Download Topic 4 and Option D Sample Multiple Choice

Review Packet 4
Topic 5 and Option D Sample Multiple Choice
1.
A population growth curve will reach its stationary phase when
a. the rate of reproduction becomes constant
b. the climax community is reached
c. immigration and emigration are equal
d. the carrying capacity is reached
2.
A representation of the existing populations at each trophic level in an ecosystem is
best given by its
a. population curve
b. pyramid of numbers
c. pyramid of energy
d. pyramid of biomass
3.
The length of a food chain is dependent upon the
a. efficiency by which energy is transferred from one level to the next
b. number of different organisms present at each trophic level
c. size of producers and consumers
d. degree of competition among members of each trophic level
The graph below shows a curve that represents the normal distribution of leg lengths in a
population of animals. It refers to the next two questions.
4.
All of the individuals with legs longer than X emigrate and form a new population. In
this new population over the next few generations
a. a new species will be created
b. leg length may increase by natural selection
c. migration back to the original population will take place
d. the rate of mutations will increase
5.
If the biomass of plants in a community becomes larger
a. the biomass of first consumers becomes smaller
b. the number of decomposers becomes smaller
c. the number of trophic levels becomes smaller
d. the biomass of the higher trophic levels can become bigger
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6.
What would be the shape of the curve for the population that remained (those with
legs shorter than X) in the next generation, assuming random mating?
7.
In a certain population it was found that 16% were homozygous recessive for a
particular characteristic that is determined by a single pair of alleles. What is the
expected percentage of individuals, heterozygous for that characteristic, if the
population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. 84%
b. 64%
c. 48%
d. 16%
If the amino acid sequence of cytochrome c in humans is compared to that of other selected
animals, the data below are obtained. They refer to the next question.
Animal
I
II
III
IV
Number of differences
18
12
9
24
8.
From this evidence it can be concluded that
a. the common ancestor of humans and IV lived longer ago than the common
ancestor of humans and I
b. humans evolved from animal I twice as long ago as they evolved from animal III
c. the common ancestor of animals I and II lived more recently than the common
ancestor of humans and animal III
d. animal II is more closely related to animal III than humans are to animal III
9.
Marsupials are a relatively primitive type of mammal in which the young continue
their development after birth, in an abdominal pouch. Marsupials are widespread in
Australia. Few marsupials are found anywhere, apart from Australia and few of the
more advanced placental mammals are found in Australia. The best hypothesis is
that marsupials are
a. better adapted to Australia than other mammals
b. more successful at reproducing than other mammals
c. more successful at raising young because of the pouch
d. no longer present in areas where there is competition from placental mammals
2
The graph below shows the decay of a radioactive element found in living tissue. It refers to the
next question
10.
Which of the following is correct?
a. the half life varies and it would be of no use in investigating the evolution of
mammals from their ancestors
b. the half-life evolves with mammalian evolution
c. the half-life is 10 years and it would be of some use in investigating the evolution
of mammals from their ancestors
d. the half-life is 10 years and it would not be useful in investigating the evolution of
mammals from their ancestors
11.
The size of existing populations at each trophic level in an ecosystem is best
represented by a
a. population curve
b. pyramid of numbers
c. pyramid of energy
d. pyramid of biomass
The diagram below shows circular areas that represent the ecological niches of five species (I –
V) It refers to the next question
12.
Which three species could co-exist with the least competition?
a. I, II, and III
b. II, III, and IV
c. II, III, and V
d. I, III, and V
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13.
Some species of Cactus in South America are very similar in their appearance to
some species of Euphorbia in Africa. The probable reason for this is that
a. they are the result of adaptive radiation
b. they are members of the same ecosystem
c. they do not follow the competitive exclusion principle
d. they are members of the same biome
14.
In a population of flowering plants, the frequency (p), for a dominant allele is 80 (0.8).
After a period of time, p is found to have changed to 85% (0.85). This could be due
to
a. dominants always increasing in number
b. the homozygous recessive genotype being lethal
c. balanced polymorphism
d. the size of the population increasing
15.
If amino acids in the proteins of an organism have already been part of proteins of
three other organisms, then this organism could be
a. an autotrophy
b. a saprotroph
c. a first consumer
d. a second consumer
16.
The carrying capacity of a environment is the maximum
a. biomass that can be supported
b. number of species that can be supported
c. number of members of a species that can be supported
d. number of trophic levels that canbe supported
17.
Fixation of carbon dioxide in chloroplasts is carried out using
a. ATP and oxygen
b. oxygen and glucose
c. glucose and hydrogen
d. ATP and hydrogen
18.
The standard deviation gives a useful measure of
a. whether more of a set of data is above or below the mean
b. how widely data is spread above and below the mean
c. whether 68% of the values are within one standard deviation above or below the
mean
d. whether the means fo two sets of data are different
19.
If two organisms are members of the same order, they must also belong to the same
a. genus
b. phylum
c. species
d. family
20.
A scientist wanted to estimate the proportion of biomass eaten by an insect that was
converted into insect biomass. Initially, she calculated that the insect ate 30 cm 2 of
leaf per day. So that she could make her final calculation, which one of the following
measurements was not necessary?
a. mass of carbon dioxide produced per day by the insect
b. total mass of insect faeces per day
c. dry mass of insect faeces per day
d. dry mass per cm2 of leaf
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21.
Using the four possible answers to Question 20, the mass of leaf that was turned into
insect biomass can be estimated by
a. subtracting the values of A and B from D
b. subtracting the mass of carbon in both A and B from D
c. subtracting the value of C and the mass of carbon in A from 30 times D
d. subtracting the value of A and the mass of carbon in C from 30 times D
22.
The food web below shows a community in central France 24 000 years ago.
Which statement is a correct description of Ursus speleaus?
a. it is a top carnivore and a primary consumer
b. it is a producer preyed upon by Vaccinium oxycoccos
c. it is an omnivore which feeds on Lemmus lemmus
d. it is a decomposer and it competes with Rangifer tarandus
23.
What is a community of organisms?
a. a group of one species
b. a group of several species in the same place at the same time
c. a group of several different species plus abiotic factors at the same time
d. a group of several different species plus the geographic location
24.
Which type of organism feeds on dead organic matter using extracellular digestion?
a. a detritovore
b. a saprotroph
c. a parasite
d. an autotroph
25.
What finally happens to the energy in the bodies of organisms in an ecosystem?
a. it is lost as heat
b. it is consumed by the decomposers
c. it is recycled to the producers via the soil
d. it is lost to another ecosystem as carbon dioxide
26.
Which series of ecological units is in the correct order of decreasing biomass?
a. ecosystem, population, community, individual
b. biosphere, ecosystem, population, individual
c. community, biosphere, population, individual
d. biosphere, ecosystem, population, community
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27.
Which graph correctly shows the increase in the size of a population during the
exponential growth phase?
28.
Which substances increase the greenhouse effect the most?
a. oxygen and CFCs
b. methane and CFCs
c. sulfur dioxide and nitrogen
d. nitrogen and methane
29.
What statement can be made about members of the same order?
a. they all belong to the same genus
b. they all belong to the same class
c. they all belong to the same family
d. they can all interbreed successfully
30.
Carbon dioxide enters the carbon cycle of an ecosystem through which group of
organisms?
a. decomposers
b. detritus feeders
c. producers
d. secondary consumers
31.
The scientific names of two organisms are shown below.
Lathyrus palustris
Angelica palustris
What is the relationship between these organisms?
a. they both belong to the same genus but they are different species
b. they both belong to the same species but different genera
c. they are both different species and different genera
d. they both belong to the same species and the same genus
6
The following diagram refers to questions 32 and 33. It shows part of the food web of the
community that inhabits Antarctica.
32.
What trophic level do squid belong to?
a. tertiary consumers
b. secondary consumers
c. primary consumers
d. producers
33.
Which human activity would have the greatest impact on the food web?
a. overfishing the krill
b. killing crab eater seals for their skins
c. a continued ban on hunting whales
d. building an airstrip through the emperor penguin nesting colony
34.
What term refers to a community and its abiotic environment?
a. biosphere
b. ecosystem
c. habitat
d. niche
35.
What factor(s) is/are essential for evolution to occur within a population?
I.
Inheritance of characteristics
II.
Variation in the population
III.
Natural Selection
a.
b.
c.
d.
I only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
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1.
Topic 5 and Option D Sample DBQs and Essay Questions
(M97/410/S(2))
8
(ii)
(e)
State two reasons to explain the differences in time taken to
consume food (2 marks)
Calculate which size of spider in these experiments could consume the largest
amount of food, measured in mg insect per g of spider per hour (mg insect g-1
h-1)
(1 mark)
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2.
(M97/410/S(2)
a.
b.
c.
d.
The diagram shows that the total mass of food consumed by zooplakton is 5 200
000 kg (that is, 3.9 x 106 + 1.3 x 106 kg).
i.
Calculate the total mass of zooplankton that is consumed directly by
other living organisms.
(1 mark)
ii.
Suggest two reasons why the mass of zooplankton consumed by other
organisms is smaller than the mass of food consumed by the
zooplankton. (2 marks)
The phytoplankton and the detritus are at the start of all food chains in Lake
Turkana.
i.
Name the trophic level occupied by the small pelagic fish (1 mark)
ii.
State and explain the trophic position of humans in this food web
when they consume fish from Lake Turkana.
(2 marks)
It has been estimated that each organism converts 10% of the mass of the food it
consumes into body mass that can be consumed by the next trophic level. To
produce 100 kg of benthic fish (a first or primary consumer) consumed by
humans therefore requires 1000 kg of phytoplankton or detritus.
Calculate the amount of phytophlankton or detritus required to produce
i.
the 30 kg catch of catfish (a second or secondary consumer) (1 mark)
ii.
the total catch of tiger fish and Nile perch (third or tertiary consumers).
(1 mark)
Lake Turkana is only lightly fished by humans. In some Ecosystems such as
shallow seas, as much as 35% of the phytoplankton and detritus is needed to
produce the fish caught. Suggest two ways in which this percentage could be
reduced.
(2 marks)
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3.
Question 4 (M97/410/S(3))
a.
Describe in outline, using examples, the differences between
i.
producers and consumers
(5 marks)
ii.
biotic and abiotic limiting factors
(4 marks)
iii.
mortality and emigration
(4 marks)
b.
Explain how ecosystems can survive without inputs of nitrogen, but do need
inputs of energy.
(7 marks)
4.
Question 7 (M97/410/S(3))
c.
Describe, using a diagram, the shape of the pyramid of numbers suggested by
the principle of energy flow and explain why some pyramids of numbers have a
different shape.
(4 marks)
5.
Question 8 (M97/410/S(3))
a.
Explain what is meant by exponential population growth. (3 marks)
6. (Question 2 M97/410/H(2))
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7. Question 12 (M97/410/H(3))
a.
Discuss the ecological concepts ‘habitat’ and ‘niche’.
(7 marks)
b.
By means of named examples, explain what is meant by ‘interspecific’ and
‘intraspecific’ competition.
(7 marks)
8. Question 4 (N97/410/S(3))
c.
Explain how energy is lost in food chains.
(6 marks)
9. Question 7 (N97/410/S(3))
The construction of a pyramid of numbers involves the identification of organisms in an
ecosystem and the measurement of the size of the population of each of those
organisms.
a.
Explain the way in which a key is used to identify organisms.
(3 marks)
10. Question 8 (N97/410/S(3))
The increased use of fossil fuels may have been one of the factors that allowed the
human population to grow exponentially.
a.
Discuss the beneficial effects of their use from the human point of view.
(7 marks)
b.
Discuss the harmful results of their use in our biosphere. (7 marks)
11. Question 1 (N97/410/H(2))
12
13
e)
What advantage does the honeybee gain by using liquid from its honeycrop for the
mechanism just described.
(1 mark)
12. Question 10 (N97/410/H(3))
a.
Discuss how evidence for evolution can be obtained from
i. palaeontology
(6 marks)
ii. comparative biochemistry and serology
(6 marks)
13. Question 1 (Spec/410/S(2))
The bar chart below shows estimated global methane emissions (release to the
atmosphere) for each of 6 years in the period from 1940 to 1980. For each year the
amounts of methane from each of seven sources is shown.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
i. State which source shows the greatest increase in kg year –1 of methane emitted
between 1940 and 1980.
(1 mark)
ii. State which source shows the smallest change in mass of methane emitted between
1940 and 1980.
(1 mark)
i. Using only the data in the bar chart, state how the amount of methane produced by
swamps and marshes has changed between 1940 and 1980. (1 mark)
ii. Suggest one reason for the change.
(1 mark)
Using data in the bar chart, estimate the total methane emissions for 1990. (1 mark)
Methane acts as a greenhouse gas in the atmosphere. Discuss briefly whether changes
in methane emissions will cause a change in the temperature. (3 marks)
Explain how the data show that the greenhouse effect is partly a natural phenomenon
and not only an example of the impact of humans.
(2 marks)
14. D1 (Spec/410/S(3))
a. Outline two characteristic environmental features of pre-biotic Earth. (2 marks)
b. State one conclusion that can be drawn from the experiments of Miller and Urey.
(1 mark)
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15. D3 (Spec/410/S(3))
The table below shows the results of an investigation of the human Y chromosome. A
section of DNA consisting of 15 680 nucleotide pairs was removed from the Y chromosome in
cells taken from each of five men and the base sequence was found. The five men had a
different ethnic origin. Differences were found in only three of the nucleotide positions.
a. Explain briefly the evidence provided by the data for a common ancestry for all of the humans
in the investigation.
(2 marks)
b. The common human ancestor probably had the bases G, C, and A at the three variable
positions. Calculate the minimum number of mutations needed to give the base sequence of
each of the five ethnic groups.
c. The same section of the Y chromosome of a chimpanzee was also sequenced. Comparing it
with the section in the human Y chromosomes, 207 to 209 differences were found. Discuss
how the data from this investigation can be used in studies of evolution.
(4 marks)
d. List two type of evidence other than biochemical evidence. (2 marks)
16. D1 (Spec/410/H(3))
Parus major, the great tit, is a small bird. Its main predator is the sparrowhawk and its
most important winter food is beech seeds. A survey was done in winter. The body mass of
great tits was measured in Wytham Woods (near Oxford in England) from 1960 to 1993. The
beech trees in the woods only produced seeds in some of the years. Pesticides had eliminated
sparrowhawks from the woods in the first years of the survey but they gradually returned.
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b.
(ii) Explain how natural selection could cause this relationship. (3 marks)
The survey showed that the body mass of individual birds changed according to
whether beech seeds were available or not.
(i) State how the body mass of the birds changed in the years 1981 – 1993
according to availability of beech seeds.
(1 mark)
(ii) Suggest one reason for the change.
(1 mark)
(iii) State the name given to the theory of evolution that states that characteristics
(such as increased or decreased mass of an individual bird) can be inherited. (1
mark)
17. D2 (Spec/410/H/(3))
State three conditions in which the Hardy-Weinberg principle does not operate.
(3 marks)
18. D3 (Spec/410/H/(3))
a.
Discuss the anatomical evidence which suggests that Homo sapiens evolved
from Australopithecus as illustrated by the fossil record.
(6 marks)
b.
Outline a method that can be used to date fossils up to 40 000 years old. (4
marks)
19. Question 1 (N96/410/H(2))
The rice harvest of a country in Southeast Asia was infested by an insect pest called the
Brown Plant Hopper. Insecticides were used in an attempt to control this pest. Each year the
same area was sprayed with insecticide and then checked for infestation by the Brown Plant
Hopper. The results of this treatment for eight years during the trial period (1976 – 1989) are
shown in the table below.
Year
Area infested/ x108 m2
Insecticide used/Mkg
1976
0.2
10
1978
10
13.5
1980
50
12.5
1982
40
15.5
1984
10
14
1986
0.5
17
1988
100
23
1989
140
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1Mkg = 1 000 000 kg
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a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
20.
Using appropriate axes, plot all the results given in the table onto graph paper. Plot the
time (years) on the x-axis. (3 marks)
Name one biotic factor that might have controlled the Brown Plant Hopper population,
before the use of insecticides in 1976.
(1 mark)
Outline the effect of the insecticide treatment during the years 1980 to 1986. (1 mark)
Outline the effect of the insecticide treatment during the years 1986 to 1989. (1 mark)
Suggest two possible explanations, involving only biotic factors, for the change in the
effectiveness of the insecticide treatment between 1980 and 1989.
(2 mark)
Suggest two abiotic factors which could affect numbers of Brown Plant Hoppers.
(2 marks)
Ques D1 (N02/H3)
a. Compare the changes in the number of South American families and the number of
North American immigrant families in the 1 million years after the formation of the land
bridge. [2]
b. Suggest a reason for the decline in the number of South American native families and
the number of North American immigrant families within the last 1.5 million years. [1]
c. Using the data from 9 million years ago and the present, calculate the percentage
increase in the total number of genera found in South America. [1]
d. Discuss why the percentage increase in genera is much greater than the apparent
percentage increase in families. [2]
d.
State a form of evidence on which the data in the graphs is based. [1]
21.
D2 (N02/H3)
a. Using the Hardy-Weinberg principle, calculate the percentage of carriers in a
population where the occurrence of the condition cystic fibrosis is 1 in 2500 births. [2]
b. Predict the effect on a gene pool in succeeding generations if the conditions of the
Hardy-Weinberg principle are not met. [1]
22.
D2 (N02/H3)
a. Explain how variation in a population results from the recombination of alleles. [7]
17
b. Outline the consequences of an increase in brain size for the Homo lineage. [3]
23.
Ques 4 (N02/S2)
a. Describe with the aid of a diagram the phases of a sigmoid population growth curve.
[4]
c. Describe the causes and effects of the increased greenhouse effect. [6]
24.
Ques 5 (N02/S2)
c. Explain evolution of a species by natural selection in response to environmental
change. [7]
25.
D1 (N02/S3)
a. Outline the relationship between daylength and latitude for the larval populations in
1972 [1]
b. Compare the data of 1972 with 1996. [2]
c. Explain how the data illustrates an evolutionary response to a longer growing season
due to a later onset of winter. [2]
26.
D2 (N02/S3)
a. State one radioisotope used for the dating of rocks and fossils. [1]
b. Define the term half-life. [1]
c. Explain how the approximate age of a fossil could be determined using a radioisotope.
[2]
27.
D3 (N02/S3)
a. State two major physical features which define humans as primates. [2]
b. The following fossils are arranged chronologically from oldest to most recent.
A. afarenses, A. africanus, A. robustus, H. habilis, H. erectus, H. sapiens
Identify two fossils which show a major increase in brain size over the preceding fossil
[1]
c. Discuss how cultural evolution in humans depended on increases in brain size. [3]
28.
Ques 7 (M03/H2)
b. Describe how sexual reproduction promotes genetic variation within a species. [4]
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c. Explain how energy and nutrients enter, move through, and exit a food chain in an
ecosystem. [8]
29.
Ques D1 (M04/H(3))
a. State the theory for which the Murchison meteorite provides evidence. [1]
b. Compare the amino acids found on the meteorite with those produced in the MillerUrey experiment. Refer to named examples. [3]
c. Suggest a conclusion from your comparison. [1]
30.
Ques D3 (M04/H(3))
a. Evaluate Lamarck’s theory for the origin of species. [4]
b. Discuss the relative contributions of genetic and cultural evolution in the evolution of
humans. [6]
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