Download Second Year - WordPress.com

CHAPTER # 1
Periodic Classification of Elements & Periodicity
1.
Which of the following pairs are chemically
dissimilar?
(A) Na and K
(C) Zr and Hf
2.
11.
(B) Ba and Sr
(D) Ca and Zn.
(A) Carbon
(C) Nitrogen
12.
13.
3.
(A) Zn2+
(C) Ni2+
9.
(B) Fr
(C) Be.
16.
(B) Rb
(C) CI
Which one of the following is an incorrect
statement?
17.
Electron affinity depends on
(A) Atomic size
(B) Nuclear charge
(C) Atomic number
(D) Atomic size and nuclear charge both.
(B) Cu+
(D) Ag+
Ca2+ ion is isoelectronic with
18.
(A) Mg2+
(C) Ar
10.
The atomic radius increases as we move
down a group because
(A) The ionization potential of nitrogen is
greater than that of chlorine
(B) The electron affinity of fluorine is greater
than that of chlorine
(C) The ionization potential of beryllium is
greater than that of boron
(D) The electronegativity of fluorine is greater
than that of chlorine.
(B) Al3+
(D) N+
Which of the following ions are paramagnetic
in character?
(B) H2O
(C) CO2
(A) Effective nuclear charge increases
(B) Atomic mass increases
(C) Additive electrons are accommodated in
new electron level
(D) Atomic number increase.
Which of the following is isoelectronic with
carbon atom?
(A) Na+
(C) O2-
8.
15.
The oxide of which of the following elements
will be acidic in character
(A) Mg
(C) Li
7.
(B) Ni2+
(C) Al3+
(B) S
(D) CI.
Which of the following is isoelectronic as well
as has the same structure as that of N2O ?
(A) N3H
(B) NO2
Which of the following has greatest tendency
to lose electron?
(A) F
(B) S
6.
14.
Which of the following ion will form most water
soluble hydroxide?
(A) K+
(B) Zn2+
5.
(B) Cs
(D) None
(B) Mg2+
(D) CI
Which of the following element has the
maximum electron affinity?
(A) F
(C) I
The alkali metal which is liquid at 15oC is
(A) K
(C) Na
4.
(B) 14
(C) 30
(B) Oxygen
(C) Boron.
Which of the following has the smallest size?
(A) Na+
(C) Al3+
The total number of inner transition elements
is
(A) 10
(C) 28
Which of the following has highest first
ionization potential?
(B) Na+
(D) Kr
Gradual addition of electronic shells in the
noble gases causes a decrease in their
(A) Ionization energy
(C) Boiling point
Two elements whose eletronegativities are 1.2
and 3.0, the bond formed between them would
be
(A) Ionic
(C) Coordinate
(B) covalent
(C) metallic.
(B) atomic radius
(D) density.
1
19.
Ionic radii are
29.
(A) Directly proportional to square of effective
nuclear charges
(B) Inversely proportional to effective nuclear
charge
(C) Inversely proportional to square of
effective nuclear charge
(D) Directly proportional to effective nuclear
charge.
20.
(B) CO2
(D) SnO2
30.
a.
c.
32.
34.
Mendeleev’s periodic table was based on
35.
(B) F and CI
(D) Cu and Au
Which one of the following has the maximum
electron affinity?
(A) I
(B) Br
(C) CI
(D) F
Elements with greater number of electrons
have _________values of ionization energy.
a) Only one
c) Zero
Elements present in a same group have the
same
“s” and “p” block elements are also called
a)
b)
c)
d)
36.
On electrolysis of NaH, hydrogen is liberated
(B) in the electrolyte
(D) none of them
b) Atomic mass
d) Electronic configuration
a) Atomic number
b) Molecular weight
c) Chemical properties
d) Electronic configuration
(B) 2
(D) 4
Which is the part of metalloids?
(A) At anode
(C) At cathode
28.
Decrease
No regular trend
No. of electrons gained
No. of electrons lost
No. of electrons gained or lost
None of above correctly represent it
a) Atomic number
c) Atomic volume
The element with Z = 24 is placed in the period
(A) NA and K
(C) None of these
27.
b
d.
Element, of group I-B are called
(A) 5
(C) 3
26.
affinity
Oxidation state of an atom represents______
(B) Lockery
(D) Ramsay
(A) Representative elements
(B) Transition elements
(C) Rare earth
(D) Coinage metals
25.
electron
Atom will lose electron easily
Atom will gain electron easily
Atom may form di-positive ion
The reason is unknown
Increase
Remain constant
a.
b.
c.
d.
33.
24.
of
Melting points of VII-A group ___________
down the group
Who introduced the zero groups?
(A) Lothar Meyer
(C) Mendleev
23.
Higher
value
means_________
a.
b.
c.
d.
31.
b) K+
d) Ca+2
Mark the correct statement:
(A) Na+ is smaller than Na atom
(B) Na+ is larger than Na atom
(C) CI- is smaller than CI atom
(D) CI- and CI are equal in size
22.
a) Na+
c) Mg+2
Which of the following oxides is atmospheric in
character?
(A) CaO
(C) SiO2
21.
Which of the following possess maximum
hydration power?
Transition elements
Inert elements
Typical elements
Rare earth elements
What is the symbol of the element with only
three electrons and three protons?
a) Li
c) Ag
37.
b) C
d) Cu
Elements with seven electrons in their valence
shell are known as
a) Inert
c) Halogens
b) Lanthanides
d) Alkali metals
b) More than one
d) Infinite
2
38.
Which of the following pairs of elements are
chemically most similar?
48.
a) Na and Al
c) S and F
39.
b) Cu and Cu
d) Sc and Zn
A student of chemistry will identify positively
the following symbols as sodium
23
a)
W
b)
d)
13
40.
44.
53.
b) Beryllium
d) Carbon
b) Complete orbital
d) Free orbital
b) Electronegative
d) None of these
b) MgO
d) P2O3
b) O-2
d) Na+
Ionization energy is lowest for
a) Inert gases
c) Alkali metals
b) Halogens
d) Alkaline earth metals
57.
b) Cu
d) Sr
Which two of the following are iso electronic
with one another?
a) Na+ and O
c) Na+ and Ne
Which of the following is smallest in size?
b) I -1
d) F
In its chemical properties, calcium is most
similar to
a) Cs
c) Sc
56.
b) 2
d) F
Which of the following will have largest size?
a) Br
c) I
55.
b) Cl
d) I
The element with atomic number 7 is likely to
have same properties to the element whose
atomic number is
a) 11
c) 15
54.
b) Fluorine
d) Iodine
Which halogen has the smallest electron
affinity?
a) F
c) Br
Which of the following has the most basic
character?
a) K+1
c) F-1
47.
52.
b) 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S1
d) 1S2 2S2 2P5
Excluding hydrogen and helium, the smallest
elements in the periodic table is
a) Lithium
c) Cesium
Elements, which form basic oxides are
a) Na2O
c) Al2O3
46.
51.
b) Electronegative
d) None of these
Which of the following has the highest electron
affinity?
a) 1S2 2S2 2P3
c) 1S2 2S2 2P5
The outer most orbital involved in chemical
bonding is called
a) Electropositive
c) Inert
45.
50.
b) Cu
d) Pd
Which is the most metallic element of 2nd
period?
a) Molecular orbital
c) Valence orbital
b) Plutonium
d) Tritium
With respect to chlorine, hydrogen will be
a) Electropositive
c) Neutral
16
Which one of the following is not a coinage
metal?
a) Lithium
c) Boron
43.
Z
Most electronegative
Most electropositive
Less electropositive
Less electronegative
a) Au
c) Ag
42.
X
In the periodic table each period begins with a
metal, which is
a)
b)
c)
d)
41.
49.
19
32
26
Y
a) Neptunium
c) Thorium
40
11
c)
An isotope of hydrogen is
b) Na+ and K+
d) Ne and O
Which of the following is a transuranic
element?
a) Americium
c) Neptunium
b) Plutonium
d) All of these
3
58.
The hydrogen, which is present in the
atmosphere of sun and stars in a large
amount, is
a) H2
b) H
c) H+
d) H-
59.
Cesium and Francium are liquids above
a) 10oC
c) 20oC
60.
61.
62.
63.
71.
The adsorption of hydrogen by platinum is
known as
a) Hydrogenation
c) Occlusion
72.
b) NaH
d) NaBH4
b) Dehydrogenation
d) Substitution
a) Decreases
c) Remains constant
b) – 337 kj/mol
d) 348.8 kj/mol
Which ionic halides have high m.p and b.p?
73.
b) Chloride
d) Iodide
Which gas is used in the making of tungsten
bulb filaments?
74.
Iodide>bromide>chloride> fluoride
Bromide>chloride>fluoride>iodide
Chloride>bromide>iodide>fluoride
Fluoride>chloride>bromide>iodide
b) Neutrons
d) All of these
Ionic hydrides are also called
The hydrides are acts as powerful reducing
agents are
b) Al – Razi
d) Mendeleeve
Dobreiner’s work led to the law of triads which
states that ______
a) Atomic weight of any one element was
found to be approximately the mean of the
other two elements of triad.
b) Atomic weight of the middle element was
found to be approximately the mean of the
other two elements of a triad.
c) Atomic number of any one element was
found to be approximately the mean of the
other two elements of a triad.
d) Atomic number of the middle element was
found t be approximately the mean of the
other two elements of a triad.
A hydride ion and helium atom has same
number of
b) Salt like hydrides
d) None of these
b) 110
d) 150
_______ classified the then known elements
into metals, non metals and their derivatives.
a) Dobreiner
c) Newlands
75.
b) Increases
d) None of these
______ elements have been discovered so
far.
a) 100
c) 120
b) N2
d) CO2
The ionic halides in order of decreasing m.p
and b.p can be arranges as
a) Saline hydrides
c) Both a & b
68.
a) PH3
c) LaH3
a) – 348.8 kj/mol
c) 337 kj/mol
a) Protons
c) Electrons
67.
halogen
Which one is the example of complex hydride?
The electron affinity of fluorine is
a)
b)
c)
d)
66.
the
b) Covalent
d) Complex
From left to right in a periodic table charge to
mass ratio increases therefore the hydration
energy
a) H2
c) O2
65.
of
Lose their outermost electrons less easily
Become less dense
Becomes lighter in color
Gain electrons less easily
a) Fluoride
c) Bromide
64.
70.
b) Covalent
d) Complex
The hydrides which are non stoichiometric in
nature are
a) Ionic
c) Interstitial
b) Unstable
d) None of these
As the atomic number
increases, the halogens
a)
b)
c)
d)
69.
b) 15oC
d) 30oC
In an aqueous solution the hydrides of alkali
metals are
a) Stable
c) No change
a) Ionic
c) Interstitial
76.
The law of octaves was given by _______
a) Dobreiner
c) Newlands
b) Al – Razi
d) None of these
4
c) 4
84.
Which ion has the maximum polarization
power?
a) L+
c) Al 3+
77.
85.
Mendeleev’s Periodic Table was based on
_______
a) Atomic number
c) Atomic volume
79.
Moseley’s work led to the periodic law, which
states that _______
A pair of elements in the same family in the
periodic table classification is ________
a) Chlorine and carbon
b) Calcium and aluminum
c) Nitrogen and neon
d) Sodium and potassium
81.
82.
87.
a) 1
b) 2
b) Atomic weight
d) None
The lowest ionization energies are found in the
_______
a) Inert gases
b) Alkali metals
c) Transition elements d) Halogens
90.
The unit of ionization energy is _______
a) Joule
c) Electron volt
91.
92.
b) Calorie
d) None
The electropositive elements form _____
a) Acidic oxides
c) Neutral oxides
b) Basic oxides
d) Amphoteric oxide
The electronegative elements form _____
a) Acidic oxides
c) Neutral oxides
b) Basic oxides
d) Amphoteric oxide
93.
The ionization energy of nitrogen is more than
oxygen because of _______
a) More attraction of electrons by the nucleus
b) More penetration effect
c) The extra stability of half filled p – orbital
d) The size of nitrogen atom is smaller.
94.
_______ ion has the largest radius.
b) p – block
d) f – block
How many ionization energies can carbon
have?
b) P – block
d) Zero block
The volume in cubic centimeters occupied by
one gram atom of the element is called
______
a) Atomic volume
c) Mass number
89.
b) Cl → Cl
d) H → H
Most of the known elements are metals of
______ of periodic table.
a) D – block
c) III – group
88.
b) Cld) I
The process requiring absorption of energy is
a) F → F
c) O → O2
Uranium is a member of
a) s – block
c) d – block
83.
86.
In the period, the elements are arranged in
strict sequence in order of _______
a) Increasing charges in the nucleus.
b) Increasing atomic weights.
c) Increasing number of electrons in valence
shell.
d) Increasing valency.
Which of the following halides is not oxidized
by MnO2?
a) F
c) Br
b) Atomic mass
d) Electronic configuration
a) The number of the electrons in the 1st
energy level increases as the atomic
number increases.
b) The properties of the elements are a
periodic function of their atomic mass.
c) The x – rays spectra of the elements are
more complex than the optical spectra.
d) The properties of elements are the periodic
function of their atomic number.
80.
b) Mg 2+
d) O 2-
Law of octave states that ______
a) The properties of every 6th element from the
given one were similar to the first.
b) The properties of every 9th element from the
given one were similar to the first.
c) The properties of every 8th element from the
given one were similar to the first.
d) The properties of every 7th element from the
given one were similar to the second.
78.
d) 6
a) Al+3
b) Cl-1
5
c) F-1
95.
d) O-2
Ionic hydrides are usually _______
a) Liquids at room temperature
b) Good reducing agents
c) Good electrical conductors in solid state
d) Easily reduced.
96.
The hydronium ion is a/an _______
a) Ion with formula H2O+
b) Ion with the formula H3O+
c) Free radical rather than an ion
d) Ion formed by removal of H- form a water
molecule.
97.
When steam is passed over red hot coke at
1000oC, a mixture of carbon monoxide and
hydrogen gas is produced. It is known as
______
a) Heavy water
c) Phosgen gas
CHAPTER # 2
S-Block Elements
1.
The oxides of beryllium are.
(A) Acidic
(C) Ba+2
2.
Which ion will have the maximum value of
heat of hydration?
(A) Na+
(C) Ba+2
b) Water gas
d) None
3.
(B) Basic
(D) Mg+2
(B) Cs+
(D) Mg+2
Which one of the following is not an alkali
metal?
(A) Sodium sulphate
(C) Zinc sulphate
4.
B) Potassium sulphate
D) Barium sulphate
The element cesium bears resemblance with.
(A) Ca
(C) Both of the above
5.
Chile saltpeter had the chemical formula
(A) NaNO3
(C) Na2B4O7
6.
(B) Cr
(D) None of the above
(B) KNO3
(D) Na2CO3H2O
The ore CaSO42H2O has the general name.
(A) Gypsum
(C) Calcite
7.
(B) Dolomite
(D) Epsom salt
Down's cell is used to prepare.
(A) Sodium carbonate
(B) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Sodium metal
(D) Sodium hydroxide
8.
Which element is deposited at the cathode
during the electrolysis of brine in Nelson's cell?
(A) H2
(C) CI2
9.
(B) Na
(D) O2
Ionic radius of potassium is.
(A) 60 pm
(C) 99 pm
(B) 133 pm
(D) 169 pm
6
B
10.
Among alkaline Earth Metals, the highest heat
of hydration is of.
(A) Be
(C) Rb
11.
The chemical formula of Alumite (Alum stone)
is.
14.
23.
(B) K
(D) Li
17.
24.
25.
(A) Bones, egg shells
(C) Sea-shells
26.
(B) Rb
(D) Na
Calcium Phosphate Ca3 (PO4) and calcium
fluoride CaF2 are essential part of living
organisms.
27.
B) Gypsum
D) None of the above
When deficiency of calcium exists various
substances are accumulated in plants in
harmful concentration which are.
Which alkali metal behave different by from
others?
(B) Na
(D) Li
Spodumene, petalite, halite, natron, alinite are
the common minerals of.
A) Alkali metals
B) Alkaline earth metals
C) Both of the above D) Li
(B) teeth
(D) All of the above
Sodium is prepared by the electrolysis of.
(A) Simple NaCI in Down,s cell
(B) Molten NaCI in Down,s cell
(C) Molten sodium hydroxide in down's cell
(D) None of the above
(B) Mg
(D) Ba
The melting point and boiling point of which
alkaline earth metal is high.
(A) Sr
(C) Be
20.
The root system of several plants have been
greatly enlarged by the application of.
Dolomite is a compound of which elements.
(A) Be
(C) Ca
19.
(B) CaSO4, 2H2O(gypsum)
(D) LiNO3
(A) Mg
(C) Rb
28.
18.
Plaster of paris is formed after heating upto
100OC
(A) Lime
(B) Aluminium
(C) Aliminium and Manganese
(D) None of the above
(B) Plants
(C) None of the above
Which of the alkali earth metal has radioactive
nature.
(B) Cs
(D) Be
A) Sulphur
C) Both of the above
Magnesium is an essential constituent of.
(A) Be
(C) Both of the above
(B) -200OC
(D) -0oC
Among the alkaline earth metal which has
least reactivity even upto 800oC
(A) Mg(NO3)2
(C) NaNO2
Due to the high reactivity nature of the alkali
metals, they are found in.
(A) Storaata
(C) ChlorophyII
16.
22.
(A) Ba
(C) Li
(A) Free in nature
(B) Bounded with other elements
(C) Not free in nature
(D) All of the above
15.
Potassium, rubidium and caeslium are so
highly reactive that they react with ice even at .
(A) -100OC
(C) -50oC
Among alkali metals the lowest atomic number
is of.
(A) Rb
(C) Sr
(B) K, Na, Cs,
(D) None of the above
(B) KCI
(D) NaCI
(A) KCI. MgCI2. 6H2O
(B) KCI
(C) Na2B4O7. 10H2O
(D) K2SO4 Al(SO4)3. 2Al(OH)3
13.
21.
The chemical formula of sylvite is.
(A) Na2CO3. H2O
(C) KCI. MgCL2. 6H2O
12.
(B) Sr
(D) Cs
(A) K, Rb, Cs
(C) K, Li, Na
(B) Mg
(D) Na
The super oxides are formed by the elements.
29.
Lime is used in.
(A) Glass industry
(B) Glass and paper industries
(C) Paper industries
(D) None of the above
7
30.
The elements which are very abundant in
earth crust are__________
a) Si & Aℓ
c) B & Aℓ
39.
a) Ionic
c) Metallic
b) Ca & Mg
d) All
40.
31.
32.
The alkali metals, which have radioactive
isotopes
a) Acidic
c) Amphoteric
a) Li
c) K
b) Basic
d) None
Carbonates of lithium are not stable like that of
sodium due to _____
42.
b) Caesium
d) Radium
b) Potassium sulphate
d) Barium sulphate
The ore CaSO4.2H2O has the general
name____
a) Gypsum
c) Sodium metal
45.
36.
Crystals of Na2CO3. 10H2O when exposed to
air, _______
a) Lose water and remain solid
b) Gain water and remain solid
c) Gain water and become liquid
d) Remains unchanged.
37.
The deliquescence is a process in which a
solid________
47.
48.
b) Ca
d) Sr
Metals, which are higher that water, are
Alkaline earth metals
Coinage metals
Alkali metals
All of these
Except lithium, the hydroxides of all alkali
metals are
a) Strongly acidic
c) Weakly basic
49.
b) Violet
d) Yellow
All alkaline earth metals are white except
a)
b)
c)
d)
In diaphragm cell, level of brine in anode
compartment is kept slightly higher which
prevents_________
a) Hydroxide ions to reach anode
b) Chlorine gas to mix
c) Anode to decay
d) All
Sodium imparts color to Bunsen flame
a) Mg
c) Be
a) Absorbs moisture and remains solid
b) Absorbs moisture and turns to liquid form
c) Loses water of crystallization
d) Increases the number of water of
crystallization
38.
Free motion of valence electrons
High I.P
Lesser atomic radii
None of these
a) Green
c) Blue
46.
b) MgCO3.CaCO3
d) BaSO4
The high electrical conductivity of alkali metals
is due to the
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Dolomite
d) Sodium hydroxide
b) Halite
d) Sylvite
Which one of the following is dolomite?
a) MgCO3
c) CaCO3
44.
b) Potassium
d) Cesium
Na2SO3.10H2O is the mineral of sodium and is
called
a) Spodumene
c) Natron
43.
b) Na
d) K and Rb
Halite is the mineral of
a) Sodium
c) Lithium
Which of the following sulphates is not soluble
in water?
a) Sodium sulphate
c) Zinc sulphate
35.
41.
Which one of the following is not an alkali
metal?
a) Francium
c) Rubidium
34.
b) Covalent
d) Co-ordinate covalent
The oxides of Be are ___________
a) Low electronegativity
b) Low electropositivity
c) Low charge density
d) Not know yet
33.
Alkali metals form bonds
b) Strongly basic
d) All of these
The carbonates and phosphates of which
elements are insoluble in water
8
a) Na and K
c) Li and Mg
50.
b) Na and Be
d) All of these
59.
All alkaline earth metals react with water at
room temperature to release hydrogen and
give basic solutions except
a) Be and Ca
c) Ca and Mg
b) Be and Mg
d) Mg and Sr
Which alkali metal is rare and found in a small
amount in all – igneous rocks?
a) Li
c) K
60.
The ingredient of baking powder is
a) NaHCO3
c) Na2CO3
51.
Lithium only forms normal oxides when burnt
on air but when sodium burnt in air it forms
a) Normal oxides
c) Peroxides
52.
b) Sub oxides
d) Super oxides
The super oxides of alkali metals are generally
represented by
a) M2O
c) MO2
61.
63.
53.
The nitrates of which group decompose on
heating with the formation of nitrites and
evolution of oxygen
a) IA
c) III A
54.
b) II A
d) IV A
65.
a)
b)
c)
d)
To make it good conductor
To decrease the m.p of NaCl
To increase the ionization of NaCl
To decrease the ionization of NaCl
Liquid sodium in the Down’s cell is collected at
a temperature of
a) 700oC
c) 500oC
56.
b) Dry chlorine
d) Hydrogen
68.
b) NaHCO3
d) Na2CO3
Which of the following does not conduct
electricity?
a) Boron
c) Indium
b) NaCl
d) NaOH
The radioactive alkaline earth metal is
a) Be
c) Ra
69.
b) CaSO4.H2O
d) MgSO4
Which one is commonly used as a
laboratory desicator?
a) Na2CO3
c) CaCl3
Which is manufactured by the electrolysis of
fused sodium chloride?
a) NaOH
c) Na
58.
67.
b) SiO2
d) MgO
Gypsum is
a) CaSO4.2H2O
c) CaSO4
The product, which is obtained at cathode in
the Down’s cell is
a) Liquid Sodium
c) Water
57.
b) 600oC
d) 400oC
b) NaBr
d) NaF
Which one of the following is most basic?
a) Al2O3
c) P2O5
66.
55.
b) Alcohol
d) Kerosene oil
Which one has high m.p?
a) NaCl
c) Nal
A small amount of calcium chloride or mixture
of KCl and KF is added to NaCl in Down’s cell
b) CaCO3
d) NaOH
Potassium is kept in
a) Water
c) Ammonia
64.
b) CaSO4.H2O
d) 2CaSO4.H2O
Which of the following is fluorspar?
a) CaO
c) CaF2
b) M2O2
d) M2O3
b) NaOH
d) NaCl
The formula of plaster of Paris is
a) CaSO4
c) CaSO4.2H2O
62.
b) Na
d) Fr
b) Mg
d) Ba
Which one of the following elements has its
compounds which are diamagnetic and
colourless?
a) Be
c) Na
b) Sr
d) All of these
b) Gallium
d) Thallium
9
70.
Which metal is an important component of
transistors?
a) Ag
c) Ra
79.
a) Cubic
c) Hexagonal
b) Au
d) Os
80.
71.
Which impurities are present in common salt?
a) Na2SO4
c) CaCl2
72.
a)
b)
c)
d)
73.
The alkali metal, which is artificially prepared
81.
82.
b) Rb
d) Cs
NaOH
NaCl
NaHCO3 and dilute acid
NaHCO3 and NaOH
LiCl is more soluble in organic solvents than
NaCl because
a)
b)
c)
d)
84.
Li+1 has higher heat of hydration than Na+
Li+1 has lower heat of hydration than Na+
LiCl is more covalent than NaCl
Lattice energy of NaCl is less than that of
LiCl
77.
Mg+2 has fewer electron than Na+1
Mg+2 has greater electron than Na+1
Mg+2 has greater atomic number than Na+1
Mg+2 has low I.P than Na+1
Which
of
them
electronegativity?
has
almost
a) Be, B
c) Be, Al
b) B, Al
d) K, Na
same
A mixture formed by mixing one volume of
slaked lime Ca(OH)2 with three or four volume
of sand and water to form a thick paste is
called
b) Dead water
d) Milk of lime
Which compound is used for uric acid
treatment in human beings?
If the compound has the same crystal
structure and analogous formulae, they are
called
a) Na2CO3
c) Li2CO3
a) Isotopes
c) Isomers
b) NaHCO3
d) NaNO3
Which element is used in T.V picture tube?
a) Na
c) Ca
78.
b) Mg(OH)2
d) Ba(OH)2
Mg+2 is smaller the Na+1 because
a) Lime water
c) Quick lime
85.
76.
The hydroxide, which is called milk of
magnesium and is used for treatment of acidity
in stomach, is
a)
b)
c)
d)
83.
75.
Potassium super oxide (KO2) is used in
breathing equipments for mountaineers and
space craft because it absorb
a) Ca(OH)2
c) Sr(OH)2
The chemical use for the production of CO 2 in
the fire extinguishers is
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Monoclinic
d) Orthorhombic
a) Oxygen and giving out CO2 at the same
time
b) N2 and giving out CO2 at the same time
c) CO2 and giving out O2 at the same time
d) Pollutants and giving out O2 at the same
time
Greater I.P of K
Greater I.P of Na
More electropositivity of K
More electropositivity of Na
a) Na
c) Fr
74.
b) CaSO4
d) All of these
K can displace Na from NaCl due to
Plaster of Paris has a structure
b) K
d) Cs
Which one is used in the manufacture of chalk
pencils?
a) Marble
c) Epsom salt
86.
b) Gypsum
d) Baking soda
Out of all elements of group IA, the highest
heat of hydration is for _______
a) K
c) Cs
87.
b) Allotropes
d) Isobars
b) Rb
d) Li
The nitride ion in lithium nitride is composed of
a) 7 protons and 7 electrons
b) 10 protons and 7 electrons
c) 10 protons and 10 electrons
10
d) 10 protons and 5 electrons
88.
89.
When NH3 is passed over heated sodium at
300oC, the product formed is
a) NaNH2
b) NaNO2
c) Na(NH3)2
d) Na3N
d) It floats on the fused sodium chloride
97.
a) Stable
c) Soluble
98.
b) Kerosene
d) Water
a) Normal oxide
c) Super oxide
99.
b) KNO2
d) KNO3
b) Diatomic
d) None of these
Sodium is not observed in + 2 oxidation state
because of its ______
a) High first ionization potential
b) High second oxidation potential
c) High ionic radius
d) High electronegativity
103.
A graphite anode is used in Down’s cell for the
production of sodium because ______
b) Ca(ClO4)2
d) Ca(ClO2)2
Sodium hydroxide solution reacts with
phosphorus to give phosphine, To bring about
we need this reaction
a) White phosphorus and dilute NaOH
b) White phosphorus and concentrated NaOH
c) Red phosphorus and dilute NaOH
d) Red phosphorus and concentrated NaOH
104.
In the alkali metal series, Cesium is the most
reactive metal because _______
a) Its incomplete shell is nearest to nucleus
b) The valence electron has a larger orbit than
the orbit of the valence electron of any of
the other.
c) It exerts considerable beautiful force on the
valence electrons
d) It is a heavier metal.
b) ZnH2ZA
d) ZnO
Which of the following represents calcium
chlorite?
a) CaClO2
c) Ca(ClO3)2
The metallic luster of sodium is explained by
the presence of _______
a) Na+ ions
b) Conduction electrons
c) Free protons
d) A body centered cubic lattice
Excess of NaOH reacts with zinc to form
a) Zn(OH)2
c) Na2ZnO2
102.
96.
b) KOH
d) HCl
In general alkali metals act as ________
101.
95.
b) Baking soda
d) None of these
_______ is a stronger base.
a) NaOH
c) LiOH
a) Reducing agents
b) Oxidizing agents
c) Both reducing and oxidizing agents
d) None of these
94.
Sodium bicarbonate is commonly called
a) Soda ash
c) Caustic soda
100.
93.
b) Peroxide
d) None of these
Alkali metals do not exist in
a) Monoatomic
c) Triatomic
92.
When burnt in air, Lithium forms _______
Chile sulphur is
a) NaNO2
c) NaNO3
91.
b) Unstable
d) None of these
Sodium metal can be stored under
a) Benzene
c) Alcohol
90.
Alkaline earth metals form ______ carbides on
heating with carbon.
Sodium reacts with water more vigorously than
lithium because it
a) Has higher atomic weight
b) Is more electronegative
c) Is more electropositive
d) Is a metal
105.
Plaster of Paris hardens by
a) Giving off CO2
b) Changing into CaCO3
c) Uniting with water
d) Giving out water
a) It does not react with sodium
b) It does not react with chlorine
c) It is easy to fashion in circular form
11
12
CHAPTER # 3
Group III and IV Elements
1.
11.
(A) Regular
(C) Both
Which metal is used in the thermal process
because of its activity.
12.
(A) Iron
(C) Aluminum
2.
(B) Copper
(D) Zinc
(B) Basic oxide
(D) None of these
(B) CaB4O7. 4H2O
(D) CaNaB5O9. 8H2O
14.
(B) Aluminum
(D) Silicon
15.
Which element among the following belongs to
Group IVA of the periodic Table.
(A) Barium
(C) Lead
16.
7.
Boric acid cannot be used.
8.
17.
(B) Carbonates
(D) None of the above
Borax occurs as natural deposit called tincal in
the dried up lakes of.
(A) Tibet
(C) Tibet & California
18.
(B) California
(D) Virginia
Group IV A of the periodic table comprises
elements.
(A) Carbon silicon
(B) Tin, carbon , silicon
(C) Carbon, silicon, tin and lead
(D) None of the above
(B) Al2O3. 2H2O
(D) Al2O3. H2O
The Group IIA of the periodic table comprises
the elements.
(A) Boron, aluminum, gallium, indium and
thallium.
(B) Boron gallium, thallium.
(C) Aluminum, calcium, strontium.
(D) All of the above
10.
Borax is the sodium salt of tetraboric acid. It is
most important of all among.
The chief Ore of aluminum is.
(A) Na3AIF6
(C) Al2O3
9.
(B) Aluminum
(D) C
(B) Boron
(D) Gallium
Which of the elements of Group IIA are rare
and only obtained as by-products.
(A) Borates
(C) Bicarbonates
Which of the following elements is not present
abundantly in earth's crust.
(A) Silicon
(C) Sodium
Bauxite is an ore of.
(A) Gallium thallium
(B) Thallium indium
(C) Gallium indium
(D) Gallium thallium indium
(B) Iodine
(D) Oxygen
(A) As antiseptic in medicine
(B) For washing eyes
(C) In soda bottles
(D) For enamels and glazes
Aluminum is the third most abundant elements
in earth crust after.
(A) Aluminum
(C) Carbono
Which element forms an ion with charge 3+.
(A) Beryllium
(C) Carbon
6.
(B) Silicon
(D) Boron
(A) Oxygen
(B) Silicon
(C) None of the above (D) Both of the Both
Chemical composition of colemnite is.
(A) Ca2B6O11. 5H2O
(C) Na2B4O7. 4H2O
5.
Orthoboric Acid is a mineral of.
(A) Aluminum
(C) Calicium
13.
4.
(B) Irregular
(D) None of the above
Aluminum oxides is
(A) Acidic oxide
(C) Amphoteric oxide
3.
The increase in the atomic size in group is
Boron is non-metallic because of
(A) Large size and higher nuclear change
(B) Small size and higher nuclear charge
(C) Small size and smaller nuclear charge
(D) None of the above
19.
The non-metals in Group IV A are.
(A) Carbon, silicon
(C) All of the above
20.
(B) Tin and Lead
(D) None of the above
The elements of Group IV A are character
sized by a set of .
(A) Three valence shell electrons
(B) Four valence shell electrons
(C) Five valence shell electrons
(D) Two valence shell electrons
13
21.
Group IV A elements form.
(A) Super oxide
(C) Dioxide
22.
(B) Oxides
(D) All of the above
The property of catenation among the carbon
and silicon .
(A) Increase on moving down the group form
carbon to lead
(B) Decrease on moving down the group from
lead to carbon.
(C) Decreases on moving down the group
from carbon to lead
(D) Stable on moving down the group from
carbon to lead.
23.
30.
31.
32.
Which of the following does not give Borax
bead test?
a) Cu
c) Ni
33.
34.
(A) Conductors
(C) Both of the above
(A) Most of all
(B) 2nd in number
(C) Third most abundant
(D) 4th most abundant
b) Si
d) C
Because of its ability to combine with both
oxygen and nitrogen, aluminium metal is
used_________
a) As nitrometer
b) To remove air bubbles from molten metal
c) To produce alloy
d) All
(B) Insulators
(D) None of the above
Oxygen is the abundant element in earth
crust?
b) Carbon
d) Tin
Tincal is a mineral of____________
a) Al
c) B
Semiconductors conduct electricity better than.
b) Copper
d) Zinc
Which of the following shows inert pair effect?
a) Boron
c) Silicon
36.
b) Cr
d) Al
The metal which is used in thermite process
because of its activity is_______
a) Iron
c) Aluminium
Boron occurs in traces and has been found to
be important for the growth of.
(A) Plants of many kinds
(B) Plants and animals
(C) Animals
(D) None of the above
28.
One of the outstanding features of boron is
ability to form________
a) Molecular addition compounds
b) Molecular crystals
c) Semiconductors
d) All
35.
27.
Boron is a white crystalline solid and it
is________
a) More soluble in cold water
b) More soluble in hot water
c) More soluble in water
d) Soluble only in organic solvents
Various oxides are used as pigments in the
pigments of which element.
(A) Oxides of lead, basic lead carbonate etc.
(B) Various oxides of lead
(C) Various oxides of lead, basic lead
carbonate, lead chromate
(D) Oxides of aluminum
26.
b) Boric Acid
d) All
China wares are made form a mixture of
(A) Kaolin and bone ash
(B) Kaolin and feldspar
(C) Kaolin feldspar and bone ash
(D) None of the above
25.
Substance which is found in dried up lakes of
Tibet and California is______
a) Tincal
c) Calcium carbonate
The oxides of carbon are
(A) CO and CO2
(B) CO, CO2 and C3O2 carbon sub oxide
(C) CO, CO2, C2C3
(D) None of the above
24.
29.
37.
Silicon differ from silica by a group of
_________
a) CH3
c) OCH3
b) –OH
d) O2
14
38.
Boron in soil has been considered essential
specially for________
a) Soil porosity
b) Proper growth of plants
c) Alkalinity of soil
d) All
39.
41.
49.
50.
b) Remain unpaired
d) None of these
52.
a) Atomic number
c) E.N
42.
53.
Boron is metalloid and semiconductor like
a) Be
c) Si
44.
b) Metallic bond
d) Covalent bond
b) K
d) Al
b) Thallium
d) Indium
54.
45.
Termite is a mixture of
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Monoclinic
d) Trigonal
Iron oxide and aluminum
Iron oxide and copper
Copper oxide and aluminum
None of these
The hydrides B2H6 and Si2H6 are said to
55.
a) Ionic hydrides
c) Interstitial hydrides
47.
In the electrolysis of alumina is mixed with
Cryolite (Na3AlF6) and fluorspar (CaF2) in the
ratio of 20 : 60 : 20. the function of the Cryolite
and fluorspar is
Crystalline boron has structure
a) Cubic
c) Hexagonal
46.
They belong to group III A
Their ions have small size and high charge
They have high I.P
None of these
a) To decrease the fusion temperature of
alumina and to make good conductor of
electricity
b) To dissolve alumina
c) To dissolve sodium
d) To increase the ionization of alumina
Which element is unstable in air and is
oxidized superficially in air
a) Aluminum
c) Gallium
b) Ag
d) Zn
AlCl3 and GaCl3 are covalent when anhydrous
because
a)
b)
c)
d)
Boron does not easily form cations, because it
has the tendency to form bond like non-metal
a) Ionic bond
c) Hydrogen bond
43.
b) Atomic weight
d) I.P
b) Baeyer’s process
d) Grignard process
Bauxite is an oxide mineral of
a) Cu
c) Al
The tendency of the pair of S – electron to
remain inert increase with the increase in
b) HCl
d) HBO2
The process in which Bauxite is purified by
dissolving it in 45% aqueous NaOH at 150oC
to separate insoluble iron oxide as red mud is
called
a) Hall’s process
c) Arrhenius process
51.
b) Donate OH-1 ion
d) Donate H+1
The aqueous solution of which acid is used for
washing eyes?
a) H2B4O7
c) H3BO3
In p – block elements, the S – electrons of
outer shell of the heavier members are failed
to participate in bonding, because they
a) Remain paired
c) Are free
Orthoboric acid is weak acid because it
a) Accepts OH-1 ion
c) Accept H+1
Special feature of borate glass is that it is
______
a) Heat resistant
b) Low melting
c) Used to prepare chemical garden
d) All
40.
48.
b) Complex hydrides
d) Covalent hydrides
a) Reducing agent
c) A flux
The compound, which is used in borax bead
test for cations analysis, is
56.
a) NaOH
c) Na2B4O7.10H2O
b) H3BO3
d) H2B4O7
In aluminum termite process, aluminum acts
as a
b) Oxidizing agent
d) None of these
Which aluminium alloy is extremely light?
a) Duralumin
b) Alnico
15
c) Magnalium
d) Aluminium bronze
a) Cu
c) Pt
57.
Cupric oxide on heating with B2O3 yields blue
colored beads in the oxidizing flame because
a)
b)
c)
d)
58.
Cupric borates are white in color
Cupric borates are black in color
Cupric borates are green in color
Cupric borates are blue in color
67.
In mordenting aluminium ions (Al+3) are
precipitated on the cloth as
a) Al2O3
c) Al(OH)3
b) AlN
d) AlCl3
Platinum metal can be dissolved in
a)
b)
c)
d)
60.
61.
Hot con HCl
Hot con H2SO4
Hot con HNO3
A mixture of Con. HCl and con HNO3
a) Boron
c) Indium
a) Cupric oxide b) Ferric oxide
c) Aluminum oxide
d) Aluminum nitride
b) Gallium
d) Thallium
The weak acid, which cannot be titrated with
standard alkies, is
71.
73.
b) Dil HCl
d) Dil H2SO4
74.
Solid ice with any water
Solid SO2
Solid CO2
Solid C6H6
The maximum inert pair effect is shown by
75.
b) (CO2)n
d) None of these
If a metal is protected by an oxide layer from
further attack, the metal is said to be
a) Reactive
c) Passive
76.
b) Al
d) Tl
Quartz is the polymeric form of
a) (SiO2)n
c) (CH2 – CH2)n
The dry ice is a compound of
a)
b)
c)
d)
Phosgene is a poisonous gas, its chemical
name is
a) B
c) Ga
In land storage batteries, the acid used is
a) Con HCl
c) Con H2SO4
66.
b) 1 : 3
d) 3 : 2
b) HCl
d) Chlorine
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Phosphonyl chloride
c) Carbon monoxide d) Carbonyl chloride
Aqua regia is a mixture of concentrated HNO3
and concentrated HCl in the ratio of
a) 3 : 1
c) 2 : 3
65.
b) p – electrons
d) All of these
Action of aqua regia on noble metals is due to
a) HNO3
c) H2SO4
b) H2SO4
d) All of these
Carbon differs from other members of its
group due to smaller atomic size, higher
electronegativity and the absence of
a) s – electrons
c) d – electrons
64.
b) NaCl
d) Na2S2O3
Which of the following can form nitride, which
react with water to give ammonia?
72.
63.
Which of the following is used in photographic
film?
Aluminum does not react with HNO3 at any
concentration and therefore HNO3 is
transported in aluminum containers, this is due
to formation of protective layer of
a) HCl
c) H3BO3
62.
Meta boric acid
Pyroboric acid
Tetra boric acid
Boric anhydride acid (B2O3)
a) MgBr2
c) AgBr
70.
b) Sn
d) Ni
Ortho boric acid on heating at 100oC yields
a)
b)
c)
d)
69.
59.
The depositing layer in tin plating is
a) Cu
c) Al
68.
b) Ni
d) N2O5
b) Active
d) Attractive
Carbon reacts with metals to form
a) Hydrides
c) Hydroxides
b) Oxides
d) Carbide
In the contact process for the manufacturing of
H2SO4, the catalyst used is
16
77.
The control addition of III A and IV A members
in Silicon and Germanium is known as
a) Inert pair effect
c) Litharge
78.
P – type of semi conductor are formed by
mixing Silicon or Germanium with members of
a) III A
c) V A
79.
88.
89.
90.
b) Aluminum
d) Thallium
91.
92.
a) As a catalyst
b) To lower the temperature of the melt and to
make the fused mixture conducting.
c) To decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon
at the anode.
d) None of the above
86.
b) Confectionary
d) Thermite welding
In the commercial electrochemical process fro
aluminum extraction, the electrolyte used is
a) Al(OH)3 in NaOH solution
b) An aqueous solution of Al2(SO4)3
c) A molten mixture of Al2O3 and Na3AlF6
d) A molten mixture of AlO(OH) and Al(OH)3
93.
Borax is prepared by treating colemanite with
a) NaNO3
c) NaHCO3
94.
95.
b) NaCl
d) Na2CO3
Elements, which exist in two or more physical
or molecular forms, are called _______
a) Isotopes
c) Isobars
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) H3PO3 is dibasic and reducing
b) H3PO3 is tribasic and reducing
c) H3PO3 is tribasic and non – reducing
d) H3PO3 is dibasic and non – reducing
b) Sn
d) None of these
Al2O3 formation involves evolution of a larger
quantity of heat which makes its uses in
_______
a) Deoxidizer
c) Indoor photography
Orthoboric acid on heating to about 100 oC
looses a water molecule to form ______
b) Gypsum
d) None of these
_______ is a better conductor of heat.
a) Fe
c) Al
b) Basic
d) None of these
The function of Fluorspar in the electrolytic
reduction of alumina dissolved in fused cryolite
(NA3 AlF6) is
Hall’s process is based on electrolysis of
_____
a) Alumina
c) Borax
a) Metaboric acid
b) Pyroboric acid
c) Metaboric and pyroboric acid
d) None of these
85.
The reduction of metal oxides is sometimes
accomplished by using aluminum in the
______
a) Goldschmidt’s reaction
b) Silberchemdit’s reaction
c) Baeyer’s reaction
d) Zilch’s reaction
b) Ga
d) Ti
The oxides of Boron are ______ in nature.
a) Acidic
c) Neutral
84.
a) Weak monobasic Lewis acid
b) Only weak monobasic Arhenius acid
c) Only weak monobasic Bronsted acid
d) Only weak tribasic Arrhenius acid
b) Oxygen in H2O
d) Phosphorus in PH3
______ of the following is not metallic in
nature.
a) Boron
c) Indium
83.
b) PbO2
d) Pb(CH3COO)
Which of the following elements show
oxidation state of + 3 only?
a) B
c) In
82.
b) IV A
d) VI A
Boric acid is
The Octet rule is not followed by
a) Boron on BCl3
c) Nitrogen in NH3
81.
87.
Litharge is chemically
a) PbO
c) Pb3O4
80.
b) Doping
d) Red lead
b) Allotropes
d) None of these
PbO behaves as a/an _______
a) Amphoteric oxide
c) Super oxide
b) Basic oxide
d) Sub oxide
17
96.
The number and type of bonds between two
carbon atoms in CaC2 are
CHAPTER # 4
Group V and VI Elements
a) One sigma and one pi bond
b) One sigma and two pi bonds
c) One sigma and one and a half pi bond
d) One sigma bond
97.
99.
b) Si
d) B
2.
Which of the following halides is least stable
and has doubtful existence?
a) Cl4
c) GeI4
(B) P
(D) Bi
In group VA elements the most
electronegative elements is.
(A) Sb
(C) P
b) SnI4
d) PbI4
3.
4.
b) P4O8
d) None of these
(B) N2O
(D) N2O4
Out of all the elements of group IVA the
highest melting and boiling point is shown by
the elements;
(A) Te
(C) S
7.
(B) N2O
(D) NO
Laughing gas is chemically
(A) NO
(C) NO2
6.
(B) N2O3
(D) N2O5
The brown gas is formed when metal reduces
HNO3
(A) N2O5
(C) NO2
5.
(B) N
(D) As
Oxidation of NO in air produced.
(A) NO2
(C) N2O4
In which of the following phosphorus has an
oxidation state of + 4?
a) P4O6
c) P4O9
Out of all the elements of group VA the highest
ionization energy is possessed.
(A) N
(C) Sb
Aluminum is diagonally related to
a) Li
c) Be
98.
1.
(B) Se
(D) Pb
SO3 is not absorbed in water directly to form
H2SO4 because.
\
(A) The reaction does not go to completion
(B) The reaction is quite slow
(C) The reaction is exothermic
(D) SO3 is insoluble in water
8.
Which catalyst is used in contact process?
(A) Fe2O3
(C) SO3
9.
(B) V2O5
(D) Ag2O
Which of the following specie has
maximum number of unpaired electrons.
(A) O2
the
(B) O2+
18
(C) O210.
19.
Nitrogen and phosphorus of group VA show
the typical properties of
(A) Metals
(C) Both of the above
11.
(D) O2-2
(A) S (sulphur)
(C) PO (pollinium )
(B) Non-Metals
(D) None of the above
20.
21.
22.
Oxygen is comprising about .
In the atmosphere the free oxygen occurs
about
(A) 1/3 of the atmospheric air
(B) 1/2 of the atmospheric air
(C) 1/4 of the atmospheric air
(D) 2/3 of the atmospheric air
Di-Nitrogen oxide is a colourless gas.
(A) With a faint pleasant smell and a sweetish
taste.
(B) With unpleasant smell and bitter taste.
(C) With pleasant smell and bitter taste.
(D) With unpleasant smell and sweetish
24.
Nitric acid is used for.
25.
Water contains nearly combined form of
oxygen
(A) 50%
(C) 30%
(B) 70%
(D) 89%
Sulphur exist as
(A) Free and combined state
(B) Only in free state
(C) Combined state
(D) None of the above
26.
18.
(B) Four
(D) Five
Common oxides of nitrogen are
(A) Making varnishes and Organic dyes
(B) For making organic dyes
(C) Making varnishes
(D) For making varnishes, organic dyes,
explosives nitrogen fertilizers etc.
17.
Oxygen has allotropic forms such as.
(A) 30% of earth's crust
(B) 20% of earth's crust
(C) 10% of earth's crust
(D) 50% of earth's crust
(B) 38%
(D) 78%
23.
16.
(B) O (oxygen)
(D) None of the above
(A) Three
(C) Two
(A) N2O, NO and NO2
(B) NO, NO2
(C) N2O, NO2
(D) N2O, NO, NO2, N2O3 & N2O5
15.
In group VIA the radioactive metal is
(A) Te (tellurium)
(C) N (nitrogen)
(B) Three and five
(D) Two and four
Nitrogen is present in free state in air as a
major constituent about.
(A) 58%
(C) 70%
14.
(B) Non-Metal
(D) None of the above
The common valencies of the group VA
elements are
(A) Two to three
(C) One and five
13.
(B) O (oxygen )
(D) Te (tellurium)
Arsenic and antimony are
(A) Metals
(C) Metalloids
12.
All the elements of grown VIA are non-metals
except.
Allotropes of phosphorus are of
Which of the following possesses melting point
below 0˚C?
(A) Three types
(C) Two types
a) Nitrogen
c) Carbon
(B) Four types
(D) Six different types
In combined state nitrogen is found in all living
matter including.
27.
(A) Animals and plants as proteins urea and
amino acids.
(B) In plants only
(C) In animals only
(D) None of the above
b) Phosphorus
d) Bismuth
Formation of H2SO4 by Contact process is an
example of ________
a) Homogenous equilibrium
b) Heterogenous equilibrium
c) Sulphonation
d) Dilution
28.
Which of the following does not contain
19
c) Tollen’s test
phosphorus?
a) Yolk of egg
c) Nerves
29.
40.
b) FeSO4.NO2
d) None of above
All
the
elements
are______________
41.
a) Hygroscopic
c) Polymeric
33.
b) Metals
d) All of above
43.
b) 3
d) 1 & 3
44.
The properties of Nitrogen is different from
other members of its group to
a)
b)
c)
d)
36.
Small atomic size and high E.N
Single screening shell
Absence of d – orbital in the valence shell
All of these
47.
37.
38.
b) Accepts electrons
d) All of these
b) NO
d) N2O5
48.
49.
a) Silver minor test
b) H3BO3
d) HNO3
Removal of arsenic oxide is very essential
because it acts as a
b) Activator
d) Co-enzyme
The structure of H2SO4 is
a) Trigonal
c) Tetrahedral
The test which is used to confirm the presence
of nitrate is
b) HCl
d) HNO3
The acid which forms three series of salt is
a) Catalyst
c) Catalytic poison
Which oxides of nitrogen exist in solid state?
a) N2O
c) NO2
The acid which has garlic like smell and is
crystalline deliquescent is
a) H2SO4
c) H3PO4
Nitrogen can not as a central metal atom in a
complex because it can not
a) Devote electrons
c) Form an ion
Monoatomic molecule
Diatomic molecules
Triatomic molecules
Tetra atomic molecules
a) H2SO4
b) H3BO3
46.
b) Te
d) Mg
White phosphorous occurs in the form of
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Less reactive
d) Moderatory reactive
b) Dibasic acid
d) Base
Galena is an ore of
a) S
c) Po
45.
35.
Orthophosphorous acid is a
a) Monobasic acid
c) Tribasic acid
The nitrogen gas present in air is
a) More
b) Non reactive
b) PBr5
d) Pl5
VIA
Phosphoric acid is a weak acid and its basicity
is_______
a) 1
c) Zero
34.
group
b) dil HNO3
d) HNO3
Which one PX5 is unknown?
a) PCl5
c) PF5
b) P2O5
d) All have same smell
in
Mixture of HNO3 and NO2 is called
a) con HNO3
c) fuming HNO3
42.
32.
Unpaired electrons
Odd number of electrons
Paramagnetic
All of these
b) C
d) N
Which one of the following compounds smells
like garlic?
a) P2O3
c) H3PO3
Nitric oxide has
a)
b)
c)
d)
The composition of brown ring in nitrate test is
________
a) FeSO4.NO
c) FeSO4.NO3
31.
39.
Which of the following elements can follow
extended octet rule?
a) P
c) B
30.
b) Bone
d) Steel
d) Baeyer’s test
b) Octahedral
d) Hexagonal
Which pair does not produce H2 gas?
b) Ring test
20
a)
b)
c)
d)
50.
Why it is difficult to form nitrogen compounds
from gaseous nitrogen
a)
b)
c)
d)
51.
Cu and Con HNO3
C2H5OH and Na metal
Mg and steam
Phenol and sodium metal
The elements which is essential in nitrogen
fixation is
Which one act as a free radical?
54.
62.
b) NO2
d) NaNO3
63.
64.
b) Monoclinic sulphur
d) Colloidal sulphur
b) O
d) Se
Rhombic sulphur consists of _______
a) S8 chain
c) S4 rings
b) S2 chains
d) S8 rings
Consider
gentle heating
a) N2O
c) NO
67.
68.
b) Rhombic sulphur
d) Metallic sulphur
_______ is obtained when ammonium
dichromate is refrigerant?
a) Nitrogen
c) Ammonia
69.
b) 4
d) 7
When liquid sulphur at one atmospheric
pressre is very slowly cooled, unless super
cooling occurs, the first solid to appear is
_______
a) Monoclinic sulphur
c) Hexagonal sulphur
b) Cu
d) Sn
On industrial scale Nitric acid is prepared by
_______
The number of hydroxyl group in
phrophosphoric acid is
a) 3
c) 5
b) N2O4
d) N2O3
Nitric oxide is prepared by the action of HNO3
on
a) Fe
c) Zn
66.
b) N2
d) N2O3
The product formed by heating mixture of NO
and NO2 are
a) N2O5
c) N2O
59.
b) Oxidizing agent
d) None of these
In group VI A highest electronegativity is for
a) S
c) Pb
 Product
NH4NO3   
The product formed is
58.
Concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a ______
a) Reducing agent
c) Dehydrating agent
65.
57.
By _______ process the H2SO4 produced is
pure and can be produced of any desired
strength.
Which is most stable isotope of sulphur?
a) Plastic sulphur
c) Rhombic sulphur
56.
b) Nitrogen peroxide
d) None of these
a) Lead Chamber Process
b) Contact Process
c) Down’s Cell
d) None of these
In making safety matches we use
White phosphorus
Gray phosphorus
Violet phosphorus
Red phosphorus
b) Pt
d) None of these
Copper reacts with dilute nitric acid to form
a) Nitric oxide
c) Nitrous Oxide
The starting material in Birkland and Eyde
process for manufacturing of HNO3 is
a)
b)
c)
d)
55.
61.
b) CH4
d) BF3
a) NH3
c) Air
In Ostwald’s Process the substance used to
oxide ammonia is ______
a) Zn
c) CO
b) Mo
d) S
a) CO2
c) NO
53.
60.
All its reactions are endothermic
The bond dissociation
It contain triple bond
Its first ionization energy is very high
a) Zn
c) Fe
52.
a) Dutch Process
b) Birkland-Eyde’s Process
c) Solvay’s Process
d) Down’s Process
b) Oxygen
d) None
Which compound acts as an oxidizing as well
21
as a reducing agent?
a) SO2
c) Al2O3
70.
b) MnO2
d) CrO3
Which of the following acids does not
involve
S – S bond?
a) Phyrosulphrous acid
b) Dichotomous acid
c) Dichotic acid
d) Pyrosulphuric acid
71.
Oleum is formed by combining H2SO4 with
a) SO2
c) S
CHAPTER # 5
Halogens and Noble Gases
b) SO3
d) H2S
1.
72.
When SO2 is passed through an acidified
KMnO4 solution
a) KMnO4 is oxidized
b) KMnO4 is reduced
c) SO2 is reduced
d) KMnO4 solution turns green
Which is the most volatile compound?
(A) HI
(C) HBr
2.
Which one is the anhydride of HCIO4 ?
(A) CI2O
(C) CI2O6
3.
(B) HBr
(D) HCI.
In which of the following, oxygen has +2
oxidation number ?
(A) F2O
(C) Na2O2
9.
(B) HCI
(D) HI.
Which of the following acid is weakest
(A) HCIO
(C) HCIO3
8.
(B) Goitre
(D) Night blindness
Which one of the halogen acid is a liquid ?
(A) HF
(B) HBr
7.
(B) Carnallite
(D) Cryolite.
Iodine deficiency in diet is known to cause
(A) Beriberi
(C) Rickets
6.
(B) Chlorine
(D) Iodine
Bromine is obtained on a commercial scale
from
(A) Caliche
(C) Common salt
5.
(B) CIO2
(D) CI2O7
Which of the following halogens does not form
its oxyacids ?
(A) Fluorine
(C) Bromine
4.
(B) HCI
(D) HF
(B) CI2O
(D) Na2O.
Fluorine does not show positive oxidation
states due to the absence of
22
(D) Fluorine is highly reactive.
(A) d-orbitals
(C) p-orbitals
10.
(A) Lose the outermost electrons less readily
(B) Become lighter in colour
(C) Become less denser
(D) Gain electrons less readily.
(B) HBr
(D) HI.
(B) HCI
(D) HI
Bleaching power is obtained by the action
chlorine gas and
21.
(A) Dilute solution of Ca(OH)2
(B) Concentrated solution of Ca(OH)2
(C) Dry CaO
(D) Dry slaked lime.
13.
(B) CI
(D) I.
24.
(B) I2O5
(D) I2O9
(A) HF
(C) HBr
25.
26.
of
(B) HCI
(D) HI.
(B) HF
(D) K2Cr2O7
Strongest hydrogen bonding is shown by
Fluorine is a better oxidizing agent than Br2. It
is due to
The element which liberated O2 from water is
(A) P
(C) F
(B) HCI
(D) HI.
Which of the following is a false statement ?
(A) Hydrogens are strong oxidizing agents
(B) Halogens show only –1 oxidation state
(C) HF molecules form intermolecular
hydrogen bonding
heat
(A) Small size of fluorine
(B) More electron repulsion in fluorine
(C) More eletronegativity of fluorine
(D) Non metallic nature of fluorine.
27.
19.
molar
(A) Water
(B) Ammonia
(C) Hydrogen fluoride (D) Hydrogen sulphide.
(B) BrO2
(D) I4O9
Which of the following hydrogen halide has the
highest boiling point ?
highest
Which one of the following reacts with glass ?
(A) H2SO4
(C) HNO3
Which of the following halogen oxides is ionic?
(A) CIO2
(C) I2O5
18.
23.
Which one of the following is the true covalent
oxide of iodine ?
(A) I2O4
(B) I2O7
17.
(B) CI2
(D) I2.
Which has the
vaporization ?
(A) HF
(C) HBr
Which halogen is most electropositive ?
(A) F
(C) Br
16.
22.
Which of the following halogens has the
highest bond energy ?
(A) F2
(C) Br2
15.
(B) CI
(B) I.
Which statement is correct about halogens ?
(A) They are all diatomic and form univalent
ions
(B) They are all capable of exhibiting several
oxidation states
(C) They are all diatomic and form divalent ion
(D) They can mutually displace each other
from the solution of their compounds with
metals.
Mark the element which shows only one
oxidation state in its compounds
(A) F
(C) Br
14.
As the atomic number of halogens increases,
the halogens
Bad conductor of electricity is
(A) H2F2
(C) HBr
12.
20.
Which of the following has greatest reducing
power?
(A) HI
(C) HCI
11.
(B) s-orbitals
(D) None
Ozonised oxygen can be obtained from H2O
by the action of
(A) Conc. H2SO4
(C) MnO
28.
(B) N
(D) I.
(B) KMnO4
(D) F2
Which one of the following is most basic ?
23
(C) Argon
(A) F(C) Br29.
(B) CI(D) I-
39.
Which one of the following elements can have
both positive and negative oxidation state?
(A) F
(C) Li
31.
(B) I
(D) He.
Least chemical activity is shown by
Which member of group VII A combines with
one more halogen?
(A) NH3
(C) Ar
a) Cl
c) Br
(B) CH4
(D) H2SO4.
In discharge tube, noon glows
(A) Bluish
(C) Pinkish
32.
41.
(B) Reddish
(D) Greenish
(B) Trigonal planar
(D) Square planar.
43.
44.
(B) 2%
(D) 4%
45.
(A) Distorted octahedral
(B) Pyramidal
(C) Tetrahedral
(D) None of the above
37.
b) HBr
d) HI
The noble gas was first time discovered by
Chlorine reacts with hot solution of NaOH to
form
(A) Cavendish
(C) Lockyer
a) NaCl
c) NaClO
(B) William Ramsay
(D) Frankland.
The
coloured
discharge
advertisement mainly contain
(A) Xenon
(B) Neon
tubes
for
47.
Which of the following noble gases does not
have an octet of electrons in its outermost
shell ?
(A) Neon
b) NaClO3
d) All of these
Fluorine directly combines with noble gases
a) Kr
c) Rn
(B) Helium
(D) ARGON
48.
38.
b) Clauber’s salt
d) Oil of vitriol
Which one hydride has greater ionic character
and had H – bond?
a) HF
c) HCl
46.
b) Br – F3
d) Br – I 7
Iodine occurs as iodate in
a) Chile salt peter
c) Blue vitriol
The structure of XeF6 is
b) Cl
d) I
Which type of interhalogenis formed by
Bromine?
a) Br – Cl
b) Br – F5
Percentage of Ar in air is about
(A) 1%
(C0 3%
36.
b) 5
d) 8
Which one halogen directly reacts with noble
gas?
a) F
c) Br
The forces acting between noble gas atoms
are
(A) Vander Waals forces
(B) Ion-dipole forces
(C) London disperslon forces
(D) Magnetic forces.
35.
The interhalogen formed by iodine requires
fluorine atoms
a) 3
c) 7
42.
34.
b) F
d) I
Xef2 molecule is
(A) Linear
(C) Pyramidal
33.
The lowest boiling point of helium is due to its
(A) Inertness
(B) Gaseous nature
(C) High Polaris ability
(D) Weak Vander Waals forces b/w atoms
40.
30.
(D) Helium
b) Xe
d) All of these
The density of pure liquid HF is less then
water due to
a) Covalent bond formations
b) High electron affinity
(B) Radon
24
c) Absence of three dimensional net work of
H – bond
d) Presence of three dimensional net work of
H – bond
49.
51.
The most
halogen is
a) HOCl
c) HIO
52.
59.
recently
prepared
oxyacid
of
60.
b) HBrO3
d) HOF
61.
HXO > HXO2 > HXO3 > HXO4
HXO4 > HXO3 > HXO2 > HXO
HXO3 > HXO2 > HXO4 > HXO
None of these
54.
Highly soluble in water
Light yellow color powder
Oxidizing agent
Release Cl2 gas by reaction with dilute
acids
Steel cylinders
Iron cylinders
Carbon steel cylinders
Glass cylinders
Halogen do not occur free in nature because
they
a)
b)
c)
d)
Are salt producer
Are highly reactive
Has seven electrons in their valence shell
Are non metals
Sea weeds are important sources of
64.
a) F
c) Br
b) Cl
d) I
b) HF
d) HClO4
65.
Which one interhalogen can further combine
with fluorine?
a) F – Cl
c) BrF5
b) ClF3
d) IF5
Xenon trioxide is formed by
a)
b)
c)
d)
The acid used for etching glass is
a) HCl
c) HNO3
57.
b) Steel
d) Carbon steel
Chlorine can be easily liquefied and is usually
marketed in
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) 35 – 40%
d) 45 – 50%
63.
56.
Fluorine can be transported in a special
container made up of
Which one is false for bleaching powder?
a)
b)
c)
d)
55.
It reacts with SiO2 of the glass
It reacts with the Al2O3 of the composition
It reacts with the Na2O of the composition
It reacts with the visible part of light
a) Aluminum
c) Glass
The average available chlorine in bleaching
powder is
a) 30 – 35%
c) 40 – 45%
HF is not preserved in glass bottle because
a)
b)
c)
d)
62.
53.
b) Alcohol
d) All of these
b) Cl
d) I
The increasing order of acidity and oxidizing
power of Oxyacids due to increasing number
of oxygen atoms is
a)
b)
c)
d)
Iodine is highly soluble in
a) Solution of Kl
c) CS2
The halogen which form unstable oxides is
a) F
c) Br
Which statement is true?
a) Except F2O, the oxides of all halogen are
endothermic compounds
b) The higher oxides of halogen are more
stable than lower oxides
c) The bond in the halogen oxides are largely
covalent
due
to
similarities
in
electronegativity
d) All of these
The order of increasing dissociation of HX at
1000oC is
a) HI (33%) > HBr (0.5%) > HCl (0.014%) >
HF (0%)
b) HBr > HI > HF > HCl
c) HCl > HBr > HI > HF
d) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
50.
58.
Hydrolysis of xenon hexafluoride
Hydrolysis of barium per xenate
Hydrolysis of xeondifloride
None of these
The known fluorides of xenon are
a) XeF2
c) XeF6
66.
b) XeF4
d) All of the above
Mixture of 80% helium and 20% oxygen is
used for
25
a)
b)
c)
d)
67.
Breathing air by seas divers
Breathing by patient
Breathing by fishes
All of these
77.
a) Nelson’s cell
c) Down’s process
78.
b) Ne
d) Kr
Chlorine gas is ______ in color.
a) Yellow
c) Violet
79.
b) XeF4
d) XeF3
To kill bacterial, moist of the drinking water is
treated with _______
a) Nitrogen
c) Chlorine
The type of hybridization does the oxygen has
in OF2 is
a) SP2
c) SP3
70.
80.
b) d2SP3
d) dSP3
b) CO2
d) SO2
81.
b) Br
d) At
82.
72.
The electron affinity of halogens is of the order
a) F < Cl > Br > I
c) Cl < F < Br < I
73.
b) F < Cl < Br < I
d) I < Br < F < Cl
83.
74.
a) Br2O
c) BrO3
75.
b) HCl
d) HI
In which of the following bromine has an
oxidation state of + 4?
Bleaching powder is obtained by the
interaction of Cl2 and _______
The element which liberates O2 form water is
a) P
c) F
84.
b) BrO2
d) None
b) N
d) I
Which forms maximum compounds with
xenon?
a) F
c) Br
b) Cl
d) I
Electrolysis of Brine produces _______
85.
a) Chlorine
c) H2S
76.
Hydrofluoride acid is _________
a) Slaked lime
b) Conc. Solution of Mg(OH)2
c) Dry CaO
d) Dry slaked lime
Which of the following hydride of halogen is
thermally most stable?
a) HF
c) HBr
Phosgene is the common name of _______
a) A powerful oxidizing agent
b) A weak acid
c) A strong acid
d) A good reducing agent
Which of the following is radioactive?
a) Cl
c) I
b) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen sulphide
a) Carbon dioxide and phosphate
b) Phosphoryle chloride
c) Carbonyle chloride
d) Carbon tetrachloride
The gas that will liquefy with most difficulty is
a) He
c) NH3
71.
b) Greenish Yellow
d) Blue
Which xenon fluoride is impossible?
a) XeF2
c) XeF6
69.
b) Contact process
d) Deacon’s process
Tyres of large aeroplane contain
a) He
c) Ar
68.
The process based on the oxidation of
hydrochloric acid with oxygen is ______
b) Oxygen
d) Nitrogen
a) He
c) Kr
In which of the following oxyacids, chlorine has
an oxidation state of +3?
86.
a) HClO
c) HClO3
b) HClO2
d) HClO4
Which of the following rare gases is not
present in the atmosphere?
b) Xe
d) Rn
The structure of XeOF4 is
a) Tetrahedral
c) Distorted
b) Square pyramidal
d) Irregular pentagonal
26
87.
Which of the following fluorides of xenon is not
observed?
a) Xef
c) XeF4
7.
b) XeF2
d) XeF6
The percentage of carbon in different types of
iron products is in the order of .
(A) Cast iron > wrought iron > steel
(B) wrought iron > steel > cast iron
(C) cast iron > steel > wrought iron
(D) cast iron = steel > wrought iron
8.
The colour of transition metal complexes is
due to.
(A) d-d transitions of electrons
(B) Para magnetic nature of transition element
(C) Ionization
(D) Loss of s-electrons
CHAPTER # 6.
Transition Elements
1.
Which of the following is a non-typical
transition element ?
(A) Cr
(C) Zn
2.
(B) Mn
(D) Fe
(B) Y
(D) Co
4.
10.
f-block elements are so called.
12.
The strength of binding energy of transition
elements depends upon
Transition metals have very high melting and
boiling points due to.
Substances which are weakly attracted by
which type of force are called as paramagnetic
substances.
(A) Weak magnetic field
(B) Strong magnetic field
(C) Feeble magnetic field
(D) None of the above
13.
The diamagnetic substances are
Group VIB of transition elements contains
(A) Zn, Cd , Hg
(C) Cr, Mo, W
6.
(B) 14
(D) 50
(A) Weak binding forces
(B) Strong binding forces
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
(A) Number of electron pairs
(B) Number of unpaired electrons
(C) Number of neutrons
(D) Number of protons
5.
(B) 4
(D) 6
The total number of transition elements is.
(A) 10
(C) 40
11.
(A) Non-typical transition element
(B) Outer transition elements
(C) Normal transition elements
(D) Inner transition
Coordination number of Pt in
[t CI (NO2)(NH3)4]-2 is.
(A) 2(C) 1
Which of the following is a typical transition
metal ?
(A) Sc
(C) Ra
3.
9.
Which is the formula of tetra-amine chloro
nitro platinum (IV) sulphate ?
(A) [Pt(NH3)4(NO2)]SO4
(B) [Pt NO2CI (NH3)4]SO4
(C) [Pt CI (NO2)(NH3)]SO4
(D) [Pt (NH3)4(NO2)CI]SO4
(A) Weakly repelled by a strong magnetic field
(B) Strongly repelled by a weak magnetic field
(C) Strongly repelled by a weak magnetic field
(D) Weakly repelled by a weak magnetic field.
(B) Fe, Ru, Os
(D) Mn, Te, Re
14.
Paramagnetic behaviour is caused by the
presence of.
(A) Unparied electrons
(B) Paired electrons
(C) Paired protons
27
(D) Paired electrons in an aton, molecule or
ion
15.
22.
The transition elements includes.
(A) Inorganic Nomenclature Committee
(IUPAC)
(B) Organic Nomenclature Committee (IUPAC)
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
(A) Ti, Fe, Cr, Ni, Cu etc
(B) Ti, Fe, Nb, Ta, Th, etc
(C) Mo, W, Zr, Nb, etc
(D) Ti, Fe, Ci, Ni, Cu, Mo, W, Zr, Nb, Ta, Th,
etc
23.
16.
17.
Zn has
In writing the formula of a complex ion the
usual practice is to place the symbol of the
(A) Zero unpaired electrons
(B) Five unpaired electrons
(C) Three unpaired electrons
(D) One paired electrons
(A) Central metal atom second
(B) Central metal atom third
(C) Central metal atom 4rth
(D) Central metal atom 1st
In transition elements the orbital which is
responsible for the colour development is.
(A) s-orbital
(C) d-orbital
18.
24.
Pig iron or cast iron contains
(A) 0.25% to 2.5% carbon
(B) 2.5% to 4.5% carbon
(C) 0.12% to 0.25% carbon
(D) None of the above
25.
Wrought iron is manufactured from
(B) f-orbital
(D) o-orbital
In [Ti (H2O6)]3+ which wavelength of light is
absorbed.
(A) Pig iron
(B) Cast iron
(C) Pig iron or cast iron (D) Steel
26.
(A) Yellow light is absorbed while blue and red
light are transmitted
(B) Green light is absorbed
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
19.
Alloy steels are
27.
28.
21.
The amount of iron destroyed each year by
corrosion equal to.
(A) About 1/4th of its annual production
(B) About 1/3rd of its annual production
(C\) Both 1/2nd of its annual production
(D) None of the above
29.
Almost all the chromates are
(A) Blue in colour
(C) Red in colour
A complex compound may contain
(A) Simple catoins and a complexions
(B) A complex cations and a simple anion
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
In galvanic cell.
(A) Al does not releases electrons and
changes to al+3 ion
(B) Ai releases and changes to Al+3 ion
(C) Both of the above
(D) Both of the above
Such compounds containing the complex
molecules or complex ions and capable of.
(A) Dependent existence are called
coordination compounds
(B) Independent existence are called
coordination compound
(C) None of the above
(D) A & B
In open hearth process for the manufacturing
of steel.
(A) Using cast iron, wrought iron, or steel
scrap
(B) Using cast iron
(C) just wrought iron
(D) None of the above
(A) Iron atoms substituted by Cr, Mn, and Ni
atoms
(B) Iron atoms substituted by Cr, and Mn
atoms
(C) Iron atoms substituted by Mn and Ni atoms
(D) None of the above
20.
The nomenclature of complex compounds is
based upon the recommendation by the
30.
(B) Green in colour
(D) Yellow in colour
K2Cr2O7(potassium dichromate) is used
extensively for.
(A) Dyeing
28
(B) Chrome tanning
(C) As an oxidizing agent
(D) All of the above are true
31.
The location of transition elements is in
between_________
a.
b.
c.
d.
32.
Lanthanides & actinides
s and p block elements
chalcogens and halogens
d and f block elements
34.
b) Paramagnetic
d) Ferromagnetic
43.
Following ion is a bidentate Ligand?
a) Ammonia
c) Carbonyl
36.
37.
b) Oxalate
d) Cyanide
The central atom along with Ligand is called
________
a) Complex ion
c) Ligand
Geometry of complex compounds depends
upon_________
For sp3d2 hybridization,
geometry will be_________
47.
48.
the
expected
a)
n n2
b)
n(n  2)
c)
n n2
d)
n(n  2)
Diamagnetic compounds are those which have
b) Enamel
d) Coating
b) Ferro magnetism
d) None of these
The number of ligands attached to the central
metal atom or ion, usually varying from
b) 2 to 4
d) 2 to 7
Co-ordinate compound with co-ordinate six
number have geometry
a)
b)
c)
d)
50.
b) Unpaired electrons
d) No electrons
An extreme case of Para magnetism is called
a) 2 to 3
c) 2 to 6
49.
b) Haber’s balance
d) All of these
The magnetic moment is related to the number
of unpaired electrons (n) by the equation
a) Paired electrons
c) Free electrons
Any process of chemical decay of metals due
to action of surrounding medium is called
_________
a) Surrounding
c) Corrosion
The magnetic moment can be measured by
a) Diamagnetism
c) Isomerism
a) Tetrahydral
b) Square planar
c) Trigonal bipyramidal d) Octahedral
39.
46.
b) Coordination sphere
d) Complex compound
a) no. of ligand
b) no. of chelates
c) hybridization of central metal
d) All of above
38.
Contraction
I.P
Lanthanide Contraction
Complex formation
a) Gouy’s balance
c) Down’s balance
b) Cation
d) Acid
45.
35.
b) 8
d) 9
A regular decrease in ionic and atomic radii
across the lanthanides is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
44.
b) Fe
d) Mn
In Ag2+ the number of electrons in 4 d orbital is
a) 7
c) 6
b) s-orbitals
d) d-orbitals
The specie which donates electrons to central
metal atom in co-ordination sphere is called
________
a) Anion
c) Ligand
42.
b) Galvanic cell
d) a & b
Which element has complete d – orbital are
a) Ni
c) Zn
When light is exposed to transition element,
then electrons jumps from lower orbitals to
higher orbitals in___________
a) f-orbitals
c) p-orbitals
When an active metal like Al come in contact
with less active element like Cu, then it
produces _____
a) Voltaic cell
c) Electrolytic cell
41.
Compounds attracted by applied magnetic
field are called________
a) Diamagnetic
c) Good conductor
33.
40.
Tetrahedral
Square planner
May be tetrahedral or square planner
Octahedral
Steel is an alloy of iron and is classified into
29
______ melting and boiling points.
a) Mild steel (0.1 – 0.2%C) and medium
carbon steel (0.2 to 0.7%C)
b) Medium carbon steel (0.2 to 0.7%C) and
high carbon steel (0.7 to 1.5%C)
c) Mild and high carbon steel
d) Mild medium and high carbon steel
51.
a) Low
c) Intermediate
61.
b) Two
d) Five
62.
52.
EDTA is
a) Monodentate
c) Polydentate
53.
a) Cl-1
c) NH2(CH2), NH2
54.
63.
64.
Complexes which have octahedral geometry
hybridized
57.
Co-ordination number
Type of hybridization of central metal atom
Chelates
Both a & b
66.
In Cr2O72 every Cr atom is linked to
a) Two O atoms
c) Four O atoms
67.
b) Three O atoms
d) Five O atoms
A substance which have even number of
electrons and have paired spin is called
______
a) Ferromagnetic
c) Dimagnetic
80% Cu + 20% Zn
80% Cu + 20% Sn
20% Cu + 80% Zn
20% Cu + 80% Sn
68.
The formula of blue vitriol is
a) CuSO4
c) CuSO4.4H2O
60.
An adding KI to a solution of CuSO4
Bell metal contains
a)
b)
c)
d)
59.
b) 70% Cu
d) 50% Cu
Titanium is used as catalyst in _______
a) Cupric oxide is precipitated
b) Metallic copper is precipitated
c) Cuprous iodide is precipitated with the
liberation of iodine
d) No change takes place
Brass contain 20% zinc and
a) 80% Cu
c) 60% Cu
58.
b) dSP2
d) d2SP3
The geometry of a complex depends upon
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Bauxite
d) Alumina
a) Haber process
b) Catalytic hydrogenation
c) Oxidation of ammonia to nitric acid
d) Polymerization of ethyle into polyethylene
65.
56.
_______ is the important ore of copper.
a) Malachite
c) Blue Vitriol
b) 5
d) All of these
a) SP3
c) dSP3
________ reagent can be used to identify
Cu2+ ion.
a) Nitric acid
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Sodium hydroxide d) Potassium dichromate
b) NH3
d) EDTA
Complexes which are less common have coordination number
a) 4
c) 6
55.
b) Bidentate
d) None of these
Which one is Bidentate ligand
Finely divided iron is used in _______
a) Haber process
b) Catalytic Hydrogenation
c) Oxidation of ammonia to nitric oxide
d) Contact process
Ligands are classified into
a) One
c) Three
b) High
d) None of these
b) CuSO4.3H2O
d) CuSO4.5H2O
The transition elements usually have very
The empty spaces between atoms of transition
metals in their crystal lattices are called _____
a) Vacant spaces
c) Interstices
69.
b) Paramagnetic
d) None of these
b) Valence spaces
d) None of these
[Ni(CN)4]2- is an example of ________
a) Square planar
30
b) Tetrahedral complexes
c) Octahedral complexes
d) None of these
70.
71.
a) NH3 is a better solvent than H2O
b) Ag+ forms a complex ion with NH3
c) NH3 is a stronger base than H2O
d) Dipole moment of water is higher than NH3
[Cu(NH3)4]2+ is an example of _______
a) Square planar
b) Tetrahedral complexes
c) Octahedral complexes
d) None of these
79.
[Co(NH3)6]3+ is an example of _______
80.
a) ZnCl2
c) HdCl2
a)
81.
The names of ______ are usually unchanged.
a) Anionic ligands
c) Neutral ligands
73.
The suffix “ate” at the end of the name of the
coordinate complex ion represents a/an
______
a) Cation
c) Cathode
74.
b) Anion
b) Anode
75.
76.
2.
b) Ductility
d) Hardness
b) Oxygen
d) None of these
AgCl dissolves in u solution of NH3 but not in
water because;
(B) Sp2
(D) dsP2
In t-butyl alcohol, the tertiary carbon is bonded
to
(A) Two hydrogen atoms
(B) Three hydrogen atoms
(C) One hydrogen atoms
(D) No hydrogen atoms
3.
Which set of hybrid orbitals has planar
triangular shape
(A) Sp3
(C) Sp2
4.
When potassium permanganate is added to a
saturated aqueous solution of potassium
hydroxide, _______ gas is evolved.
a) Hydrogen
c) Carbon dioxide
78.
b) Co
d) Os
b) Cast iron
d) Steel
The state of hybridization of carbon atom in
methane is
(A) Sp3
(C) Sp
The property of a substance which permits it
being drawn into wire is called ________
a) Softness
c) Brittleness
77.
1.
The most strongly ferromagnetic element is
_______
a) Fe
c) Ni
d) Cr(OH)3
CHAPTER # 7
Fundamental Principles of Organic Chemistry
Ferric oxide is _______
a) A basic anhydride
b) An acid anhydride
c) An amphoteric anhydride
d) Green in colour
b) Cr(OH)2
Iron obtained from the blast furnace is called
a) Pig iron
c) Wrought iron
b) Cationic ligands
d) None of these
b) Hg2Cl2
d) HgCl2
CrO3 dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give
CrO42
2
c) Cr2 O7
a) Square planar
b) Tetrahedral complexes
c) Octahedral complexes
d) None of these
72.
Which of the following is deliquescent?
The chemist who synthesized urea from
ammonium cyanate was
(A) Berzelius
(C) Wholer
5.
(B) Sp
(D) dsp2
(B) Kolbe
(D) Lavoisier
Linear shape is associated with which set of
hybrid orbitals ?
(A) Sp
(C) Sp3
(B) Sp2
(D) dsp2
31
6.
(A) Two sigma bond
(B) One sigma and one pi bond
(C) One sigma and two pi bond
(D) Two pi-bond
7.
15.
16.
Metamerism aries due to the.
(A) Equal distribution of carbon atoms
(B) Unequal distribution of carbon atoms
(C) Both of the above are true
(D) None of the above are true
Cis-trans isomerism is also called as
The vital force theory was rejected by
A) Jhon Dalton
C) Dmitri Mendeleev
(A) Geometric Isomerism
(B) Position Isomerism
(C) Chain Isomerism
(D) Metamerism
B) Friedrick Wohler
D) None of the above
We have become dependent for our food
medicines and clothing to which compounds.
19.
(A) Inorganic compounds
(B) Organic compounds
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Coal, petroleum and natural gas are important
sources of.
(A) Organic compounds
(B) Inorganic compounds
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Natural Gas is a
20.
(A) Mixture of hydrocarbons
(B) Methane
(C) Both of the above
(D) Nonn of the above
13.
The structure of alkynes can be explained by
yet another mode of hybridization called as
Early chemists recognized organic compounds
distinct from inorganic compounds because of
18.
12.
B) Catalytic cracking
D) All of the above
(A) Sp2 hybridization
(B) Sp3 hybridization
(C) Sp5 hybridization
(D) Sp hybridization
17.
11.
Cracking of petroleum is taken place by
A) Thermal cracking
C) Steam cracking
(A) The difference in their origin and
properties
(B) The similarities in their origin but
difference in their propertied
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
10.
At what temperature coal is heated in the
observe of air for converting it into coke, coal
gas, and coal tar
(A) Temperature ranging from 500-1000oC
(B) Temperature ranging from 100-1000oC
(C) Temperature ranging from 300-2000oC
(D) Temperature ranging from 1000-3000oC
Select from the following the one which is
alcohol.
(A) CH3 --------CH2--------OH
(B) CH3---------O-----------CH3
(C) CH3COOH
(D) CH3--------CH2--------Br
9.
14.
Ethers show the phenomenon of
(A) Position isomerism
(B) Functional group isomerism
(C) Metamerism
(D) Cis-trans isomerism.
8.
(C) As a fuel in general industries and for
domestic purposes
(D) All of the above are truce
A double bond consists of.
Organic compounds are classified into
(A) Acyclic and cyclic compound
(B) Acyclic & Heterocyclic
(C) Non-cyclic
(D) All of the above
In Pakistan the natural gas is used for.
21.
(A) For power generation only
(B) In coment and fertilizer industries only
Rate of reactions of most organic compounds
are___________
32
a) Very slow
b) Very fast
c) Medium
d) No regular character present
a) Benzene
c) Naphthalene
32.
22.
Coal is produced after a long time decay of
__________
a) Animals
c) Wood
33.
23.
Ether functional group can be represented
as____________
a) –OH
c) R-O-R
24.
b) R-CO-R
d) R-COOH
2-propanol can show isomerism as _______
34.
35.
a) Aliphatic
c) Carboxylic acid
26.
a) Square planar
c) Tetrahedral
27.
28.
30.
Consider the reaction
Cu  tube
 C6H6
3C2H2  
This is the example of
a) Pyrolysis
c) Sublimation
38.
39.
b) sp
d) All
The fuel having 40% n-heptane & 60% isooctane will have octane number
40.
is
heterocyclic
Chain isomerism
Position isomerism
Metamerism
Functional group isomerism
The type of isomerism found in 1 – butene and
2 – butane is
a) Position
c) Functional group
b) 60
d) 90
organic
41.
b) C2H6
d) CH4
Which type of isomerism is shown by the
following compounds?
CH3 – CH2 – CHO, CH3 – CO – CH3
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Reforming
d) Condensation
b) Polymerization
d) Addition
Which one is acyclic hydrocarbon?
a) C6H6
c) C6H12
Octane no. of any fuel can be improved by
______
Which of them
compound?
b) NaOH
d) PB(C2H5)4
37.
In alkyne, the hybridization is____________
a) 40
c) 80
31.
of
b) Butanoic acid
d) Ethoxy butane
a) Pyrolysis
c) Polymerization
The octane number of gasoline may increased
by adding
Which process increases the yield of gasoline
from petroleum?
a) Cracking
b) Polymerization
c) Reforming
d) Sublimation
Only sigma bonds are present in _______
a) sp2
c) sp
29.
geometry
b) 40 – 180oC
d) 220 – 350oC
36.
b) Trigonal pyramidal
d) All are possible
a) Propene
c) Butanal
During the fractional distillation of petroleum,
paraffin oil boils between the ranges
a) EDTA
c) AgNO3
b) Aromatic
d) Aldehydes
In sp3 hybridization, the
molecules will be_________
n-pentane in a mixture
n-butane in a mixture
n-hexane in a mixture
2, 2, 4 – trimethyl pentane in a mixture
a) 25oC
c) 175 – 275oC
The hydrocarbons which give smoke on
burning is called________
b) Coal gas
d) Crude coal gas
Octane number is the percentage of
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) Metamerism
b) Functional group isomerism
c) Geometric isomerism
d) None of above
25.
Which one is the mixture of 215 organic
compounds?
a) Water gas
c) Coal tar
b) Fossils
d) Ores
b) Cresol
d) Pyridine
b) Chain
d) Metamerism
The members of which of these have similar
methods of preparation and properties
33
a) Isomers
c) Polymers
42.
52.
The maximum number of isomers for an
alkene with molecular formula C4H8 is
a) 2
c) 4
43.
b) Homologues
d) Monomers
b) 3
d) 5
a) Dimethyl ether
c) Ethylene glycol
53.
Which of the following is not an organic
compound?
a) Urea
c) Natural gas
Kerosine oil is a mixture of
a) Alkane
c) Alkynes
b) Phenol
d) Carboxylic acid
56.
b) Coal gas
d) Both a & c
b) Ethane
d) Butane
57.
_______ is a mixture of methane, ethane,
propane and butane, used as a fuel and for
making other organic chemicals.
a) Refinery gas
c) Kerosene oil
b) Gasoline
d) Gas oil
A large number of organic compounds,
especially the unsaturated ones, show a great
tendency to unit. This process is termed as
______
a) Pyrolysis
c) Polymerization
b) Cracking
d) None of these
Isomerism, which involves compounds having
the same molecular formula, but different
functional groups are called _______
a) Chain isomerism
b) Position isomerism
c) Functional group isomerism
d) Metamerism
58.
51.
The kind of isomerism which depends upon
the relative position of the functional group, or
the position of double or tripe bond in case of
unsaturated compounds is termed as
________
a) Chain isomerism
b) Position isomerism
c) Functional group isomerism
d) Metamerism
Natural gas mainly consists of ________
a) Methane
c) Propane
50.
b) CCl3OH
d) None of these
Petroleum in the unrefined form is called ____
a) Rock oil
c) Crude oil
49.
Two or more than two different compounds
having the same molecular formula but
different carbon chains or skeletons are said
to be ______
The chemical formula of chloride is
a) CH3OH
c) CCl3CHO
48.
b) Octane number
d) None of these
a) Chain isomers
b) Position isomers
c) Functional group isomers
d) Metamers
Which of the following compounds does not
contain an OH group?
a) Alcohol
c) Aldehyde
47.
b) Alkene
d) All of these
b) Ethane
d) None of these
The quality of petroleum is determined by
_______
a) Decane number
c) Hexane number
b) Oxalic acid
d) Plaster of Paris
55.
46.
When ethylene is heated under pressure, a
transparent solid polymer, ________ is
obtained.
a) Polyethene
c) Methane
b) (CH3)2 HC+
d) All of these
54.
45.
b) Diethyl ether
d) Methanol
Which of the following is most stable ion?
a) CH3 – H2C+
c) (CH3)3 C+
44.
An isomer of ethanol is ________
_______ is exhibited by compounds having
the same functional group but different alkyl
attached to the same multivalent atom.
a) Chain isomerism
b) Position isomerism
c) Functional group isomerism
d) Metamerism
34
59.
a) Pt
c) Ni
60.
b) Aluuminosilicate
d) Tetra ethyl lead
b) Hexagon
d) Tetrahedron
b) Ketone
d) An acid hydride
b) C ≡ C
d) All of these
b) Ethers
d) Isomer
________ is the common name of methanol.
a) Formaldehyde
c) Propionaldehyde
65.
b) Acetaldehyde
d) None of these
______ is the common name of propanone.
a) Acetone
c) Diethyl ketone
Chapter # 8
Aliphatic Hydrocarbons
b) Ketone
d) None to these
1.
66.
The properties of organic compounds are due
to _______
a) Covalent bonds
c) Ionic bonds
67.
b) Functional groups
d) None of these
______ of the following are isomers.
2.
3.
69.
b) CH3CHO
d) None
Which of the following isomeric substances
would be expected to have the lowest boiling
point?
Completely satisfied
Partially satisfied
No satisfied
No general rules
Alkanes containing one branch on main
chain are called_________
a) Iso
c) Neo
Which compound contains an sp hybridized C
atom?
a) CH3CN
c) CH3NH2
Valencies in alkanes are _____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
a) Methyl alcohol and dimethyl ether
b) Ethyl alchohol and dimethyl ether
c) Acetone and Acetaldehyde
d) Proponoic acid and propanone
68.
b) Molecular formula
d) Physical properties
Compounds in which two alkyl groups are
attached to an oxygen atom are called ______
a) Alkanes
c) Alcohols
64.
a) Structural formula
c) Chemical formula
______ has the longest bond length.
a) C = C
c) C – C
63.
The isomers must have the same ______
The general formula (RCO)2O represents
________
a) An ether
c) An ester
62.
70.
In CCl4 molecule the four valencies of carbon
atom are directing towards the corners of a
_______
a) Cube
c) Prism
61.
a) Hexane
b) 2 – methlypentane
c) 2, 2 – dimethylbutane d) 3 – methlypentane
In cracking usually catalyst used is _______
When one hydrogen atom of alkane is
replaced/removed, then it is called
_________
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
b) Normal
d) Branched
Alkene
Alkyl
Aldehyde
Saturated hydrocarbon
Alkanes are also known as _______
35
14.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Saturated hydrocarbon
Unsaturated hydrocarbon
Paraffins
a&c
a) Nitration
c) Sulphonation
15.
5.
Sabatier’s Sendren’s reaction involves
_________in presence of Ni
a) alkene & H2
c) alkene & N2
6.
b) Decarboxylation
d) Hydroxylation
CaO and KOH
CaO and NaOH
NaOH and NaO
Nao and KOH
19.
20.
R-Mg-Br is called_________
Halogenation
Dehalogenation
Dehydrohalogenation
Carbonations
Alkenes
are
produced
Dehalogenation of_______
a) di-halides alkane
c) vic. Di-halide
21.
Grignard reagent
Wurtz reaction
Tollen’s reagent
Pinacol pinacolour reagent
from
b) tri-halides alkane
d) vic. Trihalides
Reactivity due to pi- electrons is present in
____________
a) Alkane
c) Alkyne
22.
b) Alkene
d) b and c
π- electrons favour____________
Upto _____ C atoms, alkanes are gases
a) 2
c) 4
13.
sec>pri>ter
pri>sec>ter
ter>sec>pri
no specificity occurs
Removal of halogen and hydrogen atom
is___
a.
b.
c.
d.
b) CO2 + H2O
d) CO+H2O
RCOONa+H2O [Electrolysis] is known as
_____
a.
b.
c.
d.
12.
b) CnH2n-2
d) CnH2n-x
The order of dehydration of alcohol is____
a.
b.
c.
d.
a) Bosch reaction
b) Kolb reaction
c) Sabatier’s reactiuon d) Frankland reaction
11.
General formula of alkenes is _______
a) CnH2n+2
c) CnH2n
18.
b) C2H4
d) CH4
Malozonide changes into___________
a) Epoxide
c) Ozonide
10.
17.
Soda lime is a mixture of_____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
9.
b) Oxidizing agent
d) Reducing agent
b) F>Cl>I>Br
d) Cl>F>Br>I
Gas is used in fertilizer ____________
a) C2H6
c) C2H2
Removal of -COOH is called______
a) Carboxylation
c) Esterification
8.
16.
b) Halogenation
d) None
Order of halogenation is___________
a) I>Cl>Br>F
c) F>Cl>Br>I
Zn is a good___________
a) Metal
c) Non-metal
7.
b) alkene & O2
d) alkene & Cl2
Introduction of nitro group is called______
Alkanes are less reactive than alkenes
due to__________
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
b) 3
d) 6
Presence of sigma bond
Absence of pi bonds
Presence of sigma and pi bonds
No justification available
23.
Less reactivity
Addition reactions
Substitution reactions
None
Raney nickel is____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
An alloy of Ni-Cu
Alloy of Ni-Fe
Alloy of Ni-Al
Alloy of Ni-Mg
36
24.
Which member of IV A has little tendency to
form anions or cations?
a) Pb
c) Ge
34.
a) CO2 and H2O
c) Ethylene oxide
b) Sn
d) C
35.
25.
Alkanes due to little chemical reactivity are
also called
a) Olefins
c) Grignard’s reagent
Methane and other members of paraffins do
not react with aqueous solution of acids,
alkalies, KMnO4 or other oxidizing agents this
lack of reactivity is due to its nature
27.
b) Nonpolar
d) Basic
Which hybrid orbital will form the compound
CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH3
a) SP2 and SP
c) SP
38.
28.
Which of the following types of reactions occur
when a reactant has a double bond?
a) Substitution
c) Photolysis
39.
29.
Among the following orbital bonds, the angle is
minimum between
a) SP3 bond
c) H – O – H in water
30.
b) Px and Py orbitals
d) SP bond
The compound with highest boiling point is
a)
b)
c)
d)
40.
n – hexane
n – pentane
2 – methyl butane
2, 2 – dimethyl propane
Dehydrogenation
Dehalogenation
Dehydrohalogenation
Dehydration
Metallic carbide on treatment with water gives
out a colourless gas which burns readily in air
and gives a red precipitate with Cu2Cl2 +
NH4OH. The gas is
b) C2H6
d) C2H2
When acetylene reacts with 10% H2SO4 in the
presence of HgSO4 yields
a) CH3OH
c) CH3CHO
b) CH3COOH
d) CH3OCH3
Dehydration of Ethanol gives
a) C2H4
c) C2H6
42.
b) Benzene
d) Ethanol
43.
Baeyer’s test is use to detect the bond in an
organic compound
a) Single bond
c) Triple bond
b) Double bond
d) All of these
b) C2H4
d) CH4
Treatment of propene with cold concentrated
H2SO4 followed by boiling water forms
a) Propyne
c) Propanal
44.
b) C2H2
d) C2H4O
Which of the following has active hydrogen?
a) C2H2
c) C2H6
Which is least soluble in water?
a) Phenol
c) Benzoic acid
33.
b) Ethene
d) Acetylene
Alcoholic KOH solution is used for
a)
b)
c)
d)
32.
Bromo Ethane on treatment with alcoholic
KOH yields
a) CH4
c) C2H4
41.
31.
Hoffmann’s Rule
Baeyer’s Strain theory
Thiele’s theory
Markownikoff’s rule
a) Propane
c) Ethylene
b) Addition
d) Polymerization
b) Ethene
d) Ether
The positive part of the adding molecule will
go to that carbon which has greater number of
hydrogen atoms. This statement is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) SP2 and SP3
d) SP3
b) Bromine water
d) Glycol
Which of them is used as general anesthetic?
a) Ethane
c) Ethyne
37.
a) Polar
c) Acidic
b) Ethyl alcohol
d) Ethylene glycol
When ethylene reacts with chlorine to form an
oily product. This oily product is called
a) Baeyer’s test
c) Dutch – liquid
b) Paraffins
d) None of these
36.
26.
Ethylene reacts with Baeyer’s reagent to form
b) Propanol
d) 2 – Propanol
Markownikoff’s rule provides guidance for
addition of HBr in
37
a)
b)
c)
d)
45.
CH2 = CH – CH3
CH2 = CH2
CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
None of these
54.
a) More reactive
c) Neutral
The compound having both SP and SP3
hybridized carbon atom is
55.
a) Propene
c) Propyne
46.
b) Propane
d) All of these
Electrophilic addition reaction
Nucleophilic substitution reaction
Free radical substitution reaction
Free radical addition reaction
Acetylene is used as a starting material for the
preparation of Plastics, Synthetic rubber and
Synthetic fibre called
58.
b) Narlon
d) Forlon
b) Benzene
d) Vinyl acetylene
b) Sodium Succinate
d) Sodium Fumerate
60.
Dichloro acetaldehyde
Dichlorohydrin
Ethylene chlorohydrin
Ethylene Dichlorohydrin
Formation of alkane by the action of zinc on
alkyl halide is called ________
The alkynes have _______
a) Tetrahedral frame work
b) Planar molecules
c) Linear structure
d) None of these
61.
Ethene on interaction with hypochlorous acid
gives
a)
b)
c)
d)
Reduced to CCl4
Oxidized to CCl4
Reduced to phosgene
Oxidized to a poisonous phosgene
a) Frankland reaction
b) Wurtz reaction
c) Cannizzaro’s reaction
d) Kobe’s reaction
Which one of the following gives Ethyne on
electrolysis?
a) Sodium Acetate
c) Sodium Formate
Displacement reaction
Substitution reaction
Addition reaction
Polymerization reaction
Chloroform is stored in dark coloured bottles
because in light it is
a)
b)
c)
d)
59.
Acetylene cyanide
Cyanoacetylene
Vinyl ethane
Acrylonitrile
Action of HOCl with ethene to give ethylene
chlorohydrin is an example of
a)
b)
c)
d)
The high polymer of chloroprene is
a) Polythene
c) Neoprene
53.
57.
Wurtz’s rule
Frankland’s rule
Markownikoff’s rule
Kekule’s rule
a) Orlon
c) Corlon
52.
b) C2H3Br
d) C2H5OH
Consider a reaction
CH3 – CH = CH2 + H – X → product
The reaction occurs by obeying
a)
b)
c)
d)
51.
b) Ethyne
d) Butane
Acetylene adds on to HCN to give
a)
b)
c)
d)
The major reactions occur in alkanes are
a)
b)
c)
d)
50.
b) C2H6
d) C2H2
The structural formula of the compound which
yields ethylene upon reaction with Zinc is
a) CH2Br – CH2Br
c) C2H2
49.
Which one will not decolourize bromine water?
a) Ethene
c) Propene
56.
48.
b) Less reactive
d) Both a & b
PVC is a polymer of
a) CH2 = CH2
c) CH2 = CH Cl
47.
The compounds having Pi bonds are in
general
The alkenes have _______
a) Tetrahedral frame work
b) Planar molecule
c) Linear structure
d) None of these
62.
Alkenes undergo _______
38
a) Addition reaction
b) Substitution reaction
c) Both addition & substitution reaction
d) None of these
63.
_______ does not react with aqueous solution
of acids, alkalies, or potassium permanganate
or other oxidizing agents and most of the usual
laboratory reagents.
a) Benzene
c) Methane
69.
a) Berthelot Process
b) Sabatier – Senderns Reaction
c) Kolbe’s Process
d) Haber’s process
70.
b) Ether
d) Acetic acid
64.
The IUPAC name for the following compound
is
CH3
CH2CH2CH3
│
│
CH3 – CH – CH – CH – CH = CH2
│
CH3
a) 4, 5 – dimethyl – 3 – propyl – 2 – hexene
b) 4, 5 – dimethyl – 3 – propyl – 1 – hexene
c) 3– propyl – 3 – dimethylpropyl – 1 – hexane
d) 2, 3 – dimethyl – 4 – propyl – 5 – hexane
65.
Markovnikov addition of KCl to propene
involves,
The process used for the preparation of
acetylene is _______
A simple chemical test to distinguish 1, 3butadiene and 1- butyne is
a) Br2│CCl4
c) KMnO4
b) Ag(NH3)2OH
d) None
a) Initial attack by a chloride ion
b) Isomerization of 1 – chloropropane
c) Formation of n – propyl cation
d) Formation of isopropyl cation
66.
When an aqueous solution of sodium or
potassium salt of mono carboxylic acid is
subjected to electrolytic, corresponding alkane
is formed. This reaction is called ________
Chapter # 9
Aromatic Hydrocarbons
1.
a) Sabatier Senderens Reaction
b) Kolbe’s Electrolysis
c) Polymerization
d) Chlroination
a) C7H7
c) C8H8
2.
67.
The elimination of hydrogen halide (HX) from
adjacent carbon atoms is called ________
a) Pyrolysis
c) Dehydrohalogenation
68.
b) Chlorination
d) None
When a mixture of ethane and air is passed
over heated silver under pressure, we get
_____
a) Epoxide
c) Suboxide
b) Super oxide
d) None
The molecular formula of toluene is_______
In benzene sulphonic acid, the sulphonic
group is attached with benzene ring
through_____
a) Hydrogen
c) Sulpher
3.
b) Oxygen
d) –OH
Phenanthrene ________ benzene rings
a) Two
c) Four
4.
b) C7H8
d) C8H7
b) Three
d) Five
Aniline is a derivative of benzene which
contains______
39
a) Hydroxyl group
c) Amido group
a) Two
c) Four
b) Amino group
d) Imido group
13.
5.
How many π electrons are there in benzene?
a) 3
c) 6
6.
The molecular formula of biphenyl methane
is____________
a) C12H10
c) C13H10
7.
a) Bromine
c) Flourine
9.
14.
15.
b) –OH
d) –CHO
17.
What catalyst is employed when benzene is
prepared from acetylene at 70˚C?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which pair of groups contains both ortho &
para directors?
a.
b.
c.
d.
11.
18.
–OH, –RCO
–NR3, –CN
–OCH3, –CHO
–N (CH3)2, –NH2
Michael Faraday discovered benzene in the
gas which was produced by destructive
distillation of vegetable oil done in_________
a.
b.
c.
d.
12.
~
Which one of the following is not a meta
directing group?
a) –CN
c) –COOH
10.
150.5 KJ/ mole
250.5 KJ/ mole
150.5 KJ/ mole
250.5 KJ/ mole
The resonance between different structures is
represented by______
a.
b.
c.
d.
b) Chlorine
d) Iodine
-219.5 KJ/ mole
219.5 calories/ mole
-119 KJ/ mole
-119 Cal/ mole
The resonance energy of benzene is______
a.
b.
c.
d.
16.
b) 0.307 nm
d) 0.307 nm
The heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is
_____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
b) –CHO
d) –CN
When benzene is substituted by halogens
only, which one of the following halogens is
given the number one position in the ring while
writing the name of compound?
In benzene the C-C bond length is larger than
the C-H bond length by a numerical value
of____________
a) 0.307Ao
c) 0.337Ao
b) C12H12
d) C13H12
When two or more different substituents are
attached with a benzene ring, the number 1
position in the ring is given to a high priority
group. Which one of the following groups has
highest priority?
a) –NH2
c) –COOH
8.
b) 4
d) 8
b) Three
d) Six
The presence of Oxygen
The presence of Hydrogen
The absence of Oxygen
The presence of excessive Oxygen
How many moles of H2 are added up when
benzene is heated with hydrogen in the
presence of platinum?
Mixture of catalysts Cr2O3 + Al2O3 + SiO2 at
500˚C are used when benzene is prepared
from____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
19.
Zn amalgam
AlCl3
Organo-nickel
Rancy Rickel
Cycloalkene
n-hexane
Benzene sulphonic acid
Sodium benzoate
Which one of the following methods will not
give benzene?
a. Heating so. Salt of Benzoic acid with
soda lime
b. Distillation phenol with Zn dust
c. Chlorobenzene with NaOH at 360
˚C & 300atm.
d. Hydrolysis of benzene sulphonic acid
with super heated steam.
40
20.
What is the ratio of conc. HNO3 & conc.
H2SO4 when nitration of benzene is done at
50˚C?
a) 1:1
c) 1:2
21.
Strong nucleophile
Weak nucleophile
Strong electrophite
Weak electrophite
32.
b) Ketone
d) Other
33.
b) Polymerization
d) Condensation
What is required other then anhydrous AlCl3,
when toluene is prepared from Friedel craft
reaction?
a) C6H6
c) C6H5C2H5
The rupturing of Benzene mg
Substitution reaction
Addition reaction
No-reaction
b) C6H6 + CH3Cl
d) C6H5 ─ CH2─
Replacement of hydrogen of benzene by alkyl
group in pressure of alkyl halide & ferric
chloride is known as____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Substitution reaction
Addition reaction
Polymerization reactions
Oxidation reactions
During sulphonation of benzene, H2SO4
generates____________ electrophile
a) HSO4c) NO2-
Dow’s process
Friedel & Craft acylation
Friedel & Craft alkylation
Clemenson reaction
b) NO
d) NO2+
Which compound will readily undergo
Which of the following radical is called benzyl
radical?
a) C6H5─
c) C6H5─CH─
35.
b) SO2
d) NO2+
Nitronium ion is_____________
a) NO3
c) NO2-
28.
The preparation of benzene from acethylene
can also be said as ________
a) Oxidation
c) Dehydration
34.
27.
Which one of the following statement is not
correct about benzene?
Benzene does not undergo ___________
a.
b.
c.
d.
26.
Substitution reaction
Addition reaction
Elimination reaction
Oxidation reaction
a. On hydrogenation, 208 KJ/ mole is
liberated
b. C-H bond length in benzene is 1.09Ao
c. Molecular mass of benzene is 78.108
d. Resonance energy of benzene is
150.5 K Cal / mole
31.
Reacting bromine with benzene in the
presence of sunlight will result in__________
a.
b.
c.
d.
25.
30.
b) Nitro benzene
d) Chlorobenzene
Benzene is heated in air with V2O5 at 450˚C it
undergo ___________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Acetophenone is a ______________
a) Quinone
c) Aldehyde
24.
29.
Acylation of benzene is the introduction of
___________on benzene.
O
||
a. R ─ C ─ O ─
O
||
b. Cl ─ C ─
O
||
c. R ─ C ─
O
||
d. H ─ C ─
23.
a) Benzene
c) Golvene
In Friedel Craft Alkylation, AlCl3 is used to
generate___________
a.
b.
c.
d.
22.
b) 2:1
d) 2:3
sulphonation?
b) C6H5─CH=CH2
d) C6H5─CH2─
Which compound form benzoic acid on
oxidation with strong oxidizing agent?
a) Toluene
b) Ethyle benzene
c) n-propyl bezene d) all
36.
Toluene can be converted to benzoic acid in
presence of _________
a. Dil NaO4
b. Mixture of HNO3 & H2SO4
c. Zn dust
41
d. Acidified KMnO4
37.
Which one of the following is benzal chloride?
a.
b.
c.
d.
38.
C6H5 CH2Cl
C6H5 CHCl2
C6H5─CH = CHCl
None of the above
47.
The hydrolysis of Benzenetriozonide will yield
three moles of ________
Which of the following will undergo nitration
more easily and readily?
a) C6H6
c) C6H5CCl3
49.
50.
41.
The reaction of toluene with chlorine in the
presence of FeCl3 gives
a)
b)
c)
d)
42.
51.
6 Pi and 6 sigma bonds
3 Pi and 3 sigma bonds
3 Pi and 12 sigma bonds
6 Pi and 3 sigma bonds
52.
Common reaction
derivatives are
a)
b)
c)
d)
44.
Benzene
and
53.
Benzene can be obtained by
b) Benzyl Chloride
d) Acetophenone
54.
o – xylene on oxidation yields
55.
b) 36 cal/mol
d) none of these
The catalyst used for halogenation of benzene
is
a) Cu
c) FeCl3
56.
b) o – Phthalic acid
d) m – Phthalic acid
The resonance energy of benzene is
a) 36 j/mol
c) 36 Kcal/mol
Passing vapors of Phenol over heated Zinc
gives
b) Acetic Acid
Reaction of zinc and phenol
Hydrolysis of benzene sulphonic acid
Reduction of benzene chloride
All of these
a) Oxalic acid
c) Toluene
Benzene when treated with acetyl chloride in
the presence of AlCl3 yields
a) Benzene
O – benzene sulphonic acid
P – benzene sulphonic acid
m – benzene sulphonic acid
O/P benzene sulphonic acid
its
Electrophilic addition
Electrophilic substitution
Nucleophilic addition
Nucleophilic substitution
a) Acetyl Benzene
c) Benzophenone
45.
of
b) Benzene
d) None of these
Sulphonation of benzoic acid gives
a)
b)
c)
d)
43.
b) Benzoic acid
d) All of these
Aspirin is obtained by reaction of sulphuric
acid and
a)
b)
c)
d)
Benzene is made of
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which of the following can be easily nitrated?
a) Phenol
c) Acetyl chloride
Benzyl chloride
Benzal chloride
m – Chloro Toluene
O/P Chloro Toluene
b) Benzoic acid
d) Benzophenone
Nitro group is O/P group
Nitro group is electron donating group
Bonding occurs in P – nitro phenol
None of these
a) Phenol
c) Nitro benzene
b) C6H5CHCl2
d) C6H5CH3
KMnO4
The b.p of P – nitro phenol is higher than that
of O – nitro phenol because
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Benzaldehyde
d) Glyoxal
b) Trinitrobenzene
d) Nitro benzene
Toluene on reaction with acidic
produces
a) Phenol
c) Benzyl alcohol
48.
d) Benzaldehyde
Which of the following is not an explosive?
a) Picric Acid
c) Trinitro Toluene
b) C6H5O8
d) C6H6O6
a) Glyoxine
c) Glycol
40.
46.
What is the molecular formula of
Benzenetriozonide?
a) C6H6O9
c) C6H5O9
39.
c) Benzoic Acid
b) Ni
d) Zn
Which one is nitronium ion?
42
a) NO
c)
57.
1
3
NH 41
b)
b) Cl2, FeCl3
c) KMnO4, OH-, heat (then H3O+)
d) None of the above
1
2
NO
d) None of these
64.
Which substituent group decrease
reactivity of benzene, because they
the
a) Increase the electronic density of benzene
ring
b) Decrease the electronic density of
benzene ring
c) Decrease the stability of phenonium ion
d) Both b & c
58.
59.
60.
b) Cyclohexane
d) None of these
Benzene reacts with chlorine to give a
substance with formula C6H6Cl6. This reaction
is brought about by
68.
b) Ultraviolet radiation
d) Iron fillings
Which of the following will be least reactive to
ring bromination using bromine water?
a) Toluene
c) Chlorobenzene
Benzene was found by _______ in 1825 in the
gas produced by the destructive distillation of
vegetable oils.
b) Nitrobenzene
d) Aniline
Benzene and cyclohexene can be
distinguished by which of the following test?
a) AgNo3 │C2H5OH
c) Br2 │CCl4
b) Ag(NH3)2OH
d) None
Which of the following test can be used to
distinguish C6H5CH2Br and C6H5CH3?
a) Ag(NH3)2OH
c) AgNO3 │C2H5OH
b) Br2 │CCl4
d) Hot KMnO4
Replacement of hydrogen atom by – SO2OH is
called _______
b) Sulphonation
d) Hydrogenation
The Kekule structures of benzene are related
in which of the following way?
a) They are eac equally correct as structure for
benzene.
b) Benzene is sometimes one structures and
sometime the other.
c) The two structures are in a state of rapid
equilibrium.
d) Neither of the two structures describes
benzene adequately
63.
66.
67.
b) Michael Faraday
d) None of these
b) Cl2, FeCl3
d) None
a) An acid catalyst
c) Aluminum oxide
a) Increase the electronic density of benzene
b) Decrease the electronic density of
benzene
c) Decrease the stability of phenonium ion
d) Both b & c
a) Nitration
c) Alkylation
62.
65.
Meta orienting groups decrease the reactivity
of benzene because they
a) Hofmann
c) Solvay
61.
a) Cl2, light
c) SOCl2
Benzene on ozonolysis produces
a) Benzoic acid
c) Glyoxal (CHO2)2
The conversion of ethyl benzene into 1 –
chloro – 1 – phenyl ethane can be achieved by
The conversion of toluene into benzoic acid
can be achieved by
a) Br2, heat and light
CHAPTER # 10
Alkyl Halides
1. What should be the products when reactants
are alcohol & thionyl chloride in the presence
of pyridine?
a) RCl+S+HCl
c) RCl+SO2+H2O
b) RCl+SO2+HCl
d) RCl+S+H2O
2. Which C-X bon has the highest bond energy
per mole?
a) C-F
c) C-Br
b) C-Cl
d) C-I
43
CH3
3. Which alkyl halides has the highest reactivity ,
for a particular alkyl group?
a) R-F
c) R-Br
b) R-Cl
d) R-I
CH3
|
d. CH3─ C─ X
|
CH3
4. 2.8 is the electronegativity of________
a) F
c) Br
b) Cl
d) I
5. Which one is not a nucleophile?
a) C2H5O─
c) NH3
b) SCN─
d) H3C+
6. The number of molecules taking part in the
rate determining step is called_________
a) Order of reaction
b) Rate or reaction
c) Molecularity of a reaction
d) Extent of a reaction
7. During SN2 mechanism,carbon atom changes
it state of hybridization from___________
a) sp→sp2
c) sp3→sp
b) sp2→sp3
d) sp3→sp2
8. What will be the order of reaction of a reaction
whose rate can be expressed R = K [A] [B]?
a) Zero
c) Two
b) One
d) Three
9. Which one among the following is not a good
leaving group?
a) HSO4─
c) OH─
b) Cl─
d) Br─
10. What is the order of kinetics in the SN1
mechanism?
a) Zero
c) Second
a) α-carbon
c) α-hydrogen
b) β-carbon
d) β-hydrogen
13. When two moles of ethyl chloride react with
moles of sodium in the presence of ether, what
will be formed?
a) 2 moles of ethane
c) 2 moles of butane
b) 1 mole of ethane
d) 1 mole of butane
14. Zn-Cu couple and alcohol generate_______
a) [H]
c) [O]
b) H2
d) O2
15. When CO2 is made to react with ethyl
magnesium iodide, followed by acid
hydrolysis, the product formed is_________
a) Propane
c) Propanal
b) Propanoic acid
d) Propanol
16. Grignard reagent is reactive due to ________
a.
b.
c.
d.
The presence of halogen atom
The presence of magnesium atom
The polarity of C-Mg bond
All
17. SN2 reaction can be best carried out with____
a.
b.
c.
d.
Primary alkyl halide
Secondary alkyl halide
Tertiary alkyl halide
All
b) First
d) Third
11. Which alkyl halide out of the following may
follow both SN1 and SN2 mechanism?
a. CH3─X
CH3 H
|
|
b. CH3─ C ─ C ─X
|
|
CH3 H
CH3
c.
12. In elimination reaction of alkyl halide, which
site is more susceptible for the attack of
nucleophile?
CH ─ X
18. Elimination bimolecular reactions involve____
a.
b.
c.
d.
First order kinetics
Second order kinetics
Third order kinetics
Zero order kinetics
19. For which mechanisms, the first step involved
is the same?
a) E1+E2
c) S1+SN1
b) E2+SN2
d) SN1+SN2
44
20. The rate of E1 reaction depends
upon____________
(C) Iodide > Bromide > Chloride > Flouride
(D) Bromide > Iodide > Chloride > Flouride
a. The concentration of substrate
b. The concentration of nucleophile
c. The concentration of substrate as well
as nucleophile
d. No dependence
28. When CO2 is made to react with ethyl
magnesium iodide, followed by acid hydrogen,
the product formed is.
(A) Propane
(C) Propanal
21. Alkyl halides are considered to be very
reactive compounds towards nucleophile
because___________
a. They have an electrophilic carbon
b. They have an electrophilic carbon & a
good leaving group
c. They have an electrophilic carbon & a
bad leaving group
d. They have a nucleophilic carbon & a
good leaving group
29. Grignard reagent is reactive to.
(A) The presence of halogen atom
(B) The presence of Mg atom
(C) The polarity of C-Mg atom
(D) None of the above
30.
b) Br+
d) BF3
31.
b) Aqueous KOH
d) Aqueous NaOH
32.
24. Which one of the following alcohols will be
formed when ethyl magnesium bromide reacts
with acetone?
a) Primary alcohol
c) Tertiary alcohol
b) Secondary alcohol
d) Dihydric alcohol
33.
a)Two
c) One
b) Three
d) Four
27. The reactivity order of alkyl halides for a
particular alkyl group is.
(B) E2 and SN2
(D) El and SN1
Alkyl halides are considered to be very
reactive compounds towards nucleophilies
because.
(A) They have an electrophilic carbon
(B) They have an electrophilic carbon and a
good leaving group
(C) They have an electrophilic carbon and a
bad leaving group
(D) They have a nucleophilic carbon and a
good leaving group
b) Acetaldehyde
d) CO2
26. In primary alkyl halides, the halogen atom is
attached to a carbon which is further attached
to how many carbons atoms
For which mechanism the 1st step involved in
the same.
(A) El and E2
(C) El and E2
25. Which one of the following molecules does not
form alcohol when reacts with Grignard
reagent?
a) Formaldehyde
c) Propanone
Elimination bimolecular reactions involve.
(A) First order kinetics
(B) Second order kinetics
(C) Third order kinetics
(D) Zero order kinetics
23. Which one of the following reactants will be
required to form ethane from ethyl chloride?
a) Alcoholic KOH
c) Alkaline KMnO4
SN2 reactions can be lest carried out with
(A) Primary alkyl halides
(B) Secondary alkyl halides
(C) Tertiary alkyl halides
(D) All of these
22. Which one of the following species in not an
electrophile?
a) NH3
c) H+
(B) Propanoic acid
(D) Propanol
34.
The rate of E, reaction depends upon
(A) The concentration of substrate.
(B) The concentration of nucleophile
(C) The concentration of substratc as well as
uncleophile
(D) None of the above
35. Which one of the following is not a nucleophile
(A) Flouride > chloride > Bromide > Iodide
(B) Chloride > Bromide > Flouride > Iodide
(A) H2O
(B) H2S
45
(C) BF3
36)
45)
46)
Ether
Water
Pyridine
Acetone
47)
48)
b) Carbon ion
d) Oxide ion
Which SN reaction occurs in two steps?
In SN2 reactions, two reactants are involved in
the rate determining step while these reactions
occur in
b) Three steps
d) Four steps
51)
b) NH3
d) BF3
Alkyl halides give reactions
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which one
compound?
52)
b) Secondary amine
d) Mixture of amines
Nucleophilic
substitution
represented by
a) E1
53)
b) SN
reactions
are
organometallic
b) RX
d) RCHO
reacts
with
b) C2H5OH
d) C3H8
Dehydrogenation
Dehydrohalogenation
Dehydration
Dehalogenation
Reaction of RX with Ammonia is called
Wurtz’s reaction
Frankland’s reaction
Hoffmann’s reaction
Friedal Craft reaction
A nucleophile is a
a) Lewis acid
c) Arrhenius acid
54)
is
The chemical reaction in which HX is removed
from two adjacent carbon atoms of an organic
molecule is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
When Ammonia reacts with excess of alkyl
halides gives
them
When
Grignard
reagent
formaldehyde to yield
a)
b)
c)
d)
Electrophilic substitution
Nucleophilic substitution
Electrophilic addition
Nucleophilic addition
a) Primary amine
c) Tertiary amine
of
a) CH3OH
c) CH3COCH3
Which of the following is an electrophile?
a) O H
c) ROH
44)
b) SN2
d) None of these
a) RMgX
c) ROH
Formation of alkane by the action of Zinc on
alkyl halide is called
50)
43)
Primary alkyl halide
Secondary alkyl halide
Tertiary alkyl halide
All of these
Carbon carrying negative charge is known as
a) Wurtz’s reaction
b) Sabatier reaction
c) Frankland’s reaction d) Kolbe’s reaction
42)
SN2 reactions occur in
a) Two steps
c) One step
49)
41)
b) 3
d) 1
a) SN1
c) Both
The reaction of Sodium metal with alkyl halide
in the presence of Ether is called
a) Carbonium ion
c) Oxonium ion
40)
SN reactions are classified into types
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) Wurtz’s reaction
b) Sabatier reaction
c) Frankland’s reaction d) None of these
39)
d) RCHO
a) 4
c) 2
RCl
RBr
RI
None of these
For the preparation of RX, by the reaction of
Alcohol and Thionyl Chloride requires the
presence of a solvent
a)
b)
c)
d)
38)
c) ROH
Which Monohaloalkane can not be obtained
by the direct action of halogen and alkane?
a)
b)
c)
d)
37)
(D) NH3
b) Lewis base
d) Arrhenius base
An electrophile is a
a) Lewis acid
c) Arrhenius acid
b) Lewis base
d) Arrhenius base
46
d) All of these
55)
Rate determining steps in SN1 reaction is
always the
a) Slow step
c) Intermediate
56)
57)
a) Primary alcohol
c) Acetic acid
65)
66)
68)
59)
60)
When metallic sodium in ether is heated with
an alkyl halide, a higher alkane is formed. It is
called ______
a) C2H4
c) CH3OH
a) Sulphonation
c) Friedel-Crafts reacton
b) CH3l
d) C2H5OH
RMgX reacts with PCl3 giving
Ethyl iodide on its interaction with silver nitrate
to yield
a) Ethyl nitrate
c) Nitro methane
62)
69)
70)
Electrophilic substitution reaction
Nucleophilic substitution reaction
Addition reaction
Oxidation reaction
b) Alkynes
d) Alcohols
On passing CO2 through Grignard reagent
______ is formed.
a) Methanoic acid
c) Alkyl sodium halide
72)
b) CCl4
d) CHCl3
Grignard’s reagent reacts with alkyl halide to
form ________
a) Alkanes
c) Alkenes
71)
b) Wurtz’s reaction
d) None
Which molecule has a zero dipole moment?
a) CH3Cl
c) CH2Cl2
b) Ethyl nitrite
d) None of these
Elimination reactions are the reverse of
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Ethanoic acid
d) None of these
The hydrolysis of alkyl halides by heating with
aqueous alkali is a _______ substitution
reaction.
a) Electrophilic
c) Both a & b
63)
b) ZnCl2
d) None
Both methane ethane may be prepared in one
step reaction from
a) Methyl phosphate
b)Trimethyl phosphate
c) Dimethyl phosphate d) None of these
61)
b) TEL
d) All of these
Formula of Thionyl chloride is _______
a) SOCl2
c) CH3Cl
b) Tertiary alcohol
d) Ketone
b) Markownikoff’s rule
d) Hoffmann’s rule
Which of them is organometallic compound?
a) RMgX
c) TML
67)
b) R2CHX
d) All of these
The removal of hydrogen from that beta
carbon which has fewer H – atoms is called
a) Wurtz’s rule
c) Saytzeef’s rule
b) Methyl ester
d) Acetyl halide
Grignard reagent reacts with formaldehyde to
form
E1 reactions occur in
a) RCH2X
c) R3CX
b) Ester
d) Carboxylic acid
Methyl iodide reacts with silver acetate to yield
a) Methyl acetate
c) Methylol phenol
58)
b) Fast step
d) None of these
Which one of the organic compound is without
oxygen?
a) Ether
c) Alkyl halides
64)
b) Nucleophilic
d) None
In electron pair donor is a strong base
(OH , OR ) then the dominant reactions will
73)
be
a) SN2 and E2 is a side reaction
b) E2 and SN2 is side reaction
c) E1 and SN2 is side reaction
Ethyl bromide can be converted into ethyl
alcohol by heating with,
a) Aqueous KOH
c) Moist silver oxide
74)
b) Ethanoic KOH
d) Both a & c
The major product obtained by treating 2 –
47
chlorobutane with alcoholic KOH is
a) 1 – Butyne
c) 1 – Butene
75)
Which of the following is a vic – dihalide?
a) ClCH2CH2Cl
c) BrCH2CH2CH2Br
76)
b) Cu I
d) Na
SN2 reaction proceeds via the formation of
a) Carbonation
c) Free radical
78)
b) CH3CHCl2
d) BrCH2CH2CH2CH2Br
3 – Bromohexane can be converted into
hexane using
a) Zn, H+
c) (CH3)2CuLi
77)
b) 2 – Butyne
d) 2 – Butene
b) Transition sate
d) Carbanion
Which of the following alkyl halide reacts
fastest with AgNO3?
a) (CH3)3C – Cl
c) CH3CH2CH2Cl
b) (CH3)2 CH Cl
d) (CH3)2CCH2-Cl
48
CHAPTER # 11
Alcohols Phenols and Ethers
10.
1. Which one of the following is termed as benzyl
alcohol?
a) C6H5OH
c) C6H5CH2OH
b) C6H5CH(OH)2
d) None
a) Propane
c) Propanone
11.
3. Which one of the following is also known as
tartaric acid?
12.
a) Methanal
c) Carbonic acid
13.
a) Mother liquor
c) Extract
b) Filtrate
d) Molasses
14.
b) C6H9O5
d) C6H12O6
b) C2H5OH
d) C2H5OH and NH3.
Ethyl alcohol is industrially prepared from
ethylene by
Final product formed on reduction of glycerol
by hyddriodic acid is
a) Propane
c) Propene
15.
16.
7. The process of fermentation of starch involve
many enzymes, the sequence of enzyme used
are____________
18.
b) CH3OH
d) None of these
Ethanol containing some methanot is called
a) Absolute spirit
c) Power alcohol
19.
b) Strong acid
d) Neutral
The formula of wood spirit is ?
a) CH3COOH
c) C2H5OH
a) Diastase-maltase-zymase
b) Zymase-maltase-zymase
c) Maltase-diastase-zymase
d) Diastase-zymase-maltase
b) Styphinic acid
d) None
Alcohols are
a) Basic
c) Amphatere
17.
b) Propanoic acid
d) None of these
Phenol on treatment with cone. HNO3 gives
a) Picric acid
c) Both
6. The formula of starch is___________
a) C12H22O11
c) C6H10O5
Action of nitrous acid on ethylamine gives
a) Permanganate oxidation
b) Catalytic reduction
c) Absorbing in H2SO4 followed by hydrolysis
d) Fermentation.
b) Methanol
d) Methane
5. The residue obtained after the crystallization of
sugar from concentrated sugar cane juice is
called________
Which one is primary alcohol ?
a) C2H6
c) C2H5OH and C2H4
a) 2,3-dihydroxy butanedioic acid
b) 2,2-dihydroxy butanedioic acid
c) 2,3-dihydroxy butanioc acid
d) 2,2-dihydroxy butanioc acid
4. Water gas heated at 450˚C and 200 atm
pressure in the presence of ZnO+Cr2O3 will
produce
b) Propanol
d) Propanoic acid
a) Buten-2ol
b) Propan-2-ol
c) Butan-1-ol
d) 2,3-Dimethythexane-4-ol.
2. Which one of the following is also known as
lactic acid?
a) 3-hydroxy propanioc acid
b) 2-hydroxy propanioc acid
c) 2-hydroxy butanoic acid
d) 3--hydroxy butanoic acid
The oxidation of isopropyl alcohol will
yield____________
b) Rectified spirit
d) Methylated spirit
Glyccrol is a
8. The rectified spirit contain_________
a) 12% alcohol
c) 91% alcohol
a) Primary alcohol
c) Secondary alcohol
b) 90% alcohol
d) 100% alcohol
20.
b) Monohydric alcohol
d) Tribydric alcohol.
Glyccrol can be obtained from
9. K2Cr2O7/H2SO4 generate___________
a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Nascent oxygen [O] d)Nascent hydrogen [H]
a) Fats
c) Both
b) Propyiene
d) None
49
21.
The enzyme which can catalyse
conversion of glucose to ethanol is
a) Zymase
c) Maltase
22.
Rectified spirit is a mixture of
25.
33.
b) AI2O3
d) AII.
Electrophilic substitution in phenol generally
occurs at
a) O- and P-position
b) Metapositions
c) Only at ortho positions
d) Only at para position
36.
Phenol is more readily soluble in
a) dil. HCl
b) Both NaOH and HCl
c) NaOH sol
d) Sodium bicarbonate solution.
37.
The order of reactivity of halogen acids for
reaction with C2H5OH is
a) HCl > HBr > HI
c) HBr > HI > HCl
b) Alkenes
d) AII.
38.
Alcohol fermentation is brought about by the
action of
a) CO2
c) Invertase
29.
b) Acetic acid
d) None of these
Alcohols reacts with Grignard reagent to form
a) Alkanes
c) Alkynes
28.
b) Hydrolyais
d) Hydrogenation
Alcoholic beverages are made of
a) Ethanol
c) Formic acid
35.
b) Ammonical AgNO3
d) CaSO2/Ca(OH)2
The reaction between alcohol and carboxylic
acids is called
a) Esterification
c) Saponification
34.
b) Ethyl alcohol
d) Methanol
Baeyer's reagent is
a) Alkaline KMnO4
c) Ammonial CuSO4
Which of the following can work as a
dehydrating agent for alcohol ?
a) H2SO4
c) P2O5
27.
32.
b) –CN
d) AII.
Which is used as an antifreeze ?
a) Glyeol
c) Water
Alcohola of low molecular weight are
a) Soluble in water
b) Soluble in water on heating
c) Insoluble in water
d) Insoluble in all solvents
26.
31.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of
alcohol ?
a) They are lighter than water
b) Their boiling point rise fairly uniformly with
rising molccular weight
c) Lower members are insoluble in water and
organic solvents but the solubility regulary
increase with molecular mass
d) Lower members have a pleasant smell and
burning taste, higher members are
colouriess and tasteless.
Which of the following groups will increase the
acidity of phenol ?
a) –NO2
c) –X(halogens)
b) Inverslon
d) Inhibition.
a) 95% ethyl alcohol +5% water
b) 94% ethyl alcohol +4.53% water
c) 94.4% ethyl alcohol + 5.43% water
d) 95.87% ethyl alcohol +4.13% water
24.
30.
b) Invertase
d) Diastase.
Hydrolytic conversion of sucrose into glucose
and fructose is known as
a) Induction
c) Insertion
23.
the
a) Pieric acide
c) 2,4Dinitrophenol
b) 2-Nitrophenol
d) m-Nitrophenol.
The reaction of Ethanol with H2SO4 does not
give
a) Ethylene
b) Diethyl either
c) Acetylene
d) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate
b) O2
d) Yeast.
Amongst the following phenols which is most
acidic?
b) HI > HBr > HCl
d) HBr > HCl > HI.
39.
Which one of them is a monohydric alcohol?
a) CH3CH(OH)2
c) C2H5OH
b) CH3C(OH)3
d) None of these
50
40.
Glycol is alcohol
a) Monohydric
c) Trihydric
41.
Alcohol reacts with carboxylic acids, acid an
hydrides and acid halides to form
46.
53.
56.
47.
An alcohol produced in the manufacture of
soap is
a) Ethanol
c) Glycerol
57.
48.
The formation of Acetaldehyde from ethanol is
called
a) Oxidation
c) Addition
49.
b) Reduction
d) Substitution
b) Acetic acid
d) Hydrochloric acid
b) Acetic acid
d) Benzaldehyde
the
b) o – nitro phenol
d) None of these
b) TrinitroBenzene
d) Nitrobenzene
b) C6H6
d) C6H5CHO
Ether is soluble in
a) Water
c) Conc. KOH
58.
b) Acetylene
d) o/p methylol phenol
Sodium salt of benzene sulphonic acid on
fusion with caustic soda gives
a) C6H5OH
c) C6H5COOH
b) Propanol
d) Glycol
the
Which of the following is not an explosive?
a) Picric acid
c) Trinitrotoluene
b) Olefins
d) Esters
by
Phenol reacts with dilute HNO3 in
presence of concentrated H2SO4 yields
a) o/p nitro phenol
c) p – nitro phenol
55.
formed
Passing vapors of phenol over heated Zinc
gives
a) Benzene
c) Benzoic acid
54.
is
Acidified potassium dichromate is also called
a) Chromic acid
c) Iodic acid
b) Secondary alcohol
d) All of these
Low temperature and excess of Alcohol favors
the formation of
a) Paraffins
c) Ether
52.
b) Ketone
d) Aldehyde
Strongly acidic solution of Na2Cr2O7 is required
for the oxidation of
a) Primary alcohol
c) Tertiary alcohol
Bakelite
plastic
polymerization of
a) Phenol
c) Ethane
Pure methyl alcohol
Methyl alcohol containing water
Methanol containing methanal
Ethanol containing methanol
a) Ether
b) Esters
45.
51.
Methylated spirit is
a)
b)
c)
d)
44.
b) Aldehyde
d) Acetic acid
CH3OH & CH3COOH
CH3COOH & CH3COCH3
CH3OH & Pyridine
None of these
Which one of the following will not take place if
1 – Propanol is under test?
a) The formation of H2 when sodium is added
to it
b) The formation of 1 – bromopropane when
reacts with NaBr and concentrated H2SO4
c) The formation of
sweet smelling
compound when reacts with a mixture of
CH3COOH and concentrated H2SO4
d) The formation of yellow colored product
when phenyl hydrazine is added to it
Ethyl Alcohol is denatured by adding
a)
b)
c)
d)
43.
b) Dihydric
d) Both a & b
Wood Naphtha is the commercial name of
a) Ethyl alcohol
c) Methyl alcohol
42.
50.
b) Dil HCl
d) Conc. H2SO4
By accepting a proton, oxygen atom of the
Ether forms
Denatured Alcohol is known as
a) Absolute alcohol
c) Methylated spirit
a) Carbonium ion
c) Oxonium ion
b) Wood spirit
d) Vinegar
59.
b) Carbon ion
d) Oxide ion
Williamson’s synthesis is used to prepare
a) Alcohols
b) Ethers
51
c) Esters
60.
d) Aldehydes
Wax contains
71.
a) – OH Group
c) Ketonic Group
61.
b) – CHO Group
d) Ester Group
a) Base
c) Salt
72.
b) TNT
d) Toluene
a) A powerful acid
c) Nucleophile
73.
b) Paraffins
d) Dimethyl ketone
b) Ketone
d) Ether
The conversion of
acetaldehyde is called
ethyl
alcohol
74.
b) Addition
d) Substitution
b) Acid
d) Benzene
77.
b) Baeyer’s test
d) Tollen’s test
78.
Aqueous Br2
Na2Cr2O7 in dil H2SO4
Aqueous NaCl
Both a & b
b) Covalent bonding
d) None of these
Alcohols may be converted to the
corresponding ______ by actions of halogen
acids in the presence of ZnCl2.
a) Aldehydes
c) Acyl halides
79.
b) Minerals
d) None of these
CH3OH and C2H5OH are highly miscible with
water because they exhibits ________
a) Ionic bonding
c) Hydrogen bonding
Which one can be used to differentiate
between phenol and methyl alcohol?
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Alkyl halides
d) None of these
During the dehydration of alcohols, relatively
high temperature and moderate alcohol
concentration yield the corresponding
_______
Which one attack easily on phenol ring
a) Electrophile
c) Acid
a) Ether
c) Paraffin
b) Nucleophile
d) None of these
80.
70.
b) Blindness
d) None
Ethyl alcohol is produced on commercial scale
by the biological break down of ________
a) Starch
c) Cellulose
Phenol and benzyl alcohol can be distinguish
by using
a) dil HCl
c) Aqueous bromine
69.
b) Dil HNO3
d) None of these
Paraffins dissolve in
a) Water
c) Methyl alcohol
68.
Methyl alcohol can cause _______
a) Cancer
c) Aneimia
76.
67.
b) Organic acid
d) Both a & b
Diethyl ether is soluble in
a) Water
c) Conc. H2SO4
66.
b) Iodoform test
d) Baeyer’s test
Phenol is weaker acid than
a) Water
c) HX
into
75.
a) Reduction
c) Oxidation
65.
b) Electrophile
d) All of these
The test which is used to distinguish between
primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols
a) Lucas Test
c) Benedicts test
Alcohol reacts with an organic acid to yield
a) An ester
c) Alkyl halides
64.
Alkoxide ion is
Which one is methoxy methane?
a) Olefins
c) Dimethyl ether
63.
b) Acid
d) None of these
Phenol reacts with Bromine water to form
a) Picric acid
c) Tribromo phenol
62.
Alkoxide ion is a powerful
Ethers have no hydrogen bonding but they
show weak H – bonding when dissolve in
a) Alkane
c) Water
b) Formaldehyde
d) Kerosene oil
Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation gives ______
a) Ether
c) Ethylene
81.
b) Olefin
d) None
b) Acetone
d) Acetaldehyde
Rectified spirit contains ______ % alcohol.
52
a) 95.6
c) 100.0
82.
Primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols may
be distinguished by using _______
a) Fehling’s solution
c) Hofmann set
83.
84.
b) 75.0
d) 85.4
b) Victor Meyer test
d) Beilstein test
CHAPTER # 12
Aldehydes and ketones
1.
In cold countries glycerol is added to water in
car radiators as it helps to ________
a) Sp hybridized
c) Sp3 hybridized
a) Bring down the specific heat of water
b) Lower the freezing point
c) Reduce the viscosity
d) Make water a better lubricant
2.
Phenol can be converted into p
hydroxybenzaldehyde by
3.
Aldehydes can be oxidized by
b) Fehling solution
d) All.
Tollen's reagent is
a) Ammonical cuprous chloride
b) Ammonical cuprous oxide
c) Ammonical silver bromide
d) Ammonical silver nitrate.
4.
Phenol on treatment with excess of bromine
water give
a) O – bromophenol
b) P – bromophenol
c) M – bromophenol
d) 2, 4, 5 – tribromophenol
b) Sp2 hybridized
d) None of these
a) Tollen's reagent
c) Benedict solution
a) Friedel crafts reaction
b) Gattermann synthesis
c) Hauban-Hoesch reaction
d) None of the above
85.
The carbon atom of a carbonyl group is
Silver mirror is a test for
a) Aidehydes
c) Acids
5.
b) Thioaleohols
d) Ethers
Aldehydes are produced in atmosphere by
a) Oxidation of secondary alcohols
b) Reducuon of alkenes
c) Reaction of oxygen atoms with
hydrocarbons
d) Reaction of oxygen atoms with ozone
6.
At room temperature formaldehyde is
a) Gas
c) Solid
7.
Formalin is____________% solution of H-C-H
in H2O
a) 10%
c) 40%
8.
b) Propanone
d) Formic acid.
Aldehydes can be distinguished from ketones
by using
a) Schiff's reagent
c) Anhy. ZNci2
10.
b) 20%
d) 60%
Which does not react with fehiling solution ?
a) Acetaldehyde
c) Glucose
9.
b) Liquid
d) None
b) Conc. H2SO4
d) Resorcinol.
An aidehyde on oxidation gives
53
a) An alcohol
c) A ketone
b) An acid
d) An ether
20.
Formaldehyde when reacted with methyl
magnesium bromide gives
a) C2H5OH
c) HCHO
11.
Bakelite is obtained by condensation of
21.
a) Acetaldehyde and acetone
b) Formaldehyde and phenol
c) Acetaldehyde and phenol
d) None of these
12.
Carbonyl group undergoes
a) eliminatory reaction
b) electrophilic addition
c) niteophlic adelretion
d) None of them
13.
22.
23.
Which of the following compounds gives a
ketone with Grignard's reagent ?
25.
15.
Which of the following has carbon with lowest
valency?
a) Carbides
c) Alkynes
16.
b) Secondary alcohols
d) Tertiary alcohols.
26.
27.
b) Acetone
d) Ethanol
A silver mirror test is for
a) Aldehydes
c) Alcohols
b) Ketones
d) Ethers
Aldehydes can be distinguished from ketones
by the use of
a) Bayer’s test
c) Iodoform test
28.
b) Acetaldehyde
d) Propionaldehyde.
29.
b) Grignard reagent
d) Fehling solution
When ammonia reacts with formaldehyde and
8% CH3OH is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
Paraaldehyde is a polymer of
a) Formaldehyde
c) Benzaldehyde
19.
Calcium acetate on dry distillation gives
Which reaction yields Bakelite?
a) Urea with HCHO
b) Tetramethyl glycol with Hexamethylene
diisocyanate
c) Phenol and HCHO
d) Ethylene glycol and Dimethylterephthalate.
18.
Unbreakable glass
Smokeless gun powder
Chloroform
All of these
a) Formaldehyde
c) Acetic acid
Reduction of aldehydes with HI and P give
a) Primary alcohols
c) Alkanes
17.
b) Alkenes
d) Alkanes
b) Amine
d) Ether
Acetone is used in the preparation of
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Ethanenitrile
d) Methyl iodide.
b) CH3CHO
d) C2H5OH
On oxidation, ketones yield
a) Alcohol
c) Carboxylic acid
24.
b) Methanc
d) Ethyl formate.
Acetone on reduction gives
a) CH3COOH
c) (CH3)2CHOH
b) Ethanal
d) Ethylamine
a) Formaldehyde
c) Ethyl alcohol
If formaldehyde and KOH are heated them we
get
a) Acctylenc
c) Methyl alcohol
A nucleophilic reagent will readily attack
a) Ethylene
c) Ethanol
14.
b) CH3COOH
d) CH3CHO
Bakelite
Para Formaldehyde
Meta Formaldehyde
Urotropine
Acetone is oxidized with
When
Hexamethylene
tetramine
(Methanamine) reacts with fuming HNO3 to
yield a powerful explosive known as
a) Tollen's reagent
b) Fehling solution
c) Acidic dichromate solution
d) Benedicts solution
a) Chloropicrin
c) Cyclonite
b) Picric acid
d) None of these
54
30.
Which one of the following reactions is not
given by formaldehyde?
a)
b)
c)
d)
31.
Reduction of Fehling’s solution
Reduction of Tollen’s solution
Formation of phenol complexes
Iodoform reaction
Which tests are used for the identification of –
CHO in an aldehyde?
a) Bayer’s test
c) Tollen’s test
32.
41.
42.
b) Picric acid
d) None of these
43.
34.
The compound which gives both positive
haloform test and Fehling test is
a) Acetone
c) Formaldehyde
35.
a) Ketone
c) Ether
36.
a) Schiff’s reagent
c) Tollen’s reagent
37.
38.
47.
b) Acetaldehyde
d) Acetone
b) Acetone
d) Chloroform
49.
a) Salt
c) Acids or bases
b) Transition element
d) All of these
b) Aliphatic aldehydes
d) Aliphatic ketones
Ketones produced a wine red or orange red
color on adding
Fehling solution
Tollen’s solution
Alkaline sodium nitroprusside solution
All of these
The IUPAC name of CH3CH = CH – CHO is
a) But – 2 – enal
c) Methacrolein
The nucleophilic addition reaction of carbonyl
group are catalysed by
b) Cu(OH)2 + NaOH
d) ROH
Which compound gives brick red precipitate of
cuprous oxide with Benedict’s solution
a)
b)
c)
d)
48.
b) Tollen’s reagent
d) Grignard reagent
Almost all the aldehydes and small methyl
ketones produce a crystalline white precipitate
with saturated solution of
a) Aromatic aldehyde
c) Aromatic ketones
Acetaldehyde reacts with moist chlorine to
form
a) Acetyl chloride
c) Chloral
39.
46.
b) Schiff’s reagent
d) Tollen’s reagent
Benzaldehyde reacts with aniline to form
a) RMgX
c) NaHSO3
b) Fehling reagent
d) All of these
Which one does not pass through aldol
condensation?
a) Formaldehyde
c) Propanol
45.
b) Ester
d) Aldehyde
The reagent which is used to distinguish
aldehydes and ketones is
Aldehydes and ketones both easily react with
a) Schiff’s base
c) Borsche’s base
b) Ethanol
d) Acetaldehyde
Silver mirror is carried out for the detection of
functional group
Aldol condensation
Cannizzaro reaction
Clemmensen’s reaction
None of these
a) Fehling solution
c) Grignard reagent
44.
b) C6H5CHO
d) All of these
Reduction of ketone into alkane in the
presence of Zn – Hg is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) CH3COCH3
d) C2H5O2CH5
b) – CHO and OH
d) None of these
Cannizzaro reaction do not occur in
a) H – CHO
c) CH3CHO
Which of the following undergoes halform
reaction?
a) HCHO
c) C2H5
Aldols are those organic compounds which
contain functional group
a) – NH2 and COOH
c) – CHO and – CO –
b) Fehling’s test
d) Both b & c
Benzaldehyde on reaction with alkaline KMnO4
yields
a) Benzophenone
c) Benzoic acid
33.
40.
b) But-2-en-3-al
d) Propenaldehyde
The IUPAC name of OHC – CHO is
a) Glyoxal
b) Ethane-1, 2-dial
55
c) Both a & b
50.
d) None is correct
c) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
d) A mixture of a, b and c.
The IUPAC name of
OHC – CH2 – CH =CH – CHO is
a) Pent-2-ene-1, 5-dial
b) Propene dialdehyde
c) Prop-1-en-1, 3-dial
d) None of the above
51.
The IUPAC name of (CH3)2C = CHCOCH3 is
59.
a) 4-methlypent-3-en-2-one
b) 2-Methlypent-3-en-4-one
c) Acetyl 2-Methyl-butene-3
d) None of the above
52.
53.
a) The carbonyl carbon, oxygen and the other
two atoms (attached to carbon) are
coplanar.
b) The two groups attached to carbonyl carbon
are directed at an angle of 120o from each
other.
c) The π electron density around oxygen is
more than the carbonyl compound.
Dry distillation of calcium format yields _____
a) Ether
c) Acetic acid
b) Formaldehyde
d) None of these
When aldehydes are warmed with ______ red
precipitates of cuprous oxide are precipitated.
60.
The C = O bond and C = C bond are similar in
which of the following ways?
a) Both are made up of one sigma bond and
one pi bond.
b) Both are planer in nature.
c) Both use sp2 hybrid orbitals of the C atom
for their formation.
d) All the above.
61.
The reaction of acetaldehyde with conc.
H2SO4 at room temperature gives
a) Grignard’s Reagent b) Fehlings solution
c) KMnO4
d) None of these
54.
Acetaldehyde reacts with ammonia to form
________
a) Elimination
c) Addition product
55.
b) Substitution products
d) Resin like product
Aldol condensation can occur between ______
a) An aldehyde and ketone
b) An aldehyde and ester
c) An aldehyde and benzene
d) None of these
56.
An aqueous solution containing about 40% of
formaldehyde and a little alcohol is sold under
the name of _______
a) Formalin
c) Pyridine
57.
b) Malt-sugar
d) Starch
a) Paraldehyde
c) A mixture of a & b
62.
b) Metaldehyde
d) None
The following reaction
CH3CHO + HCN → CH3CH(OH)CN is an
example of
a) Nucleophilic addition
b) Electrophilic addition
c) Uncleophilic substitution
d) Electrophilic substitution
A nucleophilic addition of carbonion,
generated by the loss of proton from α-position
of an aldehyde or a ketone by a base, to the
carbonyl group is called _______
a) Nitration
c) Esterification
58.
For a carbonyl compound which of the
following statements is correct?
b) Aldol Condensation
d) None
The product obtained in the following reaction
is ________
CH3CH = CH CHO 4  ?
LiAlH
a) CH3CH = CHCH2OH
b) CH3CH2CH2CHO
56
a) H2SO4
c) H3PO4
9)
Hydrolysis of esters in alkaline medium is
called
a) Sponification
c) Esterification
10)
1)
12)
b) RCHO
d) RCOOH
13)
a) Formic acid
c) Propionic acid
b) Acetic acid
d) Butanoic acid
14)
4)
Which one of the following is the strongest
acid?
a) CH3COOH
c) CHCl2COOH
15)
5)
Anhydrous acetic is a crystalline, hygroscopic
solid and is also known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
6)
Dilute acetic acid
Glacial (ice like) acetic acid
Methanoic acid
None of these
Acetyl chloride is formed by the reaction of
acetic acid with
a) Thionyl chloride
c) Alcohol
7)
a)
b)
c)
d)
16)
17)
18)
Highly ionized
Weakly ionized
Insoluble in water
No replaceable hydrogen
Which of the following is a monobasic acid?
b) More acidic
d) More basic
Beta hydroxyl propionic acid is
b) Aspartic acid
d) Lactic acid
Formic acid can reduce
a) Mercuric chloride
c) KMnO4
b) Tollen’s reagent
d) All of these
The number of H – bonds formed per molecule
of carboxylic acid are
a) 4
c) 2
b) 3
d) 1
The attachment of
groups result into the
electron
withdrawing
a) Increase of acidity
b) Decrease of acidity
c) Increase of strength d) All of these
19)
8)
Between acetic acid and formic acid, the
former one is
a) Citric acid
c) Oxalic acid
b) Ammonia
d) Sodium hydroxide
Acetic acid is a weak acid because in aqueous
solution it is
Powerful oxidizing agent
Mild oxidizing agent
Powerful reducing agent
Mild reducing agent
a) Less acidic
c) Same strength
b) CH2ClCOOH
d) C2H5COOH
b) Acetic acid
d) Chloro acetic acid
Methanoic acid acts as
a)
b)
c)
d)
The acid present in butter is called
b) Ether
d) Ester
Which of them is a strong reducing agent?
a) Formic acid
c) Oxalic acid
Esters have general formula
a) ROH
c) RCOOR
3)
b) – OR
d) – COOR
b) Ethanoic acid
d) Picric acid
Two moles of carboxylic acids on heating in
the presence of P2O5 yields
a) Alcohol
c) Acetic acid
The function group in Citric acid is
a) – OH
c) – COOH
2)
11)
b) Hydration
d) None of these
Which one of the following does not have a
carboxylic group?
a) Benzoic acid
c) Aspirin
Chapter No. 13
Carboxylic Acids & Their Derivatives
b) H2CO3
d) CH3COOH
The firs four members of carboxylic acid are
completely soluble in water. This is due to
57
a) Acidic nature
c) Polymerization
20)
is
30)
used
31)
b) Methanoic acid
d) All of these
a) Aliphatic acid
b) Aromatic acid
c) Cyclo carboxylic acid d) None of these
32)
a) Succinic acid
c) Melonic acid
b) Methyl chloride
d) Chloro acetic acid
Vinegar is
35)
36)
b) Acidic salt
d) Interval salt
b) Fehling test
d) Ninhydrin test
b) Ester
d) All
In industrial preparation of Acetic Acid from
acetaldehyde manganous acetate is used as
a) Catalyst
b) Oxidizing agent
c) To prevent oxidation of Acetic acid into
peracetic acid
d) All above
37)
A peptide having molar mass up to 10000 is
called poly peptide while a poly peptide having
molar mass more than 10000 is called
a) Protein
b) Essential amino acids
c) Non essential amino acids
d) Acidic amino acid
b) 5
d) 2
Carboxylic acid can be prepared from
a) Alcohol
c) Grignard’s reagent
The test used to identify amino acid is
a) Tollen’s test
c) Meyer’s test
Succinic acid contain total carbon atoms
a) 4
c) 3
b) Aldehydes
d) Amino acid
The dipolar structure of an amino acid is also
called
a) Basic salt
c) Neutral salt
28)
b) Neutral in nature
d) Basic in nature
The compound which occur as zwitter ion or
dipolar are
a) Ketones
c) Alcohol
27)
b) Oxalic acid
d) Phthalic acid
a) 5% solution of acetic acid in H2O
b) 50% solution of acetic acid in H2O
c) 25% solution of acetic acid in H2O
d) 10% solution of acetic acid in H2O
b) Salicylic acid
d) Both a & b
34)
26)
Common name of 1, 3 Propanedioic acid is
Amino acids having two NH2 group are
a) Acidic in nature
c) Saltish in nature
25)
Long chain mono carboxylic acid are called
________
Which of them has two functional groups?
a) Amino acid
c) Acetone
24)
A carboxylic acid contains
for
33)
23)
b) Acetamide
d) Amino acid
a) Hydroxyl group
b) Carboxyl group
c) A hydroxyl group and carboxyl group
d) A carboxyl group and aldehydic group
Acetic acid when reacts with chlorine in the
presence of red phosphorus, the product
formed is
a) Acetyl chloride
c) Methyl ester
On heating ammonium acetate yields
a) Acetic acid
c) Ether
b) – CHO
d) – COOH
The carboxylic acid which
coagulating rubber latex is
a) Ethanoic acid
c) Propanoic acid
22)
29)
Sodium bi carbonate when reacts with a
compound “X” as result CO2 liberates with
effervescence the compound “X” contain
a) – OH
c) X
21)
b) H – bonding
d) Reduction
Which one is not the derivative of carboxylic
acid?
a) Acid Halid
c) Enthanamide
38)
b) Amino acid
d) Acid amide
In carboxylic acid carbonyl carbon is
hydridized
a) SP3
c) SP
b) SP2
d) None
58
48)
39)
Which one of the following will increase the
acidity of carboxylic acid?
a) OH
c) – CN
40)
a) Ethane
c) Ethanol
49)
Which one will decrease the acidity of
carboxylic acid?
a) OH
c) Alkyl group
41)
b) NO2
d) Both b & c
Which one is less acidic?
The solution of which acid is used for
seasoning of food?
a) HCOOH
c) C2H4 – COOH
a) Formic acid
c) Acetic acid
b) CH3COOH
d) C2H7 – COOH
Which have higher B.P?
52)
b) CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
d) Both a & c
53)
b) 2
d) 4
Higher B.P of carboxylic acid as compared to
alcohol of the same m.wt is due to
a) Strong dispersion ferces
b) Strong dipole dipole interaction
c) Two H – bonding per molecule
d) All of these
The greater acidity of carboxylic acid as
compared to alcohol is
a) Electron donating effect of – OH group
b) Electron with drawing effect of COOH gp
c) Resonance stability of carboxylic ion
d) All
47)
b) CH3 – O – CH3
d) CH3CONH2
Acetamide is prepared by
R – CH – COO- is called
│
NH3
a) Zwitter ion
c) Internal salt
54)
55)
b) Propionic acid
d) Butanoic acid
Total number of amino acids are
a) 10
c) 30
57)
b) Peptide linkage
d) All above
Which of the following is not a fatty acid?
a) Acetic acid
c) Phthalic acid
56)
b) Dipolar ionic form
d) All
Amino acids are the building unit of protein the
linkage b/w Amino acid molecules is called
a) Glycosidic linkage
c) Ether linkage
Which of the following compounds on reaction
with NaHCO3 liberates CO2?
a) C2H5 – OH
c) CH3COOH
b) Benzoic acid
d) Butanoic acid
a) Heating of ammonium acetate
b) Heating of Ethyl acetate
c) Amonium propionate
d) None
Carboxylic ion is represented by how many
resonating structure?
a) 3
c) 1
46)
b) An ester
d) Acid anhydride
Which one is more acidic?
a) CH3COOH
c) CH3O – C2H5
45)
A compound undergo reduction with (LiAlH 4) it
also dissolve in aq.NaOH from which it can be
recovered by addition of HCl the compound in
a) Carboxylic acid
c) An alcohol
51)
44)
b) Butanoic acid
d) Acetaldehyde
b) NH2
d) All
50)
43)
b) Ethanal
d) Ethyone
Acetic acid undergo dehydration reaction with
P2O5 and forms.
a) Methyl acetate
c) Acetic anhydride
a) CH2 – COOH
│
Cl
b) Cl2 – CH – COOH
c) CH3 – COOH
d) Cl3.C.COOH
42)
Acetic acid on reduction with LiAlH4 gives
b) 20
d) 40
Total number of essential amino acids
a) 10
b) 20
59
c) – 30
d) – 40
67)
58)
NH2
│
R – CH – COO- is called
a) α Amino acid
c) γ amino acid
59)
a) Acetic acid
c) Carbonic acid
60)
61)
62)
69)
70)
b) Ester
d) Ketones
b) Glycine
d) Proline
b) ClCH2COOH
d) Cl3CCOOH
Which of the following is not a primary amine?
a) Cyclohexylamine
c) 1 – Butylamine
b) 3 – hexylamine
d) Diethylamine
Which statement about the reaction of
1 – bromobutane and NH3 is incorrect?
a) The reaction specifically gives a primary
amine
b) The reaction is a nucleophilic substitution
c) The reaction initially gives a primary amine
d) The reaction may lead to the formation of a
quaternary ammonium salt.
CH3 – CH – COO- is called
│
NH2
a) Valine
c) Alanine
Which of the following carboxylic acids has the
largest acidity constant, Ka?
a) CH3COOH
c) Cl2CHCOOH
b) Dehydration
d) Oxidation
Which class of compound is commonly used
for the artificial flavouring in jams?
a) Aldehyde
c) Carboxylic acid
68)
b) Formic acid
d) Oxalic acid
The conversion of acetic acid to methane is an
example of
a) Hydration
c) Decarboxyletion
a) 3 – Phenyl prop – 2 – enoic acid
b) Cinnamic acid
c) Phenyl acrylic acid
d) 1 – Phynyl – 2 – ethylene carboxylic acid
b) β amino acid
d) None
The acid produced in the sting of bees and
ants is
The IUPAC nomenclature of C6H5CH =
CHCOOH is
71)
2 – Bromopentanoic acid can be obtained by

a) Pentanoic acid + Br2 
Light
63)
Which of the following is not an Amino acid?
a) Alanine
c) Glyine
64)
65)

c) Pentanoic acid + HBr 

d) Pentanoic acid + HBr  
Peroxides
72)
a) Conc. H2SO4
c) CrO3 │H2SO4
b) Conc. HNO3
d) NaHCO3 │H2O
2


?
Br P
a) CH3CHBrCOOH
b) BrCH2CH2COOH
c) BrCH2CHBrCOOH
d) A mixture of all the above products
Which of the following carboxylic acid is the
strongest?
Which of the following will serve as the basis
for simple chemical test to distinguish between
CH3CH2COOH and CH3COOHCH3?
The product obtained in the following reaction
is CH3CH2COOH
b) Formalin
d) Alcohol
a) CHF2 – CH2 – CH2 – COOH
b) CH3CH2CF2COOH
c) CH2F – CHF – CH2 – COOH
d) CH3CH2CH2COOH
66)
P
b) Aniline
d) Aspartic acid
Ethyl acetate can be prepared by the action of
_______ on carboxylic acid, in the presence of
acidic media.
a) Phenols
c) Pyradine

b) Pentanoic acid + Br2 
73)
Acetamide can be prepared by the reaction of
ammonia on
a) Ethyl acetate
c) Acetic anhydride
74)
b) Acetyl chloride
d) All the above
The products obtained in the following reaction

are CH3COOCH3 + CH3CH2OH
H

a) CH3COOC2H5 + CH3OH
b) CH3CH2COOCH3 + CH3OH
60
c) A mixture of both the above products
d) None of the above
75)
Which of the following reaction will give ethyl
propionate?
H 

a) CH3CH2CO2H + C2H5OH 
OH  
b) CH3CH2CO2H + C2H5OH 
2 5

c) CH2CO2C2H5 + CH3I  
d) All the above reactions
NaOC H
61
Chapter # 14
Macromolecules
1. Which of the following is polymerization
process?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The cracking of petroelum
Fractional disstillation of crude oil
Formation of polyethen
Hydrolysis of protiens
2. Which one is addition polymer?
a. Nylon-6
c. Terylene
b. Polystyrene
d. Epoxy resin
3. Which is synthetically prepared polymer?
a. Animal fat
c. Cellulose
b. Starch
d. PVC
4. Vegetable oils are
a.
b.
c.
d.
5. The water soluble vitamin is
b. D
d. C
6. Which of the following element is not present
in all proteins
a. Carbon
c. Nitrogen
b. Hydrogen
d. Sulphur
7. Hydrolysis of fats is catalysed by
a. Urease
c. Zymase
b. Maltase
d. Lipases
8. Which of the follwing statement is incorrect for
glucose and sucrose?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a. Homopolymer
c. Teropolymer
Bothe are soluble in waater
Both are naturllay occuring
Both are carbohydrates
Both are disaccharides
b. Copolymer
d. All of the above
12. The epoxy resin are fundamentally
a. Polyethers
c. Polyesters
b. Polyvinyls
d. None of the above
13. Starch is a polymer of
a. Beta-D glucose
b. Alpha-D glucose
c. Gamma-D glucose
d. Alpha-beta-D glucose
14. the most abundant protiens that are present in
the connective tissues throughout the body are
a. Legumin
c. Both
Unsaturated fatty acids
Glycerides of unsaurtated faty acids
Glycerides of stturated fatty acids
Essential oils obrained from plants
a. A
c. K
11. Major type of polymers are
b. Collagen
d. None of the above
15. Based upon physicochemical
proteins may be classified into
a. Two types
c. Three types
properties
b. Four types
d. Five types
16. The primary building blocks of lipids are
a.
b.
c.
d.
Fatty acids and gycerols
Glycerols and sterols
Fatty acids , Glycerols and sterols
None of the above
17. Animal and Vegetable fats and oils gave
a. Different structure
b. Similar chemical structure
c. Both the above depend upon the
circumstances
d. None of the above
18. The enzyme which use as drug in blood
cancer is
a. Thrombin
c. Both of the above
b. Lasparaginase
d. None of the above
19. Different bases found in DNA are
9. Macromolecules may be of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Inorganic and organic nature
Inorganic nature
Organic nature
None of the above
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cytosine and thiamine
Adenine and guanine
All of the above
None of the above
20. Polyethylene is prepared from
10. Structure wise the polymers are of
a. Linear shaped
b. Branched linear shaped
c. Cross inked linear shaped
d. All of the above
a. Ethene
c. Ethyne
b. Ethylene
d. Both a and b
62
21.
The group of chemical reagents that take part
in life sustaining process is called
a. Wax
c. Food
22.
23.
b. Refinery gas
d. None of these
A balanced diet must contain at least
a. Two nutrients
c. Six nutrients
32.
a. Cn(H2O)n
c. Cn(H2O)2n
33.
b. Four nutrients
d. Three nutrients
34.
24.
26.
35.
b. Fats
d. All of these
36.
b. Vitamins
d. All of these
37.
38.
28.
The oxidation of protein produces urea in
addition to
a. CO2
c. Nitrogen
Glucose + Mannose
Glucose + Fructose
Fructose + Mannose
Mannose + Galactose
Glucose is also called
b. Water
d. Both a & b
b. Dextrose
d. Mannose
The heterogeneous group of organic
compounds which provides insulation for the
vital organs protects from electrical shock and
maintains optimum body temperature is called
a. Proteins
c. Lipids
b. Vitamins
d. Carbohydrates
Glucose is stored in the liver as
40.
a. Cellulose
c. Glycerol
31.
Sucrose on hydrolysis yields
a. Starch
c. Sucrose
b. CO2 + H2O
d. None of these
39.
30.
b. Fructose
d. Glycogen
The oxidation of fats produces:
a. CO2
c. CO2 + H2O + E
29.
b. Oligosaccharides
d. None of these
Which of the carbohydrates is tasteless?
a)
b)
c)
d)
b. Water
d. All of these
b. H2O
d. Acetone
Carbohydrates which contain 2 – 10 carbon
atoms and not are hydrolysable are called
a. Glucose
c. Sucrose
The product of oxidation of glucose is
a. CO2
c. Energy
Monosaccharide and Diaccharides are solid,
sweet in taste and soluble in
a. Monosaccharides
c. Polysaccharides
Which nutrients regulate the body processes?
a. Minerals
c. Water
27.
b. Dinutrient
d. None of these
Which of these are the sources of energy as
well as source for building of tissues?
a. Proteins
c. Carbohydrates
Polyhydroxy alcohols
Polyhydroxy ethers
Polyhydroxy ester
Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones
a. C6H6
c. CHCl3
Milk is a food containing
a. Single nutrient
c. Multinutrient
25.
b. Boney
d. Glucose
b. C2n(H2O)n
d. None of these
Carbohydrates are
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which one of the following is a single nutrient
food?
a. Starch
c. Milk
The general formula of carbohydrates is
b. Glycogen
d. Starch
The excess of amino acids are not stored in
the body but dominated to form intermediates
of
a)
b)
c)
d)
Fat metabolism
Carbohydrates metabolism
Protein metabolism
None of these
The nutrients of food which are involved in
communication, nervous defenses, metabolic
regulation, catalysis and oxygen transport are
called
a. Proteins
c. Lipids
41.
b. Vitamins
d. Carbohydrates
Steroids belong to the family of lipids which
are
a. Tricyclic
c. Pentacyclic
b. Tetracyclic
d. Monocyclic
63
42.
Cholesterol is a steroid which is the important
precursor of
a. Sex hormones
c. Vitamin D
43.
44.
53.
Enzyme activators are
b. Inorganic salts
d. Fats
addition
b. Polystyrene
d. All of these
The condensation
following
57.
b. Acrylic fiber
d. Saran fiber
the
b. Polyamide
d. All of these
b. CH2 = CHCl
d. None of these
Fluorine is present in
b. Nylon 6, 6
d. Polyester
A copolymer is formed by polymerization of
a)
b)
c)
d)
59.
among
PTEF is formed by the polymerization of
a. Polythene
c. Teflon
58.
polymers
A single type of monomer
Two types of monomers
Three types of monomers
All of these
A polymer is formed by polymerization of three
different types of monomers is
a. Copolymer
c. Monomer
b. Homopolymer
d. All of these
Dacron is the trade name of
60.
a. Nylon 6, 6
c. Acrylic fiber
51.
the following is
a. CH2 = CH2
c. CF2 = CF2
b. Inhibitors
d. None of these
The synthetic fiber composed of an ester of a
dihydric alcohol and terphthalic acid is called
a. Rayon fiber
c. Polyester
56.
b. 40oC
d. 50oC
Inorganic substances which increase the
activity of an enzyme is called
a. Activators
c. Coenzymes
50.
Which one of
polymer?
a. Polyester
c. Eposy resin
b. Turn over
d. None of these
Enzymes are most active at a temperature of:
a. 30oC
c. 45oC
49.
b. Salt of fatty acids
d. Both a & b
The number of moles of substrate transformed
per mole of enzyme per minute at a definite
temperature is called
a. Potency
c. Rancidity
48.
(CCl2 – CCl2)n
(- CF2 – CF2 -)n
(- CBr2 – CBr2 -)n
(- Cl2 – Cl2 - )n
a. PVC
c. Polythene
55.
47.
The formula of Teflon is
a)
b)
c)
d)
54.
b. Teflon
d. Nylon
Product of sponification is
a. Glycerol
c. Nucleic acid
46.
The trade name of polytetrafluoroethylene
(PTFE) plastic is
a. Dacron
c. Saran
Free cholesterol
Combine cholesterol
Starch
Mannose
a. Organic salt
c. Proteins
45.
b. Adrenal hormones
d. All of these
Gallstones contain:
a)
b)
c)
d)
52.
b. Terylene fiber
d. Saran fiber
The plastics which are formed by plain
polymerization are known as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Thermoplastics
Thermosetting plastics
Both
None of these
Yeast is a
a) Bacteria
c) Virus
61.
b) Antibiotic
d) Fungi
Polyester resins are the product of the reaction
of _______
a) Alcohol and aromatic acids
b) Polyamines with aliphatic dicarboxylic acids
c) Styrene in the presence of catalyst
d) Epichlorohydrin with diphenylol propane
64
62.
Enzyme tripsin converts
73.
a) Amino acid into proteins
b) Glucose into glycogen
c) Starch into sugar
d) Proteins into amino acids
63.
The digestion of fat in intestine is aided by
a) Diffusion
c) Emulsification
64.
a) Fibrinogin
c) Globulins
74.
b) Peptisation
d) Neutralization
Which of the following are required by the
body in small amount only?
a) Proteins
c) Vitamin
76.
b) Fats
d) None
Saponification of coconut oil yields glycerol
and
a) Palmitic acid
c) Oleic acid
b) Sodium palmitate
d) Satiric acid
b) Fructose
d) Maltose
b) Red
d) Green
The sweetest of all sugars is
a) Glucose
c) Sucrose
b) Maltose
d) Fructose
Amino acids are least soluble in water
a) At pH = 7
c) At pH < 7
70.
b) Insulin
d) Oxytocin
On heationg glucose with Fehling’s solution
we get a precipitate of color _______
a) Yellow
c) Black
69.
b) Functional isomers
d) Position isomers
Starch is a polymer of ________
a) Glucose
c) Lactose
68.
b) Retinol
d) Nicotinamide
Glucose and fructose are
a) Optical isomers
c) Chain isomers
67.
Which hormone controls the metabolism of
carbohydrates?
a) Adrenaline
c) Thyroxine
75.
66.
b) Albumine
d) None of the above
Chemical name of Vitamin A is
a) Thiamine
c) Ascorbic acid
65.
The protein responsible for the clotting of
blood is
b) At pH >7
d) At isoelectric point
Which of the following is the richest source of
energy?
a) Adenosine troposphere (ATP)
b) Adenosine diphophate (ADP)
c) Adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
d) All are equally rich source of energy
71.
Digestion of carbohydrates takes place in
a) Mouth
c) Intestine
72.
b) Stomach
d) Both a & c
Brown sugar can be decolourised by
a) Bleaching powder
c) Hypo
b) Soap solution
d) Animal Charcoal
65
Chapter 15
Chemical Industries in Pakistan
1. Which process/ reaction gives urea with
ammonium carbonat
a) Hlogenation
c) Hydrolsis
b) Dehrdration
d) None of the above
11. Cement is very important building material
which was first of all introduce by English
Mason Joseph Aspdin in
a) 1875
c) 1860
b) 1824
d) 1920
12. Paper consumption per person in Pakistan is
2. Urea as a fertilizer contain
a) 57% N
c) 46% N
b) 73% N
d) 53% N
3. Ammonium nitrate is a useful fertilizer except
for
a) Wheat
c) Barley
b) Sugar cane
d) Paddy rice
4. The phosphoric acid which is used for the
preparation of di ammonium phosphate
fertilizer is having 60 to 70oC temperature and
a) PH 5-6
c) PH 7-8
b) PH 5.8 to 6\
d) PH 6 to 7.5
5. Which three elements are needed for the
healthy growth of plants
a) N.S.P
c) N.P.K
b) N.Ca.P
d) N.K.C
6. The nitrogen present in some fertilizer help
plants
a.
b.
c.
d.
To fight against diseases
To produce fat
To undergo photosynthesis
To produce proteins
7. phosphorus help in the growth of
a) Root
c) Stem
b) Leave
d) Seed
8. The wood paper is derived from the name of
which reedy plant
a) Rose
c) Papyrus
b) Sunflower
d) Water hyacinth
a) 5kg
c) 6kg
b) 4kg
d) 8kg
13. The slurry which contains in the making of
cement ……% of water
a) 35 to 45
c) 45 to 50
b) 40 to 45
d) None of the given
14. The dried paper is wound in the form of a reel
having final moisture of about …….%
a) 6 to 8
c) 2 to 8
b) 4 to 6
d) 5 to 8
15. NH2-CO-NH2 is the chemical formula of
a) Ammonia
c) Urea
b) Diamino keton
d) Both of b and c
16. The fertility of the soil is improved by ______
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rotation of the crops
Adding lime to the acid salts
Adding manure and growing legumes
All
17. Which of the following is incorrect statement
about nitrogen importance?
a. It enhances plant growth
b. It is involved in the synthesis of protein
and nucleic acids
c. It accelerates fruits and flowers growth
d. It is involved in the chlorophyll
synthesis
18. The fertilizers, which provide single nutrient
from NPK, are called _________fertilizer
a) Straight
c) Both a and b
b) Compound
d) None of the above
9. Which is not a calcarous material?
19. Which of the following in macronutrient?
a) Lime
c) Marble
b) Clay
d) Marine shell
10. Ammonium nitrate fertilizer is not used for
which crop
a) Cotton
c) Sugar cane
b) Wheat
d) Paddy rice
a) Cu
c) H2
b) Cl2
d) Zn
20. Addition of urea of the soil is ______________
reaction
a) Endothermic b) Exothermic
c) Both a and b d) No heat energy is involved
66
21. Which of the following is the most suitable
catalyst for ammonia synthesis?
a) Pt
c) Fe2O3 + MO2O3
31. The nutrients which are required in very small
amount for the growth of plants are called.
b) ZnO + Cr2O3
d) All of the above
a.
b.
c.
d.
22. The cooling of molten urea by air in the tower
is called_________
a) Prilling
c) Condensation
32. Which one of the following set of raw material
is most suitable for manufacture of urea?
b) Evaporation
d) Crystallization
a) CH4, N2 and CO2
c) H2, CO2 and H2O
23. Which of the following fertilizers is more useful
for paddy rice?
a.
b.
c.
d.
24. DAP (Diammonium hydrogen phosphate)
contains _______ PLANT nutrients.
b) 65%
d) 75%
It is a synthetic fertilizer
It is a natural fertilizer
It provides micronutrients to plants
It is an inorganic water soluble
compound
34. Which on the following is an inorganic
fertilizer?
25. Which of the following potassium fertilizers are
more useful for horticultural crops, tobacco &
potatoes?
a) KCl
c) K2SO4
b) H2, N2 and CO
d) H2O, N2 and H2
33. Which one of the following statement is correct
for urea?
a) Urea
b) DAP
c) Ammonium sulphate d) Ammonium nitrate
a) 60%
c) 70%
Nitrogenous fertilizers
Micronutrients
Phosphorus fertilizer
Surfactant
a) 36%
c) 56%
b) KNO3
d) KMnO4
b) 46%
d) 66%
35. Which one of the following is an inorganic
fertilizer?
26. Calcarious material includes___________
a) Lime stone
c) Chalk
a) Manure
c) Ammonium nitrate
b) Marble
d) All of the above
36.
27. Argillaceous
material
include____________
a) Clay
c) Slated
does
not
37.
28. Which of the following processes is used for
the synthesis of cement?
a) Dry process
c) Both
There is only one nitrogen fertilizer which is
used as liquid is
a) NH4NO3
a) NH3
b) Marine shells
d) Blast furnace slag
38.
b) NH4Cl
d) (NH4)2HPO4
Except Ca(NO3)2, NaNO3 and KNO3, all
nitrogen fertilizers make the soil
a) Acidic
c) Neutral
b) Wet process
d) None
b) Urea
d) All
b) Basic
d) None of these
Which fertilizer contain 82% nitrogen?
29. Phosphorus helps in the growth of ________
a) Root
c) Stem
a) NH4NO3
c) NH4Cl
b) Leave
d) Seed
39.
30. How many zones through which the charge
passes in a rotary kiln?
a) 4
c) 2
NH4NO3 is used as fertilizer for most crops
except
a) Potato
c) Paddy rice
b) 3
d) 5
40.
b) KNO3
d) NH3
b) Sugarcane
d) Tobacco
The percentage of nitrogen in urea is
a) 40%
c) 48%
b) 46%
d) 50%
67
41.
Potassium fertilizers are used for
a) Fruits
c) Tobacco
42.
b) Vegetable
d) All of these
From which of the following natural fiber is
obtained?
a) Animal
c) Mineral
43.
51.
a) Clinker
c) Fiber
52.
b) Vegetable
d) All of these
53.
44.
b) 33 – 33.5%
d) 48%
54.
a)
b)
c)
d)
45.
Its granules are solid
It is poisonous
It is neutral
The microbial bacteria in flooded field
decompose NH4NO3 into N2 gas
Manufacturing of super phosphate fertilizer
involves
a) Six steps
c) Four steps
55.
The percentage of P2O5 in triple super
phosphate fertilizer is
a) 45 – 46%
c) 33 – 35%
57.
47.
48.
b) C3S
d) C4AP
b) Animals
d) All of these
The fertilizers, which provide single nutrient
from NPK, are called _____ fertilizers.
b) Compound
d) None
The substances added to the soil in very small
amounts (about 6 grams to 200 grams per
acre) are called _______
a) 21%
c) 46%
a) Macronutrients
c) Fertilizers
b) 25%
d) 82%
The Stoichiometric ration
conversion to urea is about
of
CO2/NH3
Lime
MgO
Tricalcium silicate (3CaO.SiO2)
All of these
a) 4.5
c) 2.2
59.
b) 3.2
d) 1.5
A natural fertilizer provides ______ kg of P2O5
a) 4.5
c) 2.2
60.
b) Micronutrients
d) None of these
A natural fertilizer provide about ______ kg of
nitrogen.
b) 3.2
d) 1.5
The percentage of nitrogen in ammonium
sulphate is _______
a) 32 – 33.5
c) 80 – 82
Clinker is produced by
a) Wet method
c) Bayer’s method
58.
b) 55%
d) 65%
The chief strength producing constituents of
cement is
a)
b)
c)
d)
50.
Tricalcium
The percentage of nitrogen in ammonium
sulphate is
a) 50%
c) 60%
49.
of
Natural fertilizers are materials derived from
a) Straight
c) Both a & b
b) 46 – 48%
d) 40%
abbreviation
Acylation of phosphate rock
Alkylation of phosphate rock
Acidulation of phosphate rock
Aromatization of phosphate rock
a) Plants
c) Algae
b) Five steps
d) Three steps
b) Pulp
d) Isomer
Super phosphate fertilizer is formed by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
56.
46.
The industrial
aluminate is
a) C2S
c) C3A
NH4NO3 is used as a fertilizer for many crops
except paddy rice because
b) Pulp
d) Polymer
The separation of cellulose fibers by
mechanical method or by various chemicals
from the matrix result into
a) Clinker
c) Polymer
The percentage of nitrogen in ammonia nitrate
is
a) 46%
c) 82%
The final product which is obtained from the
rotary kiln (cement production) is called
b) 50 – 55
d) 20 – 25
b) Dry method
d) Both a & b
68
61.
The percentage of sulphur in ammonium
sulphate is ______ %.
a) 25
c) 23
Chapter # 16
Environmental chemistry
b) 21
d) 19
1. Peeling of ozone umbrella is due to
62.
Ammonium nitrate is sold as a mixture with
_________
a) Soda Ash
c) Zinc
a) CFCs
c) CO2
b) PAN
d) Coal burning
b) Limestone
d) None of these
2. DDT is
63.
Any material, which changes the cleaning
effect of water is called _______
a) Fertilizers
c) Acid
64.
Commercial detergents contain mainly ______
a) RCOON
c) RSNa
65.
b) Marble
d) All of the above
Cement is a mixture of so many compounds
roasted in rotary kiln. Which substances has
greater percentage?
a) Lime (CaO)
c) Alumina (Al2O3)
68.
b) (SiO3)n
d) None of these
Calcarious material includes ________
a) Lime stone
c) Chalk
67.
b) RONa
d) ROSO3Na
The principle former of almost all glasses is
________
a) (SiO2)n
c) (SiO2)X
66.
b) Detergent
d) None of these
b) Silica (SiO2)
d) Magnesia (MgO)
a) Biodegradable polulutant
b) Nondegradable pollutant
c) Not a pollutant
d) An antibiotic
3. Increasing skin cancer and high mutation rates
are
a) Acid rain
c) CO pollution
b) Ozone depletion
d) CO2 pollution
4. Sewage water is purified by
a) Microorganisms
c) Fishes
b) Light
d) Aquatic plants
5. UV radiations bring about
a) Skin cancer
c) Lung cancer
b) Mouth cancer
d) Liver cancer
6. Which one is more toxic?
a) Carbon
c) CO
b) CO2
d) SO2
7. Soil salinity can be measured by
The important function of burning zone in the
rotary kiln is ______
a) Conductivity meter
c) Protometer
a) To dry the moisture of slurry
b) To decompose lime stone to unslaked lime
c) Combination of different oxides like CaO2,
SiO2, Fe2O3 and Al2O3.
d) To reduce the impurities
8. Biodegradable pollutant is
a) Plastic
c) Sewage
b) Photometer
d) Potometer
b) Asbestos
d) Mercury
9. Lead is
69.
Asbestos is a _______
a) Mineral fiber
c) Vegetable fiber
b) Animal fiber
d) None of these
a) Air pollutant
b) Soil pollutant
c) Radioactive pollutant d) Noise pollutant
10. Air pollution is not caused by
a) Pollen grains
b) Hydroelectric power
c) Industries and automobiles
69
a) Ozone and dust
b) SO3 and CO
b) CO2 and CO
d) SO2 and NO2
11. CO is harmful for humans as it
20. Detergents are sodium salts of
a) Is carcinogenic
b) Is antogonistic to CO2
c) Has high affinity for heamoglobin than
oxygen
d) Is destructive of O3
12. Disease caused by eating fish in water
contaminated with industrial waste having
mercury
a) Minamat disease
c) Hashmitos disease
b) Brights dieses
d) Arthritis
13. Drawbacks of DTT as pesticide is
a) It becomes ineffective after some time
b) It is less effective that others
c) It is not easily degrades in nature
d) its high cost
14. Fish die in water bodies polluted by sewage
due to
a) Pathogens
b) Clogging of gills by silt
c) Reduction in oxygen
d) Foul smell
15. Drained sewage has BOD
a) More than that of water
b) Less than that of water
c) Equal to that of water
d) None of the above
16. Which one of the following forms a toxic
substance by combining with hemoglobin in
blood.
a) CO2
c) O2
b) CO
d) CH4
a) Calcium suphonates
b) Barium sulphonates
c) Sodium carbonates
d) Benzene sulphonates
21. BOD is the amount of
a) Carbon dissoved in water
b) Amount of oxygen in water
c) Amount of bacteria in water
d) All of the above
22. The oxygen demand in water is determined by
a) Disulphate ion
c) Bicarbonate ion
b) Dichromate ion
d) Bidentate ion
23. Herbicides are used for removal of
a) Insects
b) Fungus on the plants
c) Undesited plants
d) Rodents
24. DDT is one of the most powerful
a) Insecticide
c) Fugicied
b) Herbicides
d) Pastecide
25. Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobiles
exhaust is
a) Mercury
c) Lead
b) Cadmium
d) Copper
26. Photochemical smog is related to pollution of
a) Air
c) Soil
b) Water
d) Nostic
27. Environmental pollution affects
17. UV radiation from the sun causes a reaction
that produces
a) Flourides
c) SO2
b) CO
d) O3
a) Biotic components
b) Plants only
c) Man only
d) Biotic and abiotic components of
environment
18. The half of the atmosphere is concentrated in
the lower ………km
28. Ozone hole refers to
a) 3.5 km
c) 5.6 km
b) 4.5 km
d) 10 km
19. Acid rain is due to increase ion atmospheric
concentration of
a) Hole in ozone layer
b) Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in
stratosphere
c) Reduction of thickness of ozone layer in
troposphere
70
d) Increase concentration of ozone
c) 4
38.
d) 5
The main pollutant of leather tanneries in the
waste water is_______
a) Chromium III
c) Sodium
b) Chromium II
d) Copper
29. Eutrophication causes reduction in
a) Dissolved hydrogen b) Dissolved oxygen
c) Dissolved salts
d) All of the above
30. The yellow color in photochemical smog is due
to presence of_____
a) Carbon dioxide
c) Chlorine gas
b) Nitrogen dioxide
d) None
31. Which one of the following makes the bulk of
hydrosphere’s content?
a) Oceans
b) Glaciers & ice
c) Fresh water lakes and ponds
d) All have equal distribution
32.
b) Alums
d) All
Which of the following factors help to measure
quality of water?
a) DO
c) COD
36.
42.
44.
b) Bio sphere
d) Lithosphere
Ozone is located in
b) Stratosphere
d) Thermosphere
Which fuel on combustion produces fumigative
and sulphurous emission?
a) Coal
b) Gasoline
c) Kerosene oil d) Diesel and furnace oil
45.
The solid or liquid particles with diameter
ranges from 0.01μ or less up to about 100 μ
are
a) Aerosols
c) Smoke
46.
b) Nickel sulphate
d) Barium sulphate
b) Dust
d) All of these
The pollutants responsible for eye, nose,
throat, bronchial tract and respiratory tract
irritation are
a) H2S
c) NH3
47.
b) 3
The envelop of gases surrounding the earth’s
surface which absorb most of the cosmic rays
and maintain the balance is
a) Troposphere
c) Mesosphere
Newspaper can be recycled again and again
how many times?
a) 2
Soil
Mineral of earth crust
Organic matter of earth crust
All of these
a) Atmosphere
c) Hydrosphere
43.
b) Hydrosphere
d) Atmosphere
The components of lithosphere are
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) BOD
d) All of the above
In the purification of portable water, the
coagulant used is_________
a) Alum
c) Copper sulphate
37.
41.
b) CO
d) N2O4
The outer part of the earth is present in
a) Lithosphere
c) Biosphere
Which statement is wrong?
a) The amount of ozone layer is greater in the
region close to the equator.
b) Ozone acts as filter for UV radiations
c) In the polar region, it acts as pollutant
d) CFCs play effective role in removing O3 in
the stratosphere.
35.
40.
Which substance can be used for disinfection
water?
a) KMnO4
c) Ozone
34.
b) Dissolved oxygen
d) All
Which of the following air pollutants is quiet
killer?
a) CO2
c) NO2
Chlorination of water may be harmful if the
water contains_______
a) Ammonia
c) Carbon dioxide
33.
39.
b) CO2
d) Both a & c
The air pollutant which is responsible for
corrosion and erosion is
71
57.
a) SO2
c) Smoke
48.
49.
The pollutant which adhere to stones bricks
and surface and cause fouling are
51.
58.
59.
60.
b) Slightly basic
d) All of these
b) 4.6
d) 2.6
62.
b) NH3
d) All of these
b) Reducing smog
d) Smoke
63.
Reducing smog is formed by the combination
of
The pollutant
depletion is
a) CO
c) H2S
b) Fog
d) Smoke & fog
which
results
into
ozone
b) NH3
d) Freon
The photochemical smog is also called
oxidizing smog which has high content of
oxidant like
b) SO2
d) All of these
b) Ozone
d) All of these
Pathogens present in polluted water can killed
by chlorination but cannot remove
a) Viruses
c) Odour
66.
a) O3
c) NH3
b) Dust
d) Effluent
The techniques used to kill pathogens present
in drinking water are
a) Chlorination
c) UV irradiation
65.
b) Chloride ions
d) None of these
Water having high value of COD means the
water is
a) Pure
c) Aerosols
64.
b) 4ppm
d) 8ppm
The COD (Chemical Oxygen Demand) of
water can be determined directly by treating
with
a) Dichromate ions
c) Oxide ions
Photochemical smog is
a) Smoke
c) Dust
56.
b) 3 to 4ppm
d) 8 to 10ppm
The content of DO in polluted water is
a) Less than 4ppm
c) 6ppm
The pollutant which play an important role in
smog formation
a) Oxidizing smog
c) Neutral smog
55.
The concentration of dissolved molecular
oxygen in pure drinking water is
The PH of neutral rain water is
a) CO
c) H2S
54.
Drinking water should have
a) 2 to 4ppm
c) 4 to 8ppm
61.
53.
Occluded & dissolved gases
Inorganic salts & organic compounds
Pathogens
All of these
a) Turbidity less than 10ppm
b) pH between 7 to 8.5
c) should be free from diseases causing
bacteria
d) all of these
Clean rain is
a) 5.6
c) 3.6
52.
b) Nervous disorder
d) All of these
Industrial waste water contains
a)
b)
c)
d)
Smoke and dust
Smoke and aerosols
Aerosols and dust
None of these
a) Basic
c) Slightly acidic
Presence of heavy metals in water causes
a) Mental retardation
c) Cancer
Carbon and soot accelerate the corrosion and
erosion due to
a) Acidic nature
b) Basic nature
c) Absorption or adsorption of the gaseous
pollutant upon these particulars mater
d) All of these
a)
b)
c)
d)
50.
b) Carbon
d) Aerosol
b) Taste
d) All of these
The process in solid waste is burnt at high
temperature ranging from 900 to 1000oC
a) Chlorination
b) Ozonation
72
c) Incineration
67.
The chief pollutant which likely to deplete
ozone layer is
a) SO2
c) CO2
68.
The decrease in the thickness of ozone layer
present in the stratosphere is termed as
a) Ozone hole
c) Ozone coagulation
b) Ozone depletion
d) Both a & b
b) NH3
d) CF2Cl2
b) Lithosphere
d) Stratosphere
The yellow color in photochemical smog is due
to presence of _______
a) Carbon dioxide
c) Chlorine gas
70.
77.
Which one of the following is not a component
of environment?
a) Hydrosphere
c) Biosphere
69.
d) All of these
b) Nitrogen dioxide
d) None
Which statement is wrong?
a) The amount of ozone layer is greater in the
region close to the equator.
b) Ozone acts as filter for UV radiations.
c) In the polar region, it acts as pollutants.
d) CFCs play effective role in removing O3 in
the stratosphere.
71.
In the purification of portable water, the
coagulant used is _______
a) Alum
c) Copper sulphate
72.
The pH range of acid rain is
a) 5 – 7
c) 6.5 – 7
73.
b) Thermosphere
d) Mesosphere
Main reason of acid rain is
a) SO2 / CO2
c) SO2 / NO2
76.
b) 57
d) 77
Which layer consist of thick layer of ozone?
a) Stratosphere
c) Troposphere
75.
b) 6 – 8
d) Less than 5
The %age of SO2 from Volcanic eruption is
a) 47
c) 67
74.
b) Nickel Sulphate
d) Barium sulphate
b) NO2 / P2O5
d) All
The thickness of ozone layer is
a) 25 to 50 km
c) 3 km only
b) 25 to 28km
d) 1 km only
73