristic of hypoparathyroidism that is shown in figure 33 is A. Low serum calcium B. High serum phosphorous C. * Low serum calcium and high serum phosphorous D. High serum calcium and low serum phosphate E. Acidosis 71. The clinical symptom shown in figure 22 is specific for: A. * Hyperproduction of thyroxin B. Hypoproduction of thyroxin C. Hyperproduction of somatotropic hormone D. Hypoproduction of somatotropic hormone E. Hyperproduction of adrenocorticotropic hormone 72. The clinical symptom shown in figure 26 is specific for: A. Hyperproduction of thyroxin B. * Hypoproduction of thyroxin C. Hyperproduction of somatotropic hormone D. Hypoproduction of somatotropic hormone E. Hyperproduction of adrenocorticotropic hormone 73. The clinical symptom shown in figure 78 is caused by: A. * Intensified conversion of cylindrical epithelium into horny due to the vitamin A hypovitaminosis B. Inhibition of prolin hydroxylation due to vitamin C hypovitaminosis C. Inhibition of methylation reactions due to vitamin B10 hypovitaminosis D. Inhibition of pyruvate decarboxylation due to vitamin B1 hypovitaminosis E. Inhibition of alpha-ketoglutarate decarboxylation due to vitamin B5 hypovitaminosis 74. The clinical symptom shown in figure 78 is specific for the deficit of vitamin: A. D B. E C. PP D. * A E. K 75. The clinical symptom shown in figure 78 is specific for the deficit of vitamin A. An important function of vitamin A is A. To act as coenzyme for a few enzymes B. To play an integral role in protein synthesis C. To prevent hemorrhages D. * To maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue E. A and C only 76. The clinical symptom shown in figure 78 is specific for the deficit of vitamin A. Vitamin A play a general role in the folowing biochemical processes, except: A. * The transport of Ca2+ across certain membranes B. Processes of growth and cell differentiation C. Inhibits the oxidation of hemoglobin D. Processes of glycoproteins formation E. Reduces the disulfide bonds to sulfhydril bonds 77. The complex of compounds shown in figure 79 is considered as vitamin. What vitamin is it? A. D B. E C. * F D. A E. K 78. The compound shown in figure 77 is the precursor of vitamin: A. * A B. D C. E D. K E. F 79. The compound shown in figure 77 is the precursor of vitamin: A. * Retinol B. Cholecalcipherol C. Tocopherol D. Quinone E. Ergocalcipherol 80. The deficit of compounds shown in figure 79 results in: A. Rickets B. Hemorrhage C. Polyneuritis D. * Atherosclerosis E. Osteoporosis 81. The deficit of what hormone can result in the state, represented in figure 33? A. Calcitonin B. Epinephrine C. Aldosterone D. Oxytocin E. * Parathormone 82. The derivates of what vitamin are compounds, represented in figure 65? A. Nicotinamide B. * Pyridoxal C. Naphtoquinon D. Retinal E. Thiamin 83. The disease shown in figure 96 used to was usually found in: A. North American countries B. European countries C. African countries D. * Asian countries E. Australia 84. The disease, symptoms of which are shown in figure 96, is caused by the: A. chronic hypovitaminosis P B. chronic hypovitaminosis B12 C. chronic hypovitaminosis D D. chronic hypovitaminosis K E. * chronic hypovitaminosis B1 85. The disease, symptoms of which are shown in figure 29, is caused by the: A. chronic hypovitaminosis P B. chronic hypovitaminosis B12 C. chronic hypovitaminosis D D. chronic hypovitaminosis K E. * chronic hypovitaminosis B5 86. The flow of genetic information in cell is shown in figure 88. This process is called: A. * The main postulate of molecular biology B. Processing C. Splicing D. Posttranscriptional modification of RNA E. Reverse transcription 87. The formula of what compound is represented in figure 71? A. Ergocalciferol B. * Cyancobalamin C. Cholecalciferol D. Hem E. Dinucleotide 88. The formula of what vitamin is represented with a digit 1 in figure 28? A. Nicotinic acid B. * Ascorbic acid C. Folic acid D. Pantothenic acid E. Dehydroascorbic acid 89. The fragment of nucleic acid chain is shown in figure 86. It consists of: A. * Adenine mononucleotide and guanine mononucleotide B. Adenine mononucleotide and thymine mononucleotide C. Guanine mononucleotide and thymine mononucleotide D. Adenine mononucleotide and cytosine mononucleotide E. Cytosine mononucleotide and thymine mononucleotide 90. The fragment of which macromolecule is shown in figure 86? A. Starch B. Glycogen C. Protein D. Triacylglycerol E. * Nucleic acid 91. The good diet source for the compound shown in figure 77 is: A. Liver B. Milk C. Eggs D. * Carrot E. Fish oil 92. The mechanism of DNA replication shown in figure 89 is called: A. Conservative B. * Semiconservative C. Facilitated D. Very conservative E. Passive 93. The medical symptom shown in figure 18 is specific for: A. The deficit of STH in the organism of adults B. * The excess of STH in the organism of adults C. The deficit of ACTH in the organism of children D. The excess of ACTH in the organism of children E. The deficit of TTH in the organism of adults 94. The medical syndrome shown in figure 17 is specific for: A. * The deficit of STH in the organism B. The excess of STH in the organism C. The deficit of ACTH in the organism D. The excess of ACTH in the organism E. The deficit of TTH in the organism 95. The medical syndrome shown in figure 18 (unproportionally intensive growth of jaw) is specific for: A. The deficit of STH in the organism of adults B. * The excess of STH in the organism of adults C. The deficit of ACTH in the organism of children D. The excess of ACTH in the organism of children E. The excess of STH in the organism before puberty 96. The organic components of tooth tissues (digits 3, 4, 6 in figure 51) are the following compounds, except: A. Albumins, globulins B. Glycoprotein, proteoglycan C. * Triacylglycerols D. Phosphoproteins E. Alkaline and acidic phosphatase 97. The protective function of saliva is predefined a few mechanisms, including presence of enzyme, which has a bactericidal action, causes the lysis of polysaccharide complex of membranes of staphylococcuss, streptococci. Choose this enzyme from components of saliva, shown in figure 76. A. Beta-glyucuronidase B. Alfa-amylase C. Oligo-1,6-glucosidase D. Collagenase E. * Lysozyme 98. The scheme of digestion of nucleoproteins is shown in figure 82. Which enzyme is indicated by digit 1? A. Phosphatase B. Nucleosidase C. Nucleotidase D. Nuclease E. * Pepsin 99. The scheme of digestion of nucleoproteins is shown in figure 82. Which enzyme is indicated by digit 2? A. Phosphatase B. Nucleosidase C. Nucleotidase D. * Nuclease E. Pepsin 100. The scheme of digestion of nucleoproteins is shown in figure 82. Which enzyme is indicated by digit 3? A. Phosphatase B. Nucleosidase C. * Phosphodiestherase D. Nuclease E. Pepsin 101. The scheme of digestion of nucleoproteins is shown in figure 82. Which enzyme is indicated by digit 4? A. * Phosphatase B. Nucleosidase C. Nucleotidase D. Nuclease E. Pepsin 102. The scheme of digestion of nucleoproteins is shown in figure 82. Which enzyme is indicated by digit 5? A. Phosphatase B. * Nucleosidase C. Nucleotidase D. Nuclease E. Pepsin 103. The structure of purine is shown in figure 85. What is the origin of atoms indicated by digit 4? A. CO2 B. Glycine C. Folate D. * Gluthamine E. Aspartate 104. The structure of purine is shown in figure 85. What is the origin of atom indicated by digit 5? A. CO2 B. Glycine C. * Folate D. Gluthamine E. Aspartate 105. The structure of purine is shown in figure 85. What is the origin of atom indicated by digit 6? A. CO2 B. Glycine C. Folate D. Gluthamine E. * Aspartate 106. The structure of purine is shown in figure 85. What is the origin of atom indicated by digit 3? A. CO2 B. Glycine C. * Folate D. Gluthamine E. Aspartate 107. The structure of purine is shown in figure 85. What is the origin of atoms indicated by digit 2? A. CO2 B. * Glycine C. Folate D. Gluthamine E. Aspartate 108. The structure of tRNA is shown in figure 93. What is the name of fragment indicated by question mark? A. Codon B. * Anticodon C. Exon D. Intron E. Okazaki fragment 109. The structure of tRNA is shown in figure 93. What is the function of fragment indicated by question mark? A. * It complementary binds to codon of mRNA B. It binds to amino acid C. It starts the transcription process D. It binds to rRNA E. It starts the translation process 110. The structure of what molecule is represented in figure 43? A. Myosin B. * Tropocollagen C. Fibrinogen D. Elastin E. Glycoseaminoglycan 111. ?The symptoms depicted in figure 6 are specific for: A. Phenylketonuria B. Diabetes mellitus C. Uremia D. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency E. * Gout 112. The symptoms depicted in figure 6 are specific for: A. Phenylketonuria B. Diabetes mellitus C. Uremia D. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency E. * Gout 113. The symptoms of which disease is shown in figure 29? A. Scurvy B. * Pellagra C. Berry-Berry D. Rickets E. Pernicious anemia 114. What blood plasma proteins are marked with a digit 2 in figure 31? A. Fibrinogen B. Alfa2-globulins C. Gamma globulins D. * Alfa1-globulins E. Albumins 115. What blood plasma proteins are marked with a digit 3 in figure 31? A. Beta globulins B. * Alfa2-globulins C. Gamma globulins D. Alfa1-globulins E. Albumins 116. What blood plasma proteins are marked with a digit 4 in figure 31? A. * Beta globulins B. C. D. E. Alfa2-globulins Gamma globulins Alfa1-globulins Albumins 117. What blood plasma proteins are marked with a digit 5 in figure 31? A. Beta globulins B. Alfa2-globulins C. * Gamma globulins D. Alfa1-globulins E. Albumins 118. What blood plasma proteins are marked with a number 1 in figure 31? A. Beta globulins B. Alfa2-globulins C. Gamma globulins D. Alfa1-globulins E. * Albumins 119. What coenzyme is represented with digit 1 in figure 65 and the derivates of what vitamin is it? A. PALP. B1 B. TPP. B6 C. PAMP. B6 D. FMN. B2 E. * PALP. B6 120. What coenzyme is represented with digit 2 in figure 65 and the derivates of what vitamin is it? A. PALP. B1 B. TPP. B6 C. PAMP. B6 D. FMN. B2 E. * PALP. B6 121. What form has a fiber of the molecules represented in figure 43? A. Globular B. * Triple spiral C. Double spiral D. Beta structure E. Domen 122. What is represented in figure 31? A. * An electrophorogramme of plasma proteins of healthy person B. Lipogramm of proteins of healthy person C. Chromatogramm of amino acid D. An electrophorogramme of plasma proteins at the liver cirrhosis E. Electrophorogramme of carbohydrates of healthy person 123. What is the name of enzyme E1 shown in figure 83? A. Hexokinase B. * Arginase C. Xanthine oxidase D. Catalase E. Glucose oxidase 124. What is the name of enzyme E2 shown in figure 83? A. Hexokinase B. Arginase C. * Xanthine oxidase D. Catalase E. Glucose oxidase 125. What part of tooth (in 100g of tissues) that is shown in figure 51 contains: 2,5 g of water, 4 g of organic compounds, 95 g of inorganic compounds? A. * Enamel (digit 3) B. Pulp(digit 5) C. Cementum (digit 6) D. Dentine (digit 4) E. Periodontal ligaments (digit 7) 126. What process is depicted in figure 92? A. DNA Replication B. Transcription C. Translation D. * Processing E. Recognition 127. What process is shown in figure 89? A. * Replication B. Transcription C. Translation D. Posttranslational DNA modification E. Recognition 128. What process is shown in figure 90? A. * Replication B. Transcription C. Translation D. Posttranslational DNA modification E. Recognition 129. What process is shown in figure 91? A. * Replication B. Transcription C. Translation D. Posttranslational DNA modification E. Recognition 130. What radicals of porphyrin ring, marked with digits 3 in figure 70 : A. * -СН3 B. -СН2-СН2-СООН C. -СООН D. -СН2-СН2-ОН E. -NH2 131. What radicals of porphyrin ring, marked with digits 4 in figure 70 : A. -NH2 B. -СН3 C. -СН2-СН2-СООН D. -СН2-ОН E. -СН2-СН2-NH2 132. What structure is shown in figure 87? A. Single-stranded DNA B. Single-stranded RNA C. Protein D. * Double-stranded DNA E. Double-stranded RNA 133. What structure is shown in figure 93? A. B. C. D. E. mRNA * tRNA rRNA DNA None of the above 134. What structure of elastin is represented in figure 45? A. * Desmosin B. Allysin C. Lysylaldehyde D. Desmocollagen E. Desmolysin 135. What tooth tissue (figure 51) containes: (in 100g of tissues): water – 32g, organic matters – 25g, inorganic matters – 46g? A. Root (digit 2) B. Pulp(digit 5) C. Dentine (digit 4) D. * Cementum (digit 6) E. Enamel (digit 3) 136. What tooth tissue that is shown in figure 51 contains (in 100g of tissues): water – 13g, organic matters – 20g, inorganic matters – 69g? A. Enamel (digit 3) B. Pulp(digit 5) C. Cementum (digit 6) D. * Dentine (digit 4) E. Periodontal ligaments (digit 7) 137. Where are hormones shown in figure 24 produced? A. Pituitary gland B. Hypothalamus C. * Thyroid gland D. Sex glands E. Parathyroid glands 138. Which compound is indicated by digit 1 in figure 83? A. Urea B. Uric acid C. * Xanthine D. Adenine E. Guanine 139. Which compound is indicated by digit 2 in figure 83? A. Urea B. * Uric acid C. Xanthine D. Adenine E. Guanine 140. Which compound is replaced with character 1 in scheme shown in figure 84? A. * 7-dehydrocholesterol B. Cholecalciferol C. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol D. 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol E. Ergocalciferol 141. Which compound is replaced with character 2 in scheme shown in figure 84? A. 7-dehydrocholesterol B. Cholecalciferol C. * 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol D. 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol E. Ergocalciferol 142. Which compound is replaced with character 3 in scheme shown in figure 84? A. 7-dehydrocholesterol B. Cholecalciferol C. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol D. * 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol E. Ergocalciferol 143. Which diet can cause the disease shown in figure 29? A. Black bread B. Meat C. Rice D. Eggs E. * Corn 144. Which diet can cause the disease shown in figure 96? A. Black bread B. Meat C. * Polish rice D. Eggs E. Liver 145. Which disease can be developed in the disorders of the biochemical pathway shown in figure 84? A. Scurvy B. Pellagra C. Berry-Berry D. * Rickets E. Pernicious anemia 146. Which disease is shown in figure 96? A. Scurvy B. Pellagra C. * Berry-Berry D. Rickets E. Pernicious anemia 147. Which enzyme decomposes the bond indicated by digit 1 in the compound shown in figure 81? A. * Phosphatase B. Nucleosidase C. Nucleotidase D. Nuclease E. Pepsin 148. Which enzyme decomposes the bond indicated by digit 2 in the compound shown in figure 81? A. Phosphatase B. * Nucleosidase C. Nucleotidase D. Nuclease E. Pepsin 149. Which hormone stimulates the formation of the compound 3 (see figure 84)? A. Thyroxin B. Triiodthyronin C. * Parathormone D. Insulin E. Glucagon 150. Which of the below coenzymes is required for the reactions indicated by arrows in figure 95? A. * TPP B. TGFA C. Methycobalamin D. PLP E. PMP 151. Which of the below vitamins is required for the biochemical pathway III shown in figure 73? A. C B. * B1 C. B6 D. B10 E. B12 152. Which of the below vitamins is required for the biochemical pathway III shown in figure 73? A. C B. * B2 C. B6 D. B10 E. B12 153. Which of the below vitamins is required for the biochemical pathway III shown in figure 73? A. C B. * B3 C. B6 D. B10 E. B12 154. Which of the below vitamins is required for the biochemical pathway shown in figure 74? A. C B. * B5 C. B6 D. B10 E. B12 155. Which of the below vitamins is required for the biochemical pathway shown in figure 74? A. Thiamin B. Folic acid C. Riboflavin D. Retinol E. * Nicotinamide 156. Which of the below vitamins is required for the biochemical reaction shown in figure 75? A. B1 B. * B5 C. B6 D. B10 E. B12 157. Which of the below vitamins is required for the biochemical reaction shown in figure 75? A. Thiamin B. Folic acid C. Cyanocobalamin D. Pyridoxin E. * Nicotinamide 158. Which of the below vitamins is required for the biochemical pathway III shown in figure 73? A. C B. * B5 C. B6 D. B10 E. B12 159. Which of the following biochemical symptoms are specific for the disease shown in figure 96? A. * The increase of ketoacids concentration in blood B. The decrease of ketoacids concentration in blood C. The increase of fatty acids concentration in blood D. The decrease of fatty acids concentration in blood E. The decrease of glucose concentration in blood 160. Which of the following hormones is produced in the gland indicated by digit 2 in figure 94? A. Somatoliberin B. Thyroliberin C. Corticoliberin D. Foliliberin E. * Somatotropic hormone 161. Which of the following hormones is produced in the gland indicated by digit 2 in figure 94? A. Somatoliberin B. * ACTH C. Corticoliberin D. Foliliberin E. Thyroliberin 162. Which of the following hormones is produced in the gland indicated by digit 2 in figure 94? A. Somatoliberin B. Thyroliberin C. Corticoliberin D. Foliliberin E. * Thyrotropic hormone 163. Which of the following hormones is produced in the gland indicated by digit 1 in figure 94? A. STH B. ACTH C. TTH D. * Somatostatin E. Luteinizing hormone 164. Which of the following hormones is produced in the gland indicated by digit 1 in figure 94? A. STH B. C. D. E. ACTH TTH * Luteinising-hormone liberin Luteinizing hormone 165. Which of the following hormones is produced in the gland indicated by digit 1 in figure 94? A. STH B. ACTH C. TTH D. * Somatoliberin E. Luteinizing hormone 166. Which of the following symptoms are specific for the disease shown in figure 29? A. * Dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia B. Dermatitis, xerophthalmia, keratomalacia C. Dermatitis, hemorrhage, loss of teeth D. Dermatitis, sterility, muscle atrophy E. Dermatitis, pernicious anemia, growth retardation 167. Which pathway is shown in figure 83? A. Synthesis of urea B. * Synthesis of uric acid C. Synthesis of ketone bodies D. Glycolysis E. Gluconeogenesis 168. Which process is shown in figure 88? A. Processing B. Posttranscriptional modification of RNA C. Splicing D. * The flow of genetic information in cell E. Reverse transcription 169. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway shown in figure 97? A. B1 B. B12 C. * B2 D. B6 E. B15 170. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway shown in figure 97? A. B1 B. B12 C. * B5 D. B6 E. B15 171. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway shown in figure 97? A. Thiamin B. Folic acid C. * Riboflavin D. Retinol E. Tocopherol 172. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway shown in figure 97? A. Thiamin B. Folic acid C. * Niacin D. Retinol E. Tocopherol 173. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway I shown in figure 73? A. B1 B. * B5 C. B6 D. B10 E. B12 174. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway I shown in figure 73? A. Thiamin B. Folic acid C. * Nicotinamide D. Retinol E. Tocopherol 175. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway II shown in figure 73? A. * B1 B. B3 C. B6 D. B10 E. B12 176. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway II shown in figure 73? A. B2 B. * B5 C. B6 D. B10 E. B12 177. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway II shown in figure 73? A. * Thiamin B. Folic acid C. Ribiflavin D. Retinol E. Tocopherol 178. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway II shown in figure 73? A. * Niacin B. Folic acid C. Ribiflavin D. Retinol E. Tocopherol 179. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway IV shown in figure 73? A. B2 B. * B5 C. B6 D. B10 E. B12 180. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway IV shown in figure 73? A. Thiamin B. Folic acid C. Ribiflavin D. Retinol E. * Nicotinamide 181. Which vitamin is required for the nonoxidative phase of biochemical pathway shown in figure 72? A. * Thiamin B. C. D. E. Folic acid Nicotinic acid Retinol Tocopherol 182. Which vitamin is required for the nonoxidative phase of biochemical pathway shown in figure 72? A. * B1 B. B5 C. B6 D. B10 E. B12 183. Which vitamin is required for the oxidative phase of biochemical pathway shown in figure 72? A. Thiamin B. Folic acid C. * Nicotinic acid D. Retinol E. Tocopherol 184. Which vitamin is required for the oxidative phase of biochemical pathway shown in figure 72? A. B2 B. * B5 C. B6 D. B10 E. B12 185. Which vitamin is required for the reaction 2 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 100? A. Cyanocobalamin B. Ascorbic acid C. Folic acid D. * Niacin E. Thiamin 186. Which vitamin is required for the reaction 3 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 100? A. B10 B. B12 C. * B2 D. B6 E. C 187. Which vitamin is required for the reaction 3 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 100? A. B10 B. B12 C. * B3 D. B6 E. C 188. Which vitamin is required for the reaction 3 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 100? A. B10 B. B12 C. * B5 D. B6 E. C 189. Which vitamin is required for the reaction 3 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 100? A. B10 B. B12 C. * B1 D. B6 E. C 190. Which vitamin is required for the reaction 5 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 100? A. B1 B. * B2 C. B5 D. B6 E. B10 191. Which vitamin is required for the reaction 7 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 100? A. B1 B. B2 C. * B5 D. B6 E. B10 192. Which vitamin is required for the reactions indicated by arrows in figure 95? A. Cyanocobalamin B. Ascorbic acid C. Folic acid D. * Thyamin E. Retinol 193. Which vitamin is required for the reactions indicated by arrows in figure 95? A. * B1 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. C 194. Which vitamin is required for the reactions indicated by arrows in figure 95? A. Cyanocobalamin B. Ascorbic acid C. Folic acid D. * Riboflavin E. Retinol 195. Which vitamin is required for the reactions indicated by arrows in figure 95? A. Cyanocobalamin B. Ascorbic acid C. Folic acid D. * Pantothenic acid E. Retinol 196. Which vitamin is required for the reactions indicated by arrows in figure 95? A. Cyanocobalamin B. Ascorbic acid C. Folic acid D. * Niacin E. Retinol 197. Which vitamin is the constituent of all compounds participating in biochemical pathway shown in figure 97? A. B5 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. * B3 198. Which vitamin is the constituent of the compound indicated by question mark in figure 100? A. B5 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. * B3 199. Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reaction 3 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 100? A. * B2 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. C 200. Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reaction 3 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 100? A. * B3 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. C 201. Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reaction 3 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 100? A. * B5 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. C 202. Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reaction 3 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 100? A. * B1 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. C 203. Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reaction 5 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 100? A. * B2 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. C 204. Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reaction 7 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 100? A. * B5 B. C. D. E. B6 B10 B12 C 205. Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reaction 2 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 100? A. * B5 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. C 206. Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reactions indicated by arrows in figure 95? A. * B1 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. C 207. Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reactions indicated by arrows in figure 95? A. * B2 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. C 208. Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reactions indicated by arrows in figure 95? A. * B3 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. C 209. Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reactions indicated by arrows in figure 95? A. * B5 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. C 210. Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reaction 1 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 97? A. * B2 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. C 211. Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reaction 3 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 97? A. * B5 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. C 212. Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reaction shown in figure 75? A. * B5 B. B6 C. B10 D. B12 E. B1