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Microbiology
1. Mannitol salt agar is used to detect which of the following
a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus – detected by blood agar
c. Gonococcus
d. Fungi
2. Deoxyribonuclease in a medium inhibits which of the following:
a. Transformation – transfer of naked DNA from donor cell to recipient cell
and then recombination
b. Transduction – transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another by a
bacteriophage
c. Sexduction
d. Transintegration
3. Negri bodies are inclusion bodies seen in which of the following diseases:
a. Parkinson’s disease – Lewey bodies
b. Rheumatic fever – Aschoff bodies
c. Smallpox – Guarneri bodies
d. Rabies
4. Which of the following is the major advantage of passively acquired immunity
a. Slow onset
b. Lifetime resistance
c. Rapidly available protection
d. Less possibility of a hypersensitivity reaction
Active artificial – injection of antigen?
Active natural – exposure to the pathogen
Artificial passive – injection of antibodies; snake venom
Natural passive – natural, but we don’t make antibodies; mother’s milk; through placenta
5. Which of the following cells release interleukin 2?
a. T lymphocytes
b. B lymphocytes – release interleukin 12 and TNF alpha (tumor necrosis
factor alpha)
c. Macrophages – interleukin 1, 12, and TNF alpha
d. Natural killer cells – lysosomes release “deadly killer stuff”
Interleukin 2 is T cell growth factor
6. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus:
a. Diphtheria – caused by bacteria, Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. Tetanus – caused by bacteria
c. Malaria – caused by protozoa, Plasmodium vivax or Plasmodium
falsiparum
d. Measles – rubeola; rubella is German measles
7. The term used to designate the complete destruction of all microorganisms that
are present is:
a. Sanitization – not all organisms are killed; the product is just clean;
remove what they can, but don’t sanitize it; food and dairy industries
b. Sterilization – does not destroy prions
c. Antisepsis – retards organism growth
d. Disinfection – destruction of infectious agents
8. Fluid from a fever blister is most apt to contain
a. Varicella zoster – chicken pox
b. Staphylococcus aureus – responsible for 90% of bacterial infections on
skin; pus forming (yellow)
c. Candida albicans – thrush; yeast infection; very common in aids patients
d. Herpes simplex virus type I
e. Herpes zoster – shingles
9. Which group of bacteria are considered to be acid fast:
a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. Mycobacterium
d. Clostridium
Waxy coat
10. Which of the following organisms is coagulase positive:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Clostridium perfringes
d. Mycobacteia tuberculosis
11. Which of the following organisms lacks a cell wall:
a. Mycobacterium
b. Klebsiella
c. Streptococcus
d. Mycoplasma – has a very thin cell membrane, and doesn’t stain gram + or
gram 12. The term peritrichous refers to the distribution pattern of which of the following:
a. Endospore
b. Pili
c. Flagella
d. Ribosome
13. Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of Yaws?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Treponema pertenue – for syphilis; a spirochete
Yaws is non-venerial syphilis?
14. Which of the following conditions presents with loss of electrolytes due to rapid
loss of fluids:
a. Plague – Yersinia pestis
b. Cholera
c. Ulcerative colitis – blood in the stool
d. Osteomyelitis – infection of bone; usually Staph aureus
Vibrio cholera produces rice water stools
15. Which of the following is not related to an immune reaction:
a. T cells
b. B cells
c. Macrophages
d. Neutroph
16. Which of the following processes is responsible for the control of the spread of
Brucellosis:
a. Milk pasteurization
b. Animal quarantine
c. Wearing shoes
d. Washing hands
17. Reye’s syndrome is a rare complication of which of the following diseases
a. Measles
b. Influenza – with aspirin
c. Streptococcal pneumonia
d. Staphylococcal bronchogenic pneumonia
18. Which of the following type of immunoglobulin is found in a Type I
hypersensitivity reaction:
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM
19. Which of the following is an example of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction:
a. Bronchial asthma
b. Blood transfusion – Type II
c. Rheumatoid arthritis – Type III
d. Contact dermatitis – Type IV
20. Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the gastric mucosa
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM
21. Methyl gas is a waste product of water treatment and may be a cause of cancer of
the _____________.
a. Kidney
b. Lung
c. Bladder
d. Colon
22. Which of the following types of vaccine is used to vaccinate persons at high risk
for tuberculosis:
a. Live attenuated virus of Mycobacterium bovis
b. Tuberculosis toxoid
c. Inactivated virus
d. Live attenuated virus of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
23. At the present time there is no vaccine for which of the following conditions:
a. Rhinovirus
b. Rubeola
c. Rubella
d. Variola
24. Penicillin, cephalosporin and bacitracin act on which part of the cell:
a. Cell wall
b. Cell membrane
c. Nucleic acid synthesis
d. Protein synthesis
25. Thoroughly cooking pork is important to prevent ____________.
a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Taenia saginata – beef
c. Enterobius vermicularis – common pinworm; scotch tape is classic test
d. Ascariasis lumbricoides – roundworm; transmitted oral-fecal
26. Which of the following cells is present in an antibody to antigen reaction:
a. B lymphocyte
b. T lymphocyte
c. Neutrophil
d. Lymphocyte
e. This is a bad question
27. Which of the following is not a clinical reaction to a Type IV reaction:
a. Graft rejection
b. Arthus reaction – Type III
c. Tumor rejection
d. Contact dermatitis
28. Coliform organisms are used to detect water pollution because they are
_____________:
a. Rapid reproducers
b. Important pathogens
c. Lactose fermenters
d. Abundant in human intestines
29. Which of the following immunoglobulins crosses the placenta?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM
30. Which of the following immunoglobulins activates a Type II hypersensitivity
reaction:
a. IgG and IgM
31. Which of the following organisms produces both endotoxins and exotoxins:
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Shigella dysentery – aka baciliary dysentery; gram – with endothelial
toxin and an exotoxin (enterotoxin)
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Cornybacterium diphtheria
32. Which of the following terms is assocated with the removal of solid waste during
the water treatment process:
a. Aeration – adds oxygen to water
b. Sludge
c. Chlorination – adds chlorine
d. Sedimentation – allowing suspended solids (crap) to settle out
33. Exotoxins cause a pathological reaction in which of the following diseases:
a. Chicken pox
b. Diphtheria
c. Streptococcal sore throat
d. Yellow fever
34. The causative agent of pink eye is Haemophilus ______________.
a. Ducreyi – chancroid
b. Pertussis – whooping cough
c. Influenza – H. influenza is a bacteria, not the flu virus
d. Aegyptius
35. Which element in chlorofluorocarbon is most responsible for the depletion of
ozone:
a. Fluoride
b. Chlorine
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon
36. Which of the following is associated with an airborne carcinogen
a. Nitrous oxide
b. Carbon monoxide
c. Sulfate
d. Benzopyrene
37. The causative organisms of amoebic dysentery in humans is:
a. Balantidium coli
b. Giardia lamblia – beaver fever
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Salmonella typhosa
38. The cyst is the infectious stage in the larvae of _________________.
a. Giardia lamblia – quadra nucleated cyst is the infectious stage
b. Enterobius vermicularis – pinworm; eggs are infectious
c. Ascariasis lumbricoides – eggs; roundworm
d. Necatur americanus – hookworm; filiform larvae
39. Which of the following is the causative organism of gas gangrene:
a. Clostridium tetani – tetanus; lock jaw
b. Clostridium perfringes
c. Staphylococcus aureus – 90% of skin infections
d. Clostridium botulinum – food poisoning
40. Which of the following is most responsible for botulism in an infant:
a. Raw honey
b. Raw milk
c. Raw sewage
d. Rusted nails
41. Which of the following diseases has been eliminated from society:
a. Rubella – German measles
b. Rubeola – red measles
c. Varicella – chicken pox and shingles
d. Variola – small pox
42. If there is RNA in the medium, which recombinant process will be halted:
a. Transduction
b. Conjugation
c. Transcription
d. Sexduction
43. Which of the following cells secretes histamine:
a. Lymphocytes
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils
44. Which of the following best describes the effect on the cellular membrane when
treated with warm moist heat:
a. Cell lysis
b. Denaturation of protein
c. Cell swelling
d. Cell shrinkage
45. Which of the following forms of hepatitis occurs as a result of a transfusion:
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. E
A – mouth; oral-fecal
B – blood
C – blood
D – blood
E – bum; oral-fecal
46. Which of the following Federal agencies is responsible for laboratory experiment
standards:
a. NIH
47. The ELISA test is used in the diagnosis of which of the following:
a. TB – Mantoux; acid fast stain
b. Chicken pox
c. Hepatitis
d. AIDS
48. Which of the following Federal agencies is responsible for establishing standards
in a work environment?
a. NIH
b. CDC
c. OSHA
d. Department of Agriculture
49. Which of the following organisms is described as pear shaped, has double nuclei
and four pairs of flagella
a. Giardia
b. Plasma toxin
c. Escherichia coli – 3 pairs of flagella; common in UTI’s
d. Chlamydia – leading cause of preventable blindness in the world
50. Which of the following agencies is responsible for funding of research:
a. NIH
b. CDC
c. EPA
d. FDA
51. Which of the following pioneers discovered that washing your hands prior to
gynecological examination of women in labor could prevent puerperal sepsis
a. Semelweis
b. Lister
c. Pasteur
d. Koch
52. Which of the following organisms is predominant in the San Joaquin Valley:
a. Coccidioides immitis – systemic fungal infections; endemic to SW USA;
“Mr. Fungus cocks his gun in the SW”
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Taenia solium – tapeworm
d. Taenia Saginata – tapeworm
53. Which of the following conditions is diagnosed by means of a blood smear:
a. Plasmodium falciparum
b. Entamoeba histolytica – intestinal protazoa
c. Escherichia coli
d. Giardia lamblia
54. Which part of bacterial alteration is used to induce an immune reaction on the part
of the body to pneumonia
a. Capsule
b. Toxoid
c. Lipopolysaccharide
d. Cell wall
55. Which of the following is responsible for atypical primary pneumonia
a. Mycoplamsa pneumoniae – has no cell wall; penicillin is not effective
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
c. Legionella pneumoniae
d. Chlamydia psittici
56. A mycologist studies which of the following:
a. Fungus
b. Bacteria
c. Virus
d. Protozoa
57. Which of the following is considered to be a fish tapeworm?
a. Taenia solium – pork
b. Taenia saginata – beef
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulose – dog
58. The most common mode of transmission of disease among farmers is:
a. Direct contact
b. Molded grass
c. Fomites
d. Inhalation
59. Which of the following diseases presents with ataxia, hypotonia, hypotonic
bladder and hypesthesia in the lower limbs:
a. Syringomyelin
b. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
c. Tabes dorsalis – tertiary syphilis
d. Poliomyelitis
60. Diphylobatirum latum is a cause of which of the following:
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Megaloblastic anemia
c. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
61. Legionnaires disease is transmitted by which of the following:
a. Drinking water
b. Food
c. Droplets
d. Inhalation
62. Which of the following causes Woolsorter’s disease
a. Drinking polluted water
b. Ingestion of beef
c. Ingestion of pork
d. Inhalation of dust from animal dander
63. Which of the following organisms produces blue green pus:
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Serratia marcescens
d. Staphylococcus aureus
64. Which of the following is the vector of malaria
a. Deer tick
b. Female anopheles mosquito
c. Aedes aegypti mosquito
d. Tse Tse fly
65. Which of the following organisms is not transmitted through milk:
a. Coxiella burnetti
b. Salmonella typhosa
c. Brucella abortus
d. Francisella tularensis
66. Which of the following organisms produces a fowl smelling discharge:
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Escherichia coli
c. Neisseria gonorrhea
d. Chlamydia trachomatis
67. Generalized urethritis is associated with which of the following organisms
a. Candida albicans
b. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. Neisseria gonorrhea
d. Neisseria meningitides
68. Which of the following is a gram negative organism:
a. Neisseria gonorrhea
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Escherichia coli