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Quantum Mechanics II, Ex 4730 Submitted by: Roee Steiner 034744821 Given a spherical shell with radius R and a particle with mass M and charge e. Notice that the standard variables which show the particle are (θ, φ, Lx, Ly, Lz) In this question we have to assume that the particle can be excited from ground state to first energy level but not beyond so the state space is four dimensional |0>,|↑>,|↕>,|↓>. 1. What is the energy of every base. We prepare the particle as ”concentrated” as possible in the ”north pole” of the shell. 2. Write the wave function ψ(θ,φ) of the particle What you have written is not stationary. The particle oscillates between the North and the South pole. 3. What is the period of the oscillations? We torn on a constant electric field ε in the Z direction 4. Write the electric perturbation in formal way with the standard variables. 5. What is the period time T of the fluctuation? We torn on a constant magnetic field B in the X direction 6. Write the magnetic perturbation in formal way with the standard variables. 7. Find a value for B so in the period of T/2 where the particle will be in the first place. 𝑌00 = 1 4𝜋 , 𝑌10 = 3 cos 𝜃 , 𝑌1,±1 𝛼 sin 𝜃 4𝜋 Paragraph 2 and 7 demands ”thinking”, the answer is simple and do not demand ”algebra”. Solution: 1. The energy level for particle on sphere is 𝐸𝑙 = So for the first state |0>, 𝑙 = 0 so 𝐸0 = 0. 1 For the three others state 𝑙 = 1 so 𝐸1 = 𝑀𝑅 2 . 𝑙 𝑙+1 2𝑀𝑅 2 . 2 We want to find a solution that gives us the best probability to find the particle in the North pole of the sphere. We need to use the spherical harmonics function. Its means that the function will have a trigonometric variable, so the function will look like 1 𝜓 = 2 1 + cos 𝜃 And after we use the spherical harmonics and normalization we will get: 𝜓= 1 2 3𝑌00 + 𝑌10 3. We will write a time depended wave function: 1 𝜓 𝑡 = 3𝑌00 + 𝑌10 𝑒 −𝑖𝐸1 𝑡 2 From here we can see easily that the frequency is 𝐸1 ,so the period is 𝑇= 2𝜋 𝐸1 = 2𝜋𝑀𝑅2 4𝜋 4. 𝑉 = 𝑒𝜀𝑧 = 𝑒𝜀𝑅 cos 𝜃 = 3 𝑒𝜀𝑅𝑌10 5. We will find first the matrix elements of V that given by: 𝑙 ′ , 𝑚 ′ 𝑉 𝑙, 𝑚 = 𝑙 ′ , 𝑚 ′ 4𝜋 𝑒𝜀𝑅 𝑒𝜀𝑅𝑌10 𝑙, 𝑚 = 𝛿𝑙1,𝑚 0 𝛿𝑙 ′ 0,𝑚 ′ 0 3 3 So we can see that the system work like a two site system so the new Hamiltonian is: 𝑒𝜀𝑅 0 𝐻= 3 1 𝑚𝑅2 𝑒𝜀𝑅 3 1 1 𝑒𝜀𝑅 1 𝐼− 𝜎𝑧 + 𝜎𝑥 = 𝐼 + 𝛺𝑆 2 2 2𝑚𝑅 2𝑚𝑅 2𝑚𝑅2 3 = 1 2𝑒𝜀𝑅 −1 Where 𝑆 = 2 𝜎𝑖 and 𝛺 = , 0, 𝑚 𝑅 2 3 According to "precession picture" (see lecture notes chapter 36), the frequency is: 𝜔= 𝛺 = 4 𝑒𝜀𝑅 3 2 1 + 𝑚𝑅2 2 So the period time is: 𝑇= 2𝜋 = 𝜔 2𝜋 4 3 𝑒𝜀𝑅 2 + 1 𝑚𝑅2 2 6. From Zeeman we know that the impact of magnetic field is: 𝑉𝐵 = − 𝑒𝐵 𝐿 2𝑚 𝑥 7. We can see that 𝑉𝐵 react in the same way on the system as the electric perturbation So in analogy we can see that the wave function will bee 1 3𝑌00 + 𝑒 −𝑖𝛺𝑡 𝑒 ⅈ𝑉𝐵 𝑡 𝑌10 2 Because the time is two time lease its means that 𝛺 + 𝑉𝐵 = 2 𝛺 𝛹 𝑡 = So 𝐵= 2𝑚 ⅇ 4 3 𝑒𝜀𝑅 2 + 1 4𝑚 𝑅 2 2