Download Physics HW Chapters 383940 (Due May 23, Test May 28)

Physics HW Chapters 383940 (Due May 23, Test May 28)
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. Light behaves as a
a. wave.
b. particle.
c. both A and B
d. none of the above
2. The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its
a. speed.
b. amplitude.
c. period.
d. frequency.
e. wavelength.
3. The photoelectric effect occurs when
a. light is reflected from a metal surface.
b. high-frequency light shines on certain metal surfaces.
c. low-frequency light shines on certain metal surfaces.
d. all of the above
4. The photoelectric effect best demonstrates the
a. particle nature of light.
b. wave nature of light.
c. both A and B
d. none of the above
5. In the photoelectric effect, the brighter the illuminating light on a photosensitive surface, the greater the
a. velocity of ejected electrons.
b. number of ejected electrons.
c. both A and B
d. none of the above
6. A photocell can be activated with blue light but not with red light. This is because blue light has
a. a longer wavelength than red light.
b. a higher speed than red light.
c. a higher frequency than red light.
d. a stronger electric field than red light.
e. none of the above.
7. The photoelectric effect occurs when the incident light beam is
a. either dim or bright.
b. bright.
c. dim.
8. Which of the following photons have the greatest energy?
a. blue light
b. yellow light
c. green light
d. red light
e. ultraviolet
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9. When light shines on a photosensitive material
a. electrons are always ejected.
b. electrons may be ejected.
c. protons are always ejected.
d. protons may be ejected.
e. none of the above
10. The number of electrons ejected in the photoelectric effect depends on the light beam's
a. amplitude.
b. speed.
c. frequency.
d. intensity.
e. wavelength.
11. A photosensitive surface is illuminated with both blue and violet light. The light that will cause more
electrons to be ejected is the
a. blue light.
b. violet light.
c. Both eject the same number.
d. Not enough information is given.
12. The wavelength of a particle is related to the particle's
a. potential energy.
b. size.
c. name.
d. momentum.
e. all of the above
13. Diffraction effects cannot be measured for
a. water waves.
b. baseballs.
c. electrons.
d. low-frequency light.
e. high-frequency light.
14. Electron wavelengths, in general, are
a. the same as light wavelengths.
b. shorter than light wavelengths.
c. longer than light wavelengths.
15. When an atomic electron goes from a high-energy state to a low-energy state, it
a. emits a photon.
b. absorbs a photon.
c. neither absorbs nor emits a photon.
16. The discrete orbits of electrons are best understood by considering the electron's
a. charge.
b. particle properties.
c. quantum properties.
d. wave properties.
17. When an electron in an atom emits a photon, the
a. atom gains energy exactly equal to the energy of the photon.
b. electron spirals closer to the nucleus.
c. electron's energy decreases by exactly the energy of the photon.
d. charge on the atom decreases by one.
e. electron spirals farther from the nucleus.
____ 18. Compared to the innermost electrons of a uranium atom, the innermost electron of a hydrogen atom is
a. closer to the nucleus.
b. the same distance from the nucleus.
c. farther from the nucleus.
____ 19. The ratio of a photon's energy to its frequency is
a. its wavelength.
b. its speed.
c. Planck's constant.
d. its amplitude.
e. none of the above
____ 20. In the Bohr model of hydrogen, discrete radii and energy states result when an electron circles the atom in an
integral number of
a. wave frequencies.
b. de Broglie wavelengths.
c. quantum numbers.
d. diffraction patterns.
e. none of the above
____ 21. Compared to the diameter of a zirconium atom (40 protons), the diameter of a mercury atom (80 protons) is
approximately
a. one quarter as large.
b. one half as large.
c. the same size.
d. twice as large.
e. four times as large.
____ 22. The Bohr model of the atom accounts for
a. the mystery of atomic spectra.
b. predicted properties of hydrogen.
c. X-rays emitted in electron transitions.
d. general chemical properties of the elements.
e. all of the above
____ 23. In quantum mechanics, one normally studies
a. what happens when light shines on a metallic surface.
b. the structure of light quanta.
c. the structure of atoms by treating light and particles as waves.
d. the mechanics of fast-moving objects such as cosmic rays.
____ 24. Planck's constant is a basic constant of nature that
a. formulates the relationship between mass and energy.
b. relates the energy of a photon to its momentum.
c. is the foundation of the correspondence principle.
d. sets an upper limit on the size of things.
e. sets a lower limit on the size of things.
____ 25. Orbital electrons do not spiral into the nucleus. This is because of
a. the large nuclear size compared to the electron's size.
b. the wave nature of the electron.
c. angular momentum conservation.
d. electromagnetic forces.
e. none of the above
____ 26. The electrical force between an inner electron and the nucleus of an atom is
a. larger for atoms of low atomic number.
b. larger for atoms of high atomic number.
c. the same for all atoms.
____ 27. An excited atom decays to its ground state and emits a photon of green light. If, instead, the atom decayed to
an intermediate state, then the light emitted could be
a. blue.
b. red.
c. violet.
d. any of the above.
e. none of the above.
____ 28. An electron and a baseball move at the same speed. Which has the longer wavelength?
a. the baseball
b. the electron
c. Both have the same wavelength.
____ 29. A hypothetical atom has four distinct energy states. Assuming all transitions are possible, how many spectral
lines can this atom produce?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
e. more than 6
____ 30. An electron and a proton are traveling at the same speed. Which has a longer wavelength?
a. Both have the same wavelength.
b. the proton
c. the electron
____ 31. Which of the following has the longer wavelength?
a. A low-energy electron
b. A high-energy electron
c. Both have the same wavelength.
____ 32. The photoelectric effect is more effective with violet light than with red light because the photons of violet
light
a. resonate with the atoms in the material.
b. deliver more energy to the material.
c. are more numerous.
d. none of the above.
____ 33. The degree to which a system is predictable depends on knowledge of
a. whether or not the system is Newtonian or quantum.
b. initial conditions.
c. both A and B
____ 34. Which of the following is more chaotic?
a. weather
b. heat transfer between thermal conductors
c. electric current in an AC circuit
d. collision between two pool balls
____ 35. The nucleus of an atom consists of
a. protons, neutrons, and electrons.
b. protons.
c. protons and electrons.
d. neutrons and electrons.
e. protons and neutrons.
____ 36. X-rays are similar to
a. alpha rays.
b. beta rays.
c. gamma rays.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
____ 37. Electrical forces within an atomic nucleus tend to
a. push it apart.
b. hold it together.
c. none of the above
____ 38. Generally speaking, the heavier a nucleus is, the more it is
a. unstable.
b. stable.
c. neither stable nor unstable.
____ 39. Which of the following is NOT emitted in radioactive decay?
a. electrons
b. high-energy electromagnetic radiation
c. beta rays
d. alpha particles
e. all of the above
____ 40. When alpha and beta rays pass through a magnetic field, their paths change
a. not at all.
b. in opposite directions.
c. in the same direction.
____ 41. Which radiation has no electric charge associated with it?
a. gamma rays
b. alpha rays
c. beta rays
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
____ 42. Which experiences the least electrical force in an electric field?
a. a beta particle
b. a proton
c. an alpha particle
d. a gamma ray
e. same force for all of the above
____ 43. Which experiences the greatest electrical force in an electric field?
a. an alpha particle
b. a gamma ray
c. a beta particle
d. a proton
e. same force for all of the above
____ 44. An atom is called an ion if there
a. is an uneven number of protons and electrons.
b. are more neutrons than protons.
c. is an uneven number of neutrons and electrons.
d. is an uneven number of neutrons and protons.
e. none of the above
____ 45. The atomic number of an atom or ion refers to the number of
a. nucleons.
b. electrons.
c. neutrons.
d. protons.
e. neutrons, protons, and electrons.
____ 46. The atomic mass number of an atom refers to the number of
a. neutrons.
b. nucleons.
c. protons.
d. electrons.
e. neutrons, protons, and electrons.
____ 47. Deuterium
a. can become part of a molecule called heavy water.
b. is an isotope of hydrogen.
c. consists of one proton and one neutron.
d. is stable.
e. all of the above
____ 48. Large nuclei like uranium are radioactive because
a. they have too much mass.
b. they are too large for the strong force to counteract electrostatic repulsion.
c. there are too many protons.
d. they can hold extra particles, such as beta rays.
e. none of the above
____ 49. The time needed for half of a radioactive sample to decay is called its
a. transmutation time.
b. period.
c. decay period.
d. half-life.
____ 50. The half-life of a certain isotope is 1 day. At the end of 4 days, how much of the isotope remains?
a.
b.
c. none of it
d.
e. none of the above
____ 51. The half-life of most radioactive isotopes is about
a. 4.5 billion years.
b. 5700 years.
c. a few seconds.
d. a few years.
e. too variable for any generalization.
____ 52. Artificially induced radioactive elements generally have relatively
a. medium-length half lives.
b. long half lives.
c. short half lives.
____ 53. Carbon-14 is radioactive and decays into
a. carbon-12.
b. oxygen-14.
c. carbon-13.
d. nitrogen-14.
e. none of the above
____ 54. The reason carbon dating works is that
a. there is so much non-radioactive carbon dioxide in the air.
b. when a plant or animal dies, it stops producing oxygen.
c. plants and animals are such strong emitters of carbon-14.
d. after a plant or animal dies, it stops taking in fresh carbon-14.
e. none of the above
____ 55. Radioactive tracers can be used to help
a. engineers study how parts of a car withstand wear.
b. farmers use the proper amount of fertilizer.
c. public utility workers trace leaks in buried pipes.
d. doctors trace food as it moves through the body.
e. all of the above
____ 56. Carbon-14 is produced in the atmosphere primarily by
a. photosynthesis.
b. cosmic ray bombardment.
c. nitrogen bombardment.
d. plants and animals.
e. none of the above
____ 57. Carbon dating requires that the object being tested contain
a. sugar molecules.
b. inorganic material.
c. charcoal.
d. organic material.
e. none of the above
____ 58. Most radiation we are exposed to comes from
a. nuclear power plants.
b. weapons-testing fallout.
c. cosmic rays and earth minerals.
d. medical X-rays.
e. none of the above
____ 59. Which type of radioactive decay occurs when the atomic number increases by one?
a. beta decay
b. alpha decay
c. positron decay
d. gamma decay
____ 60. When a nucleus emits a beta particle, its atomic number
a. changes, and so does its mass number.
b. changes, but its mass number remains constant.
c. remains constant, and so does its mass number.
d. remains constant, but its mass number changes.
e. none of the above.
____ 61. When uranium (92 protons) ejects an alpha particle, the nucleus left behind has
a. 92 protons.
b. 91 protons.
c. 90 protons.
d. 89 protons.
e. 88 protons.
____ 62. When thorium (90 protons) ejects a beta particle, the resulting nucleus has
a. 87 protons.
b. 88 protons.
c. 89 protons.
d. 90 protons.
e. none of the above
____ 63. When a nucleus emits a positron, its atomic number
a. doesn't change.
b. increases by 1.
c. decreases by 1.
____ 64. An element will decay to another element with higher atomic number in the periodic table if it emits
a. a proton.
b. an alpha particle.
c. a beta particle.
d. a gamma ray.
e. none of the above
____ 65. In order for an atom to decay to an element that is one greater in atomic number, it can emit
a. 1 positron and 2 beta particles.
b. 1 alpha particle and 3 beta particles.
c. 1 beta particle.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
____ 66. An element emits 2 alpha particles and 5 beta particles. Its atomic number
a. increases by 2.
b. decreases by 2.
c. stays the same.
d. decreases by 1.
e. increases by 1.
____ 67. You should limit the amount of extra radiation to which you are exposed, because
a. the body can only handle a certain amount of radiation in one lifetime.
b. radiation is harmful to the body.
c. radiation disrupts the body's intricately structured cell system.
d. all of the above
____ 68. An experimenter finds that 25% of a sample of radium-226 has decayed. Since radium-226 has a half-life of
1620 years, the sample's age is about
a. 810 years.
b. 1620 years.
c. 3240 years.
d. 6480 years.
e. none of the above
____ 69. A sample of a certain radioactive material has a half-life of 1 year. How much of this radioactive material will
be left at the end of 3 years?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e. All of it
____ 70. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years. Suppose a bone was found that contains one fourth the concentration
of carbon-14 as a new bone of the same material. What is the approximate age of the bone?
a. 5,730 years.
b. 22,920 years.
c. 34,380 years.
d. 11,460 years.
e. none of the above
____ 71. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years. If a 1-gram sample of old carbon is as radioactive as 1 gram of a
current sample, then the age of the old sample is
a. 1,910 years.
b. 716 years.
c. 17,190 years.
d. none of the above
____ 72. A certain radioactive isotope placed near a Geiger counter registers 160 counts per second. 32 hours later, the
counter registers 10 counts per second. What is the half-life of the isotope?
a. 8 hours
b. 16 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 32 hours
e. none of the above
____ 73. A certain radioactive isotope placed near a Geiger counter registers 120 counts per minute. If the half-life of
the isotope is 1 day, what will the count rate be at the end of 4 days?
a. 30 counts/min
b. 7.5 counts/min
c. 15 counts/min
d. 60 counts/min
e. 5 counts/min
____ 74. Electrical forces inside a nucleus contribute to nuclear
a. stability.
b. instability.
c. both A and B
d. none of the above
____ 75. Nuclear fission occurs when
a. we cut nuclei in two with a very small cutting device.
b. electrical forces inside a nucleus overpower nuclear forces.
c. one nucleus bumps into another causing a chain reaction.
d. a nucleus divides spontaneously, with no apparent reason.
e. none of the above
____ 76. When U-235 splits, it usually emits
a. no particles at all.
b. many electrons.
c. many protons.
d. one neutron.
e. three neutrons.
____ 77. Most nuclear power reactors work by
a. generating heat.
b. producing steam.
c. boiling water.
d. running turbines.
e. all of the above
____ 78. Besides U-235, another material that undergoes fission readily is
a. U-238.
b. neptunium-239.
c. plutonium-239.
d. U-239.
e. all of the above
____ 79. A benefit to using nuclear fission power is that it
a. conserves organic fuels, such as oil, coal, and wood.
b. eliminates huge quantifies of sulfur oxides, which pollute our air.
c. supplies a large amount of electricity.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
____ 80. The release of energy in nuclear fission is consistent with the fact that uranium has
a. less mass per nucleon than either of the two fragments.
b. exactly the same mass per nucleon as the two fragments.
c. more mass per nucleon than either of the two fragments.
____ 81. A breeder reactor is more efficient than a conventional nuclear fission reactor in that
a. nuclear fuel is created inside the reactor.
b. there is a plentiful supply of material for it.
c. unfissionable material is converted into fissionable material.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
____ 82. In a breeder reactor
a. plutonium is converted into uranium.
b. uranium is converted into plutonium.
c. both A and B
d. none of the above
____ 83. The rate of a chain reaction in a nuclear fission reactor is controlled by
a. nucleons.
b. control rods.
c. uranium rods.
d. moderators.
____ 84. A graph of nuclear mass per nucleon for all the elements
a. starts low, peaks, and then slowly decreases.
b. starts high, dips, and then slowly increases.
c. is an ever-increasing graph.
d. is a straight line.
____ 85. The element with the least mass per nucleon is
a. uranium.
b. iron.
c. helium.
d. hydrogen.
e. none of these
____ 86. The energy we get in nuclear reactions comes from
a. work we do on the reactor.
b. water.
c. the sun.
d. the mass of the fuel.
e. energy we put into the reactor.
____ 87. Nuclear fusion releases energy when
a. uranium emits a neutron.
b. uranium splits into two fragments.
c. very light nuclei fuse together.
d. heavy ions fuse together.
____ 88. The primary fuel for a nuclear fusion reactor is
a. hydrogen.
b. plutonium.
c. helium.
d. uranium.
e. iron.
____ 89. Present-day research in nuclear fusion uses
a. ion beams.
b. ultra hot plasmas.
c. laser beams.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
____ 90. When two light atoms fuse together, mass
a. is converted to energy.
b. remains the same.
c. is gained.
d. is created from energy.
____ 91. A nuclear process that has relatively few radioactive byproducts is
a. fission.
b. fusion.
c. both A and B
d. none of the above
____ 92. The mass of a nucleus is exactly equal to the sum of the masses of its individual
a. neutrons.
b. protons.
c. nucleons.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
____ 93. A nuclear proton has least mass in the nucleus of
a. hydrogen.
b. iron.
c. uranium.
d. oxygen.
e. same mass in all of the above.
____ 94. Splitting helium would yield
a. a net release of energy.
b. a net absorption of energy.
c. neither absorption nor release of energy.
____ 95. Fusing two helium nuclei yields
a. a net release of energy.
b. a net absorption of energy.
c. neither absorption nor release of energy.
____ 96. Splitting an iron nucleus would yield
a. a net release of energy.
b. neither absorption nor release of energy.
c. a net absorption of energy.
____ 97. Splitting a lead nucleus would yield
a. a net release of energy.
b. a net absorption of energy.
c. neither absorption nor release of energy.
____ 98. If gold were used as nuclear fuel, it would be best
a. either fused or split.
b. split.
c. fused.
____ 99. If carbon were used as a nuclear fuel, it would best be
a. fused.
b. either fissioned or fused.
c. fissioned.
____ 100. When light nuclei such as hydrogen fuse to form helium energy is
a. released.
b. absorbed.
c. none of the above.