Download Practice Final fall 2012

Final Sample
Fall 2012
1. What distinguishes the scientific method from other ways of looking at the natural world is
A. the eternal truth of its laws and theories.
B. its replacement of existing laws and theories at regular intervals.
C. its reliance on the opinions of expert scientists to decide which laws and theories to believe.
D. its reliance on experiment and observation.
2. The object in the sky that lies very nearly on an extension of the earth's axis is
A. the sun.
B. Orion.
C. Mercury.
D. Polaris
3. In which one or more of the following is the earth assumed to be the center of the universe?
A. the Ptolemaic system
B. the Copernican system
C. Kepler's laws of planetary motion
D. Galileos system
4. The discovery that the planetary orbits are ellipses rather than circles was made by
A. Einstein.
B. Copernicus.
C. Kepler.
D. Newton.
5. Kepler modified
A. the Ptolemaic system.
B. the Copernican system.
C. Newton's law of gravity.
D. Tycho Brahe’s data
6. A square foot contains approximately
A. 144 cm2.
B. 366 cm2.
C. 929 cm2.
D. 1000 cm2.
7. The time needed for a planet to orbit the sun
A. Depends on the closest approach from the sun for the planet
B. depends on the size of the planet.
C. depends on how fast the planet rotates.
D. depends on the average distance of the planet from the sun.
8.
A.
B.
C.
D.
When a planet is farthest from the sun in its orbit,
its speed is greatest.
its speed is the same as when it is farther away.
its speed is least.
Any of the choices, depending on which planet it is.
9. High tides occur
A. less often than low tides.
B. as often as low tides.
C. more often than low tides.
D. Any of the choices, depending on location.
10. Which of the following statements is true?
A. High tides are caused by the sun, low tides by the moon.
B. Low tides are caused by the sun, high tides by the moon.
C. The moon is chiefly responsible for the tides, with the sun's influence modifying the tidal range.
D. The sun is chiefly responsible for the tides, with the moon's influence modifying the tidal range.
11. In the distant past, the length of the day was
A. shorter than 24 h.
B. 24 h as at present.
C. longer than 24 h.
D. impossible to determine.
12. An airplane travels at constant speed for a distance of 600 km in a time of 20 min. Its speed is
A. 30 km/hr.
B. 4000 km/hr.
C. 600 km/hr.
D. 1800 km/hr
13. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. All vector quantities have directions.
B. All vector quantities have magnitudes.
C. All scalar quantities have directions.
D. All scalar quantities have magnitudes.
14. A ship travels 60 km to the south and then 80 km to the east. The ship's displacement from its starting point is
A. 140 km
B. 20 km
C. 100 km
D. 70 km
15. A car starts from rest and reaches a speed of 12 m/s in 10 s. Its acceleration is
A. 0.6 m/s2.
B. 1.2 m/s2.
C. 6 m/s2.
D. 120 m/s2.
16. An airplane reaches its takeoff speed of 60 m/s in 20 s starting from rest. The time it spends in going from 50
m/s to 60 m/s is
A. 2.0 s.
B. 3.3 s.
C. 5.5 s.
D. 6.0 s.
17. A net force of 100 N gives an object an acceleration of 2 m/s2. What net force would give the same object an
acceleration of 1 m/s2?
A. 1 N
B. 2 N
C. 200 N
D. 50 N
18. A 3000-kg truck accelerates from 10 m/s to 30 m/s in 8 s. The net force on the truck is
A. 750 N.
B. 7500 N.
C. 12000 N.
D. 15,000 N.
19. A net horizontal force of 2000 N is applied to a 1000-kg car at rest. The car's speed after 6 s will be
A. 0.3 m/s.
B. 2.0 m/s.
C. 12 m/s.
D. 24 m/s.
20. The acceleration of gravity on the surface of Mars is 3.7 m/s2. Compared with his or her mass and weight on
the earth, an astronaut on Mars has
A. less mass and less weight.
B. less mass and more weight.
C. the same mass and less weight.
D. less mass and the same weight.
21. On a rainy day the maximum frictional force between a car's tires and a certain level road surface is reduced to
one quarter its usual value. The maximum safe speed for rounding a curve is
A. unchanged.
B. reduced to 25% of its usual value.
C. reduced to 50% of its usual value.
D. reduced to 71% of its usual value.
22. Which of the following is not a unit of work?
A. Newton-meter
B. Joule
C. Kilogram-meter
D. Watt-hour
23. On a molecular level heat is
A. kinetic energy.
B. potential energy.
C. mass energy.
D. momentum.
24. When the speed of a moving object is doubled
A. its KE is doubled
B. its PE is increased.
C. its rest energy is increased.
D. its momentum is doubled.
25. What never changes when two or more objects collide is
A. the momentum of each object.
B. the kinetic energy of each object.
C. the total momentum of all the objects.
D. the total kinetic energy of all the objects.
26. Which of the following quantities is always the same to all observers?
A. time intervals
B. the speed of an object
C. the speed of sound
D. the speed of light
27. If a spaceship 100 m long when at rest on the earth were to travel at nine-tenths the speed of light, its length as
measured by an observer on the earth would be
A. 0.
B. less than 100 m.
C. 100 m.
D. more than 100 m.
28. The upper limit to the speed of an object with mass
A. depends on the mass.
B. corresponds to a KE equal to its rest energy.
C. is the speed of sound.
D. is the speed of light.
29. According to the general theory of relativity, gravitation
A. acts only on moving bodies.
B. is really a general acceleration of the universe.
C. is a distortion in space-time.
D. is the same as in Newton's theory but is to be interpreted differently.
30. The sun
A. attracts light waves passing nearby.
B. repels light waves passing nearby.
C. may attract or repel light waves passing nearby, depending upon the circumstances.
D. has no effect on light waves passing nearby.
31. The work done in lifting 10 kg of bricks to a height of 40 m on a building under construction is
A. 400 J.
B. 1960 J.
C. 4.0 J.
D. 4000 J.
32. A 60-kg woman climbs a hill 300 m high in 30 minutes. Her average power output during the climb is
A. 1 kW .
B. 10 W.
C. 100 W.
D. 600 W.
33. A 1-kg object is moving at 20 m/s. To double its kinetic energy, its speed should be increased to
approximately
A. 50 m/s.
B. 25 m/s.
C. 40 m/s.
D. 28 m/s.
34. Heat can be transferred through a vacuum by which one or more of the following?
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. condensation
35. The properties of several different materials are being compared. If the samples all have the same mass, the
one with the greatest volume also has the greatest
A. density
B. buoyancy.
C. pressure.
D. temperature.
36. Ice floats in water because
A. its density is less than that of water.
B. its specific heat is less than that of water.
C. it is a solid whereas water is a liquid.
D. it is colder than water.
37. A sample of a gas is expanded to twice its original volume while its temperature is held constant. Relative to
their original average energy, the new average energy of the molecules is
A. half as great.
B. the same.
C. twice as great.
D. four times as great.
38. Suppose there were molecules that had no attraction whatever for one another. A collection of such molecules
would form a
A. gas.
B. liquid.
C. amorphous solid.
D. crystalline solid.
39. Molecular motion in a gas is the minimum possible at
A. 0 F.
B. -273  C.
C. -100 K.
D. –273 K.
40. When a liquid freezes into a solid,
A. its temperature decreases.
B. its temperature increases.
C. it absorbs heat.
D. it gives off heat.
41. The work output of every heat engine
A. equals its heat intake.
B. equals the difference between its heat intake and heat exhaust.
C. depends only on its intake temperature.
D. depends only on its exhaust temperature.
42. A gas confined at 2 atmospheric pressures at room temperature is released from its container. What can be
said of the total entropy after release compared to when confined in bottle.
A. no change
B. decreases
C. increases
D. room entropy goes down and bottle entropy increases
43. When 100 kJ is removed from a 4-kg metal bar, its temperature drops from 200C to 100C. The specific heat
of the metal is
A. 0.16 kJ/kg. C.
B. 0.19 kJ/kg. C.
C. 0.25 kJ/kg. C.
D. 0.50 kJ/kg. C.
44. Relative to the gravitational force between two protons, the electric force between them is
A. weaker.
B. equal in magnitude.
C. stronger.
D. Any of the choices, depending on how far apart the protons are.
45. Protons and electrons have different masses. When they are the same distance apart, the electric force between
two electrons
A. is less than the force between two protons.
B. is the same as the force between two protons.
C. is greater than the force between two protons.
D. Any of the choices, depending on the distance between each pair of particles.
46. The particle easiest to remove from an atom is an
A. electron.
B. proton.
C. neutron.
D. nucleus.
47. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Protons are positively charged.
B. The proton mass is greater than the electron mass.
C. The proton mass is almost the same as the neutron mass.
D. A proton in an atom circulates around its nucleus.
48. A molecule that has lost an electron becomes a
A. positive ion.
B. negative ion.
C. nucleus.
D. superconductor.
49. A magnetic field does not interact with a
A. stationary electric charge.
B. moving electric charge.
C. stationary magnet.
D. a moving magnet.
50. A compass needle tends to
A. line up perpendicular to a magnetic field.
B. line up parallel to a magnetic field.
C. turn slowly in a constant magnetic field.
D. point only toward the North Pole.
51. The primary coil of a transformer is connected to a source of direct current of voltage V. The voltage of the
secondary current is
A. zero.
B. equal to V.
C. higher than V.
D. Any of the choices, depending on the ratio of turns in the transformer coils.
52.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The voltage needed to produce a current of 8 A in a resistance of 13 ohms is
0.67 V.
1.5 V.
4 V.
104 V.
53. The higher the frequency of a sound wave, the
A. higher its speed.
B. lower its pitch.
C. louder it is.
D. shorter its wavelength .
54. The greater the decibel (dB) level of a sound wave, the
A. higher its frequency is.
B. longer its wavelength is.
C. louder it is.
D. farther away its source is.
55. An 80-dB sound relative to a 40-dB sound is more intense by a factor of
A. 4.
B. 40.
C. 4000.
D. 10000.
56. Relative to the radio signals sent out by a spacecraft headed away from the earth, the signals that are received
on the earth have
A. a lower speed.
B. a lower frequency.
C. a shorter wavelength.
D. All the properties listed.
57. Of the following kinds of waves, the ones that cannot travel through a vacuum are
A. X-rays.
B. radio waves.
C. light waves.
D. sound waves.
58. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric field is
A. parallel to both the magnetic field and the wave direction.
B. perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the wave direction.
C. parallel to the magnetic field and perpendicular to the wave direction.
D. perpendicular to the magnetic field and parallel to the wave direction.
59. The property of light waves that leads to the phenomenon of color is
A. speed.
B. amplitude.
C. acceleration.
D. frequency.
60. Sound waves whose frequency is 300 Hz have a wavelength relative to sound waves in the same medium
whose frequency is 150 Hz that is
A. twice as great.
B. the same.
C. half as great.
D. 4.5 times as great.
61. Ocean waves whose period is 8 s are observed to have a wavelength of 100 m. Their speed is
A. 0.25 m/s.
B. 12.5 m/s.
C. 25 m/s.
D. 400 m/s.
62. The nucleus of an atom cannot be said to
A. contain most of the atom's mass.
B. be small in size.
C. be electrically neutral.
D. deflect alpha particles that come near it.
63.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The mass number of the nucleus
7.
8.
15.
56.
64.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The number of neutrons in the nucleus
7.
8.
15.
56.
is
is
65. The number of protons in a stable nucleus is always
A. less than the number of neutrons.
B. less than or equal to the number of neutrons.
C. equal to or more than the number of neutrons.
D. more than the number of neutrons.
66. The nucleus of a helium atom is called
A. an alpha particle.
B. a beta particle.
C. a gamma ray.
D. a quark.
67. The electromagnetic waves emitted by a nucleus are called
A. ultraviolet rays.
B. X-rays.
C. gamma rays.
D. quarks.
68. When a nucleus undergoes radioactive decay, its new mass number is
A. always less than its original mass number.
B. always more than its original mass number.
C. never less than its original mass number.
D. never more than its original mass number.
69. An atomic nucleus has a mass that is
A. less than the total mass of its constituent nucleons.
B. the same as the total mass of its constituent nucleons.
C. more than the total mass of its constituent nucleons.
D. Any of the choices, depending on the nucleus.
70. Protons and neutrons are held together to form nuclei by the
A. gravitational interaction.
B. strong interaction.
C. weak interaction.
D. electromagnetic interaction.
71. The product of the alpha decay of the polonium isotope
A.
B.
C.
D.
is
72. After 20 years, 150 g of an original sample of 200 g of a certain radioactive isotope has decayed. The half-life
of the isotope is
A. 5 years.
B. 7.5 years.
C. 10 years.
D. 40 years.
73. When light is directed at a metal surface, the emitted electrons
A. are called photons.
B. have random energies.
C. have energies that depend upon the intensity of the light.
D. have energies that depend upon the frequency of the light.
74. The speed of a photon
A. is less than the speed of light.
B. is equal to the speed of light.
C. is greater than the speed of light.
D. Any of the choices, depending on its frequency.
75. The speed of the wave packet that corresponds to a moving particle is
A. less than the speed of light.
B. equal to the speed of light.
C. greater than the speed of light.
D. Any of the choices, depending on the frequency.
76. A proton has twice the de Broglie wavelength of an electron
A. The electron has the higher speed.
B. The proton has the higher speed.
C. They have the same speed.
D. Any of the choices is true, depending on the wavelength.
77. According to the uncertainty principle, it is impossible to precisely determine
A. only the position of a particle.
B. only the momentum of a particle.
C. either the position or the momentum of a particle.
D. both the position and the momentum of a particle.
78. A photon is emitted by an atom when one of the atom's electrons
A. leaves the atom.
B. collides with another of its electrons.
C. shifts to a lower energy level.
D. shifts to a higher energy level.
79. When a hydrogen atom is in its lowest energy level,
A. the de Broglie wavelength of its electron equals its orbit diameter.
B. the de Broglie wavelength of its electron equals its orbit circumference.
C. its electron has left the atom.
D. its electron is at rest.
80. Which of the following electron jumps in a hydrogen atom emits the photon of lowest frequency?
A. n = 1 to n = 2
B. n = 2 to n = 1
C. n = 2 to n = 3
D. n = 5 to n = 4
81. Elements with similar properties (other than atomic mass)
A. occupy the same period of the periodic table.
B. have similar valence electron configurations.
C. have the same number of neutrons in their nuclei.
D. exist in the same physical state (solid, liquid, or gas).
82. The second most abundant element in the universe is
A. hydrogen.
B. helium.
C. oxygen.
D. carbon.
83. The largest number of elements are classed as
A. metals.
B. inert gases.
C. nonmetals.
D. liquids.
84. The most active of the following metals is
A. copper.
B. lead.
C. sodium
D. gold.
85. The most active of the following nonmetals is
A. helium.
B. carbon.
C. fluorine.
D. oxygen.
86. A vertical column in the periodic table is called a
A. shell.
B. subshell.
C. group.
D. period.
87. A horizontal row in the periodic table is called a
A. shell.
B. subshell.
C. group.
D. period.
88. In a covalent compound
A. electrons are shifted from one atom to another.
B. only atoms of the same element are present.
C. there must be at least one carbon atom.
D. adjacent atoms share electron pairs.
89. The charge on alkali metal ions is
A. +1.
B. +2.
C. –1.
D. –2.
90.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The missing number in the equation ( )C4H10 + 13O2  8CO2 +10H2O is
1.
2.
3.
4.
91. Most solids are
A. amorphous.
B. crystalline.
C. covalent.
D. polar.
92. The weakest bonds are
A. ionic.
B. covalent.
C. metallic.
D. van der Waals.
93. An example of a covalent solid is
A. ice.
B. diamond.
C. table salt.
D. tin.
94. An example of an ionic solid is
A. ice.
B. diamond.
C. table salt.
D. tin.
95. With increasing temperature, the solubility of a solid in a liquid
A. decreases.
B. increases.
C. remains the same.
D. Any of the choices, depending on the particular solid and liquid.
96. Acids do not
A. neutralize bases.
B. taste sour.
C. combine with active metals to give off H2.
D. liberate OH- ions when dissolved in water.
97.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The fundamental reaction of neutralization is
H++H2OH3O+
H2OH++OHH++OH-H2O
H2O+H2OH3O++OH-
98. Approximately 4/5 of dry air consists of
A. oxygen.
B. nitrogen.
C. carbon dioxide.
D. argon.
99. When 1 g of a metal is oxidized, the resulting oxide has a mass that is
A. less than 1 g.
B. equal to 1 g.
C. more than 1 g.
D. Any of the choices, depending on the metal.
100. Chemical reactions that give off energy are called
A. endothermic.
B. exothermic.
C. activated.
D. oxidation-reduction.
101. An example of an exothermic process is the
A. dissociation of a salt in water solution.
B. neutralization of an acid by a base.
C. electrolysis of water.
D. melting of ice.
102. The energy liberated in a chemical reaction comes from the
A. kinetic energy of atomic electrons.
B. potential energy of atomic electrons.
C. activation energy of atomic electrons.
D. equilibrium energy of atomic electrons.
103. When a substance gains electrons in a chemical reaction, the substance is said to be
A. reduced.
B. oxidized.
C. dissociated.
D. activated.
104. The number of calcium atoms in 1 mole of calcium is
A. 40.
B. 1.5  1022.
C. 3  1022.
D. 6  1023.
105. The number of moles of H2O formed when 1 mole of O2 reacts with C5H12 in the reaction C5H12 + 8O2 
5CO2 + 6H2O is
A. 3/4.
B. 4/3.
C. 6.
D. 8.
1. Alkane molecules
A. have only single carbon-carbon bonds.
B. may have double carbon-carbon bonds.
C. react readily with acids.
D. react readily with bases.
106. Each dash in the structural formula of an organic molecule represents a shared
A. electron.
B. electron pair.
C. ion pair.
D. carbon atom.
107. The isomers of a compound have different
A. molecular compositions.
B. molecular masses.
C. structures.
D. numbers of bonds between their atoms.
108. The bonds between the atoms in a molecule of a saturated organic compound are
A. all single.
B. all double.
C. some single and some double.
D. all triple.
109. The number of carbon atoms in a benzene ring is
A. 4.
B. 5.
C. 6.
D. 8.
110. The number of electrons shared among the carbon atoms in a benzene ring is
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 6.
D. 12.
111. Photosynthesis produces
A. carbohydrates.
B. proteins.
C. lipids.
D. All of the choices are correct.
112. Amino acids are the basic units of
A. carbohydrates.
B. proteins.
C. lipids.
D. nucleic acids.
113. A double helix structure is characteristic of
A. DNA.
B. proteins.
C. carbohydrates.
D. lipids.
114. DNA controls the development and functioning of a cell by governing its manufacture of
A. carbohydrates.
B. lipids.
C. amino acids.
D. proteins.
115. Weather phenomena such as clouds and storms are found in the
A. thermosphere.
B. stratosphere.
C. troposphere.
D. ionosphere.
116. The highest of the following is/are:
A. the summit of Mt. Everest.
B. cirrus clouds.
C. the ozone layer.
D. the ionosphere.
117. The ozone in the stratosphere
A. reflects radio waves.
B. reflects solar ultraviolet radiation.
C. absorbs solar ultraviolet radiation.
D. is responsible for the blue color of the sky.
118. The breakdown of the ozone layer is promoted by the emission into the atmosphere of
A. carbon dioxide from the burning of fossil fuels.
B. sulfuric acid from the burning of fossil fuels.
C. unburned hydrocarbons in the exhausts of gasoline engines.
D. chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) gases used in refrigeration.
119. Temperatures in the stratosphere increase with altitude because of the presence there of
A. water vapor.
B. ozone.
C. pollutants.
D. CFCs.
120. When saturated air is warmed,
A. it becomes able to take up more water vapor.
B. some of its water content condenses out.
C. the relative humidity goes up.
D. snow begins to fall.
121. When the temperature of a volume of air is equal to its dew point, the relative humidity of the air is
A. 0.
B. 50%.
C. 100%.
D. 200%.
122. Air near the equator averages higher temperatures than air near the poles because
A. polar air is cooled by the ice and snow on the ground.
B. there is more carbon dioxide and water vapor in equatorial air to absorb infrared radiation from the earth.
C. sunlight falls more nearly vertically at the equator than near the poles.
D. the oceans near the equator are warmer than those near the poles.
123. At an equinox, the noon sun is
A. overhead at the north pole.
B. overhead at the equator.
C. at its highest point in the sky in the northern hemisphere.
D. at its highest point in the sky in the southern hemisphere.
124. Of the following, the gas that contributes most to global warming is
A. ozone.
B. carbon monoxide.
C. carbon dioxide.
D. methane.