Download File - Ms. Daley Science

Scientific Inquiry
1. In 1887 a strange nerve disease attacked the people in the Dutch East Indies. The disease was beriberi. Symptoms of the
disease included weakness and loss of appetite, victims often died of heart failure. Scientists thought the disease might be
caused by bacteria. They injected chickens with bacteria from the blood of patients with beriberi. The injected chickens
became sick. However, so did a group of chickens that were not injected with bacteria.
One of the scientists, Dr. Eijkman, noticed something. Before the experiment, all the chickens had eaten whole-grain rice, but
during the experiment, the chickens were fed polished rice. Dr. Eijkman researched this interesting case. He found that
polished rice lacked thiamine, a vitamin necessary for good health.
State the Problem
What was the hypothesis?
The hypothesis was not supported by the research. What should be the new hypothesis?
Design a controlled experiment to test this new hypothesis.
In the experiment that you developed, what is the independent variable? What is the dependent variable?
2. What is a theory? Why do we say that evolution is a theory? Give an example of a hypothesis.
Basic Chemistry
1. The periodic table lists
a. elements in order of increasing atomic number.
b. molecules in order of increasing atomic number.
c. atoms in order of increasing atomic mass.
d. atoms in random order.
2. An atom is called an ion when it has
a. either lost or gained electrons.
c. more neutrons than protons.
b. either lost or gained protons. d. lost its nucleus.
3. An element is made of
a. only one type of atom.
b. compounds.
c. more than one type of atom.
d. isotopes only.
4. An atom of oxygen (atomic number 8) has ________ valence electrons.
a. 8
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
5. How many covalent bonds will an atom of oxygen make?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
6. Water is a polar molecule. Explain this statement.
7. Which best explains why it is possible to float a paper clip in a
glass of ice water?
a. because of cohesion
c. because water shrinks when it freezes
b. because of adhesion
d. because water expands when it freezes
8. Which best explains why water climbs thin tubes found inside tree trunks (xylem)?
a. because of cohesion
c. because water shrinks when it freezes
b. because of adhesion
d. because water expands when it freezes
10. Oxygen has 8 electrons. Which bond would you expect to find holding together an oxygen molecule (O2)?
a. an ionic bond
b. a hydrogen bond
c. a single covalent bond
d. a double covalent bond
11. In a chemical reaction,
a. products are combined to form reactants
b. products are combined, but no new substances are formed.
c. Reactants are combined to form products.
d. Reactants are combined, but no new substances are formed.
13. Sodium (Na) has an atomic number of 11. Sodium has _________ valence electrons. When a sodium atom loses an
electron it becomes a ________________________ (positive/negative) ion.
Biochemistry
1. _______ unsaturated fat
3. _______ dehydration synthesis
4. _______ hydrolysis
5. _______ C6H12O6
6. _______ polymer
7. _______ peptide bond
8. _______ enzyme
9. _______ C12H22O11
a. organic catalyst
b. molecule made up of repeating subunits
c. a lipid containing C-C double bonds
d. connects two amino acids
e. building of complex molecules from simple molecules
g. disaccharide
h. digestion is accomplished by this reaction
j. glucose
11. Label the diagram below using the following words: enzyme-substrate complex, active site, enzyme, substrate, product.
12. List two environmental factors that can change and enzyme’s rate of action.
13. Which term best describes salt that has been mixed into a beaker of water?
a. solute
b. mixture
c. isotope
d. solvent
16. Which of the following is not a basic function of proteins in living things?
a. energy storage
b. enzymes
c. defense against disease
d. hormones
17. Which process would break down glycogen in your liver?
a. hydrolysis
b. dehydration synthesis
c. condensation
d. isomerization
18. Which of the following is an example of a polymer?
a. glucose
b. starch
c. amino acid
d. glycerol
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19. In living things, enzymes do not as a rule:
a. affect specific substrates
b. speed up chemical reactions
c. remain permanently linked to the substrates
d. survive their reaction with the substrates
20. Sugars, starches, cellulose, and other similar organic compounds which contain only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are
called
a. amino acids
b. proteins c. nucleic acids
d. carbohydrates
21. Water molecules are polar, with the
a. oxygen side being slightly positive and the hydrogen side slightly negative
b. oxygen and hydrogen side being slightly positive
c. oxygen side being slightly negative and the hydrogen side slightly positive
d. oxygen and hydrogen side being slightly negative
22. Which statement is true?
a. simple sugars are made of polysaccharides
b. glycerol is made of fatty acids
c. RNA molecules are made of nucleotides
d. amino acids are made of proteins
23. Fat molecules and carbohydrate molecules contain large amounts of energy because
a. Both contain many hydrogen bonds.
b. Both contain many covalent bonds.
c. Both are easily dissolved in water.
d. Both are polar.
24. What two molecules are produced when two glucose molecules are chemically bonded together?
a) a lipid and an enzyme
b) a polypeptide and oxygen
c) a disaccharide and H2O
d.) a polysaccharide and CO2
25. Which is the correct order from smallest to largest?
a. amino acid, atom, dipeptide, electron, protein, proton
b. electron, proton, atom, amino acid, dipeptide, protein
c. proton, protein, electron, atom, dipeptide, amino acid
d. none of these.
26. Many land plants store energy in starch. When energy is needed, the starch molecules can be broken down quickly into its
constituent parts. This chemical reaction produces which of the following?
a. amino acids b. lipids
c. monosaccharides
d. RNA chains
d. nucleotides
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Cell Biology
1. Who was the first person to use the term “cells” to describe the structures that make up living things?
a. Robert Hooke b. Rudolph Virchow c. Anton van Leeuwenhoek d. Theodor Schwann
2. Which of the following is not a principle of the cell theory?
a. All living things are composed of one or more cells.
b. All cells are alike in structure and function.
c. The cell is the basic unit of structure and organization in organisms.
d. Cells only come from pre-existing cells by division.
3. The microscopes you used in class have a 10x ocular lens. If you align the nosepiece so that you are also looking through
the high-power (40x) objective lens, with what total magnification will you see your specimen?
a. 50x
b. 100x
c. 140 x
d. 400x
4. Which organelle is involved in the production of protein?
a. ribosomes
b. lysosomes
c. cilia
5. Most cells lacking chloroplasts also lack ________.
a. mitochondria b. cell wall
c. cell membrane
d. chloroplasts
d. vacuole
6. Which cell part is correctly matched to its function?
a. ribosomes – make sugar
b. cell membrane – contains genetic code
c. chloroplast – controls cell division
d. mitochondria – produce usable energy
7. Which organelle is represented by the picture at the right?
a. mitochondria
b. chloroplast
c. Golgi body
d. vacuole
8. The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by
a. covalent bonds
b. ionic bonds
c. hydrogen bonds
d. peptide bonds
4%
2%
9. The solution in the beaker is ______________ to the cell.
a. Isotonic
b. Hypotonic
c. Hypertonic
d. Exotonic
10. Which direction will water move in the above diagram?
a. up the concentration gradient, out of the cell.
b. down the concentration gradient, out of the cell.
b. up the concentration gradient, into the cell.
c. down the concentration gradient, into the cell.
11. Most solutions are a mixture of substances. The ________ is the dissolved substance in a solution. A __________ is the
substance in which molecules are dissolved.
a.solute, solvent b. solute, solution
c. salute, solution
d. solvent, solute
12. Organisms obtain energy for their cells by breaking down food molecules to form ATP. This process is known as
a. photosynthesis
b. mitosis
c. replication
d. respiration
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What organelles are represented by each of the arrows below?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
8.
9.
10.
11.
13.
14.
(outside)
MATCHING:
13. ______ Diffusion
A. Movement of molecules from an area of greater concentration to an area of
lesser concentration
B. Diffusion of water across a cell membrane
C. Solute concentration is the same inside and outside the cell.
D. Balance, molecules are equally spread out
E. More solute outside the cell, water leaves and the cell shrinks.
F. Less solute outside the cell, water enters the cell.
14. ______ Equilibrium
15. ______ Hypertonic
16. ______ Hypotonic
17. ______ Isotonic
18. ______ Osmosis
19. FILL IN:
chlorophyll
Krebs
autotroph
respiration
matrix
stroma
light reaction
glycolysis
thylakoids
heterotroph
Calvin
pigment
electron transport
grana
mitochondria
cytoplasm
A(n) ___________ is an organism that is able to make its own food. Green plants are organisms whose cells contain
specialized organelles called chloroplasts. Within each chloroplast are membranes known as _____________, which are
arranged in stacks known as _____________. These membranes contain pigment molecules that absorb certain colors of
light. The major pigment found in plant cells is ______________. A gel-like material called ___________ surrounds these
membranes and is the location of the _____________ cycle.
A(n) _______________ is an organism that cannot make its own food, and so must consume energy from other organism.
These organisms use a process known as ________________ to convert food molecules into usable energy. This reaction
takes place in the ___________________ and consists of three parts: ___________________, _________________, and
the _______________ cycle. The result of this reaction is production of energy, or ___________ that the cell can use for
various functions.
20. Cytokinesis begins and new nuclei form during
a. Metaphase b. Telophase
c. Prophase
d. Interphase
21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancerous cells?
a. Progress through the cell cycle slowly
b.Invade neighboring tissues
c. Divide uncontrollably, forming tumors.
d. Lose attachments to neighboring cells
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22. In anaphase, the sister chromatids
a. condense and become thicker
b. separate into identical sets of chromosomes
c. join together
d. form nuclei
23. A cell membrane is a thick layer of lipids and __________.
a. water
b. protein
c. monosaccharide
d. prokaryotes
24. The fluid mosaic model presents the modern view of _____________.
a. chromosomes
b. the nucleus
c. a membrane’s structure
d. multicellular organisms
25. Bacteria have all of the following organelles EXCEPT ____________.
a. ribosomes
b. a cell membrane
c. a nucleus
d. cytoplasm
26. Which combination of concentration gradient and temperature would diffuse fastest?
a. small concentration gradient and low temperature
b. small concentration gradient and high temperature
c. large concentration gradient and low temperature
d. large concentration gradient and high temperature
27. The most common solvent inside a cell is
a. salt
b. water
c. osmosis
d. diffusion
28. What type of organisms provide almost all the energy in the biosphere?
a. Heterotrophs
b. photosynthesizers
c. Eukaryote
d. predators
29. What two energy-storing molecules are produced by the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?
a. CO2 and O2
c. NADPH and ATP
b. Lactic acid and ATP
d. Pyruvate and ethyl alcohol
30. What types of organisms do cellular respiration?
a. autotrophs only
c. heterotrophs only
b. autotrophs and heterotrophs d. yeast and bacteria only
31. What happens to light energy during photosynthesis?
a. It is transformed into heat energy
b. It is transformed into chemical energy
c. It is changed into carbon dioxide
d. It is reflected
Mendelian Genetics
1. Transferring pollen from the male parts of one plant to the female parts of another plant results in:
a. Self-pollination
c. Cross-pollination
b. Hybrids
d. Incomplete dominance
2. Because only tall plants were produced when pure short and tall plants were crossed, Mendel concluded that the tall
trait is:
a. Dominant
b. Recessive
c. Pure
d. Hidden
3. When pure tall plants are crossed with pure short plants, the recessive trait:
a. Shows up in the first generation c. Shows up in the second generation
b. Never shows up
d. Becomes dominant
4. When two hybrids are crossed, the ratio of possible phenotypes is:
a. 3:1
b. 1:2:1
c. 2:1
d. 4:1
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5. Organisms that have 2 of the same genes for a particular trait are called:
a. Hybrids b. Dihybrids
c. Homozygous d. Heterozygous
6. Type of inheritance shown when a red cow is crossed with a white bull and the offspring in the F1 generation appear roan
(white and red spots).
a. Inbreeding b. polygenic inheritance
c. Incomplete dominance d. codominance
7. A trait, such as height, that is controlled by several different genes that are inherited independently from one another.
a. homologous alleles b. polygenic
c. autosomes d. multiple alleles
8. The 23rd pair of chromosomes, different in males and females
a. autosomes
b. multiple alleles
c. sex chromosomes
d. polygenes
9. If a female fruit fly homozygous for red eyes is crossed with a white eyed male, what percentage of the offspring would
have white eyes? (White eyes is an X-liked recessive trait.)
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
10. If two of the F1 offspring from question 4 were crossed, what percentage of the F2 generation would have white eyes?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
11. Because the gene for red-green colorblindness is located on the X chromosome, it is NOT normally possible for a _____.
a. carrier mother to pass the gene on to her daughter
b. carrier mother to pass on the gene on to her son
c. colorblind father to pass on the gene on to his daughter
d. colorblind father to pass on the gene on to his son
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12. In pea plants, purple flowers (P) are dominant to white flowers (p). Which of the following crosses represents a testcross?
a. PP x PP
b. PP x Pp
c. Pp x pp
d. Pp x Pp
13. The result from crossing a white snapdragon and a red snapdragon is 100% pink offspring. When two of these pink
offspring are crossed, the probable phenotypic ratio of their offspring would be
a. 100% pink
c. 75% red, 25% white
b. 75% red, 25% white
d. 25% red, 50% pink, 25% white
Molecular Genetics
1. Fruit flies have 8 chromosomes in each body cell. Fill in the chart below.
Number of
Number of
Phase
chromosomes
homologous pairs
During Interphase
End of Mitosis
End of Meiosis I
End of Meiosis II
After Fertilization
Is this cell haploid or
diploid?
2. The stage of meiosis in which the chromosome number is reduced from 2n to 1n is
a. metaphase II b. anaphase II
c. metaphase I
d. telophase I
3. A partial diagram of reproduction is shown to the right. Which of
labels belongs in the oval marked X?
a. egg
b. fetus
c. sperm
d. embryo
4. What is the probability that a human sperm cell will contain an X
a. 0 %
b. 25 %
c. 50 %
d. 100 %
5. Human females produce egg cells that have
a. one X chromosome
b. two X chromosomes
c. one X or one Y chromosome
d. one X and one Y chromosome
the following
Meiosis
Meiosis
Female
gamete
Male
gamete
chromosome?
Fertilization
Zygote
A
6. DNA and RNA…
a. are both nucleic acids
c. both are double stranded
b. have the same nitrogen carrying bases
d. both have the shape of a double helix
X
Use the following diagram to answer questions 7 – 10.
B
7. Structure A represents
a. a chromosome
e. homologous pair
b. a centromere
c. gene
d. sister chromatids
8. Structure B represents
a. a chromosome
e. homologous pair
b. a centromere
c. gene
d. sister chromatids
9. Structure C represents
a. a chromosome
e. homologous pair
b. a centromere
c. gene
d. sister chromatids
C
D
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10. Structure D represents
a. a chromosome
b. a centromere
c. gene
11. Non-disjunction occurs during which process?
a. mitosis
b. replication c. protein synthesis
d. sister chromatids
e. homologous pair
d. meiosis
12. Place the following stages of protein synthesis in the correct order.
I. transcription
II. amino acids are linked together with peptide bonds
III. mRNA attaches to a subunit of the ribosome
IV. tRNA matches its anticodon to the codon of mRNA
13. The genetic code consists of __________ different codons, which code for ________ different amino acids.
a. 3, 20
b. 64, 3
c. 20, 64
d. 64, 20
14. The major event that occurs during meiosis II is
a. formation of 2 haploid cells
b. separation of sister chromatids
c. formation of tetrads and crossing over
d. separation of homologous chromosomes
15. Fruit fly body cells contain 8 chromosomes. The diploid (2n) number for fruit flies is
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
Questions 16 – 18 are based on the following diagram:
MOLECULE A transcription MOLECULE B
translation
PRODUCT
16. In the above series of reactions, Molecule A would be…
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) carbohydrate d) chlorophyll
17. In the above series of reactions, Molecule B would be…
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) protein
d) a lipid chain
28. In the above series of reactions, the Product would be…
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) protein
d) chromosome
Evolution
1. The theory of evolution predicts that:
a. closely related species will show similarities in nucleotide sequences
b. if species have changes over time, their genes should have changed
c. closely related species show similarities in amino acid sequences
d. all of the above
2. The fur color in domestic cats is an example of:
a. variation
b. choice
c. genetic drift d. adaptation
3. Species evolve adaptations for all of the following except:
a. Increase variation in a population
b. Hide from predators
c. Catch food
d. Attract a mate
e. Defend against disease
6. A porcupine’s sharp quills are used to deter predators. They are an example of
a. Mutatioin
b. Niche
c. Variation
d. Adaptation
7. A change in the structure of a gene of a chromosome is called a:
a. mutation
b. characteristic c. resource
d. variation
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8.
Change in a population over a period of time is called:
a. biogenesis
b. periodic catastrophe c. extinction
d. evolution
9. Organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring are members of the same:
a. evolved population
b. family
c. species
d. niche
10. The breeding of pigeons to have exaggerated physical characteristics is an example of
a. Natural Selection
b. Gradualism c Mate Selection
d. Artificial Selection
11. What is the human tailbone an example of?
a. biochemical structure
c. fossil record
b. homologous structure
d. vestigial structure
12. Which of the following lists animals that are members of the same species?
a. Polar bear and Grizzly bear
c. Lion and Tiger
b. Dalmatian and Golden Retriever
d. Horse and Donkey
13. Which organisms probably have more similarity between their DNA?
a. Dogs and cats
c. Snakes and chickens
b. Fish and humans
d. Oak trees and elephants
14. What is the source of genetic variability?
a. Crossing over
c. Mutations
b. Segregation and random recombination
d. All of the above
15. How did Mendel’s findings affect Darwin’s work?
a. Darwin used Mendel’s theory to explain the source of the inheritance of variations
b. Darwin was unaware of Mendel’s work
c. Mendel’s work did not apply to Darwin’s theory
d. The scientific world immediately accepted Mendel’s findings and used them to explain Darwin’s theory
e. The two were unrelated
16. Which term describes structures similar in purpose but not inherited from common ancestors?
a. Homologous
b. Embryonic
c. Analogous d. Vestigial
17. Place the following vertebrates in order, from first to most recent in the.
(I) Amphibians
(II) Fish (III) Reptiles
(IV) Mammals
a. I, II, III, IV
b. III, I, IV, II
c. II, I, III, IV
d. II, III, IV, I
18. The human arm, the whale fin, and the bat wing are traits that may have evolved from a common ancestor. They are:
a. Divergent structures
c. Vestigial structures
b. Homologous structures
d. Analogous structures
19. Originally, mitochondria were probably most similar to
a. Unicellular fungi
c. Autotrophic cyanobacteria
b. Heterotrophic prokaryotes
d. Paramecium
20. The absence of oxygen in Earth’s early atmosphere
a. Suggests that early life forms may have been methanogens.
b. Resulted in a much thicker ozone layer than we have today.
c. Suggests that early life forms were autotrophs.
d. Made DNA mutations unlikely.
21. What characteristics do all primates share? What characteristics are unique to humans and other hominids?
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22. According to the heterotroph hypothesis, Earth's earliest life forms____.
a. ate organic molecules
b. could not photosynthesize
c. evolved under the Earth's surface
d. did not contain DNA
27. Researchers using the technique of Miller and Urey have been able to produce
a. amino acids and nucleotides
c. ATP and mitochondria
b. proteins and DNA
d. cell membranes and simple cells
29. What is the current best estimate of the age of the earth?
a. 40 billion
b. 4 billion years
c. 40 million years
d. 4 million years
30. When did oxygen begin to accumulate in the Earth's atmosphere?
a. When photosynthetic organisms began to produce it.
b. After the first volcanic eruptions.
c. As soon as Earth formed.
d. When animals evolved to consume it.
31. In laboratory experiments designed to simulate conditions on early Earth, which of the following molecules is NOT
produced?
a. ribose
b. DNA
c. glycine
d. cytosine
32. Why do scientists think RNA, not DNA, was the first genetic material?
a. RNA can store information and act as an enzyme.
b. DNA copies itself but can not store information.
c. DNA did not exist in early cells.
d. RNA sometimes forms a double helix.
33. How is biological evolution distinct from chemical evolution?
a. Biological evolution preceded chemical evolution in the origin of life.
b. Not all organisms on Earth undergo biological evolution.
c. Biological evolution is not affected by mutations.
d. Biological evolution happens when organisms can self-replicate.
34. How does the endosymbiont hypothesis explain the evolution of eukaryotes?
a. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes evolved simultaneously and independently.
b. Eukaryotes evolved when large prokaryotes absorbed small prokaryotes.
c. Eukaryotes evolved by competition and natural selection.
d. Eukaryotes evolved organelles from free-living eukaryotic cells.
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Anatomy
1. Describe the function of the following:
 Spleen
 Diaphragm
 Epiglottis
 Trachea
 Esophagus
 Aorta
 Small intestine
 Large intestine








Pancreas
Liver
Larynx
Vena Cava
Seminal vesicles
Fallopian tube
Testes
Ovaries







Neuron
Olfactory Bulb
Cerebrum
Corpus callosum
Hypothalamus
Cerebellum
Spinal cord
Label the diagrams below:
Word Bank
Small
Intestine
Liver
Stomach
Large Intstine
Mouth
Gall Bladder
Rectum
Pancreas
Anus
Esophagus
Word Bank:
Kidney, urinary bladder,
ureter, urethra
Word Bank
Nerve
Spinal Cord
Brain
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Trace the path of oxygenated blood from the lungs, through the heart and body, and back to the lungs. Put the
following in order:
____ deoxygenated blood returns to the heart via vena cava.
____ blood enters left atrium and is pumped to left ventricle
____ deoxygenated blood enters the lungs for gas exchange (CO2
out O2 in)
____ Oxygenated blood leaves lungs through pulmonary vein
____ blood leaves the heart through the pulmonary artery
____ blood is pumped into the right atrium, then the right ventricle
____ oxygen-rich blood leaves the heart through the aorta and is
pumped throughout the body
Veins usually carry blood (toward/away from) the heart. Arteries
usually carry blood (toward/away from) the heart. An exception to
this rule is seen in the ______________ vein and artery.
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